Chapter 3 - Flying Your Aircraft Flashcards
(329 cards)
1
Q
What are the two types of flight rules an aircraft may be flown under?
A
VFR or IFR
2
Q
Under what conditions may a Part 103 aircraft be flown?
A
Only by day under the VFR
3
Q
What is required for VFR flight navigation regarding position fixing?
A
Fix the aircraft’s position by visual reference to features marked on topographical charts at intervals not exceeding 30 minutes
4
Q
When navigating over the sea, which visual reference features may be used?
A
- Rocks
- Reefs
- Fixed human-made objects marked on topographical charts
5
Q
What must be complied with if not navigating by visual reference?
A
The requirements of IFR flight
6
Q
What must be approved for flight under a specified navigation performance value?
A
- Aircraft flight manual (AFM)
- Document approved under CASR Part 21
- Document approved by the national aviation authority for foreign-registered aircraft
7
Q
What is required for any global navigation satellite system (GNSS) equipment?
A
It must be approved
8
Q
What conditions may make visual navigation impracticable?
A
- Flight above more than scattered cloud
- Over featureless land areas
- Over sea
9
Q
What is a positive radio fix?
A
Determined by the passage of the aircraft over various NAVAIDs
10
Q
List the types of NAVAIDs that can be used for a positive radio fix.
A
- Non-directional beacon (NDB)
- VHF omni-directional radio range (VOR)
- Tactical air navigation aid (TACAN)
- Marker beacon
- Distance measuring equipment (DME) site
- Intersection of position lines from NDBs, VORs, or DMEs
- GNSS meeting the equipment requirements of AIP GEN 1.5
11
Q
What criteria must be followed for VFR flight visibility?
A
Must comply with visual meteorological conditions (VMC) criteria
12
Q
What is the visibility requirement for a VFR flight at or above 10,000 ft AMSL?
A
8,000 m (8 km) flight visibility
13
Q
What is the horizontal distance from cloud requirement for VFR flights at or above 10,000 ft AMSL?
A
1,500 m horizontal and 1,000 ft vertical
14
Q
What is the visibility requirement for Class D controlled airspace?
A
5,000 m (5 km) flight visibility
15
Q
What is the distance from cloud requirement in Class D controlled airspace?
A
600 m horizontal; 1,000 ft vertical above cloud, 500 ft vertical below cloud
16
Q
What are the operational requirements for helicopters operating below 700 ft over land?
A
Must be conducted by day and at a speed that allows the pilot to see obstructions
17
Q
What is a special VFR clearance?
A
A clearance for flight in controlled airspace when VMC do not exist
18
Q
What is the visibility requirement for aeroplanes operating under special VFR clearance?
A
Not less than 1,600 m
19
Q
What is the visibility requirement for helicopters operating under special VFR clearance?
A
Not less than 800 m
20
Q
What must a pilot ensure when conducting a flight under special VFR clearance?
A
- Conducted clear of cloud
- Visibility criteria met
21
Q
What is a special VFR clearance?
A
A clearance issued by ATC for flight in a CTR or CTA when VMC do not exist, allowing entry or exit of the CTR without undue delay to IFR flights
This clearance is requested by the pilot under specific conditions outlined in CASR 91 MOS 2.01.
22
Q
What visibility is required for helicopters under special VFR clearance?
A
Not less than 800 m
This requirement is crucial for the safe operation of helicopters in controlled airspace.
23
Q
What conditions must be met for VFR flight on top of more than SCT cloud?
A
- VMC must be maintained during the entire flight
- Visual position fixing or IFR navigation requirements must be met
- Current forecasts and observations indicate VMC for descent
- Descent point allows continuation of flight in VMC
These conditions ensure that pilots can safely navigate and descend through cloud layers.
24
Q
What must be checked before take-off according to CASR 91.245?
A
- Availability of aerodromes, air routes, and airway facilities
- Relevant NOTAMs
- GNSS integrity
- Functionality of required equipment
- Accessibility of emergency equipment
- Crew fitness
- Secured hatches and fuel caps
- Removal of control locks and safety devices
- Maintenance release or certificate of service
- Functionality of flight controls
- Accuracy of pressure altitude measuring systems
These checks are essential for ensuring flight safety and compliance with regulations.
25
What inspections must be performed for fuel system preparation?
* Inspections for water contamination in the fuel system
* Drain samples from each fuel tank to check for water
* Check fuel system filters and collector boxes at frequent intervals
## Footnote
Ensuring fuel quality is critical for safe flight operations.
26
What should be included in a passenger safety briefing before take-off?
* No manipulation of controls by passengers in control seats
* Smoking rules
* Seat belt usage
* Brace position instructions
* Emergency exits and evacuation procedures
* Oxygen usage instructions
* Baggage stowage guidelines
* Life jacket usage instructions
## Footnote
This briefing is vital for passenger safety and compliance with CASR 91.565.
27
What must passengers do according to CASR 91.575?
Comply with safety directions given by the pilot
## Footnote
Compliance is crucial for maintaining safety during flights.
28
What is QNH in aviation altimetry?
An atmospheric pressure adjusted to sea level, measured in hPa or millibars
## Footnote
Setting QNH allows the altimeter to read elevation above mean sea level (AMSL).
29
What is the difference between area QNH and local QNH?
* Area QNH: Altimeter setting forecast within ±5 hPa of any actual QNH in a geographical area
* Local QNH: Altimeter setting in aerodrome terminal area forecast or reported by services like ATIS
## Footnote
Understanding these terms is important for accurate altitude readings.
30
What are the requirements for checking altimeter accuracy before take-off?
* Known site elevation
* Accurate QNH available
## Footnote
These checks are necessary to ensure safe altitude readings during flight.
31
What elevations are depicted in instrument approaches?
Elevations are depicted at both the aerodrome reference point (ARP) and threshold of each runway.
32
What elevations do aerodromes depicted in En Route Supplement Australia (ERSA) provide?
Only the aerodrome reference point elevation.
33
What is the difference between the aerodrome reference point and the runway threshold elevation?
There can be a difference between the two elevations.
34
What is the maximum allowable error for a VFR altimeter to read site elevation accurately?
100 ft, or 110 ft at test sites above 3,300 ft.
35
What should you do if an altimeter reads erroneously by more than 100 ft during VFR flight?
Consider the erroneous altimeter as inoperative for further use.
36
What is QNH?
QNH is the atmospheric pressure at sea level, adjusted for temperature and humidity.
## Footnote
QNH is considered accurate only if provided by specific authorized sources.
37
List the sources from which QNH must be obtained.
