Chapter 2 - Planning Your Flight Flashcards
(341 cards)
1
Q
What is required to be carried before beginning a VFR flight beyond 50 NM?
A
Applicable information from the AIP and either the aircraft’s technical log or maintenance release
See CASR 91.110 for more details.
2
Q
What does applicable AIP information include?
A
Aeronautical maps, charts, and other relevant aeronautical information for the flight route
Published in AIP, by a data service provider, or in NOTAMs.
3
Q
What must be carried for all flights according to CASR 91.230?
A
Weather forecasts and reports for flight planning, FIR, and location specific NOTAM
Alerts to suitability or serviceability of airways facilities.
4
Q
What is the responsibility of a pilot regarding aerodrome suitability?
A
To ensure the aerodrome for takeoff or landing is suitable if NOTAM information is unavailable
Refer to CASR 91.410.
5
Q
What additional fuel requirement must be planned for a flight?
A
Sufficient fuel, including extra for holding or diverting to an alternate aerodrome
See CASR 91.455.
6
Q
What services does the NCC Pilot Briefing Office provide?
A
Meteorological, NOTAM, flight notification, calculated off blocks time (COBT)
Supported by the National Aeronautical Information Processing System (NAIPS).
7
Q
What should a pilot do if they cannot obtain a pre-flight briefing?
A
Obtain a briefing from FLIGHTWATCH as soon as practicable after flight commencement
Subject to ATS workload.
8
Q
What must a pilot do if they studied the weather forecast more than an hour before flight?
A
Obtain and review an update of the weather information before commencing the flight.
9
Q
What does an authorised weather forecast for a flight need to include?
A
A wind and temperature forecast and either a GAF, GAMET, SIGWX forecast, or flight forecast
GAMET is relevant for Australian aircraft operating overseas.
10
Q
What is the validity requirement for an authorised weather forecast?
A
Must be valid for at least 30 minutes before and 60 minutes after the planned ETA.
11
Q
What happens if a weather forecast is not available before departure?
A
You may depart if you reasonably consider the weather allows a safe return within one hour
Must return if no forecast is obtained within 30 minutes after take-off.
12
Q
What conditions necessitate the nomination of a destination alternate aerodrome?
A
Forecasted weather conditions at the planned destination during the ETA period
Includes cloud, visibility, wind, and thunderstorms.
13
Q
What are the alternate minima for an aeroplane during Day VFR operations?
A
Cloud ceiling: 1,500 ft, Visibility: 8 km
Additional requirements for Day VFR: 1,000 ft and 3 km in Class G airspace.
14
Q
What must be done if an aerodrome forecast contains INTER or TEMPO conditions?
A
Ensure enough fuel is carried to hold for specified durations after the forecast ends.
15
Q
What does the term ‘BECMG’ indicate in a forecast?
A
Deteriorating weather conditions start at the beginning of the BECMG period.
16
Q
What is the requirement for a destination alternate aerodrome for night VFR flights?
A
It must be within one hour’s flight time of the planned destination unless certain navigation conditions are met.
17
Q
What type of radio communication is required in any airspace?
A
Two-way voice communication on all necessary frequencies and on the emergency frequency 121.5 MHz.
18
Q
When may an aircraft fly with inoperative radio communications?
A
If departing from an aerodrome with no repair facility and to the nearest facility for repairs, with ATS informed.
19
Q
What is required for a flight from an aerodrome with no facility for the radio to be repaired?
A
The flight must be to the nearest facility where the radio can be repaired or replaced.
20
Q
In Class G airspace, what condition must be met for a flight conducted with an inoperative radio?
A
The flight must not be conducted in IMC.
21
Q
What must be done before a flight in controlled airspace with an inoperative radio?
A
ATS must be informed before the flight begins.
22
Q
What clearance is needed for a flight with an inoperative radio?
A
Clearance must be obtained from ATS.
23
Q
What is required when operating on the manoeuvring area of certified, military, or designated non-controlled aerodromes?
A
An aircraft must have a VHF radio.
24
Q
Under what condition can you operate at a non-controlled aerodrome with an inoperative radio?
A
You may operate during the day in VMC, in company with another aircraft carrying a radio.
25
What locations are acceptable for take-off and landing according to CASR 91.410?
* A certified aerodrome
* A military aerodrome
* A place suitable to take off or land from.
26
What factors should be considered to determine if a place is suitable for take-off or landing?
* Risk to persons on the ground
* Aircraft performance
* Take-off or landing distance available
* Obstacles in the flight path
* Temperature
* Wind direction and speed.
27
What is your responsibility if the information about an aerodrome is not available?
You must exercise sound judgment regarding the aerodrome's suitability.
28
What should you do if an aerodrome presents a hazard to operations?
Inform the aerodrome owner.
29
What must be obtained before operating at a military aerodrome?
Permission from the relevant military authority.
30
What must the operator and pilot comply with when operating at a joint military/civilian aerodrome?
They must comply with the AAI unless contrary to civil aviation legislation.
31
Where can information on military aerodromes and relevant military authority be found?
In the AIP-ERSA under the symbol 'MIL'.
32
What does permission from the relevant military authority for operating at a military aerodrome include?
It may be in whatever form the relevant military authority chooses.
33
Where is information on joint military/civilian aerodromes listed?
In the AIP-ERSA under the symbol 'JOINT'.
34
What must be ensured regarding aircraft loading?
The aircraft must be loaded and operated within its weight and balance limits.
35
What is recommended for assessing passenger weight in small aircraft?
Use actual known passenger weight.
36
What performance must an aeroplane have during take-off and landing?
