CI Flashcards by Bianca Tiu

A therapist designs a cardiovascular training program for a 29-year-old male rehabilitating from a lower extremity injury. The client has no known cardiovascular pathology and has been cleared for exercise by his physician. The client’s maximum heart rate during exercise should be calculated in
beats per minute as
a. 201
b. 170
c. 191
d. 181

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In coronary artery disease, the following conditions exist, EXCEPT:
a. It may produce ischemia and necrosis of the myocardium
b. Arteries are unable to meet metabolic demands
c. There is inability for vasodilation
d. There is transient reversible oxygen deficiency

d. There is transient reversible oxygen deficiency

ischemia and necrosis of the heart is irreversible

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Orientation is ________.
a. A state of motor restlessness where patient seems unable to sit still and usually is very
troubled by this symptom
b. Is an irreversible loss of cognitive functioning, or chronic organic brain syndrome, often manifesting as a memory impairment.
c. The understanding of one’s environment, in terms of time, place, and person.
d. The delusional feeling that people are out to get you

c. The understanding of one’s environment, in terms of time, place, and person.

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In the glomerular capillary, glomerular filtration is highest in the
a. Beginning
b. Middle to the end
c. Middle
d. End
e. Beginning to middle

a. Beginning

60% of glomerular filtration happens in the beginning of the process

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What valve prevents the left ventricular blood from returning to the left atrium?
a. Tricuspid
b. Mitral
c. Ventricular
d. Aortic

b. Mitral

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A therapist discusses the importance of proper nutrition with a client diagnosed with congestive heart failure. Which of the following substances would be most restricted in this client’s diet?
a. Cholesterol
b. Triglycerides
c. Potassium
d. Sodium

d. Sodium

CHF is signified by cardiac decompensation
Sodium attracts water, which increases the BW inside
Heart has difficulty pumping blood

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Syncope is
a. also referred to as cardinal signs.
b. a temporary suspension of consciousness.
c. a shrill, harsh sound, especially the respiratory sound heard during inspiration in laryngeal. obstruction.
d. the period when the greatest amount of pressure is exerted on the walls of the arteries during heartbeat

b. a temporary suspension of consciousness.

c. –> stridor
d. –> BP

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___________ starts near the end of the R wave and ends just after the T wave on the ECG.
a. Early diastole
b. Late diastole
c. Ventricular systole
d. Atrial systole

c. Ventricular systole

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In ECG, this wave pattern represents the delay before repolarization of the ventricles and may
indicate acute myocardial infarction.
a. STP
b. P wave
c. QRS
d. ST segment
e. T wave

d. ST segment

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Id is
a. the perception of sensory stimulus in the absence of any sensory stimulus.
b. a part of the mind hypothesized by Freud to contain inherent aggressive and sexual drives.
c. a mental state of sadness, low self-esteem, and self-reproach.
d. a mood characterized by elation and increased activity.

b. a part of the mind hypothesized by Freud to contain inherent aggressive and sexual drives.

Id - pleasure
Ego - reality
Superego - conscience

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Filling of ventricles occurs maximally during _________.
a. First 1/3 of diastole
b. Rapid ejection period
c. Isovolumic contraction period
d. Atrial systole

a. First 1/3 of diastole

75% is transferred during this period

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In the renal vascular system, the highest oncotic pressure is seen at the: _____________.
a. Efferent arterioles
b. Afferent arterioles
c. Renal artery
d. Segmental artery

a. Efferent arterioles

Efferent arterioles - 43%
Afferent arterioles - 26%
Renal artery - 0%
Segmental artery - 16%

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If the ventricular cell is stimulated during the spike of the action potential, it would fall during the
a. Relative refractory period
b. Atrioventricular mode
c. Absolute refractory period
d. Resting phase
e. Supernormal phase

c. Absolute refractory period

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Entry of calcium into the cardiac muscle during the cardiac action potential is an example of
a. primary active transport mechanism.
b. opening of voltage-gated channels.
c. secondary active-transport mechanism.
d. opening of ligand-gated channels.

b. opening of voltage-gated channels.