* Automatic aerodrome information service (AAIS)
* Air traffic control (ATC)
* Aerodrome automatic terminal information service (ATIS)
* Automatic weather information service (AWIS)
* Certified air/ground radio service (CA/GRS)
* Weather and terminal information reciter (WATIR)
## Footnote
QNH from an authorized weather forecast must not be used for checking pressure altimeter accuracy.
38
What is site elevation and how must it be derived?
Site elevation must be derived from aerodrome survey data authorized in writing by CASA or NAA, or supplied in writing by the relevant aerodrome operator.
39
What are the specified VFR cruising levels?
VFR cruising levels must be specified according to the aircraft track, with exceptions under certain conditions.
40
True or False: VFR flights in Class A airspace must be approved.
True
## Footnote
Refer to CASR 91.285 for specific regulations.
41
What is the transition altitude within the Australian flight information region (FIR)?
10,000 ft.
42
What must you set your altimeter to when flying below the transition altitude?
* Current local QNH
* Current forecast area QNH
## Footnote
QNH must be obtained from authorized reporting stations.
43
What is not permitted when flying within the transition layer?
Cruising within the transition layer is not permitted.
44
What must be done when climbing above 10,000 ft?
Change from QNH to 1,013.2 hPa after passing 10,000 ft and before leveling off.
45
What types of airspace classifications exist?
* Non-controlled airspace (Class G/E)
* Controlled airspace (Classes A, C, D, E)
## Footnote
Class E airspace has different requirements for VFR and IFR aircraft.
46
Fill in the blank: The classes of airspace in Australia are generally aligned with those specified by the __________.
[International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)]
47
What service is provided in Class A airspace?
ATC service.
48
What is the separation provided in Class G airspace?
Nil.
49
What must be fitted to aircraft flying in A, C, D, and E airspace?
A transponder.
50
What is required for operations above 5,000 ft AMSL in Class G airspace?
VHF radio.
51
What is Class A airspace?
Controlled airspace for IFR flights only; VFR not permitted unless approved.
52
What types of flights are permitted in Class C airspace?
Both IFR and VFR flights are permitted and subject to ATC clearance.
53
What is required for IFR flights in Class D airspace?
All flights are subject to ATC clearance; IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights.
54
In Class E airspace, what service do IFR flights receive?
Traffic information on known VFR flights, as far as practicable.
55
What is the nature of Class G airspace?
Non-controlled airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and receive flight information service if requested.
56
What are the two types of airspace reservations?
* Fixed defined areas
* Mobile areas (e.g., aerial fuelling, en route formation flights)
57
What is a restricted area?
Airspace within which the flight of aircraft is restricted in accordance with specified conditions.
58
What does a danger area signify?
Airspace within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may exist at specified times.
59
What letters are used to identify prohibited, restricted, and danger areas?
* P - Prohibited area
* R - Restricted area
* D - Danger area
* M - Military operating area
60
When flying in a danger area, what should the operator and pilot do?
Take precautions and make contacts as a reasonable pilot would in similar circumstances.
61
What are the conditions for flying in restricted areas?
Must not enter an active restricted area without authorization.
62
What is the RA1 conditional status?
Pilots may flight plan through the restricted area and normally expect a clearance from ATC.
63
What does RA3 indicate regarding flight planning?
Pilots must not flight plan through the restricted area and clearance will not be available.
64
What must civil aircraft operating in military restricted areas do?
Request a clearance to transit a MOA and may have conditions of entry imposed.
65
What is the common traffic advisory frequency (CTAF) at non-controlled aerodromes?
126.7 MHz or the discrete CTAF frequency as published on the chart.
66
What is an Air Defence Identification Zone (ADIZ)?
A zone established for air defense that is promulgated by NOTAM and/or Aeronautical Information Circular.
67
What is required for transponder surveillance equipment on aircraft?
Must meet relevant operational and airspace requirements.
68
When must transponders be continuously operated?
Unless ATC has issued an instruction otherwise.
69
What is the implication of continuous operation for a transponder?
Enables a secondary surveillance radar (SSR) response to be transmitted.
70
What is the requirement for transponders fitted or carried on an aircraft?
Transponders must be continuously operated
## Footnote
Continuous operation implies that the equipment must be operated in a mode enabling SSR response and altitude reporting if available.
71
Under what condition is an aircraft not required to operate a transponder when flying in formation?
If a transponder is always operated by another aircraft in formation or in-company
## Footnote
This exception applies unless otherwise required by ATC.
72
If an aircraft is fitted with more than one transponder, how many should be operated at any time?
Only one transponder should be operated at any time.
73
What must the Mode A code be set to if a transponder is fitted?
To the transponder code assigned by ATC or the relevant standard code
## Footnote
Standard codes vary based on flight conditions.
74
Fill in the blank: The emergency code for unlawful interference is _______.
7500
75
What is the Mode A code for IFR flights in class G airspace?
2000
76
What must be activated if equipped with a Mode 3A or Mode S transponder?
The transponder must be activated, and Mode C must be activated if available.
77
What should you do with the transponder when departing from a radar-controlled aerodrome?
Leave the transponder selected to Standby until entering the departure runway.
78
What should a pilot encountering an emergency in flight select on the transponder?
Code 7700 unless maintaining the assigned code is safer.
79
What code must be set on the transponder if losing two-way communications?
Code 7600
80
What is SARWATCH?
Search and rescue watch
## Footnote
It refers to monitoring for search and rescue operations.
81
What information must pilots provide to cancel SARWATCH?
Aircraft radio callsign, place of arrival, the words 'Cancel SARWATCH'.
82
What is SARTIME?
The time that search action is required.
83
How can a pilot cancel SARTIME for departure?
By telephone to the automated centralised SARTIME database or via ATS frequencies.
84
What must pilots do if they wish to extend SARWATCH during landing and subsequent take-off?
Nominate a SARTIME for departure upon arriving at an aerodrome.
85
What operational information can typically be requested from ATS?
Meteorological conditions, air routes, navigational aids, ATS procedures, maps, and regulations.
86
Fill in the blank: The code for in-flight emergencies unless instructed otherwise by ATC is _______.
7700
87
What is a non-controlled aerodrome?
An aerodrome where air traffic control is not operating.
88
What types of aircraft operations might occur at non-controlled aerodromes?
* Larger passenger-carrying turboprop aircraft
* Jets
* Agricultural aircraft
* Training aircraft
* Sport and recreational aircraft
* Military aircraft
89
What is required for pilots flying to a certified aerodrome?
Pilots must be equipped with a VHF radio.
90
What are the three types of non-controlled aerodromes?
* Aerodromes always in Class G airspace
* Aerodromes with a control tower but no ATC service
* Aerodromes that normally have ATC service but it is temporarily unavailable
91
What is the requirement for radio-equipped aircraft at non-controlled aerodromes?
Pilots must maintain a continuous listening watch.
92
What should pilots do when flying at non-controlled aerodromes where the carriage of radio is not mandatory?
Monitor their radios and broadcast their intentions according to minimum required calls.
93
Define 'in the vicinity' of a non-controlled aerodrome.
An aircraft is in the vicinity if it is: * in uncontrolled airspace
* within 10 NM of the aerodrome
* at a height above the aerodrome that could result in conflict with operations.
94
What must pilots do when operating on the manoeuvring area of a non-controlled aerodrome?
* Keep a lookout for other aircraft
* Ensure their aircraft does not endanger other aircraft
* Join or avoid the circuit pattern
* For an aeroplane, take off or land within the aerodrome landing area.
95
What is recommended for pilots of radio-equipped aircraft at non-controlled aerodromes?
Use standard aerodrome traffic circuit procedures and radio broadcasts.
96
What should pilots do with their transponders when near a non-controlled aerodrome?
Ensure the transponder is switched to ON/ALT (Mode C).
97
What should pilots do in case of a radio failure?
Select and squawk code 7600 in Mode C on their transponders.
98
What should pilots maintain vigilance for according to CASR 91.325?
To see and avoid other traffic.
99
What is the minimum distance from which an aircraft must not commence a take-off until a preceding aircraft has vacated the runway?
An aircraft must not commence a take-off until the preceding landing aircraft has vacated the runway.
100
What should pilots do when operating in the circuit pattern?
* Join the circuit upwind, crosswind, or downwind
* Landings and take-offs should be made on the active runway.
101
What is the standard circuit speed for high performance aircraft?
Above approximately 150 kt.
102
What altitude should low performance aircraft maintain in the standard traffic circuit?
500 ft above aerodrome elevation.
103
When should the turn onto final approach be completed?
By not less than 500 ft above aerodrome elevation.
104
What is the maximum speed for aircraft in the circuit?
200 kt.
105
What should pilots do when departing the circuit area?
Extend one of the standard circuit legs or climb to depart overhead.
106
Fill in the blank: An aircraft must land and take-off into _______ unless otherwise permitted.
[wind]
107
What is the recommendation for the use of external lights when in the vicinity of a non-controlled aerodrome?
Pilots are encouraged to turn on external lights when in the vicinity.
108
What should aircraft do to depart the aerodrome circuit area?
Extend one of the standard circuit legs or climb to depart overhead
## Footnote
Aircraft should not execute a turn against the circuit direction unless well outside the circuit area.
109
What is the minimum distance a departing aircraft should be from the departure end of the runway before turning against the circuit direction?
At least 3 NM
## Footnote
This distance may be less for aircraft with high climb performance.
110
What should pilots be aware of when departing the aerodrome?
Traffic intending to join the circuit by the recommended overfly procedure
## Footnote
This traffic can be 2,000 ft or more above aerodrome elevation.
111
What is expected of pilots departing and arriving at non-controlled aerodromes where radio carriage is mandatory?
Monitor their radios and broadcast their intentions
## Footnote
Additional broadcasts should be made to minimize any risk of collision.
112
What should a pilot do if they are unfamiliar with the aerodrome layout?
Use the overfly procedure
## Footnote
Overfly or circle the aerodrome at least 500 ft above the circuit altitude.
113
What altitude should an aircraft maintain when overflying the aerodrome?
At least 500 ft above the circuit altitude
## Footnote
Circuit altitude may be 2,000 ft or more above the aerodrome elevation.
114
Where should an aircraft descend when arriving and intending to join the circuit from overhead?
On the non-active side of the circuit
## Footnote
This is to ensure the aircraft is established at circuit altitude before crossing the runway centerline.
115
What is the recommended method for arriving on the active side of the circuit?
Arrive at circuit altitude entering midfield at approximately 45° to the downwind leg
## Footnote
Give way to aircraft already established in the circuit.
116
What should be maintained on the downwind leg?
Applicable circuit altitude until the commencement of the base leg turn
## Footnote
Maintain traffic separation during this phase.
117
What should a pilot confirm on the final leg before landing?
That the runway is clear for landing
## Footnote
This is crucial for safe landing operations.
118
What should a pilot do if they elect to go around?
Keep other traffic in sight and maintain a safe distance from all aircraft
## Footnote
Re-join the circuit when it is safe to do so.
119
Fill in the blank: Low-performance ultralight aircraft and rotorcraft should overfly midfield at _______ above aerodrome elevation.
500 ft
## Footnote
This minimizes the risk of conflict with higher or faster traffic.
120
What must be determined before commencing a straight-in approach at a non-controlled aerodrome?
Wind direction and the runways in use
## Footnote
This is crucial for safe landing operations.
121
By how many nautical miles must you be established on final approach before landing at a non-controlled aerodrome?
At least 3 NM from the threshold of the runway
## Footnote
This applies unless conducting an instrument approach or piloting a specific Part 103 aircraft.
122
Which aircraft types are exempt from the 3 NM final approach requirement?
* Sailplanes (except powered ones)
* Hang gliders
* Paragliders
## Footnote
This exemption exists to reduce collision risks with faster aircraft.
123
What should you do if you choose to adopt a straight-in approach?
Ensure it does not disrupt or conflict with circuit traffic and give way to any aircraft in the circuit pattern
## Footnote
Continuous traffic monitoring is essential.
124
What should be announced when conducting a straight-in approach?
Your intention to conduct a straight-in approach
## Footnote
This should be included in your inbound broadcast.
125
When should you not commence a straight-in approach?
When the reciprocal runway is being used by aircraft already established in the circuit
## Footnote
This helps avoid conflicts during landing.
126
What is the recommended altitude for joining the circuit for ultralight aircraft?
500 ft above aerodrome elevation
## Footnote
This altitude helps ensure separation from other traffic.
127
What should pilots of ultralight aircraft be cautious of when operating near larger aircraft?
* Difficulty in visibility
* Wake turbulence hazards
* Speed differences
## Footnote
Larger aircraft can create significant risks for ultralights.
128
What is the maximum take-off weight for ultralight aircraft?
Up to 355 kg
## Footnote
Stall speeds can be as low as 35 knots for some ultralight aircraft.
129
What must pilots do after landing at a non-controlled aerodrome?
Vacate the runway strip as soon as practicable
## Footnote
Stopping on the runway strip is not permitted.
130
What operations can occur at non-controlled aerodromes?
* Passenger air transport
* Glider operations
* Helicopter operations
* Aerial application
* Parachuting
## Footnote
This diversity necessitates adherence to safety protocols.
131
What is a double white cross displayed adjacent to the windsock indicative of?
Gliding operations are in progress
## Footnote
This symbol alerts pilots to the presence of gliders.
132
What should helicopter pilots do to avoid fixed-wing traffic during landing?
Avoid the flow of fixed-wing aircraft
## Footnote
Helicopter operations can be more flexible, but safety must be prioritized.
133
What must pilots of aerial application aircraft do?
* Be fitted with a radio
* Maintain a listening watch
* Broadcast intentions on the CTAF
## Footnote
Priority should be given to other traffic during operations.
134
What are the requirements for balloon pilots operating within 3 NM of a non-controlled aerodrome?
They must hold a current commercial pilot (balloon) licence, CAR certificate of validation, or CASA authorisation
## Footnote
This ensures compliance with safety regulations.
135
What is crucial for pilots conducting parachuting operations?
Communication with the parachuting drop aircraft
## Footnote
This helps avoid conflicts in the airspace.
136
What should be the overfly height for high-performance traffic in the circuit?
No lower than 2,000 ft above aerodrome elevation
## Footnote
This helps mitigate risks associated with larger aircraft.
137
What is the recommended procedure for take-offs and landings at non-controlled aerodromes?
Use the runway most closely aligned into wind
## Footnote
This aids in maintaining safety and performance.
138
What must pilots of RPA operations do?
* Maintain a listening watch
* Broadcast their intentions on the CTAF
## Footnote
RPA must separate from other traffic during operations.
139
What is the minimum runway length that can accommodate jet or large turboprop aircraft operations?
1,400 m
## Footnote
Runway lengths are published in ERSA.
140
What is the recommended overfly height for aerodromes with high-performance traffic in the circuit?
No lower than 2,000 ft above aerodrome elevation.
141
Is take-off or landing downwind recommended as a standard procedure?
No, it is not recommended.
142
What should pilots use for take-off and landing whenever possible?
The runway most closely aligned into wind (the active runway).
143
What must pilots operate within according to CASR 91.095?
The limitations prescribed in the AFM.
144
What hazard should pilots consider when planning to take off or land downwind?
Wind strength just above ground level may be significantly higher than indicated by the windsock.
145
What are the effects of windshear during take-off? (List at least two)
* Higher groundspeed at lift-off
* Longer take-off distance required
* Shallower angle of climb
* Degraded obstacle clearance
* Higher groundspeed during emergency landing.
146
What are the effects of windshear during landing? (List at least two)
* Higher groundspeed at touchdown
* Longer landing distance required.
147
What is wake turbulence and why is it hazardous?
Wake turbulence is produced by all aircraft and can be extremely hazardous, especially from large aircraft.
148
How should smaller aircraft position themselves in relation to larger aircraft to avoid wake turbulence?
With sufficient spacing in the traffic circuit.
149
What hazard does a hovering or slow air-taxiing helicopter create?
Rotor downwash that can be a hazard to all nearby aircraft.
150
What should pilots of small aircraft do near helicopters?
Avoid operating close to helicopters.
151
Where is windshear most dangerous?
Close to terrain.
152
What are dust devils and where are they commonly found?
Visible windshear common at outback aerodromes.
153
What should pilots do if they encounter windshear?
Consider an immediate maximum-performance climb.
154
What is the most hazardous area for collisions at non-controlled aerodromes?
A space bounded by a cylinder of airspace 5 NM in diameter and up to 3,000 ft elevation.
155
What should inbound pilots do to minimize distractions in the cockpit?
Minimise distractions and brief passengers not to distract the pilot unless there is imminent danger.
156
What is essential for maintaining separation during the approach?
Good height and speed control, including use of flaps.
157
What should pilots do if adequate separation cannot be maintained during approach?
Initiate a go-around sooner rather than later.
158
What should pilots have a sound understanding of to prevent collisions?
The rules for establishing the right of way.
159
What traffic patterns should helicopter pilots follow at aerodromes with both glider and helicopter operations?
Standard traffic patterns to avoid gliders flying modified circuit patterns.
160
What increased collision risks exist at non-controlled aerodromes?
Increased collision risks exist if instrument approaches are conducted during reduced visibility while VFR conditions exist below the low-visibility layer.
## Footnote
Pilots flying an instrument approach may suddenly encounter a VFR aircraft in the circuit.
161
What should VFR pilots do upon hearing IFR pilots broadcasting their intentions?
VFR pilots are expected to respond promptly to establish situational awareness with the IFR aircraft.
## Footnote
Useful information for IFR pilots includes aircraft type, position, and flight intentions.
162
What is the responsibility of VFR pilots regarding cloud and visibility?
VFR pilots must remain clear of cloud and maintain in-flight visibility in accordance with VMC criteria.
163
What should pilots who wish to practice instrument approaches in VMC be alert for?
Pilots should be particularly alert for other aircraft in the circuit to avoid impeding the flow of traffic.
164
How should IFR pilots communicate their position?
IFR pilots should give position reports in plain English, including altitude, distance, and direction from the aerodrome.
165
What is the purpose of Surveillance Information Service (SIS)?
SIS is available to improve situational awareness and assist pilots in avoiding collisions with other aircraft.
166
What must pilots do to receive a Surveillance Information Service?
Pilots must be in direct VHF communications with ATC and equipped with a serviceable SSR transponder or ADS-B transmitter.
167
What should VFR flights entering Class E airspace do?
VFR flights entering Class E airspace should avoid published IFR routes, monitor the appropriate Class E frequency, and take appropriate action to avoid potential conflict.
168
What is required when operating at a controlled aerodrome?
You must obtain ATC clearance when taxiing on any part of the manoeuvring area, entering, crossing, or backtracking on a runway, taking off, or landing.
169
What must pilots do before entering Class D airspace?
Pilots must establish communication with the relevant ATC tower if ATC is active.
170
What are the responsibilities of pilots operating in Class C airspace?
Pilots must notify ATC if the aircraft's deviation from track exceeds specified tolerances and maintain 500 ft above the lower limit of the CTA steps.
171
When must pilots request a clearance to operate in Class C or D airspace?
Pilots must advise position, level, flight conditions, and receipt of ATIS when making first contact with ATC.
172
What is the protocol for requesting a clearance if communication is not possible before take-off?
Request a clearance after take-off, provided the aircraft does not enter the control area until cleared.
173
What should pilots do if issued a clearance requiring unavailable navigation aids?
Pilots must advise ATC if issued a clearance requiring the use of navigation aids not available to the aircraft.
174
What happens if a pilot's clearance is amended?
A control instruction issued after a clearance amends the appropriate item in the clearance.
175
What is the responsibility of pilots in maintaining separation in controlled airspace?
The separation of aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area is a joint pilot and controller responsibility.
176
What information is provided to pilots when a separation standard does not exist?
ATC will provide traffic information when the proximity of the aircraft warrants this information.
177
True or False: VFR flights require a clearance to enter Class E airspace.
False
178
Fill in the blank: VFR pilots receiving a SIS will be provided with _______.
traffic information
179
What is the purpose of the alerting service provided by ATC?
It is provided for all aircraft receiving ATC service and, as far as practicable, to all other aircraft that have filed a flight plan.
180
What does ATC provide when a separation standard does not exist in controlled airspace?
Traffic information to the aircraft concerned
## Footnote
This information is provided based on the air traffic controller's opinion regarding the proximity of the aircraft.
181
What information does ATC traffic information include?
* Type
* Altitude
* Position (clock reference, bearing and distance, relation to a geographical point, reported position and estimate)
* Intentions or direction of flight
## Footnote
This information helps pilots identify other aircraft.
182
When must you request approval to start engines?
When notified by ATIS, NOTAM, AIP Supplement, ATC, or ERSA
## Footnote
These are standard notifications for engine start procedures.
183
What must pilots do before taxiing at a controlled aerodrome with ATIS in operation?
Obtain the ATIS and advise ATC of the ATIS code
## Footnote
This is crucial for ensuring effective communication and safety.
184
What does a taxi clearance regulate?
Movement on the manoeuvring area
## Footnote
It ensures safety and separation between aircraft.
185
What should you do when vacating a holding bay?
Give way to aircraft on the taxiway
## Footnote
This is to prevent collisions on the manoeuvring area.
186
What must a taxi instruction include if the taxi limit goes beyond a runway?
'Cross runway (number)' instruction
## Footnote
This ensures clarity about crossing runways.
187
What must you do at illuminated stop bars?
Stop and hold
## Footnote
You may proceed only when the stop bar lights are switched off.
188
What must you do if you wish to use less than the full length of the runway available?
Nominate the intention when requesting your taxi clearance
## Footnote
This allows ATC to manage runway usage effectively.
189
What information does ATC provide for take-off?
* Runway or direction
* Wind direction and speed
* QNH
* Temperature and/or dew point (if required)
* Time check to the nearest half-minute
* Crosswind component
* Tailwind component
* Aerodrome surface conditions
* Known weather information
* Bird hazards
* Maintenance work within 23 m of the runway side-stripe marking
## Footnote
This information ensures pilots can prepare for safe take-off.
190
What are the conditions under which ATC will not nominate a runway for use?
* Alternate runway is preferable due to low cloud, thunderstorms, or poor visibility
* Crosswind component exceeds 20 kt for dry runways
* Downwind component exceeds 5 kt for dry runways
* Crosswind component exceeds 20 kt for not completely dry runways
* Presence of a downwind component for not completely dry runways
## Footnote
These conditions prioritize safety and operational effectiveness.
191
What must you do if the runway is not suitable for your operation?
Advise ATC by using the phrase ‘Require runway (number)’
## Footnote
This request does not result in a loss of priority.
192
What should you report on your first contact with center, approach, or departures in Class C and Class D control zones?
* Assigned initial heading
* Direction of turn
* Assigned heading
* Altitude passing to the nearest 100 ft
* Last assigned level
## Footnote
This ensures ATC has accurate information for managing traffic.
193
What must you do when frequency change instructions are issued immediately before take-off?
Change frequency automatically from the tower frequency as soon as practicable after take-off
## Footnote
This should be done preferably within one nautical mile of becoming airborne.
194
What must you do if you deviate from your route or track in controlled airspace?
Obtain prior clearance from ATC, except in an emergency
## Footnote
Deviations due to weather also require clearance.
195
What must you report when you leave a level in controlled airspace?
When the aircraft has left a level at which level flight has been conducted
## Footnote
This includes climbs, cruises, or descents.
196
What happens when a flight is cleared to operate within a block level?
The pilot has freedom to change levels within the block, provided upper and lower levels are not exceeded
## Footnote
A block level clearance can be canceled or amended if another aircraft requests the use of a level within the block.
197
True or False: You must not hold on the runway in use unless permission is obtained from ATC.
True
## Footnote
Holding on the runway without permission can lead to unsafe situations.
198
What must pilots do when awaiting clearance to enter controlled airspace?
Choose one of the options below
## Footnote
Options are not specified in the provided content.
199
What altitude does ATC assign to aircraft estimated to arrive first over a holding fix?
The lowest available level for assignment.
200
When will ATC advise an expected approach time or expected landing time?
When a delay of six minutes or more is expected.
201
What must pilots advise ATC of when holding due to weather conditions?
Scheduled reporting times at normally 15-minute intervals.
202
When must you depart from the hold as advised by ATC?
On time, or up to one minute ahead of time.
203
What must you report when leaving the holding fix unless identified?
Report leaving the holding fix.
204
What must VFR flights do before reaching the boundary of Class C airspace?
Establish two-way communications with ATC.
205
What should you advise ATC before entering Class C airspace without advance notification?
‘(Aircraft callsign) inbound/transit details’.
206
What details must be provided to ATC after initial contact when entering Class C airspace?
* Flight rules and aircraft type
* Position
* Route and next estimate
* Preferred level.
207
What must you obtain before the first contact on the approach frequency if landing at an ATIS-provided aerodrome?
Obtain the ATIS.
208
What does the clearance to enter Class C airspace specify?
Altitude, track, and any holding instructions.
209
When can ATC give you a visual approach?
When you are within 30 NM of the aerodrome.
210
What are the tracking requirements for a visual approach during the day?
Maintain track/heading until within 5 NM of the aerodrome.
211
What are the minimum altitude requirements for VFR flights during a visual approach at night?
Maintain not less than the lowest altitude permissible for VFR flight until within 3 NM of the aerodrome.
212
What must you do if you lose sight of another arriving aircraft during a visual approach?
Advise ATC immediately.
213
What information will ATC provide for landing operations?
* Runway or direction
* Wind direction and speed
* QNH
* Known significant weather information
* Time check (if specified)
* Crosswind component
* Tailwind component
* Aerodrome surface conditions
* Birds and other hazards
* Wake turbulence advice.
214
What must you do if the nominated runway or direction is not operationally suitable?
Advise ATC using the phrase ‘Require runway (number)’.
215
When must you report ‘downwind’ during circuit training?
When starting or entering the downwind leg of the traffic circuit.
216
What must you not do without specific clearance from ATC?
Land.
217
What must you do if required to go around from a visual approach in VMC?
Climb on the runway track and remain visual while awaiting ATC instructions.
218
What must you do after landing unless specified otherwise by ATC?
* Promptly vacate the runway without backtracking
* Change to surface movement control frequency when vacating the runway strip.
219
What must you do before crossing any runway that intersects the taxi route?
Receive a taxi instruction and a ‘Cross runway (number)’ instruction from ATC.
220
What must you do when issued a taxi instruction limit of the holding point of a runway?
Subsequently be issued with an instruction to ‘Cross runway (number)’.
221
What is required for operations in Class D airspace?
A clearance is required for all flights except in an emergency.
222
What constitutes a clearance for entry into Class D airspace?
Establishment of two-way communications between the aircraft and ATC.
223
What should you ensure while flying in Class D airspace?
Maintain a good lookout and listening watch on the relevant radio frequency.
224
What information must VFR flights provide on first contact with ATC when wishing to depart without submitting flight notification?
* Aircraft callsign and ‘DETAILS’
* Destination and first tracking point
* Preferred level
* Identification of ATIS code received.
225
What is the maximum speed limit for aircraft operating at or below 2,500 ft AAL within 4 NM of the primary Class D aerodrome?
200 kt.
226
What is the responsibility of pilots and controllers regarding aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area?
It is a joint responsibility.
227
What specific clearance is required to taxi, enter, cross, or backtrack on a runway?
Specific clearance is required.
## Footnote
This ensures safety and compliance with air traffic control regulations.
228
What information must VFR flights provide on first contact with ATC?
* Aircraft callsign and 'DETAILS'
* Destination and first tracking point
* Preferred level
* Identification of ATIS code received
## Footnote
This information is crucial for ATC to manage air traffic effectively.
229
When must an aircraft change to tower frequency?
In the holding bay or close to, or at, the holding point of the nominated runway, when ready for take-off.
## Footnote
This is to ensure proper communication with the tower for take-off clearance.
230
What must be reported after take-off at certain Class D aerodromes?
* Track information
* Last assigned altitude
## Footnote
This report is essential for maintaining situational awareness in air traffic control.
231
When is a departure report not required?
* For VFR aircraft departing the control zone directly into Class G airspace
* For aircraft instructed to contact Centre, Approach, or Departures once airborne
## Footnote
These exceptions help streamline communication in less regulated airspace.
232
How is the departure time calculated?
* Current time minus an adjustment for the distance from the aerodrome
* When over or abeam the aerodrome
## Footnote
Accurate timing is critical for flight operations and ATC coordination.
233
What must pilots do when using lanes of entry into Class D CTRs?
* Operate under VFR
* Conform with general flight rules
* Operate not higher than specified altitude
* Keep to the right
## Footnote
These rules ensure safety and compliance with airspace regulations.
234
What should a pilot do before entering Class D airspace?
Establish two-way radio communication with the tower on the notified frequency.
## Footnote
This is necessary for ATC to safely manage air traffic.
235
What must be included when initiating two-way communications?
* Current position
* Altitude
* Intention
* Any request(s)
## Footnote
This information helps ATC understand the aircraft's situation and intentions.
236
What should a pilot do if they lose sight of another aircraft they are following?
Advise ATC immediately.
## Footnote
This is critical for maintaining safety and separation between aircraft.
237
What must a pilot not do without ATC authorization?
Deviate from the track, level, and intentions stated during two-way communications.
## Footnote
This rule helps maintain order and safety in controlled airspace.
238
What clearance is required to land at a Class D aerodrome?
'Cleared to land', 'Cleared touch and go', or 'Cleared for the [option]'.
## Footnote
These clearances ensure that landing operations are safely coordinated.
239
What should a pilot do after landing according to ATC instructions?
* Promptly vacate the runway without backtracking
* Change to SMC frequency when vacating the runway strip
* Not cross any intersecting runway without instructions
* Taxi to the destination via the most direct route
## Footnote
Following these instructions is vital for efficient ground operations.
240
What must be included in a taxi instruction that contains a limit beyond a runway?
'Cross runway (number)' instruction.
## Footnote
This instruction is crucial for ensuring safe movements on the ground.
241
What should a pilot do if required to hold short of a runway?
Hold at the appropriate holding point for that runway.
## Footnote
This ensures safety and compliance with ATC instructions.
242
When must a pilot change from the aerodrome control frequency?
On vacating the runway strip.
## Footnote
This change is necessary for proper ground operations and communication.
243
What is required when a Class D aerodrome is equipped with parallel runways?
ATC may sequence aircraft for simultaneous contra-circuits using separate tower frequencies for each runway.
## Footnote
This enhances traffic flow and safety during operations.
244
What must a pilot do during a go-around at Class D aerodromes with parallel runways?
* Commence climbing to circuit altitude
* Position the aircraft on the active side parallel to the nominated duty runway
* Follow ATC instructions
## Footnote
These steps ensure safety during go-around maneuvers.
245
What regulations govern gliding operations?
CASR Part 103 and the Part 103 MOS
## Footnote
These regulations outline the rules and standards for gliding activities.
246
How are gliding operations indicated at an aerodrome?
By the gliding operations in progress ground signal displayed next to the primary wind direction indicator.
247
What should you do when aero-towing is in progress?
Remain well clear of gliders under tow.
248
What is the recommended altitude for overflying an active runway during gliding operations?
Below 2,000 ft AGL is not advised.
249
Which frequencies are allocated for use by gliders in class G airspace?
122.5 MHz, 122.7 MHz, 122.9 MHz.
250
What types of runway strips can gliding operations occur on at certified aerodromes?
* A glider runway strip within the runway strip (single runway)
* A glider runway strip adjacent to the existing runway strip (dual runways)
* A separate glider runway strip parallel to and spaced away from the existing runway strip (parallel runways).
251
What must be established during intensive short-term gliding activity?
A NOTAM will be issued to inform changes.
252
What color must glider runway strips be marked with at dual or parallel runways?
A color other than white.
253
Who has priority in the use of runways where gliders operate?
Powered aircraft have priority, except for gliders approaching to land.
254
What is the maximum weight for aircraft to operate independently on parallel runways in VMC by day?