It must clear all obstacles by a safe margin.
37
What are the CASR regulations related to minimum height during take-off and landing?
* CASR 91.265 Minimum height rules – populous areas and public gatherings
* CASR 91.267 Minimum height rules – other areas
* CASR 91.277 Minimum heights – VFR flights by night
* CASR 91.305 Minimum heights – IFR flights.
38
From where must aeroplane performance be determined?
* The aircraft flight manual (AFM)
* The manufacturer’s data manual
* Other data approved under CASR Part 21.
39
List factors to consider for take-off or landing performance.
* Take-off or landing distance available
* Pressure altitude (PA) and temperature
* Gradient of the runway
* Wind direction, speed, and characteristics
* Weather forecast
* Nearby obstacles.
40
What factors affect rolling resistance on aerodrome surfaces?
* Aerodrome surface characteristics
* Aeroplane mass
* Tyre pressure.
41
What types of runway surfaces are mentioned?
* Concrete
* Bitumen
* Coral
* Gravel
* Soil
* Grass on soil
* Sand.
42
How does standing water affect rolling resistance?
It builds up in front of the wheels, creating a braking effect.
43
What factors affect rolling resistance on natural surfaces?
* Soil’s moisture content
* Surface looseness
* Algal growth
* Grass characteristics
* Surface irregularities.
44
What is the effect of low tyre pressure on landing?
It can lead to blowouts, loss of directional control, and increased rolling resistance.
45
What does CASR 91.380 require regarding wind during take-off and landing?
You must take off and land into wind to the extent practicable.
46
What does a windsock at a 45º angle indicate?
A windspeed of approximately 15 kt.
47
How can pressure altitude be determined?
* Set barometric scale of altimeter to 1,013 hPa and read indicated altitude.
* Apply a correction factor to aerodrome altitude based on sea level pressure.
48
What is the relationship between temperature and air density?
Higher temperatures decrease air density, reducing aircraft performance.
49
Define density altitude (DA).
The altitude in the standard atmosphere corresponding to a particular value of air density.
50
How does temperature affect density altitude?
Each 1°C variation from ISA (15°C at sea level) equals a 120 ft variation in density altitude.
51
What must be considered when determining aircraft performance at high-density altitudes?
Apply factors to adjust take-off and landing performance for variations from ISA conditions.
52
What can unexpected rolling resistance during take-off lead to?
A decision to abort the take-off or an over-run accident.
53
What is the impact of high ambient temperature on aircraft performance?
It decreases engine power output and reduces take-off and climb performance.
54
What is the effect of high-density altitudes on aircraft performance?
Performance loss
55
How is density altitude determined?
By applying an ambient temperature correction to the pressure altitude
56
What is the ISA temperature at sea level?
15°C
57
How much does density altitude change for each 1°C variation from ISA?
120 ft
58
If an aerodrome has a 1,000 ft elevation and a 1,300 ft pressure altitude, what is the ISA temperature at that elevation?
Approximately 12°C
59
Calculate the density altitude using the provided data: PA 1,300 ft and 18°C hotter than ISA.
3,460 ft
60
True or False: The aircraft will perform as if it were at the aerodrome level of 1,000 ft when the density altitude is 3,460 ft.
False
61
Fill in the blank: Each 1°C variation from ISA is equivalent to a _______ variation in density altitude.
120 ft
62
What is the effect of high humidity on aircraft engines?
High humidity adversely affects engines by displacing oxygen, reducing temperature rise during combustion.
## Footnote
It is important to consider humidity effects during take-off if documented.
63
What should be done when taking off or landing into a low sun?
Consider haze, smoke, or low light conditions and ensure the windscreen is clean.
## Footnote
This helps in maneuvering safely around aerodromes.
64
What does WAT stand for in aviation?
Weight altitude temperature limitations.
## Footnote
It is crucial for ensuring safe take-off and landing performance.
65
What is Vso in aviation terms?
The stall speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration.
## Footnote
Specifically, it refers to power-off stall speed at maximum landing weight.
66
What are some common obstacles at uncertified aerodromes?
Small trees at the beginning or end of the runway surface.
## Footnote
Awareness of obstacles is critical for safe operations.
67
What can close-in obstructions on the runway's extended centreline cause during take-off?
They may cause early lift-off and excessive climb angles.
## Footnote
This increases the risk of poor visibility through the windscreen.
68
How can high ground or obstructions in the approach area affect landings?
They can lead to a higher-than-normal approach path and early touchdown.
## Footnote
This situation may create optical illusions affecting landing assessments.
69
What is recommended for pilots unfamiliar with non-standard approach and departure angles?
Consider alternative aerodrome options or receive training in special techniques.
## Footnote
This is to ensure safety in unusual circumstances.
70
What is an important safety feature of aerodromes with extended surfaces?
They provide additional margins of safety for undershoots or overruns.
## Footnote
Even if not suitable for operations, they may minimize structural damage.
71
What is critical for low-powered twin-engine aeroplanes during take-off?
Having obstacle-free, low-angle departure areas.
## Footnote
This reduces the risk of striking obstacles in the climb-out path.
72
What information does the graphical area forecast (GAF) provide regarding icing conditions?
Known or expected icing conditions and general weather information under 'Cloud, icing and turbulence'.
## Footnote
This is crucial for flight planning at or below 10,000 ft.
73
What is a SIGMET?
Information concerning en route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of aircraft operations.
## Footnote
It includes severe icing conditions.
74
What does an AIRMET refer to?
Information concerning weather significant to low level aircraft operations, not already in the forecast.
## Footnote
It includes moderate icing conditions.
75
What must be free of frost, ice, or snow before flight?
Wings, flaps, control surfaces, rotors, propellers, and stabilisers.
## Footnote
This ensures safe operation of the aircraft.
76
What is the requirement for flying in known icing conditions?
The aircraft must be certified to fly in icing conditions.
## Footnote
If not certified, the flight path must be changed to avoid icing.
77
What is a significant concern for piston engine aircraft regarding icing?
Carburettor icing can occur even with no visible moisture and temperatures up to 38°C.
## Footnote
This risk increases at partial power settings.
78
What is dew-point depression?
The difference between the outside air temperature (OAT) and the dew-point temperature.
## Footnote
It is critical for assessing carburettor icing probability.
79
How do you determine the probability of carburettor icing?
Use a specialized chart based on OAT and dew-point depression.
## Footnote
This involves calculating the temperature minus dew point.
80
What must you comply with according to CASR 91.455?
The fuel requirements set out in the MOS including considerations for fuel quantity, monitoring, and actions for specified fuel levels.
81
What are the new terms that replaced Fixed reserve and Variable reserve?
Final reserve and contingency fuel.
82
What is the final reserve fuel requirement for piston engine or turboprop aircraft under VFR with a weight of 5700 kg or less?
30 minutes.
83
What is the contingency fuel requirement for turbojet aeroplanes or turboprop aeroplanes greater than 5700 kg?
5% of trip fuel.
84
What data sources can be used to determine usable fuel required?
* Recent aircraft specific fuel consumption data
* Aircraft manufacturer’s data.
85
What must the minimum amount of usable fuel onboard at the commencement of a flight include?
* Taxi fuel
* Trip fuel
* Destination alternate fuel (if required)
* Holding fuel (if required)
* Contingency fuel (if applicable)
* Final reserve fuel
* Additional fuel (if applicable).
86
True or False: You must re-analyze planned fuel use if fuel is used for purposes other than originally intended.
True.
87
What should you do if an in-flight fuel quantity check indicates that usable fuel on landing will be less than required?
Consider air traffic and operational conditions and proceed to an aerodrome that meets fuel requirements.
88
What must you declare to ATS if committed to land with less than final reserve fuel?
A ‘minimum fuel’ state.
89
What is the purpose of declaring ‘MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY FUEL’?
To alert other airspace users to a potential fuel problem and ensure priority handling.
90
What should you always do before departing in terms of fuel?
Ensure enough fuel is onboard to land with at least final reserve intact.
91
Fill in the blank: The final reserve fuel must always be _______.
onboard your aircraft.
92
What methods can be used to establish fuel on board before flight?
* Accurate dipstick
* Sight gauge
* Drip gauge
* Tank tab.
93
What should you check as part of your daily or pre-flight inspection?
* Drains and vents
* Contaminants in fuel
* Correct fuel type.
* Fuel filler cap security.
94
How often should you compare fuel remaining with planned figures during flight?
At regular intervals, recommended every 30 minutes and at turning points.
95
What should you do at the point of in-flight replanning regarding fuel?
Include trip fuel from that point and any required alternate and holding fuel.
96
What is the approach allowance in cruise fuel calculations?
It is included if descent and approach are anticipated to consume more fuel than cruising the same distance
## Footnote
Calculated at an intermediate level and appropriate power setting.
97
What is the required accuracy for checking your timepiece before a flight?
Within plus or minus 30 seconds
98
What time standard does Australia use for civil aviation operations?
Coordinated Universal Time (UTC)
99
How is 0920 UTC expressed in ATC communication?
'zero nine two zero zulu'
100
True or False: Daylight saving is applied universally across Australia.
False
101
In radiotelephone transmissions, how is the hour indicated?
By the first two figures
102
What is the format used for NOTAMs and AIS supplements?
A 10-figure group comprising year, month, date, hours and minutes
103
What is the six-figure format for date and time?
yymmddhhmm
104
Define 'Night' in the context of aviation.
The period between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight
105
What should be construed as the beginning of civil twilight?
First light
106
What should be construed as the end of civil twilight?
Last light
107
What factors can affect the actual time of last light?
* Cloud cover
* Poor visibility
* High terrain
108
What is the UTC offset for Australian Eastern Standard Time?
UTC + 10 hours
109
What is the UTC offset for Central Standard Time in Australia?
UTC + 9.5 hours
110
What is the UTC offset for Western Standard Time?
UTC + 8 hours
111
What additional hour is added during local summer time in Australia?
One hour
112
What is the method to compute first light and last light using graphs?
* Enter at the appropriate date
* Move to the latitude
* Read local mean time (LMT)
* Convert LMT to UTC
113
True or False: NAIPS automatically computes first light and last light.
True
114
What is the method of stating time in radiotelephone communications?
To the nearest minute or half minute
115
How is local mean time (LMT) calculated for last light?
LMT - arc to time
116
What is the scale of the World Aeronautical Chart (WAC)?
1:1,000,000
117
What is the scale of Visual Navigation Charts (VNCs)?
1:500,000
118
What type of information does the PCA depict?
* GAF boundaries
* WAC coverage
* Location names and abbreviations
* VHF coverage
* HF network boundaries
119
What is the purpose of Visual Terminal Charts (VTCs)?
Designed for VFR operations
120
What projection are Visual Navigation Charts (VNCs) constructed on?
Lambert’s Conformal Conic Projection
121
What type of operations are Visual Navigation Charts (VNCs) designed for?
VFR operations
122
What information do Visual Navigation Charts (VNCs) contain?
