Chapter 23- Musculoskeletal System Flashcards
(112 cards)
1
Q
The musculoskeletal system consists of ____.
A
bones, joints, and muscles
2
Q
The musculoskeletal system is needed for :
A
support and to stand erect
movement
to encase and protect inner vital organs
to produce RBCs in bone marrow
Serve as a reservoir for storage of essential minerals
3
Q
Musculoskeletal components :
A
Bones and cartilage
fibrous, cartilaginous and synovial
Joints
ligaments
Bursa
Muscle
4
Q
___ are places of union of 2 or more bones
A
joints or articulations
5
Q
fibrous bands from one bone to another that strengthen the joint and prevent of union of two or more bones
A
Ligaments
6
Q
enclosed fluid filled sac that serves as a cushion
A
Bursa
7
Q
What kind of joint: Bones united by interjacent fibrous tissue or cartilage and do not move (sutures in skull)
A
Fibrous joints
8
Q
What kind of joint: Separated by fibrous cartilage and are slightly moveable (vertebrae)
A
Cartilaginous joints
9
Q
Freely moveable joints separated by one another and enclosed in a cavity lined with synovial membrane that secretes fluid
A
Synovial joints
10
Q
Bursae are located in areas of ___ to facilitate movement of muscles and tendons
A
potential friction
11
Q
synovial joints are surrounded by ____
A
ligaments
12
Q
Synovial joints contain a layer of ___ cartilage
A
avascular
13
Q
Bending limb at joint
A
Flexion
14
Q
Straightening limb at joint
A
Extension
15
Q
moving limb away from midline of body
A
Abduction
16
Q
Moving limb toward midline of body
A
Adduction
17
Q
turning forearm so that palm is down
A
pronation
18
Q
turning forearm so that palm is up
A
supination
19
Q
moving arm in circle around shoulder
A
circumduction
20
Q
moving sole of foot inward at ankle
A
inversion
21
Q
moving some of foot outward at ankle
A
eversion
22
Q
moving head around central axis
A
rotation
23
Q
moving body part forward, parallel to ground
A
protraction
24
Q
moving body part backward, parallel to ground
A
retraction
25
raising a body part
elevation
26
lowering a body part
depression
27
the articulation of mandible and temporal bone
temporomandibular joint
28
Temporomandibular Joint (TMJ) permits ___
jaw function of speaking and chewing
29
TMJ allows 3 motions:
hinge action to open and close jaws
gliding action for protrusion and retraction
gliding for side-to-side movement of lower jaw
30
33 connecting bones stacked in vertical column
Vertebrae
31
Vertebrae in humans: how many cervical? thoracic? lumbar? sacral? coccygeal?
```
7 cervical
12 thoracic
5 lumbar
5 sacral
3-4 coccygeal
```
32
You can feel the spinous processes in furrow down the __ of the back
midline
33
Spinous processes of __ and __ prominent at base of neck
C7 and T1
34
The inferior angle of scapula normally at level of interspace between __ and __.
T7 and T8
35
The imaginary line connecting highest points on each iliac crest crosses __.
L4
36
Imaginary line joining two symmetric dimples that overlie posterior superior iliac spines crosses the __.
sacrum
37
The lateral view of the spine shows the vertebral column having __ curves, a ___-S shape.
4
| double
38
Cervia and lumbar curves are ___
concave (inward or anterior)
39
Thoracic and sacrococcygeal curves are ___.
convex
40
What allows the spine to absorb shock?
The balanced or compensatory nature of curves together with the intervertebral disks
41
__ are elastic fibrocartilaginous plates that constitute one fourth the length of column
Intervertebral disks
42
__ is the disk center composed of soft, semifluid, mucoid material
Nucleus pulposus
43
Motions of vertebral column:
Flexion, extension, abduction, and rotation
44
What makes up the shoulder girdle?
Humerus, scapula, clavicle, joints and muscle
45
what joint is this? The articulation of humerus with glenn is fossa of scapula
Glenohumeral joint
46
___ action allows mobility of arm on many axes
ball-and-socket
47
A group of 4 (SITS) muscles and tendons that support and stabilize shoulder
Rotator cuff
48
the subacromial bursa assists with ___ of the arm.
Abduction
49
Landmarks::: The scapula and clavicle form the ____.
Shoulder girdle
50
You can feel the bump of the ___ a domino process at the very top of the shoulder.
scapula’s
51
The elbow joint contains 3 bony articulations:
humerus, radius, and ulna of forearm
52
Palpable landmarks for elbow:
medial and lateral epicondyles of humerus and large olecranon process of ulna between them.
53
The radius and ulna articulate with eachother at 2 radioulnar joints, one at the __ and one at the ___.
elbow
| wrist
54
The condyloid action permits movement in 2 planes at rught angles: __ and __ and ___ deviation.
flexion
extension
side-to-side
55
The midcarpal joint allows :
flexion, extension, and some rotation
56
The articulation(joint) of the hip is :
between acetabulum and head of the femur
57
The ball-and-socket action on the hip permits ____
wide range of motion on many axes
58
__ enhance stability and ___ facilitate movement.
muscles
| bursae
59
Palpation of what bony landmarks will guide your examination??
iliac crest
ischial tuberosity
greater trochanter of the femur
60
What joint is this? The articulation of three bones- femur, tibia, and patella— in common articulation cavity
Knee joint
61
What is the largest joint in the body?
