Chapter 186- Systemic and Topical Antibiotics Flashcards

(51 cards)

1
Q

First line options for empiric therapy for mild and moderate nonpurulent SSTIs (2)

A

B lactam antibiotics (penicillin &;; cephalosporins)

Clindamycin

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2
Q

Empiric therapy for moderate and severe purulent SSTIs should cover

A

MRSA

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3
Q

Inhibits 50s protein synthesis (4)

A

Lincosamides (clindamycine)
Macrolides
Streptogramins
Oxazolidinones

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4
Q

Mainstay of therapy for SSTIs

A

B lactams

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5
Q

Matching type

  1. Francisella tularensis
  2. HA-MRSA
  3. Bartonella sp.
  4. Pseudomonas aeroginosa
  5. Actinomyces israelii
A. Amino glycosides 
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Penicillin
D. Streptomycin
E. Vancomycin
A
D
E
A
B
C
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6
Q

Doxycycline can be used for (6)

A
Borrelia burgdorferi, recurrentis
Coxiella burnetti
Ehrlichiosis
Rickettsia
Bacillus anthracis
Chlamydia trachomatis
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7
Q

Azithromycin can be used for (4)

A

Bartonella
Chlamydia trachomatis
Haemophilus ducreyi
Klebsiella granulomatis

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8
Q

Treatment for CA MRSA (5)

A
TMP-SMX
Clindamycin
Doxycyline
Minocycline
Rifampin
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9
Q

Treatment for HA MRSA (9)

A
Vancomycin
Linezolid/Tedizolid
Tigacycline
Daptomycin
Quinopristin + Dalfopristin
Ceftarolinr
Ontovancin/Dalbovancin
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10
Q

Pencillin can be used for (5)

A
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
Pasteurella multocida
Streptococcus pyogenes
Treponema pallidum
Actinomyces israelli
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11
Q

Treatment for Vibrio vulnificus

A

Doxycycline + Ceftazidime

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12
Q

Treatment for Clostridum perfringens

A

Penicillin + clindamycin

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13
Q

Matching type

  1. Natural
  2. Extended spectrum
  3. Aminopenicillin
  4. B lactamase resistant penicillin

A. Broad spectrum, for URTI infection
B. All form of syphilis
C. Uncomplicated SSTIs
D. Pseudomonas

A

B
D
A
C

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14
Q

Penicillin wherein absorption is unaffected by food

A

Amoxicillin

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15
Q

Penicillin cannot enter BBB/ CSF, prostate, and intraocular fluid hence not effective for meningitis.
True or False

A

False, effective for meningitis

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16
Q

Added to penicillin to allow slower relase and prolonged drug delivery (2)

A

Procaine

Benazathine

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17
Q

Penicillins safe for patients with renal failure (3)

A

Nafcillin
Oxacillin
Ureidopenicillin

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18
Q

Most common ADE associated with penicillin use

A

Type 1 hypersensitive reaction

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19
Q

The ___ ring of cephalosporins provides resistance to some B lactamases

A

Dihydrothiazine

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20
Q

Cephalsoporin which crosses blood brain barrier and effective treatment for meningitis (2)

A

Ceftriaxone, cefotaxime

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21
Q

Cephalosporin active against Pseudomonas aeruginosa

22
Q

Cephalosporin used for empiric therapy of severe purulent SSTIs

23
Q

Most oral cephalosporins can be taken without food except (3)

A

Cefaclor
Cefuroxime
Cefpodoxime

24
Q

Cephalosporins safe for usage in patients with allergy to penicillin (3)

A

Cefdinir
Cefpodoxime
Cefuroxime

25
Treatment for Lyme disease
Early: Cefuroxime Late: Ceftriaxone
26
Tetracyclines have greater activity than doxycyline and minocycline against S. aureus as they are less lipophilic. True or False
False, less activity
27
In patient allergic to penicillin, ___ is an alternative for animal bites and syphilis
Doxycycline
28
For tetracyclines, avoid concurrent ingestion with (5)
``` Iron preparations Aluminum hydroxide gels Calcium salts Magnesium salts Milk products ```
29
Facilitates opsonization and phagocytosis amd decreases bacterial adhesion to host cells and production of staphylococcal exotoxin
Clindamycin
30
Clindamycin has antiparasitic activity that targets protein synthesis of ___ organelle essential for survival
Apicoplast
31
Protozoal spectrum of clindamycin
Toxoplasma gondii Babesia Plasmodium falciparum
32
Clindamycin has its impact on abscesses due to its preferential accumulation in ___
Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
33
Contraindication of clindamycin therapy
Hepatic failure Colitis Enhancement of neuromuscular blockade with tubocurarine and pancuronium Antagonism with erythromycin
34
ADE of clindamycin
C. Difficile associated bacteria and pseudomembranous colitis
35
Activity of macrolides to Gram positive pathogens from best to least Azithromycin Clarithromycin Erythromycin
Clarithromycin Erythromycin Azithromycin
36
Azithromycin has good activity against (2)
Pasteurella multocida | Eikinella corrodens
37
Clarithromycin is the most active macrolide against (3)
Mycobacterium chenolae Mycobacterium abscessus Mycobacterium fortuitum
38
Macrolide are associated with increased risk of
Sudden cardiac death or ventricular tachyarrythmias
39
Inhibits the action of bacterial topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and topoisomerase IV
Fluoroquinolones
40
Fluoroquinolone most active against P. Aeruginosa
Ciprofloxacin
41
Effective for STIs
Levofloxacin | Ciprofloxacin
42
Adverse effects of quinolones in the immature
Tendon rupture, arthropathy
43
For SSTIs, levofloxacin should be given ____ if uncomplicated; and ____ if complicated
Levofloxacin 500mg q 24h | Levofloxacin 750mg q 24h
44
MOA of TMP SMX
``` Inhibit DHFR (TMP) Inhibit dihydropteroate synthetase (SMX) ```
45
Contraindications of TMP SMX
MTX | HIV/AIDS
46
TMP SMX is avoided for breastfeeding women, esp during the first ___ weeks of the newborn’s life
6
47
Glycopeptide antibiotic, 1st line for HA MRSA
Vancomycin
48
Red man syndrome is due to ___ release caused by drug impurities and fast infusions of vancomycin
Histamine
49
Lipoglycopeptides with an increased risk of osteomyelitis
Oritavancin
50
Lipoglycopeptides with increased risk of taste disturbances, nephrotoxicity, and QT prolongation
Telavancin
51
First line option for empiric treatment of severe purulent SSTIs
Linezolid