Aeronautical overlay of controlled airspace, topographical base, radio communication, navigational data
123
What is the scale of Visual Terminal Charts (VTCs)?
1:250,000
124
What are Visual Terminal Charts (VTCs) intended for?
Visual operations near terminal areas
125
What altitude are Visual Terminal Charts (VTCs) intended for use up to?
FL180
126
When planning visual navigation outside the coverage of VTCs, what should you refer to?
The appropriate VNC or IFR chart ERC-L
127
What do ERCs-L primarily depict?
Airspace, air routes, and radio navigation facilities
128
What is the intended use altitude for ERCs-L?
Up to and including FL200
129
What may be omitted in ERCs-L within areas covered by TACs?
Full details of air routes
130
What does the route information in areas covered by TACs usually include?
Route line and bearing
131
What is the intended use altitude for ERCs-H?
Above FL200
132
What do Terminal Area Charts (TACs) show details for?
High and low-level operations in terminal areas
133
What types of charts are published in Departure and Approach Procedures (DAP)?
Aerodrome charts, apron charts, SID charts, STAR charts, DME charts, GPS arrival charts, IAL charts
134
True or False: VTCs provide detailed airspace information above FL180.
False
135
Fill in the blank: Visual Terminal Charts (VTCs) contain some topographical detail and appropriate airspace, radio communication and _______ information.
navigation aid
136
How are restricted areas depicted on charts?
Restricted areas are shown with a magenta verge.
137
What indicates the conditional status of a restricted area on a chart?
The conditional status is displayed with association to the restricted area.
138
How are danger areas shown on ERCs and TACs?
Danger areas are shown with a solid magenta line.
139
What is the depiction of danger areas on VTCs?
Danger areas are shown with a solid magenta line and a magenta dotted verge along the inside of its boundary.
140
What is indicated when a restricted area and a danger area share a common lateral boundary?
Only the restricted area verge is shown; the danger area boundary is indicated by labels.
141
What does 'NM' signify in airspace boundary information?
'NM' indicates a distance from the aerodrome reference point.
142
What does 'DME' or 'TAC' indicate in airspace boundary information?
'DME' or 'TAC' indicates a distance based on a particular navigation aid.
143
How is a distance from a runway threshold indicated?
'7 NM FM THR RWY 33' indicates a distance from the threshold of Runway 33.
144
How are flight information area (FIA) boundaries and frequencies depicted?
FIA boundaries and frequencies are depicted in green.
145
What color are ATC frequencies and their associated boundaries for Class E airspace depicted in?
ATC frequencies and boundaries are depicted in brown.
146
What does the prefix to a frequency indicate?
The prefix indicates the provider of the service.
147
What is a common traffic advisory frequency (CTAF)?
A frequency designated for non-controlled aerodromes for communication.
148
What is required at non-controlled aerodromes identified in the ERSA?
Radio carriage is required.
149
How are broadcast areas depicted on charts?
Broadcast areas are depicted by a dotted dark green line and a label stating the CTAF frequency.
150
What are the vertical boundaries of a broadcast area?
Surface to 5,000 ft AMSL, or surface to the base of control area.
151
What defines a mandatory broadcast area?
A volume of airspace with defined horizontal and vertical limits where broadcast and other requirements apply.
152
Which charts depict mandatory broadcast areas?
Mandatory broadcast areas are depicted on VTC, VNC, and ERC-Low charts.
153
What might additional requirements in a mandatory broadcast area include?
Tracking or altitude requirements for traffic deconfliction.
154
Fill in the blank: A broadcast area is defined airspace in Class G airspace for which a discrete frequency (CTAF) has been _______.
[allocated].
155
True or False: All operations within a broadcast area shall use the CTAF as the broadcast frequency.
True.
156
What does 'MET RADAR DISPLAY INDICATES...' signify?
It prefixes weather radar information provided by ATS.
157
What types of meteorological documentation are available?
* surface synoptic charts
* forecast upper-level charts
* satellite imagery
* grid point winds and temperatures
* route sector winds and temperatures
* significant weather charts
* GAFs
* domestic TAFs
158
How much notice is required for non-routine forecasts?
Eight hours
159
What information should be included in a notification for flight forecasts when valid GAFs are not available?
* departure aerodrome and estimated off blocks time (EOBT)
* destination and ETA
* route
* ETAs and EOBTs for intermediate stopping places
* heights for upper winds and temperatures
* time documentation required
160
What does the abbreviation SKC stand for in meteorological reports?
Sky clear
161
Fill in the blank: CAVOK indicates visibility of ______ km or more.
10
162
What does the abbreviation ISOL indicate?
Isolated (for individual CB clouds)
163
What does TEMPO indicate in TAF format?
Temporary variations expected to last for 30 minutes or more but less than 60 minutes.
164
True or False: The FM group indicates significant changes expected at the specified time.
True
165
What is the purpose of cloud height datum in aerodrome forecasts?
To express cloud heights above aerodrome elevations.
166
What does GAF stand for?
Graphical area forecast
167
How often are GAFs issued?
Every six hours
168
What information does a GAF image depict?
Weather areas labelled with an alphabet character.
169
What does the 'VC' proximity qualifier indicate?
Used only in combination with specific weather abbreviations.
170
What does the GPWT chart provide?
Wind and temperature data derived from weather model data.
171
What does the 'dd' represent in GPWT data?
Wind direction in degrees true to the nearest 10.
172
What is indicated by a dashed line in GPWT data?
The grid point is below ground level.
173
What does the term 'AMDs' refer to?
Amendments to forecasts.
174
What does the qualifier '−' indicate in weather codes?
Light intensity.
