Chapter 4 Flashcards

(60 cards)

1
Q

Genetic code

A

DNA nucleotides –> amino acids in protein

amino acid specified by one or more nucleotide triplet (codon)

(3rd base usually varies)

code is universal

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2
Q

What is a codon?

A

three bases (triplet)

64 codons

61 code for amino acids

UAG, UAA, UGA: stop codons

AUG=start codon; methionine

–protein synthesis begins with methionine (Met) in eukaryotes and formylmethionine (fmet) in prokaryotes

20 amino acids

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3
Q
A
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4
Q

What is a point mutation?

A

single nucleotide change in gene

a) transition: point mutation that replaces purine-pyrimidine pair with a different purine-pyrimidine pair
b) transversion: point mutation that replace purine-pyrimidine base pair with a pyrimidine-purine base pair
ex. silent, missense, nonesense

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5
Q

What is a silent mutation?

A

point mutation

new codon specifies same amino acid

no effect on protein

usually in 3rd position (wobble position) of codon

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6
Q

What is a missense mutation?

A

point mutation

new codon specifies different amino acid

possible decrease in protein function; variable effects

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7
Q

What is an example of a missense mutation leading to pathology?

A

Sickle cell anemia

ß-globin at position 6 (A–>T)

glutamine (-) –> valine (hydrophobic)

other examples: PKU, maple syrup

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8
Q

What is a nonsense mutation?

A

point mutation

new codon is stop codon

protein shorter than normal, usually nonfunctional

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9
Q

What is an exmple of a nonsense mutation leading to pathology?

A

few pathology because usually lethal

Hemophilia: nonsense mutation leads to factor VIII deficiency because

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10
Q

What is a frameshift mutation?

A

addition or deletion of base(s)

reading frame shifts–all AA after deleted NT are incorrect

mainly lethal

additoin or deletion of multiple of 3 bases doesn’t cause frameshift

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11
Q

What is an example of a frameshift mutation that causes a pathology?

A

Tay Sach’s

4 nucleotide insertion

leads to defect in hexosaminidase A

splicing impaired

high incidence in Jews

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12
Q

What is a 5’ splice site (donor) or 3’ splice site (acceptor) mutation?

A

variable protein effects ranging from addition or deletion of a few amino acids to deletion of an entire exon

–splicesomes:

*may delete nucleotides from adjacent exon

*leave nucleotides of intron in processed DNA

*use next normal upstream or downstream splice site, delteing exon from processed mRNA

ex. Tay-Sachs, ß-thalassemia, Gaucher disease

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13
Q

What is a triplet (trinucleotide) repeat expansion?

A

expansion in coding regions cause protein product to be longer than normal and unstable

Disease often shows anticipation pedigree

ex. Hunington’s disease (CAG repeats), fragile X syndrone, myotonic dystrophy, spinobulbar muscular atrophy, Freidreich’s ataxia

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14
Q

Describe Huntington’s disease.

A

autosomal dominant disorder

onset=43-48 years old

symptoms appear gradually and worsen for 15 years until death

First signs: Mood disturbance, impaired memory, hyperreflexia

Later symptoms: abnormal gait, chorea, dystonia, dementia, dysphagia

juvenile onset (<10 years): more severe; defective allele inherted paternally

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15
Q

What is anticipation?

A

number of repeasts of triplet repeat expansion increases with successive generations and correlates with increasing severity and decreasing age of onset

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16
Q

What are large segment deletions?

A

large segments of DNA delted from a chromosome during unequal crossover in meoisis

ex. ß thalassemia (delete œ-globin gene from chromosome 16)
ex. Cri-du-chat (terminal deletion of short arm of chromosome 5)

mental retardation, microcephaly, wide set eyes, kitten-like cry

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17
Q

What is ß-thalassemia?

A

Two genes for beta chain of hemoglobin

deficiency of ß-globin protein

primarily in Mediterranean areas

abnormality of RBC in ß-thalassemia may protect against malaria

splenomegaly becuase clearing of damaged red cells

excessive activity of bone marrow produces bone deformities of face and other areas

long bones of arms and legs are abnormally weak and fracture easily

treament: blood transfusions, but iron overload is consequence

caused by:

  • gene deletions
  • mutations that slwo transcriptional process
  • translational defects (nonsense, frameshift mutations)
  • ß-globin mRNA processing (splice site mutation at consensus sequences)

mutation in intron 1 create new splice site so very long mRNA

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18
Q

What is amino acid activation?

A

tRNAs enter cytoplasm and combine with amino acid at 3’ end via high energy bond

(bond later supplies energy to make peptide bond)

–each amino acid is activated by a different aminoacyl tRNA synthetase

Two high energy bonds from ATP are required for process

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19
Q

What errors occur with aminoacyl tRNA synthetase?

A

aminoacyl tRNA synthetase releases incorrect paried product and no mechanisms during translation to detect error and incorrect amino acid introduced into protein

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20
Q

What is a peptide bond? What is the enzyme that forms it?

A

Alpha-carboxyl group of one amino acid in the P site and alpha–amino group of another amino acid in the A site of the ribosome

Proteins are synthesized amino to carboxyl terminus

peptidyl transferase (ribozyme)

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21
Q

What is interesting about prokaryotic translation?

A

prokaryotes can begin translating the mRNA before RNA polymerase cmopletes transcription because transcription and translation both take place in the cytoplasm

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22
Q

What are the steps of translation and what are the protein factors required for each step?

A

initation (IF), elongation (EF), termination (release factors)

GTP required

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23
Q

Describe initation in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

A

Prokaryotes:

small ribosomal subunit (16s rRNA) binds to mRNA (Shine-Dalgarno sequence in the 5’ untranslated region of mRNA

initiator tRNA carries fmet

Eukaryotes:

small subunit (40s rRNA) binds to 5’ cap and slides down message to first AUG

initiator tRNA carries Met

Both:

large subunit binds

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24
Q

What is the P and A site of the ribosome?

A

peptidyle site (P site): where (f)met-tRNA intially binds; binding site for growing peptide chain

aminoacyl site (A site): binds new incoming tRNA molecules

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25
What does aminoglycoside do? Examples?
Inhibits 30S (small prokaryotic ribosomal subunit) by bidning to Shine-Dalgarno Examples: streptomycin, gentamycin
26
What does linezolid do?
Binds to 50S (large prokaryotic ribosomal subunit) and inhibits initiation phase of translation
27
Describe elongation.
**Each cycle uses 4 high energy bonds** --2 from ATP used in amino acid activation to charge tRNA and 2 from GTP **1)** Charged tRNA binds in A site **2)** peptidyl transferase (part of large subunit) forms peptide bond and bond of growing peptide to the tRNA in P site is broken and growing peptide attached to tRNA in A site **3)** translocation--ribosome moves three nucleotides --accomplished by elongation factor 2 (eEF2) in eukaryotes
28
29
What does Pseudomonas and Diphtheria toxin do?
inactivates eEF-2 through ADP-ribosylation
30
What does Shiga and Shiga-like toxins do?
Clip adenine residue from 28S rRNA in the 60S subunit, which stops protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells
31
What does tetracycline do?
inhibits codon-antidon binding in 30S region of ribosome so no protein synthesis in prokaryotes
32
What does chloramphenicol do?
Innhibits peptidyl transferase
33
What do macrolides do?
Bind to 50S subunit and inhibit elongation by blocking translocation
34
What does clindamycin do?
Binds to 50S subunit and inhibits elongation
35
Describe termination.
3 stop codons move into A side, peptidyl transferase + release factors hydrolyzes the completed protein from the final tRNA in the P site mRNA, ribosome, tRNA, and factors can be reused for additional protein synthesis
36
What are polysomes?
several ribosomes translate message at same time found in cytoplasm or attached to RER
37
What is Gray syndrome?
premature babies given chloramphenicol--used to fight bacterial infections, including meningitis in newborn, can trigger deadly reaction because babies don't have enough UDP\_glucuronyl transferase needed to excrete drug Drug builds up in bloodsteam and leads to: - blue lips, nail beds, skin (cyanosis) - death - low BP
38
What are the levels of protein folding?
1. primary: sequence of amino acids 2. secondary: folding of amino acid chain; reinforced by H-bonds --alpha-helix and beta-pleated sheet 3. tertiary: positionary of secondary structures in relation to each other; stabilized by weak bonds or strong, covalent disulfid bonds --globular, fibrous --heat or urea can disrupt tertiary structure to denature proteins, causing loss of function 4. quaternary: multiple subunits
39
Where does translation take place in eukaryotes?
Begin on ribosomes free is cytoplasm 1) assocated with RER: secreted proteins, proteins inserted into cell membrane, lysosomal enzymes 2) free cytoplasmic ribosomes: cytoplasmic proteins, mitochondrial proteins (encoded by nuclear genes)
40
What are chaperones?
Assist in protein folding
41
What happens to proteins that don't fold correctly?
1. defective copies are covalently marked for destruction by addition of many copies of ubiquitin (with ATP) 2. polyubiquinated proteins go to proteasomes for destruction 3. proteasomes: large cytoplasmic complexes with multiple proteases that digest damaged proteins to peptides --also play role in producing antigenic peptides for presntation by class I MHC molecules
42
What occurs in alpha-1 anti trypsin deficiency?
alpha-1 anti trypsin misfolds because mutation in gene or mutation in chaperone --inclusion bodies form in hepatocytes --proteasome is in cytoplasm so can't clear misfolded proteins
43
What occurs in cystic fibrosis?
deletion of phenylalanine at position 508 (∆F508), which interferes with proper protein folding and post-translational processing of oligosaccharide side chains --abnormal chloride channel protein (CFTR) is degraded by cytosolic proteasome complex instead of being translocated to cell membrane
44
What directs proteins to appropriate organelles?
1) N terminal hydrophobic signal sequence --\> translation on RER a) secreted proteins or lysosomal proteins b) translate signal sequence--\>RER with hep of signal recognition particle--\>nascent protein goes in lumen and signal sequence cleaved in RER c) in transit to Golgi, proteins get oligosaccharide chains attached at serine or threoniine residues (O-linked) or asparagine residues (N-linked) 2) phosphorylation of mannose residues in oligosaccharide chains --\>enzymes goes to lysosome a) enzyme=n-acetylglucosamine 1 phosphotransferase
45
What is I-cell disease?
defect in mannose reside phophorylation of lysosomal enzyme (phosphotransferase)--\> lysosomal enzymes released into extracellular space--\>inflammation --inclusion bodies accumulate in cell and compromise its function (lysosomes and endosomes fuse but no enzymes)
46
What are the symptoms of I-cell disease?
\*course facial features, gingial hyperplasia, macroglossia \*craniofacial normalities, joint immobility, clubfoot, claw-hand, scoliosis \*psychomotor retardation, growth retardation \*cardiorespiratory failure, death in first deade \* bone fracture and deformities \*mitral valve defect \*secretion of active lysosomal enzymes into blood and extracellular fluid
47
What are all secreted and cell membrane proteins?
glycoproteins sugars added to asparagine (N) by dilichol-P
48
What are examples of co-translational and post-translational modifications?
co-translational: N-glycosylation in ER lumen Post-translational: O-glycosylation in Golgi
49
What do lysosomes do?
digest materials that cell has ingested by endocytosis contains enzymes that digest carbohydrates (glycosylases), lipids (lipases), and proteins (proteases) prominent in neutrophils and macrophages
50
What causes Tay-Sachs?
lysosomal enzyme is missing so undigested substrate accumulates in cell
51
What are covalent modfication of proteins?
1) glycosylation: addition of oligosaccharide as proteins go through ER and Golgi 2) proteolyssi: cleaage of peptide bonds to remodel proteins and activate them (proinsulin) 3) phosphorylation: addition of phosphate by protein kinases 4) gamma carboxylation: produces Ca2+ binding sites prenylation: addition of farnesyl or geranylgeranyl lipid groups to certain membrane associated proteins
52
How is collagen synthesized?
1) prepro-alpha chains contains hydrophobic signal sequences are made by ribosomes attached to RER 2) hydrophobic signal sequence emoved by singal peptidase in RER toform pro-alpha chains 3) some prolines and lysines are hydroxylated by prolyl- and lysyl hydroxylases --enzymes located in RER requires ascorbate (vitamin C) --Ehler-Danlos VI: defected proline hydroxylase 4) selected hydroxylysines are glycosylated 5) 3 pro-apha chains form triple helical structure (procollagen) 6) procollagen secreted from cell 7) propeptides cleaved from ends of procollagen by proteases --\> collagen (tropocollagen) 8) collagen molecules assemble into fibrils; cross-linking by lysyl oxidase (requires O2 and copper) 9) fibrils aggregate and cross-link to form collagen fibers
53
What is collagen?
repeating tripeptide --Gly-X-Y-Gly-X-Y hydroxyproline: amino acid unique to collagen --produced by hydroxylation of prolyl resides at Y positions in procollagen chains as they go through RER
54
What causes scurvy?
deficiency in ascorbate (vitamin C) --needed for prolyl and lysyl hydroxylase activity **Symptoms:** hyperelastic skin, petechiae, ecchymoses, loose teeth, bleeding gums, poor wound healing, poor bone development
55
What is type 1 collagen?
bundles of fibers, high tensile strength --bones, skins, tendons DISEASES=osteogenesis imperfecta (easy fracturing in utero, skeletal deformities, blue sclera), Ehler-Danlos
56
What is type II collagen?
thin fibrils, structural --cartilage, vitreous humor
57
What is type III collagen?
thin fibrills, pliable --blood vessels, granulation tissues DISEASES: Ehlers-Danlos Type IV, Keloid formation
58
What is type IV collagen?
Amphorphous --basement membranes DISEASES: goodpasture syndrome, alport disease (problem with arteries) epidermolysis bullosa
59
What causes Ehlers-Danlos?
mutations in collagen genes and lysyl hydroxylase gene **symptoms: ** hyperextensible, fragile skin, hypermobile joints, dislocations, varicose veins, ecchymoses, arterial and intestinal ruptures Ex. Type IV, vascular type --autosomal dominant disease caused by mutations in gene for type 3 procollagen --thin, translucent skin, arterial, instestinal or uterine rupture and easy bruising
60
What is Menkes disease?
Ehlers Danlos syndrome type IX X linked recessive mutations in gene APT7A--encodes ATP dependent copper efflux protein in intestine --copper can be absorbed into mucosal cell but not transported to blood stream deficient cross-linking secondary to functional copper deficiency (lysyl oxidase can't work) **Symptoms:** depigmented (steely) hair, arterial tortuosity and rupture, cerebral degeneration, osteoporosis, anemia