sudden change in voltage during phase 2 causing voltage-gated channels to open

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Which of the following is not used for pain medication?
a. Topical anesthetics such as lidocaine and tetracaine
b. Salicylates such as aspirin, choline magnesium trisalicylate, and salsalate
c. Acetaminophen
d. Allopurinol

d. Allopurinol - gout (uric acid inhibition)

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Clients with abnormal conduction patterns often can be treated successfully using antiarrhythmic
medication. Which of the following side effects of antiarrythmics does not require immediate
medical attention?
a. Insomnia
b. Shortness of breath
c. Coughing up blood
d. Dizziness

a. Insomnia

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Venous return increases
a. Following generalized vasoconstriction
b. In heart failure
c. During inspiration
d. During a Valsalva maneuver

c. During inspiration

R heart pressure decreases –> more blood volume allowed inside

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A therapist discusses risk factors associated with coronary disease to a patient in a cardiac
rehabilitation program. Which risk factor would be the most relevant for the patient?
a. Weight
b. Elevated serum cholesterol
c. Age
d. Gender
e. Family history

b. Elevated serum cholesterol

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A physician instructs a client to take nonprescription or over the counter medication as part of his
treatment program. Which of the following statements about over the counter medication is not
accurate?
a. Over the counter medications usually contain low doses of their active ingredient
b. Potentially harmful effects are not possible with over-the-counter medications
c. The Food and Drug Administration classifies drugs as prescription or nonprescription
d. Over the counter medications are available without a prescription and can be purchased
directly by consumers.

b. Potentially harmful effects are not possible with over-the-counter medications

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Which of the following include functions of veins?
I. Propels blood through the arterial pump by exerting pressure as blood flows
II. Deregulates cardiac input
III. Stores large quantities of blood and making it available when required
IV. Propels blood through venous pump
V. Regulate cardiac output

a. II, III, V
b. I, II and III
c. III, IV and V
d. II, III and IV

c. III, IV and V

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The following describe clotting abnormalities, EXCEPT:
a. Arterial occlusion and thromboemboli can become lodged in arteries supplying vital
organs.
b. Patients are prone to emboli and bleeding
c. Presence of clots usually rules out movement in the affected limbs
d. It can be caused by restricted mobility and an increase in red blood cells
e. It can originate in the deep arteries of the legs.

e. It can originate in the deep arteries of the legs.

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Oscillations of resting membrane potentials of the GI smooth muscle not associated with muscle
contraction is known as ________.
a. Slow waves
b. Fast waves
c. Spikes
d. Action potentials

a. Slow waves

slow waves = waxing/waning
- outflow of positively charged ions

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Renal blood flow decreases with age will lead to:
I. Loss of renal mass observed with aging
II. Decrease in cardiac output with age
III. Age-related sclerotic changes in the renal arteries
a. II and III
b. I and III
c. I and II
d. I only

c. I and II

sclerotic changes in renal arteries are attributed to pathology

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Dyspnea, a symptom of cardiac dysfunction may be described as follows EXCEPT it ____________.
a. Is often caused by hypertension or aortic valve disease resulting in impaired ventricular relaxation
b. Can occur in patients with left ventricular hypertrophy
c. Often occurs with myocardial ischemia and heart failure
d. Is associated with heart failure or myocardial ischemia, and also with hypotension

a. Is often caused by hypertension or aortic valve disease resulting in impaired ventricular relaxation

results in impaired ventricular CONTRACTION

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A patient was rushed to the hospital and underwent emergency Coronary Artery Bypass Grafting after complaining of persistent severe uncomfortable chest pain. This can be classified as _______ according to the angina scale: a. 2+ b. 5+ c. 3+ d. 1+ e. 4+

c. 3+

An 80-year-old female without medical illness undergoes annual check-up. Liver function tests such as AST and ALT is expected to be __________. a. Twice above the normal range b. Below the normal range c. Above the normal range d. Within normal limits

d. Within normal limits

Which of the following drug is classified as anti-coagulant? a. Propranolol b. Losartan c. Warfarin d. Digitalis

c. Warfarin

The pulmonary artery leaves the heart via the ________. a. Right auricle b. Left ventricle c. Right ventricle d. Left auricle

c. Right ventricle

Paranoia a. A state of motor restlessness where patient seems unable to sit still and usually is very troubled by this symptom. b. Is an irreversible loss of cognitive functioning or chronic organic brain syndrome, often manifesting as a memory impairment. c. The delusional feeling that people are out to get you d. The understanding of one’s environment, in terms of time, place, and person.

c. The delusional feeling that people are out to get you

What promotes water reabsorption from the collecting ducts of the kidneys? a. Glucagon b. Follicle stimulating hormone c. Arginine vasopressin d. Prolactin

c. Arginine vasopressin Vasopressin / ADH --> H2O Reabsorption

The “dub” in Korotkoff’s heart sound is a. The mitral and tricuspid valves closing at diastole b. Associated with atrial contraction c. The aortic and pulmonic valves closing d. Indicative of right ventricular heart failure e. Associated with ventricular filling

c. The aortic and pulmonic valves closing

Delirium is a. The misperception of a sensory stimulus b. The feeling that insects are crawling on one’s skin c. A false belief neither based on reality nor culturally derived and not altered by reasonable evidence to the contrary d. A reversible, acute organic brain syndrome

d. A reversible, acute organic brain syndrome

A fall in the glomerular filtration rate is seen situations, EXCEPT a. fall in blood pressure. b. efferent arteriolar contraction. c. increase in plasma protein concentration. d. obstruction of the tubules. e. tetanic venous contraction.

b. efferent arteriolar contraction. this would increase GFR

Fires when perfused with oxygen-poor blood. a. Carotid sinus b. Axon reflex c. Carotid body d. Dendrite reflex

c. Carotid body carotid body -- sensory receptor (chemoreceptor); detects levels of oygen carotid sinus -- baroreceptor, stretch

Your patient with Parkinson's disease was prescribed levodopa. The side effects of the drug are the following EXCEPT a. arrhythmias b. gastrointestinal distress c. orthostatic hypotension d. impaired visual accommodation

d. impaired visual accommodation

In behavior therapy, this is a process where learning occurs when an individual engages in specific behaviors in order to receive certain consequences. Examples of this include positive reinforcement, extinction and punishment. a. Operant conditioning b. Role playing c. Flooding d. Modeling

a. Operant conditioning

A 29-year old male with a history of schizophrenia, disorganized type, is referred for ambulation after a femoral fracture. Patient recently had an exacerbation of the condition. PT will expect this behavior from patient ______. a. Feelings of low self-esteem b. Poor ability to perform tasks that need abstract problem solving c. Sleep disturbance and flashbacks d. Increased fear of crowd

b. Poor ability to perform tasks that need abstract problem solving

A PT observes an electrocardiogram of a patient on beta-blockers. Which of the following electrocardiogram changes could be facilitated by beta-blockers? a. premature ventricular contractions b. sinus bradycardia c. ST segment sagging d. sinus tachycardia

b. sinus bradycardia

A patient with left sided CHF class II, is referred for physical therapy. During exercises, the patient can be expected to exhibit _________________. a. Anorexia, nausea with abdominal pain and distension b. Dyspnea with fatigue and muscular weakness c. Severe, uncomfortable chest pain with shortness of breath d. Weight gain with dependent edema

b. Dyspnea with fatigue and muscular weakness

Pain in the calf aggravate by walking and elevation of the lower extremity is MOST LIKELY caused by ___________________. a. Arterial insufficiency b. Sciatica c. Venous insufficiency d. Lymphedema

a. Arterial insufficiency

Sudden muscle cramps brought on by exertion and relieved by rest describes this condition. a. Embolic occlusion b. Thrombophlebitis c. Lymphedema d. Claudication

d. Claudication

A PT is treating a 39-year-old female diagnosed with thoracic outlet syndrome. During exercise, the patient begins to complain of light headedness and dizziness. PT immediately takes patient to a chair and monitors her vital signs. Her respiration rate is 11 breaths per minute, pulse rate 50 beats per minute and BP 120/85 mmHg. Which of the following statements is MOST accurate? a. Pulse rate and respiration rate are below normal levels b. The patient’s vital signs are within normal levels c. Pulse rate and BP are above normal levels d. BP and respiration rate are above normal levels

a. Pulse rate and respiration rate are below normal levels

Your patient is a 65-year-old female diagnosed with venous problem. The following therapeutic procedures are usually indicated to prevent progression of condition EXCEPT: _____________. a. Patient with problems in the lower extremities should be encouraged to walk, run, rise on toes b. Electric stimulation is not recommended c. Gentle massage can be given to move the stagnant blood and relieve the pressure d. Intermittent pneumatic compression treatments are commonly given, often followed by exercises

b. Electric stimulation is not recommended can be used to augment BF, also to promote granulation, decrease inflammation for wound healing

A 70-year-old patient with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia comes to therapy confused and has shortness of breath and generalized weakness. You will suspect that the patient ________________. a. Is experiencing unstable angina b. Is showing signs of early Alzheimer’s disease c. Failed to take prescribed hypertension medication d. Is showing early signs of myocardial infarction

d. Is showing early signs of myocardial infarction

A PT employee of a rehabilitation center of a hospital evaluates a patient showing several signs and symptoms of anemia. Which of these questions would be the MOST useful to gather additional information in relation to anemia? a. Does it hurt to take a deep breath? b. Are you susceptible to bruising? c. Do you frequently experience dizziness, headaches or blurred vision? d. Do you experience heart palpations or shortness of breath at rest or with mild exertion?

d. Do you experience heart palpations or shortness of breath at rest or with mild exertion? bruising -- d/t bleeding

A patient was referred to PT with fingertips that are rounded and bulbous. The nail plate is more convex than normal. These changes were considered by the PT as indicating __________. a. Trauma to the nail bed b. Inflammation of the proximal and lateral nail folds c. Psoriasis d. Chronic hypoxia from heart disease

d. Chronic hypoxia from heart disease trauma = white spots inflammation of prox. and lat. folds = paronychia psoriasis = oil spot lesions (yellow spots)

Many of patients seen in physical therapy are susceptible to excessive heat exposure. Heat exhaustion occurs when a person is exposed to more heat than the thermoregulatory mechanisms are capable of controlling. Although it rarely occurs in pure forms, it can be categorized as any of the following EXCEPT ______________ heat exhaustion a. Exercise induced (heat syncope) b. Salt exhaustion c. Protein depletion d. Water-depletion

c. Protein depletion

A traumatic brain injured patient reports to physical therapy feeling lethargic after being placed on phenobarbital. The primary purpose of the medication is to a. prevent seizures b. reduce spasticity c. limit arrhythmias d. decrease agitation

a. prevent seizures decreases nerve impulses

A post MI patient is about to begin phase 3 cardiac rehabilitation program. During the initial exercise session, the patient's ECG responses are monitored via radio telemetry. PT noticed three PVCs occurring in a run with no P wave. PTS next strategy is a. have the patient sit down and rest for a few minutes before resuming exercise b. stop the exercise and notify the physician immediately c. continue the exercise session, but monitor closely d. modify the exercise prescription by decreasing the intensity

b. stop the exercise and notify the physician immediately Vtach = 3 PVCs; at increased risk in post MI pt.s

A 75-year-old frail female is being treated at home for general strengthening and mobility. The patient has a 5 year history of taking non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as aspirin for joint pain and recently added calcium channel blockers. The possible adverse reactions/side effects include: a. weight increase, hyperglycemia, hypotension b. stomach pain, bruising, confusion c. paresthesia, incoordination, bradycardia d. increased sweating, fatigue, chest pain

b. stomach pain, bruising, confusion bruising secondary to COX 1 inhibition

To reduce inflammation of the tracheobronchial mucosa in asthma, COPD and sarcoidosis, steroids are often prescribed. Which of these is not a side effect of steroid therapy? a. Increased susceptibility to notion b. decrease in BP c. tachycardia d. osteoporosis

b. decrease in BP NSAIDs cause increase in blood volume => increase in BP

Patient is a 55-year-old female status post removal of lymph nodes in the axilla secondary to cancer. You apply mechanical intermittent compression and massage. For best results with massage, this technique is implemented this way a. massage the distal segment first b. massage the proximal segment first c. massage the axillary region first d. massage applied only every other day

b. massage the proximal segment first

The following are characteristics of an arterial ulcer, EXCEPT _______________. a. Location is usually in the toes, feet lateral malleolus, anterior tibial area b. Pedal pulses are usually present c. Has irregular, smooth edges d. Painful especially if legs are elevated

b. Pedal pulses are usually present

A patient in the clinical suddenly had an episode of syncope. PT attempts to rule out orthostatic hypotension as the cause of fainting. The BEST way to do this is by ______________. a. Checking resting BP and HR in supine and sitting then repeating measurements after the patient stands for 1 minute b. Palpating the carotid arteries and taking HR using the supine position for BP measurement c. Checking HR and blood pressure in supine after 5 minute of rest and then repeating in a semiFowler position d. Checking HR and BP at rest and after 3 and 5 minutes of cycle ergometer exercise

a. Checking resting BP and HR in supine and sitting then repeating measurements after the patient stands for 1 minute

A 65-year-old female, 5 weeks post myocardial infarction is attending a cardiac rehab program. The PT adds a cooling period and patient asks why it is needed. PT’s answer should be _______ a. “it reduces chances of nausea and vertigo.” b. “it minimizes occurrence of ventricular arrhythmias.” c. “It allows PT to monitor vital signs after exercise.” d. “it prevents pooling of the blood in the extremities.”

d. “it prevents pooling of the blood in the extremities.”

Your cardiac patient was given a rest period after symptoms of chest pain and sweating after a mild exercise. She took nitroglycerin sublingually as per instruction of her cardiologist. The onset of action from nitroglycerin in this case occurs after _________ minute/s. a. 30 b. 10 c. 1 d. 5

c. 1

A PT is treating a 35-year-old female with thoracic outlet syndrome. While exercising, the patient starts to complain of light headedness and felt dizzy. PT immediately sits the patient and monitored her vital signs. PT measures the patient's respiration rate as 10 breaths per minute, pulse rate at 45 beats per minute, and blood pressure as 116/84 mmHg. Which of the following statements is MOST accurate? a. blood pressure and respiration rate are above normal levels b. pulse rate and respiration rate are below normal levels c. patient's vital signs are within normal limits d. pulse rate and blood pressure are above normal levels

a. blood pressure and respiration rate are above normal levels

A 55-year-old who underwent recent modified radical mastectomy fox breast cancer is referred to PT. An important predictor for lymphedema after treatment for breast cancer is ___________. a. A diet low in sodium b. Mild strength loss in the affected extremity c. Use of diuretics d. Obesity

d. Obesity

A patient with stage II primary lymphedema of the left lower extremity is referred to PT for increased limb girth with evident skin folds. An essential component of lymphedema management is manual lymphatic drainage which includes _____________. a. decongesting the proximal portion of the limb first and working distally b. decongesting the distal portions of the limb first and working proximally c. deep tissue friction massage for several minutes on fibrotic areas d. decongesting the trunk after the limb segments

a. decongesting the proximal portion of the limb first and working distally

A 66-year-old female patient complains of difficulty of walking. During the rest period, the skin in the lower leg appears discolored. After walking for about 2 minutes, patient complains of pain in the leg. A marked pallor is also evident in the skin over the lower third of the extremity. These symptoms are synonymous with __________. a. peripheral neuropathy b. restless leg syndrome c. neurogenic claudication d. vascular claudication

d. vascular claudication restless leg syndrome - involuntary movement

A patient has a 13-year-old history of peripheral vascular disease (PVD) affecting the left lower extremity. During auscultation of the popliteal artery, the PT would expect to find a/an ________. a. Bruit b. + Homan's sign c. + pulses d. intense pain and cramping

a. Bruit bruit - swishing sound

Which statement is NOT TRUE about blood pressure? a. Blood pressure response is higher during weight training than incorporate concentric and eccentric phase compared to isokinetic b. Blood pressure is directly related to cardiac output and peripheral vascular resistance and therefore is an effective non-invasive performance measure of the pumping mechanism of the heart c. Blood pressure tends to be lower when the Valsalva maneuver is applied d. Blood pressure increases during dynamic resistance exercise, such as free weights, machines or isokinetics and continues to increase as an exercise set progresses