175
What is the purpose of a corrected GAF?
To notify of typographical errors or improvements in conditions.
176
What does the term 'GAFs will be issued no later than 30 min. before the commencement of the validity period' imply?
GAFs are timely and issued in advance of their validity.
177
What information is included in a GAF's header?
Issue time and validity times.
178
What does GPWT stand for?
Ground Wind and Temperature
## Footnote
GPWT data is used to indicate wind conditions and temperature at a specific point.
179
What does the GPWT data format 25035−63 indicate?
A wind direction of 250 degrees, speed of 35 knots, and air temperature of −63°
## Footnote
This format allows for quick interpretation of critical weather conditions.
180
How often are GPWT forecasts issued?
Every six hours
## Footnote
This regular issuance helps in timely flight planning and adjustments.
181
What is the validity duration for high-level and mid-level charts in GPWT?
Valid in six-hourly time steps for the next 24 hours
## Footnote
This provides a structured forecast for pilots to follow.
182
What is the validity duration for low-level charts in GPWT?
Valid in three-hourly time steps for the next 24 hours
## Footnote
The increased frequency reflects the need for more detailed updates in low-level flight conditions.
183
Fill in the blank: High-level and mid-level charts are valid in _______ time steps for the next 24 hours.
six-hourly
184
True or False: GPWT data includes information about wind speed and air temperature.
True
185
What do the first three digits in GPWT data represent?
Wind direction in degrees
## Footnote
This is crucial for determining the wind's impact on flight.
186
What do the digits 4 & 5 in GPWT data represent?
Wind speed in knots
## Footnote
This helps assess the force of the wind on the aircraft.
187
What do the last two digits in GPWT data represent?
Air temperature in degrees
## Footnote
Knowing the air temperature is essential for flight performance calculations.
188
Fill in the blank: Low-level charts are valid in _______ time steps for the next 24 hours.
three-hourly
189
What is the significance of GPWT data for flight planning?
It provides essential information about wind and temperature conditions
## Footnote
This data helps pilots make informed decisions for safe and efficient flight operations.
190
What is an aerodrome forecast (TAF)?
A statement of meteorological conditions expected for the specified period in the airspace within a radius of 8 km (4.31 NM) of the aerodrome reference point.
191
How often is a Routine TAF (TAF3) issued?
Issued 3 hourly.
192
What is the validity period for Routine TAF (TAF3)?
Either 18, 24 or 30 hours depending on aerodrome type (A or B).
193
What are the commencement times for International TAF?
00, 06, 12 and 18 UTC.
194
What defines a large aerodrome in TAF categorization?
Passengers above 150,000 per year or aircraft movements above 75,000 per year.
195
What is the validity period for large aerodromes in TAF?
12 or 18 hours.
196
What is the commencement time for medium aerodromes in TAF?
02, 08, 14 and/or 20 UTC, except in Western Australia where it is 04, 10, 16 and/or 22 UTC.
197
What is the typical validity for small aerodromes in TAF?
Up to 12 hours.
198
What is the purpose of METAR?
To identify routine observations (hourly or half-hourly) when conditions are above specified levels.
199
What does SPECI indicate?
Special observations when conditions are below specified criteria or when there have been significant changes since the previous report.
200
What is the format for TAF origination time?
Given in UTC using a six-figure group followed by the code Z.
201
How is the validity period of a TAF represented?
In UTC in the format ddhh/ddhh.
202
What does AUTO indicate in a METAR/SPECI report?
The report contains only automated observations.
203
How is wind direction reported in METAR?
Rounded to the nearest 10 degrees and given in three figures relating to true north.
204
What does VRB indicate in wind reports?
A variable wind direction.
205
When is maximum wind speed reported?
Only when it is 10 kt or more greater than the mean wind speed.
206
What is the format for visibility in a TAF?
The prevailing visibility is always given.
207
How is vertical visibility reported?
In the format VVhhh.
208
What does RVR stand for?
Runway Visual Range.
209
How is present weather reported in METAR?
Using codes and intensity indicators combined in groups.
210
What is CAVOK?
Conditions where visibility is 10 km or more, nil significant cloud, and nil significant weather.
211
What does the prefix '-' indicate in present weather reporting?
Light intensity.
212
What are significant variations in aerodrome forecasts indicated by?
FM, BECMG, INTER or TEMPO.
213
What does the term PROB30 indicate?
Probability of an event occurring is assessed at 30%.
214
What is indicated by the abbreviation G in wind reports?
Maximum wind speed.
215
How is cloud height reported?
In hundreds of feet using three figures.
216
What does the abbreviation CB represent?
Cumulonimbus cloud.
217
What does the term TCU refer to?
Towering cumulus cloud.
218
What is the significance of the term NSW in weather reporting?
Indicates nil significant weather.
## Footnote
It may be included following FM or BECMG.
219
How is turbulence indicated in a TAF?
Commencement is indicated by FM and cessation by TILL.
## Footnote
Start and finish times are formatted as ddhhmm.
220
What parameters are included in aerodrome weather reports?
Air temperature and dew point.
## Footnote
Up to 4 forecast values for air temperature are provided.
221
How are negative temperature values indicated in forecasts?
By the letter M before the numeral.
222
How is QNH presented in reports?
In whole hectopascals using four figures, prefixed by Q.
## Footnote
Example: Q0999.
223
What does the remarks section of METAR/SPECI report?
Recent weather of operational significance and windshear information.
224
What format is used for reporting rainfall in the remarks section?
RF##.#/###.#.
## Footnote
The first part reports rainfall in the last 10 minutes, the second part total since 0900 local time.
