Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

MOD > Hematopoiesis > Flashcards

Hematopoiesis Flashcards

(72 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Where does hematopoiesis occur in an embryo? What time frames?

A

Yolk sac: 0-2 months
Liver: 2-7 months
Bone Marrow: 7 months to birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where does hematopoiesis primarily occur after puberty?

A

“Axillary” location, Vertebrae and pelvis, sternum, ribs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe the hematopoietic cell compartment

A

highly vascular, contains hematopoietic stem cells, committed precursor cells, and maturing cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe the marrow stromal compartment

A

contains a barrier of endothelial cells, adipocytes for energy, structural support by stromal cells and fibroblasts and macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the main hematopoietic growth factors?

A

CSF, interleukins, EPO, TPO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where are hematopoietic growth factors produced?

A

endothelial cells, stromal cells, fibroblasts, developing lymphocytes, macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the function of SCF?

A

weak stimulator of hematopoiesis that makes stem cells responsive to other cytokines; produced by fetal tissues and bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the function of IL-3?

A

influences the replication and growth potential of hematopoietic progenitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the function of IL-6?

A

Stimulates megakaryocytes and neutrophil production, key factor in leukemoid reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the function of IL-2?

A

Serves as a T-cell growth factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the function of IL-2 combined with IL-6?

A

B-cell growth factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the function of GM-CSF?

A

Stimulates the formation of all leukocytes and reticulocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the function of G-CSF?

A

Stimulates an increase in neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the function M-CSF?

A

Stimulates monocyte and macrophage production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the function of EPO?

A

Stimulates RBC production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the function of TPO?

A

stimulates an increase in megakaryocytes and platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a reticulocyte?

A

large, immature, nucleated RBC, with a residual reticular network of ribosomal material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are some examples of differentiated macrophages throughout the body?

A

microglia, kupffer cells, alveolar macrophages, osteoclasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does plasma consist of?

A

dissolved proteins, glucose, ions, hormones, clotting factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does hematocrit measure?

A

volume percentage of red blood cells in blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is red cell distribution width (RDW)?

A

Measure of range in variation of RBC volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is MCV?

A

average volume of red blood cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is MCH?

A

average mass of hemoglobin in erythrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is MCHC?

A

concentration of hemoglobin in a given volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is RPI?
Corrected reticulocyte % based on RBC volume, reticulocyte production index
26
What is anisocytosis?
variation in RBC size, increase in RDW
27
What is poikilocytosis?
variation in RBC shape
28
Definition by anemia
decreased RBC volume
29
Definition of polycythemia
Increased RBC
30
Definition of thrombopenia
Decreased platelets
31
Definition of thrombocythemia
Increased platelets
32
Definition of leukocytosis
Increased WBC
33
Definition of leukopenia
Decreased WBC
34
Definition of lymphocytosis
Increased lymphocytes
35
Definition of lymphopenia
Decreased lymphocytes
36
Definition of neutropenia
Decreased neutrophils
37
Definition of eosinophilia
Increased eosinophils
38
Definition of neutrophilia
Increased neutrophils
39
Pancytopenia
Decrease of all cell lines
40
Normal male Hb
13.5-17.5
41
Normal Male Hct
40-52
42
Normal male MCV
80-95
43
Normal female Hb
12.3-15.3
44
Normal female Hct
36-48
45
Normal female MCV
80-95
46
What are the signs and symptoms of iron deficiency anemia
fatigue, weakness, headaches, dizziness, lightheadedness, pale skin, irregular heartbeats, shortness of breath, chest pain, cold hands and feet
47
What can cause iron deficiency anemia?
Dietary lack of iron or decreased absorption, impaired absorption, chronic blood or iron loss
48
What are the steps in lab evaluation of anemia
1. CBC and reticulocyte index 2. Categorization as microcytic, macrocytic, normocytic based on MCV 3. Exam of peripheral smear 4. Serum iron level, Total iron binding cap, serum ferritin levels (separate out microcytic anemias)
49
What are the types of anemia that occur due to MCV<80?
Iron deficiency, thalassemia, anemia of chronic disease, sideroblastic anemia
50
What are the types of anemia that occur due to MCV>100?
Megaloblastic anemia due to B12 or folate deficiency, alcohol liver disease
51
What are the types of normocytic anemia that have a high reticulocyte count?
Sickle cell anemia, G6PD Deficiency, hereditary spherocytosis, autoimmune hemolytic anemia, paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria, Thalassemia may also have a high reticulocyte count
52
What are the types of normocytic anemia that have a low reticulocyte count?
Marrow failure, aplastic anemia, myelofibrosis, leukemia, renal failure, anemia of chronic disease
53
When might nucleated RBCs be seen in blood?
compensatory erythropoiesis due to severe anemia or chronic hypoxia; hyposplenism or asplenia due to sickle cell anemia or traumatic splenectomy
54
What are some morphologic changes seen in megaloblastic hyperplasia?
macrocytic ovalocytes (MCV>100), hypersegmented neutrophils, hypercellular bone marrow with giant metamyelocytes and bands
55
What are some morphologic changes seen in aplastic anemia?
Hypocellular bone marrow, reduced hematopoiesis; pancytopenia of all cell lines
56
What are some morphologic changes seen in metastatic carcinoma?
Replacement of bone marrow by metastatic tumor, may see a fibrotic response
57
What is leukoerythroblastosis?
Nucleated and teardrop RBC, immature WBC, suggestive of displacement of hematopoietic elements
58
Define extramedullary hematopoiesis
hematopoiesis occurring in organs outside bone marrow, like the spleen, liver, lymph nodes
59
What conditions might EMH occur?
severe chronic anemia of thalassemia, stem cell failure, infection, severe chronic anemia, malignant transformation and replacement
60
What are schistocytes?
Fragmented red blood cells typically seen in microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
61
What are "bite" cells or Heinz bodies?
RBC with denatured hemoglobin typically seen in G6PD deficiency, oxidative stress, cross binding and protein deposition
62
What is the normal WBC count?
4.8-10.8k/ul
63
What are some potential causes of neutrophilia?
acute bacterial infection, medications, cigarette smoking, various types of physical stress, myeloproliferative neoplasms
64
What is a "band"?
horseshoe nucleus, premature WBC
65
What is toxic granulation?
dark coarse granules in neutrophils seen in inflammatory conditions
66
What is a leukemoid reaction?
WBC>50,000 with increased neutrophils, without evidence of leukemia due to infection, drugs, carcinoma; leukocyte alkaline phosphatase is elevated
67
What is chronic myelogenous leukemia? Morphological features?
WBC count 100,000; typically seen in adults; increased WBCs with spectrum of peripheral blood, immature blasts which eventually can be seen in bone marrow
68
What is acute myeloid leukemia?
accumulation of immature myeloid blasts in bone marrow typically peaks at 60yo, can present with anemia, throbocytopenia, and neutropenia due to bone marrow crowding
69
What are some morphological findings seen in acute lymphoblastic leukemia?
numerous blasts on peripheral smear or bone marrow
70
What is the typical count for platelets?
140-450k /uL
71
What is the clinical presentation of thrombocytopenia?
Mucocutaneous bleeding with low platelet counts
72
What are some causes of thrombocytopenia?
Increased platelet destruction (autoimmune, drug induced, etc.), decreased production of platelets (bone marrow replacement), or sequestration

MOD (34 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions