Chapter 10 Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Definition of vertical transmission

A

infectious agent passed from mother to fetus via three routes: placental-fetal, during birth, postnatal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Definition of placental-fetal transmission

A

Occurs when mother is infected during pregnancy, interferes with fetal development; effects vary depending on gestational age of fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Infection transmission during birth

A

contact with infectious agent during passage through birth canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Postnatal transmission of infectious agents

A

agents transmitted through maternal milk like CMV, HIV, HBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the two major routes of perinatal infections

A

Transcervical, transplacental

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How does a transcervical infection pass to a newborn?

A

Inhalation of amniotic fluid before delivery or passage through infected birth canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is one mechanism responsible for preterm delivery as a result of transcervical infections?

A

Inflammation causing rupture of amniotic sac and release of prostaglandins from neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the most common conditions associated with bacterial transcervical infections?

A

Meningitis, sepsis, pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What type of infections pass transplacentally via the chorionic villi?

A

Parasites and viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Parvovirus B19 mode of infection and clinical outcome

A

Transplacentally; spontaneous abortion, hydrops fetalis, still birth, congenital anemia; commonly seen in erythroid cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Clinical manifestations of TORCH infections

A

fever, encephalitis, chorioretinitis, hepatosplenomegaly, pneumonitis, myocarditis, hemolytic anemia, skin lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Long term clinical manifestations of TORCH infections

A

intellectual disability, growth retardation, cataracts, congenital cardiac anomalies, bone defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Bacteria of TORCH infection group

A

Toxoplasmosis, other (syphilis, parvovirus B19), rubella, cytomegalovirus, herpesvirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Definition of fetal hydrops

A

accumulation of edema fluid in two or more fetal compartments during intrauterine growth, most commonly pleural, pericardial, peritoneal, skin; can be generalized or local

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Cause of immune hyrdrops

A

blood group antigen compatibility between mother and fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Antigens that cause immune hydrops

A

D Rh and ABO blood groups (Rh- mother and Rh+ father)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Etiology of immune hydrops

A

Immunization of mother by exposure to other blood type via placenta or birth causes formation of IgM abs, exposure during a second pregnancy leads to an IgG response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What would protect the mom from Rh immunization?

A

ABO incompatibility, no transplacental bleed during birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Common treatment for Rh Immunization

A

RhIg containing anti-D antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Major consequences of hemolysis in immune hydrops

A

Anemia (cardiac decomp and extramedullary hematopoiesis) and Hgb degradation (kernicterus and jaundice)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Three major etiologies of non-immune hydrops

A

chromosomal defects, csomal anomalies, fetal anemia (alpha thalassemia, twin-twin transfusion, parvovirus B19)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Gross morphological changes in hydrops

A

pale fetus and placenta, enlarged liver and spleen, compensatory erythrocyte hyperplasia in bone, extramedullary hematopoiesis,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where is kernicterus most prominent?

A

basal ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Mechanism for generalized hydrops