225
What is indicated by the abbreviation FM in TAF?
Indicates the commencement of a forecast period.
226
In a TAF, how is the cessation of turbulence indicated?
By the abbreviation TILL.
227
What does 'NSC' mean in weather reporting?
Nil significant change.
228
How many forecast values of QNH are provided in a TAF?
Up to 4 forecast values.
229
What does the abbreviation 'RE' stand for in METAR/SPECI?
Recent weather.
230
How is significant weather indicated in plain language?
By appending significant conditions such as an approaching front.
231
What does the term 'MOD TURB' refer to in a TAF remark?
Moderate turbulence.
232
What does the abbreviation 'VCFG' indicate?
Visibility in fog.
233
Who can issue an authorised weather forecast for aviation?
Only the Bureau of Meteorology (BOM)
234
What is a METAR?
Routine reports of meteorological conditions at an aerodrome, issued on the hour and half hour
235
What are special reports (SPECI)?
Non-routine aerodrome reports issued when one or more observed meteorological elements meet specified criteria significant to aviation
236
What does SIGMET stand for?
Significant Meteorological Information
237
What is the purpose of a SIGMET?
To describe occurrences or expected occurrences of specified phenomena that may affect aircraft safety
238
Who issues SIGMET?
Meteorological watch offices (MWOs)
239
What is AIRMET information?
Information concerning phenomena of lesser severity than SIGMET, at or below 10,000 ft
240
What are the main responsibilities of pilots in hazardous weather?
Report observations of MET conditions and advise ATS of intended actions
241
What is required for a windshear warning?
Reports of windshear encountered during climb and descent
242
When should pilots report windshear to ATS?
Whenever windshear is encountered, as it may affect following aircraft
243
What information is included in a full windshear report?
Assessment of intensity, airspeed changes, altitude, and relevant wind information
244
What does AWIS stand for?
Aerodrome Weather Information Service
245
What type of data does AWIS provide?
Real-time meteorological information from an automatic weather station
246
What should be included in a special air report (AIREP)?
Calls sign of ground station, calls sign of aircraft, position, time, altitude, weather report
247
What is the AERIS?
Automatic En Route Information Service that broadcasts METAR/SPECI and TAF
248
What does SARTIME refer to?
Search Action Required Time, indicating when search action is needed
249
True or False: AIRMET information is more severe than SIGMET information.
False
250
What must pilots do when encountering hazardous weather outside controlled airspace?
Report observations to ATS
251
What does QNH refer to?
The atmospheric pressure at sea level, expressed in hectopascals
252
List three phenomena that warrant an AIREP Special.
* Moderate turbulence
* Severe turbulence
* Thunderstorms
253
What type of information do AWIS and WATIR services provide?
Real-time meteorological information combined with terminal information
254
What must you notify ATS of when you have nominated a SARTIME?
You must notify ATS of any changes to:
* the aircraft callsign or registration
* the planned departure time (if changed by more than 30 minutes)
* the route, landing points, and destination alternate aerodromes
* the SARTIME.
## Footnote
SARTIME refers to Search and Rescue Time of Arrival.
255
What is the requirement for cancelling a SARTIME?
You must cancel your SARTIME no later than the time nominated.
## Footnote
This is specified under CASR 91 MOS 9.04.
256
Who qualifies as a responsible person for the receipt of a flight note?
A responsible person must:
* be over the age of 18 years
* have access to at least 2 appropriate means of communication with search and rescue
* be able to contact the Joint Rescue Coordination Centre (JRCC) Australia immediately if the flight is overdue.
## Footnote
This is outlined in CASR 91 MOS 9.05.
257
What are the specific over-water flight notification requirements?
For VFR flights over water, you must:
* submit a flight plan, or
* nominate a search and rescue time (SARTIME) for arrival, or
* leave a flight note.
## Footnote
This is referenced in CASR 91.240 and MOS Chapter 9.
258
What are the life jacket carriage requirements for certain aircraft?
Aircraft must carry life jackets:
* for each infant onboard – a life jacket or flotation device with a whistle
* for each other person onboard – a life jacket with a whistle.
## Footnote
Exceptions apply during normal climbing or descending procedures.
259
Where must life jackets be stowed in an aircraft?
Life jackets must be stowed:
* each infant’s life jacket must be accessible to an adult responsible for the infant
* each other person’s life jacket must be accessible from their seat.
## Footnote
This is specified in CASR 91 MOS 26.57.
260
Under what conditions must a person wear a life jacket onboard a single-engine aircraft?
A person must wear a life jacket if:
* the aircraft is flown over water beyond the distance from which it could reach land if the engine failed.
## Footnote
Additional exceptions apply based on flight altitude and procedures.
261
What are the life raft requirements for aircraft?
An aircraft must carry enough life rafts for each person when:
* the aircraft operates more than:
* the distance it would fly in 30 minutes at normal cruising speed
* 100 NM.
## Footnote
Greater distances apply to larger aircraft.
262
What is the requirement for stowing life rafts in an aircraft?
A life raft must be stowed:
* so it can be readily deployed
* the stowage compartment must be clearly marked.
## Footnote
This is detailed in CASR 91 MOS 26.61.
263
What is required for a single-engine aircraft flying over water?
It must carry a survival (portable) ELT if flying over water beyond the distance it could reach land suitable for a forced landing.
## Footnote
Exceptions apply for certain flight purposes.
264
What must an aircraft carry if more than one life raft is required?
The aircraft must be:
* fitted with an automatic ELT and carry a survival ELT, or
* carry at least 2 survival ELTs.
