Chapter 156 - Miscellaneous Bacterial Infections With Cutaneous Manifestations Flashcards

(63 cards)

1
Q

Most common form of anthrax associated with lowest morbidity

A

Cutaneous anthrax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Natural pathogens of anthrax (3)

A

Sheep
Goats
Cattle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Anthrax is CDC Category __

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

There is no potential for human to human transmission of inhalational anthrax.
True or False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

MC route of transmission of anthrax

A

Percutaneous inoculation of spores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Injectional anthrax is more __ than cutaneous anthrax with ___ mortality rate.

A

Insidious without eschar

Higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Major virulence factors of anthrax (2)

A
  1. Poly-D-glutamic acid capsule
  2. Tripartite anthrax toxin
    (Protective antigen, lethal factor, edema factor)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Best target for vaccines or immunotherapy of anthrax

A

Protective antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

True pustules are pathognomonic for anthrax.

True or False

A

False, rare

‘Malignant pustule’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Important feature for differentiating anthrax from brown recluse spider bite

A

Painless necrotic ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Naturally occurring anthrax is treated with

A

Penicillin

Doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Weaponized anthrax or bioterrorism associated anthrax is treated with

A

Fluroquinolones, even in pregnant or on children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

FDA -license humanized monoclonal antibody approved for cases of inhalational anthrax

A

Raxibacumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Smears and cultures from vesicles or from the necrotic tissue beneath the eschar became negative within __ hours of initiation of penicillin therapy for anthrax

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Mortality rate of untreated cutaneous anthrax is roughly

A

5-20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Most common form of tularemia in the United States

A

Ulceroglandular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Most common tick vectors of tularemia (3)

A

Dermacentor variabilis
Amblyomma americanun
Ixodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Mosquitoes may serve as mechanical vectors of waterborne variant of tularemia (F. Tularensis holarctica)
True or False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Type of Francisella that infect patients with inherited defects in phagocytosis such as chronic granulomatous disease

A

Francisella philomiragia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Painful red ulcer evolving into a necrotic chancriform ulcer covered by a black eschar with regional lymphadenopathy

A

Tularemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Culture of F. Tularensis

A

Cysteine-supplemented blood agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Treatment for tularemia (3)

A

Aminoglycoside (Gentamicin) 10 days
Fluroquinolone 10 days
Doxycycline 15 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Prophylaxis for tularemia

A

Ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Types of tularemia (5)

A
Ulceroglandular: 5% mortality rate
Oculoglandular 
Oropharyngeal
Typhoidal: 30% mortality rate
Pulmonary: 30% moratlity rate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Most common form of plague; Form of plague with highest mortality
Bubonic plague | Pneumonic plague
26
Flea vector associated with epidemic plague in the Old World
Xenopsylla cheopis
27
Plague is considered a CDC category __ biologic weapon
A
28
Hallmark of bubonic plague
Tender regional LN with extensive subcutaneous edema
29
In anthrax, most common site of buboes in adults; in children
Inguinal buboes | Cervical and axillary buboes
30
Diagnosis of plague is suggested with a convalescent passive hemagglutinin titer greater than ___
1:16
31
Preferred treatment but not FDA approved for plague
Gentamicin x 10 days
32
Use as postexposure prophylaxis for plague
Doxycyline x 10 days | Cotrimoxazole
33
All forms of plague are nearly always fatal. | True or False
False, pneumonic and septicemic
34
Most important way to prevent plague
Rodent control prevention
35
Brucellosis involve 4 organ systems
Joints Reproductive organs Liver CNS
36
Reservoirs for Brucella
Domesticated animals
37
2 species that commonly infect human
Brucella melitensis | Brucella abortus
38
Most common source for human infection
Contaminated unpasteurized milk or cheese
39
Cause of mortality of most brucellosis patients
Endocarditis
40
Culture of Brucella sp | Specimen for culture
8 to 10% CO2 | BM biopsy
41
Cross reactions with ___ are known and recent ___ baccination may stimulate false positive Brucella agglutination
F. Tularensis | Cholera
42
Treatment for brucellosis
Doxycyline and Rifampin for 6 weeks
43
Brucella is categorized as Category ___ bioweapon
B
44
Brucella is an intracellular pathogen hence AIDS patients have a more frequent or more severe disease. True or False
False, do not
45
Matching type 1. Fatal endocarditis 2. Abortion in cattle 3. Caseation necrosis A. Abortus B. Melitensis C. Canis D. Suis
B A D
46
Skin lesions occur in <5% of patients as violaceous papulonodular eruption on trunk and lower extremities. True or False
True
47
For cultures, ___ have the highest yield
Bone marrow specimens
48
Causative agent of glanders
Burkholderia mallei
49
Characteristic eruption of glanders is crops of pustules, papules, bulla with prominent involvement of ____
Nasal mucosa
50
Common manifestation of glanders
Mucopurulent bloody nasal discharge
51
Counterpart of glanders in animals
Farcy
52
Agglutination titer of ___ for brucellosis is sufficient to begin treatment
1:160
53
Treatment for glanders
Sulfadiazine + Ceftazidime, Gentamicin, Doxycycline, Imipenem, Ciprofloxacin
54
Subcutaneous and viscera abscesses of glanders should be treated for ___
1 year
55
Treatment for pasteurella multicida
Co-amoxiclav
56
Cat teeth are longer and sharper and may cause (2)
Septic arthritis | Osteomyelitis
57
Characteristic for pasteurella multocida
Necrotizing cellulitis
58
2 etiologic agent of rat bite fever
Streptobacillus moniliformis | Spirillum minus
59
Classic triad of rat bite fever
Fever Polyarthralgia Acral rash
60
Confirmatory diagnosis of rat bite fever
Blood cultures
61
Matching type 1. Less than 10 days incubation period 2. Bite occurs concurrently with systemic symptoms 3. 60% arthritis 4. Rash most prominent on palms, soles, and around joints A. Streptobacillus moniliformis B. Spirillum minus
A B A A
62
MOT of rat bite fever
Rat bite Or Contact with rat contaminated food or drink
63
Culture of rat bite fever sp
Trypticase soy broth | Supplemented thioglycolate