5,700 kg MTOW.
255
What should a balloon pilot do when taking off near a non-controlled aerodrome?
Give way to aircraft landing or on final approach.
256
What is the minimum overflight height for a balloon over a populous area?
1,000 ft AGL unless taking off or maneuvering for landing.
257
What must balloon pilots carry when operating in controlled airspace?
VHF radio for communication.
258
What are the requirements for a night VFR rating?
* Hold a private, commercial, or air transport pilot licence
* Meet endorsement requirements
* 10 hours of night aeronautical experience
* Pass the flight test.
259
What is the exception to flying VFR at night below minimum height?
Taking off or landing, within 3 NM of the aerodrome, or flying per ATC clearance.
260
What is the minimum altitude during VFR flights at night?
1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 10 NM ahead and to either side.
261
What must all pilots of balloons do when operating at night?
Carry and use a radio in accordance with the AIP and Part 131 MOS.
262
What is required for a single-engine aeroplane night VFR endorsement?
* Five hours of night aeronautical experience
* One hour of dual flight
* One hour of solo night circuits.
263
True or False: Hot air balloons are the most common type of Part 131 aircraft flown in Australia.
True.
264
Fill in the blank: Gliding operations are conducted without a radio in class ______ airspace.
G.
265
What is required for a dual instrument time endorsement for helicopter pilots?
At least three hours of dual instrument time in a helicopter or approved flight simulation training device
## Footnote
This endorsement is necessary for pilots flying helicopters under night VFR conditions.
266
What is the minimum aeronautical experience required for a powered lift aircraft night VFR endorsement?
At least five hours of aeronautical experience at night, including at least three hours of dual flight and one hour of solo night circuits
## Footnote
This requirement applies to pilots aiming to operate powered lift aircraft at night under VFR.
267
What is the experience requirement for a gyroplane night VFR endorsement?
At least five hours of aeronautical experience at night as pilot of a gyroplane, including at least three hours of dual flight and one hour of solo night circuits
## Footnote
This is necessary for pilots flying gyroplanes at night under VFR.
268
What are the requirements for a night VFR rating holder to exercise its privileges?
Must have performed at least one night take-off and one night landing, or been assessed as competent by a flight instructor
## Footnote
This ensures that the pilot has recent experience flying at night.
269
How many take-offs and landings are required to carry passengers at night?
At least three take-offs and three landings in the previous 90 days
## Footnote
This is necessary for a pilot to carry passengers at night during take-off or landing.
270
What is the flight review requirement for a night VFR rating holder?
Must have successfully completed a flight review for the rating in an aircraft of the same category within the previous 24 months
## Footnote
This applies to various categories including aeroplanes, helicopters, and airships.
271
What must be fitted to an aircraft flying at night?
Must be fitted with a cockpit lighting system, cabin lighting system, and at least one landing light
## Footnote
These requirements ensure visibility and safety during night operations.
272
What type of radio navigation systems are required for night VFR operations?
Automatic direction finder (ADF), VOR, or GNSS
## Footnote
These systems are essential for navigation during night VFR operations.
273
What is the lowest safe altitude (LSALT) requirement for VFR at night?
Must not fly below any published LSALT, minimum sector altitude, or 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 10 NM ahead
## Footnote
This is crucial for obstacle clearance during night flights.
274
What equipment must an aeroplane have for VFR flight at night?
Must be fitted with an approved GNSS or ADF/VOR equipment
## Footnote
This ensures the pilot can navigate effectively in low visibility conditions.
275
What constitutes a relevant check or review for night VFR flight?
Includes instrument proficiency check, night vision imaging system proficiency check, instructor proficiency check, operator proficiency check, or a flight review
## Footnote
Completing any of these checks is critical for maintaining night VFR privileges.
276
What is the communication requirement for night VFR airspace?
Must have VHF communication systems capable of communication on all required frequencies
## Footnote
This is important for safe communication during night operations.
277
What is the requirement for cockpit and cabin lighting during the day?
Required if natural light does not adequately illuminate items of equipment and documents
## Footnote
This ensures pilots can see critical controls and documents regardless of lighting conditions.
278
What type of lighting is required for navigation at night?
Must be fitted with navigation lights and have them displayed on the aerodrome movement area
## Footnote
This is essential for visibility and safety during night operations.
279
What must a flight crew member have for night operations?
An independent portable light accessible from their normal sitting position
## Footnote
This assists in illuminating controls and displays during night flights.
280
What is the purpose of a landing light on an aircraft operating at night?
To ensure visibility during landing and take-off operations
## Footnote
This is a safety requirement for night flight operations.
281
What does LSALT stand for?
Lowest Safe Altitude
282
Is LSALT published on aeronautical charts?
No
283
What is the LSALT for a route segment specified for?
IFR procedures
284
What tolerances are used when an NDB or VOR marks the segment?
The tolerances applicable to the NDB
285
What may exist in navigation tolerance areas?
Unreported obstacles up to 360 ft
286
How is LSALT calculated when the highest obstacle is more than 360 ft above the terrain?
1,000 ft above the highest obstacle
287
What is the LSALT if the highest obstacle is less than 360 ft above the terrain?
1,360 ft above the elevation determined for terrain
288
What is the minimum LSALT if the highest terrain or obstacle in the tolerance area is not above 500 ft?
Not less than 1,500 ft
289
What must the pilot ensure if the navigation of the aircraft is inaccurate?
The aircraft is flown not lower than 1,000 ft above the highest terrain or obstacle
290
What is the radius around the DR position for the minimum altitude requirement?
5 NM plus 20% of the air distance flown from the last positive fix
291
What is the area to be considered for routes defined by radio navigation aids?
5 NM surrounding and including an area defined by lines drawn from the departure point or en route radio aid
292
What is the angle of convergence for routes where track guidance is provided?
10.3 degrees each side of the nominated track
293
What is the angle of convergence for routes where no track guidance is provided?
15 degrees each side of the nominal track
294
What is the localiser range for an aircraft below 5,000 ft using a VOR and DME?
60 NM
295
What is the localiser range for an aircraft at 10,000 ft to below 15,000 ft?
120 NM
296
What is the localiser range for an aircraft at 20,000 ft and above?
180 NM
297
What is the localiser range at 2,000 ft AGL within ±10° of course line?
25 NM
298
What is the LSALT calculation at night if the highest obstacle is 460 ft?
2,460 ft
299
Calculate LSALT at night with an additional unmarked obstacle of 360 ft beside a marked obstacle.
2,360 ft
300
What is the purpose of AIP GEN 3.3?