## Footnote
Specific exceptions apply for certain flight purposes.
265
Where must a survival ELT be carried on an aircraft?
A survival ELT must be carried:
* on the person of a crew member
* in or adjacent to a life raft
* adjacent to an emergency exit used for evacuation.
## Footnote
This is outlined in CASR 91 MOS 26.48.
266
What survival equipment must an aircraft carry for specific flights?
An aircraft must carry survival equipment for sustaining life when:
* the carriage of life rafts is required
* operating within or through specified remote areas.
## Footnote
This is stated in CASR 91 MOS 26.64.
267
What is required for an aircraft flying over a remote area?
Appropriate survival equipment for sustaining life for the area being overflown.
268
Define 'Central Australia remote area'.
The area enclosed within a boundary from Kalgoorlie to Leigh Creek, Bourke, Mt Isa, Townsville, Cairns, Cape Horn, Gulf of Carpentaria, Darwin, Anna Plains, Wiluna, Laverton, and back to Kalgoorlie.
269
What areas are excluded from the Central Australia remote area?
* Area within a 50 NM radius of Darwin
* Flight corridors within sight of, and not more than, 5 NM from:
* Stuart Highway between Alice Springs and Darwin
* Barkly Highway between Tenant Creek and Mt Isa
* Bruce Highway between Townsville and Cairns.
270
Define 'Snowy Mountains remote area'.
The area enclosed within a boundary from Mt Franklin to Tharwa, Berridale, Delegate, Mt Baw, Jamieson, Khancoban, and back to Mt Franklin.
271
Define 'Tasmania remote area'.
The area enclosed within a boundary from West Point to Black Bluff, extending 15 NM beyond Cape Bruny, then back to West Point at a distance of 15 NM off the coastline.
272
What are the ELT transmission frequency requirements?
An ELT must transmit in the frequency band 406 MHz – 406.1 MHz, and on 121.5 MHz.
273
What is the requirement for carrying an ELT on flights more than 50 NM from the aerodrome of departure?
You must carry a serviceable ELT that is armed before flight.
274
List exceptions to the ELT carriage requirement.
* Flights wholly within 50 NM of the aerodrome of departure
* Single-seat aircraft
* Flights for aircraft manufacture or delivery
* Positioning of an Australian aircraft from outside Australia
* Aircraft fitted to alert and communicate emergencies
* Moving an aircraft for ELT fitting or repair within 90 days.
275
What must be done if an ELT has been inadvertently activated for more than 10 seconds?
It must be reported to ATS or the JRCC immediately.
276
What does NAIPS stand for?
National Aeronautical Information Processing System.
277
What services does NAIPS provide?
* Briefings and flight notification functions
* Database of NOTAM and meteorological information.
278
What is the pre-flight information service's preferred delivery option?
NAIPS Internet Service (NIS).
279
What is mandatory for flights away from the vicinity of an aerodrome?
A weather forecast and NOTAMs.
280
What types of NOTAMs are available to pilots in Australia?
* Location NOTAMs
* FIR NOTAMs
* Head Office NOTAMs.
281
What is a NOTAM?
A notice that contains information concerning the establishment, condition, or change in any aeronautical facility, service, procedure, or hazard.
282
What does the NOTAM format include?
* Location identification
* Time of commencement
* Time of cessation
* Times of periods of activity
* Plain language text
* Lower limit
* Upper limit.
283
What is the purpose of the Australian Beacon Register for ELTs?
To allow JRCC Australia to respond quickly and effectively to real distress activations and manage inadvertent activations.
284
What is the contact number for the National Help Desk for pre-flight information?
1800 801 960.
285
Fill in the blank: An ELT must be registered with the _______.
Australian Maritime Safety Authority.
286
True or False: The ELT must be carried in a readily accessible place if it is a survival ELT.
True.
287
What is the preferred method for submitting flight notifications for VFR flights nominating a SARTIME?
Through pilot access to NAIPS (via the internet)
## Footnote
Other methods include in writing, by telephone, or by radio to ATS.
288
When submitting SARTIME flight notifications by fax, what must be done?
Confirm receipt of the notification with the briefing office
## Footnote
Airservices recommends a follow-up call before departure.
289
What should be avoided when submitting flight notifications by radio?
Frequency congestion
## Footnote
Transmit only required information for the current flight stage.
290
What types of VFR flights must submit a SARTIME flight notification?
* Air transport
* Overwater flights
* Flights in designated remote areas
* Flights at night beyond 120 NM from departure aerodrome
## Footnote
A flight note may also be left with a responsible person.
291
What details are required for a SARTIME flight notification?
* Callsign
* Aircraft type
* Departure point
* Route to be flown
* Destination
* POB
* SARTIME
## Footnote
Only one SARTIME may be current at any time.
292
What is the recommended time frame for submitting flight details before EOBT?
At least 30 minutes
## Footnote
Delays may occur if submitted less than 30 minutes before.
293
What is the flight notification requirement for IFR operations?
Submit a Flight Plan
## Footnote
This applies to all classes and operations.
294
What should pilots use to warn ATS of any flight notification amendments?
Appropriate alerting phrases
## Footnote
Example: ‘Flightwatch, delta mike golf, SARTIME flight plan amendment’.
295
How are flight notification forms accessed?
From the Airservices website
## Footnote
Website: airservicesaustralia.com/flight-briefing.
296
What is required for performance-based navigation (PBN) notification?
Combination of entries in Item 10 and Item 18 of the flight notification form
## Footnote
Guidance provided in the Domestic flight notification form user guide.
297
What must foreign operators do before conducting RNP-AR operations in Australia?
Apply to CASA for an ‘Authorisation: RNP-AR operations’
## Footnote
Foreign operators should not include RNP AR capability in flight plan notification until authorized.
298
What does POB stand for in flight notifications?
Persons On Board
## Footnote
POB must be included when submitting a flight notification or leaving a flight note.
299
What is the required distance for providing estimated elapsed times for locations not operating along an ATS route?
Approximately 30 minutes or 200 NM apart
300
What type of abbreviations should be used for locations in flight notifications?
Authorised abbreviations published in the AIP
301
If a common name is used instead of an aerodrome abbreviation, what will the flight notification output assume?
The aircraft is tracking over a navigational aid/waypoint
302
What is the correct format for entering latitude and longitude in flight notifications?
For example: 2730S15327E
303
When should significant changes to flight notification details be advised to ATS?
As soon as possible
304
What should be entered for VH-registered aircraft in the flight notification?
The 3 letters after the prefix, e.g., VH-ZFR enter ZFR
305
What does ADS-B stand for?
Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast
306
On a flight notification, what should be entered if the aerodrome does not have an authorised abbreviation?
ZZZZ
307
What does EET stand for?
Estimated Elapsed Time
308
What is the format for entering estimated off blocks time (EOBT)?
Four-figure UTC as hhmm
309
What is the time frame for changes to a submitted EOBT to be advised?
More than 30 minutes
310
What is the format for entering an EOBT?
hhmm followed by DOF/ and the date of flight as yymmdd
## Footnote
EOBT stands for Estimated Off-Block Time
311
What is the maximum advance notice for an EOBT?
120 hours (five days)
## Footnote
Changes greater than 30 minutes should be advised to ATS or through NAIPS
312
What is the maximum advance notice for an ETD?
Seven days
## Footnote
Changes greater than 30 minutes should be advised to ATS or through NAIPS
313
What is the format for entering latitude and longitude identification on flight notifications?
Degrees and minutes in an 11-character group, e.g., 2730S15327E
314
What is the purpose of the DCT entry on flight notification route details?
To indicate the flight is planned to track directly from the departure aerodrome to the first en route point
315
What does STS/ indicate in flight notifications?
Special aircraft handling
316
What does PER/ represent in flight notifications?
Aircraft performance category
317
On a flight notification, what should be circled if emergency radio is carried?
U for UHF radio, V for VHF radio, E for ELT
318
What is the purpose of a flight note?
To detail the route and timing of a proposed flight for notification if overdue
319
What information should be provided on a flight note?
Complete details of planned tracks and landing points
320
What is the pilot's responsibility regarding operational information?
Requesting information necessary to make operational decisions
## Footnote
Refer to AIP GEN 3.3 for specific guidelines
321
What types of operational information are typically available from ATS?
* Meteorological conditions and hazard alerts
* Air routes and aerodromes
* Navigational aids and communication facilities
* ATS procedures, airspace status, and search and rescue services
* Maps and charts
* Regulations concerning entry, transit, and departure for international flights
322
How are pre-flight briefing services primarily delivered?
Automated systems
## Footnote
Pilots can obtain briefings via self-help electronic systems or briefing offices
323
Where can pilots obtain a pre-flight briefing when suitable facilities are not available?
From FLIGHTWATCH as soon as practicable after flight commences
324
What are the three elements of in-flight information services?
* ATC-initiated FIS
* Automatic broadcast services
* On-request service
325
What does ATC-initiated FIS provide pilots?
Pertinent information affecting flight within one hour’s flight time
## Footnote
Two hours for SIGMET information
326
What is the purpose of the Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS)?
To provide pilots with an alerting service, information about local traffic, and operational information
327
What does the Automatic Aerodrome Information Service (AAIS) broadcast?
Essential aerodrome information on a dedicated frequency during AFIS hours
328
What information is included in the Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS)?
* Terminal information (aerodrome)
* Time of observations
* Type of approach expectation
* Runway in use
* Holding delay
* Curfews
* Wind direction and speed
* Visibility
* Present weather
329
What does the wind direction report indicate when it varies significantly?
A single mean direction or two values if the extremes vary by 60° or more
330
How is wind speed reported when it is less than 1 knot?
As 'wind calm'
331
What does visibility report when it is greater than 10 km?
'greater than one zero kilometres'
332
What is the format for reporting wind shear on ATIS?
'Wind shear warning - [Aircraft type] reported moderate windshear on approach runway [number]'
333
What is an on-request FIS?
A service available to aircraft in all classes of airspace on ATC VHF or HF frequencies
334
What must pilots include when requesting FIS on ATC VHF frequencies?
The callsign of the appropriate ATC unit and the generic callsign 'Flightwatch'
335
What does the Traffic Information Service provide?
Information about other conflicting IFR and observed VFR flights
336
What are the requirements for pilots to receive Surveillance Information Service (SIS)?
* Must be in direct VHF communications with ATC
* Equipped with a serviceable SSR transponder or ADS-B transmitter
* Maintain a continuous listening watch with ATC
337
What is the purpose of an alerting service provided by ATC?
To alert aircraft about unsafe proximities to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft
338
What constitutes a hazard alert?
A sudden change to a component of FIS that has an immediate and detrimental effect on aircraft safety
339
What must pilots do if they notice irregularities in navigational or communications facilities?
Report the details as soon as practicable to the appropriate ATS unit
340
What terms describe water on a runway?
* Dry
* Wet
* Standing water
341
What should the report include regarding standing water?
An assessment of the extent of standing water or other contamination
## Footnote
This is important for evaluating safety conditions for flights.