A

severe hemolysis leads to hypoxic injury to heart and liver, decreasing albumin and leading to heart failure; increased hydrostatic pressure and decreased oncotic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Erythroblastosis fetalis
Alloimmune hemolytic anemia, Rh incompatibility Microscopically: polychromatophilic macrocytes (CHARACTERISTIC), nucleated RBCs, ejected nuclei
26
Clinical manifestations of fetal hydrops
pallor, hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice, generalized edema, neuro injury
27
Definition of inborn errors of metabolism
group of rare genetic diseases resulting from defect in enzyme or transport protein that results in a block of metabolic pathway
28
Common abnormalities suggesting IEM
deafness, abnormal hair, hydrops, seizures, hypotonia, poor feeding, cataract, cherry red macula, myopathy
29
Two categories of IEM
disorders that result in toxic accumulation, disorders of energy production and utilization
30
Goals of IEM treatment
prevent substance accumulation, eliminate toxic metabolite, correct metabolite abnormality
31
PKU etiology
deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase and resultant hyperphenylalanemia
32
When do PKU signs start to appear?
about 6 mo after birth - mental disability; will eventually lead to seizures, decreased pigmentation, eczema
33
Maternal PKU etiology
hyperphenylalanemia in asymptomatic mothers leading to teratogenic effects of phenylalanine on developing fetus
34
Clinical signs of PKU
musty odor to urine, light hair and skin, brain damage
35
Diagnosis of PKU
not determined with screening tests because of significant number of genes involved, must use blood test to differentiate benign hyperphenylalanemia from PKU
36
What form of PKU cannot be treated by dietary restriction?
abnormalities in recycling BH4 (cofactor for PAH)
37
Etiology of galactosemia
Lack of galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase or galactokinase (rare)
38
Pathogenesis of galactosemia
Build up of glactose-1-phosphate in liver, spleen, eye lens, kidney, heart, cerebral cortex leading to build up of galactitol and galactonate
39
Clinical features of galactosemia
hepatomegaly, lens opacification, CNS alterations due to loss of nerve cells
40
Clinical features of galactosemia in infants
failure to thrive, vomiting, diarrhea, jaundice, hepatomegaly, mental retardation, cataracts, hemolysis, coagulopathy
41
Etiology of cystic fibrosis
inherited disorder of ion transport that affects fluid secretion in exocrine glands, repro, GI, and resp epithelia
42
Clinical features of CF
chronic lung disease secondary to recurrent infections, pancreatic insufficiency, steatorrhea, malnutrition, hepatic cirrhosis, intestinal obstruction, male infertility
43
Primary defect in CF
epithelial chloride channel coded on chromosome 7q31.2
44
CFTR structure
two transmembrane domains, two nucleotide binding domains, regulatory domain that contains PKA and PKC phosphorylation sites
45
What other channels does CFTR regulate
rectified chloride channels, rectified potassium channels, gap junction channels, bicarb transport, ENaC (most significant)
46
Effect of loss of CFTR in sweat ducts
hypertonic sweat
47
Pathogenesis of resp and intestinal complications in CF
isotonic but low volume surface fluid layer, defective mucociliary action and viscid secretions
48
Class I CF
defective protein synthesis, complete CFTR lack
49
Class II CF
abnormal protein folding, processing, or trafficking; MOST COMMON
50
Class III CF
defective regulation, normal amt of CFTR but non functional
51
Class IV CF
decreased conductance, mutation in transmembrane domain
52
Class V CF
reduced abundance, reduced amount of normal protein
53
Class VI CF
altered regulation of ion channels
54
Clinical signs associated with atypical CF
idiopathic chronic pancreatitis, late-onset chronic pulmonary disease, idiopathic bronchiectasis, obstructive azoospermia
55
Environmental modifiers of CF
virulence of organisms, therapeutic efficacy, concurrent infections, tobacco or allergen exposure
56
Genetic modifiers of CF
gene polymorphisms in MBL2, TGFB1, IFRD1 (all modify lungs ability to resist infection
57
Common gross morphological changes in CF
pancreatic insufficiency, defective mucociliary action; SWEAT GLANDS morphologically UNaffected
58
Morphological changes of pancreas in CF
atrophy of exocrine portion of pancreas, impaired absorption, squamous metaplasia of pancreatic ducts, meconium ileus
59
Morphological changes of liver in CF
bile canaliculi plugged by mucus, steatosis
60
Morphological changes of salivary glands in CF
progressive ductual dilation, squamous metaplasia, glandular atrophy and fibrosis
61
Pulmonary changes in CF
viscous secretions lead to obstruction and infection, distended bronchioles, hyperplasia and hypertrophy of goblet cells, abscesses
62
Common organisms responsible for lung infections in CF
Staphylococcus aureus, Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cepacia
63
Clinical features of CF
meconium ileus, intussusception, persistent colonization, exocrine pancreatic insufficiency, recurrent nasal polyps, infertility, liver disease, malabsorption, fatty stools
64
What is necessary for CF diagnosis?
Classical charcteristics, sweat chloride test, immunoreactive trypsinogen, CFTR gene sequencing