To provide guidelines for LSALT calculation
301
What is required when a flight must provide for an alternate aerodrome?
Any aerodrome may be nominated provided that:
* it is suitable as a destination for that flight
* it is not an aerodrome for which an alternate would also be required
* it is not a helideck
## Footnote
These provisions ensure safety and compliance during flight planning.
302
When must a suitable alternate aerodrome be provided according to weather regulations?
When arrival at the destination will be during the currency of, or up to, 30 minutes before the forecast commencement of meteorological conditions falling below VFR alternate minima:
* cloud base ceiling of 1,500 ft AGL
* visibility of 8 km
## Footnote
This requirement applies to both aeroplanes and helicopters under specific conditions.
303
What is the maximum flight time for a VFR flight by night to a destination alternate aerodrome?
Within one hour’s flight time of the planned destination aerodrome unless specific navigation aids are available.
## Footnote
This condition applies unless the destination is served by a ground-based radio navigation aid or the aircraft is equipped with approved GNSS.
304
What arrangements must be made for landing at an aerodrome with portable runway lighting at night?
You must nominate a destination alternate unless:
* reliable arrangements have been made for a qualified and responsible person to attend the aerodrome to display the portable lighting.
## Footnote
This ensures that the runway is adequately lit for safe landing.
305
What is required if landing at night at an aerodrome with electric runway lighting but without standby power?
You must nominate a destination alternate unless:
* portable runway lights are available
* reliable arrangements are made for a qualified person to display the portable lighting.
## Footnote
This provision is critical to ensure adequate lighting in case of primary lighting failure.
306
What is the requirement for alternate aerodromes when pilot activated lighting (PAL) is used?
An alternate may be nominated provided that:
* if the aircraft is fitted with a single VHF communication, the alternate aerodrome must be served by a lighting system which is not pilot activated, or
* served by PAL, with a qualified person in attendance to manually switch on the aerodrome lighting.
## Footnote
This ensures that lighting is available for safe landings at night.
307
What are the times of activation for aerodrome lighting at night?
A qualified person must attend the aerodrome at least 30 minutes before ETA to display portable lighting.
## Footnote
This timing is crucial for the preparation of the runway lights before landing.
308
What is the definition of a 'qualified and responsible person' in relation to portable runway lighting?
A person who is instructed in, and is competent to display, runway lighting with portable lights.
## Footnote
Ensuring that the person is qualified is essential for the safety of night operations.
309
What is the first light provision regarding alternate aerodrome requirements?
The alternate requirements need not be applied if the aircraft carries holding fuel for first light plus 10 minutes at the destination.
## Footnote
This provision allows for greater flexibility in flight planning under certain conditions.
310
What must pilots do when flying in an air defence identification zone (ADIZ)?
Pilots must:
* lodge a flight notification at least 60 minutes before entry
* report position at each reporting point
* maintain a continuous listening watch on the appropriate frequency.
## Footnote
These procedures are vital for maintaining airspace security and identification.
311
What are the exemptions for compliance with ADIZ requirements?
Exemptions include:
* flight maintaining a steady outbound track from within an ADIZ
* flight remaining within 10 NM of the departure point
* aircraft performing published approach, holding or recovery procedures.
## Footnote
These exemptions help streamline operations under specific circumstances.
312
What must be included in flight plans lodged for ADIZ operations?
Flight plans must include:
* tracks and altitudes to be flown
* estimated elapsed times for each route segment
* position reporting points and departure/landing points.
## Footnote
This detailed information is necessary for air traffic management and safety.
313
What should pilots do in case of significant deviations from ADIZ flight plan requirements?
Report immediately to ATS and provide details and reasons for the deviation at the first landing point.
## Footnote
This ensures accountability and aids in maintaining airspace security.
314
What actions must an aircraft take when intercepted by another aircraft?
The intercepted aircraft must:
* follow instructions from the intercepting aircraft
* notify the appropriate ATS unit
* attempt to establish radio communication on emergency frequencies.
## Footnote
These actions are critical for ensuring safe and clear communication during interception.
315
What visual signal indicates that an intercepted aircraft should land at a designated aerodrome?
Lowering landing gear (if fitted) and showing steady landing lights while following the intercepting aircraft.
## Footnote
This signal is an essential part of the interception protocol.
316
What should an aircraft do day or night when passing over a runway in use at a height exceeding 300 m but not exceeding 600 m?
Raise landing gear (if fitted) and flash landing lights
## Footnote
Alternatively, flash any other lights available if landing lights cannot be used.
317
What does the signal 'the aerodrome you have designated is inadequate' imply?
Intercepted aircraft response
## Footnote
This signal indicates that the designated aerodrome is not suitable.
318
What does it mean when an intercepting aircraft raises its landing gear and uses Series 1 signals?
Understood, follow me
## Footnote
This signal instructs the intercepted aircraft to follow to an alternate aerodrome.
319
What signal should an intercepting aircraft use to indicate 'you may proceed'?
Series 2 signals
## Footnote
This is used when deciding to release the intercepted aircraft.
320
What does the regular switching on and off of all available lights indicate?
Cannot comply
## Footnote
This signal should be distinct from flashing lights.
321
What does irregular flashing of all available lights signify?
In distress
## Footnote
This is a signal of emergency or need for assistance.
322
What must intercepting aircraft do if the intercepted aircraft cannot keep pace?
Fly a series of race-track patterns and rock the aircraft
## Footnote
This helps maintain visual contact with the intercepted aircraft.
323
What phrase should an intercepted aircraft use to indicate 'I am in distress'?
Mayday
## Footnote
This is the standard distress signal in aviation.
324
What does the phrase 'Wilco' mean in radio communication?
Understood will comply
## Footnote
This phrase confirms receipt and understanding of instructions.
325
How should an intercepted aircraft communicate its position if it is lost?
Am lost
## Footnote
This indicates that the aircraft does not know its current location.
326
What phrase indicates that an intercepted aircraft requests to land at a specific place?
Land (place name)
## Footnote
This phrase is used to request permission to land at a designated location.
327
What does the phrase 'Follow' mean in the context of intercepting aircraft communication?
Follow me
## Footnote
This instructs the intercepted aircraft to follow the intercepting aircraft.
328
What is the pronunciation of the phrase 'repeat' as used in intercepted aircraft communication?
REE - PEET
## Footnote
This phrase requests the other party to repeat their instruction.
329
What does the phrase 'You land' indicate in intercepting aircraft communication?
Land at this aerodrome
## Footnote
This instructs the intercepted aircraft to land at the specified aerodrome.