Knee joint
62
The knee joint permits __ and __ of lower leg on single plane
flexion
| extension
63
____ membrane is the largest in the body.
Synovial
64
Two wedge-shaped cartilages, called __ and ___, cushion the tibia and femur.
medial
| lateral menisci
65
The knee is stabilized by 2 sets of ligaments:
Cruciate
| Collateral ligaments
66
__ ligaments give anterior and posterior stability and help control rotation .
Cruciate
67
___ ligaments give medial and lateral stability and prevent dislocation.
Collateral
68
Landmarks of the knee:
Quadriceps muscle, felt on anterior and lateral thigh.
Tibial tuberosity- felt as bony prominence in the midline
Note lateral and medial condyles of tibia
Medial and lateral epicondyles of femur are on either side of patella
69
The articulation of the tibia, fibula, and talus
Ankle or tibiotalar joint
70
Hinge joint: limited to __ and __ in one plane
flexion (dorsiflexion)
extension (plantar flexion)
71
Joints distal tibia ankle give ____
additional mobility to the foot.
72
subtalar joints permit __ and __ of foot.
inversion and eversion
73
Foot has a ___ arch, with weight-bearing distributed between parts that touch the ground, the ___ and ___.
longitudinal arch
heads of the metatarsals and the calcaneous (heel)
74
By age __, fetus has formed “scale model” of the skeleton of cartilage.
3
75
__ to true bone continues in utero
Ossification
76
“in the uterus”
in utero
77
Bone growth occurs in __ dimensions.
2
78
specialized growth plates at the end of long bones
Epiphyses
79
Longitudinal growth continues until ___
closure of epiphyses. (last closure occurs at about age 20)
80
Muscle scary in size and strength in different people due to __, __, and ___.
genetics
nutrition
exercise
81
Pregnant Woman: increased levels of circulating hormones cause increased _____
mobility in joints
| estrogen, relaxin, corticosteroids
82
Increased mobility in __, __, and __ pubis joints in pelvis contributed to noticeable changes in maternal posture.
sacroiliac
sacrococcygeal
symphysis
83
Most characteristic change in pregnant women is ___ leading to increased back strain.
progressive lordosis
84
Pressure on ___ and ___ nerves are seen in the last trimester.
ulnar and median
85
Compensatory postural change in pregnant women:
anterior flexion of neck and slumping of shoulder girdle
86
___ ___ is cyclic process of resorption and deposition.
Bone remodeling
87
After age 40, __ occurs more rapidly than __.
resorption
| deposition
88
Aging adult: ___ and ___ are most noticeable changes.
postural changed
| decreased height
89
___ leading to different contour in again adults.
Distribution of subcutaneous fat changes
90
Loss of subcutaneous fat leaves ___ more marked.
bony prominences
91
Aging adult; theirs an absolute loss in ____.
Decrease in size and atrophy produces ___
muscle mass
weakness
92
Bone mineral density (BMD)
Higher BMD = ____
Lower BMD = ____
Higher BMD- denser bone
Lower BMD- consistent predictor of hip and vertebral fractures
93
Earlier peak and rapid decline of BMD associated with increased fracture risk in ____ women.
Caucasian
94
The purpose of a musculoskeletal examination is to ____
assess function for ADLs and to screen for abnormalities
95
Take an orderly approach such as :
head to toe
proximal to distal
and from midline outward
96
Does an audible and palpable snap or click occur in the mouth of healthy or sick people?
healthy
97
Phalen test
Acute flexion of wrist produces numbness and burning if it is positive
98
Tinel sign test
percussion of median nerve produces burning and tingling if positive
99
Limitation of abduction of hip while supine is most common motion dysfunction found in ___
hip disease
100
Perform McMurray’s test if ____ is suspected in knee.
*audible click on examination is positive for prescence of this*
meniscal tear
101
If swelling is observed, test for ___ and ballottement of patella to distinguish soft-tissue swelling or increased fluid in joint.
bulge sign
102
Enhanced thoracic curve typically seen in aging people
Kyphosis
103
Pronounced lumbar curve seen in obese people
Lordosis
104
When palpating spinous processes they should be :
straight and not tender
105
When palpating paravertebral muscles they should be:
should feel firm with no tenderness or spasm.
106
Spine; Flexion should be how many degrees?
75 to 90 degrees
107
The concave lumbar curve should disappear with flexion , and back should have a single ____ curve.
Convex C-shaped
108
Spine: When person is bent over, mark a dot on each spinous process, and when patient resumes standing the dots should ___.
Form a straight vertical line.
109
Spine: When they bend sideways the degrees should be ___.
When they bend backward the degrees should be ___.
When they twist shoulders the rotation of degrees should be ___
35
30
30
110
When doing Leg raising (Lasegue’s) Test, if it produces sciatic pain, then it confirms presence of ____.
herniated nucleus pulposus.
111
___ test and ___ test are used to check for hip dislocation.
Allis test
| Ortolani’s maneuver
112
A twisting of the tibia
Tibial torsion