c. Blood pressure tends to be lower when the Valsalva maneuver is applied

Which statement is NOT TRUE about systolic blood pressure? a. If systolic pressure does not rise with increasing workload, it may indicate that the functional reserve capacity of the heart has been exceeded b. Systolic pressure increases with exertion in a linear progression, often at a rate of 10-14 mm Hg per metabolic equivalent c. Normally, systolic blood pressure in the legs is 10-20 percent higher than the pressure in the arms (brachial artery) d. Systolic pressure measures the force exerted against the arteries during the ejection cycle, while diastolic pressure measures the force exerted against the arteries during rest

b. Systolic pressure increases with exertion in a linear progression, often at a rate of 10-14 mm Hg per metabolic equivalent 7-10 mmHg per MET

A patient with asthma is on medication (albuterol) ventolin from the sympathomimetic group. The MOST important effect of this drug is _____________. a. lowers airway resistance by reducing bronchospasm b. lower bronchial construction and high blood pressure (BP) that accompanies exercise c. increases heart rate (HR) and BP to enhance a training effect during aerobic activity d. raises airway resistance and reduces secretion production

a. lowers airway resistance by reducing bronchospasm

The PRIMARY absolute cardiac contraindication to exercise testing is a. untreated life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias b. unstable angina with recent chest pain c. advanced atrioventricular block d. uncompensated congestive heart failure

b. unstable angina with recent chest pain

The treatment of lower extremity edema with intermittent pneumatic compression is MOST appropriate in this condition. a. acute thrombophlebitis b. core pulmonale c. post operative inguinal node dissection d. portal hypertension

c. post operative inguinal node dissection

You are evaluating a 63-year-old housewife with peripheral vascular disease. She complains of intermittent claudication and frequently complains of getting tired. The MOST important treatment goal is to increase __________ a. mobility b. lower extremity strength c. collateral circulation d. range of motion

c. collateral circulation

Bluish discoloration of the skin and nailbeds of fingers and toes along with palms. That and cold and mist all point to a. liver disease b. hypothyroidism c. cyanosis d. carotenemia

c. cyanosis

A PT discusses the importance of a proper diet with a patient diagnosed with a congestive heart failure. Which of the following substance would MOST likely be restricted in the patient's diet? a. sodium b. low-density lipoprotein c. high-density lipoprotein d. triglycerides

a. sodium

The following applies to resisted movement testing EXCEPT: a. Performed in the shortened, midrange, and stretched position for total evaluation of the contractile unit. b. Considered to be specific in evaluating the status of the contractile unit. c. Performed to determine the status of the contractile unit and its segmental innervation from the spinal cord. d. While it primarily assesses the contractile unit, it causes some joint compression that may lead to inappropriate conclusions. e. Performing in shortened position prevents excessive compression or distraction of noncontractile structures

e. Performing in shortened position prevents excessive compression or distraction of noncontractile structures performing in shortened position leads to approximation so it DOESNT prevent excessive compression or distraction

Myotonic dystrophy is characterized by the following EXCEPT: ______________ a. Symptoms commonly appear in adulthood, usually in the third and fourth decades b. General loss of strength and energy are regularly present and slowness of grip release may be evident c. There is prolonged contraction with posture of the hand d. A quick tap on the thenar eminence results in contraction that is abnormally short, and the thumb abducts for several seconds.

d. A quick tap on the thenar eminence results in contraction that is abnormally short, and the thumb abducts for several seconds. percussion myotonia -> thumb adduction, flexion c slow return

This type of muscle has a great stabilizing component a. Isotonic b. Shunt c. Concentric d. Spurt e. Isometric

b. Shunt

What muscle contraction slow body segments and provide shock absorption as in walking? a. Isokinetic b. Eccentric c. Concentric d. Isometric

b. Eccentric

Nerve supply to sternocleidomastoid a. Vagus b. Abducens c. Spinal accessory d. Dorsal occipital e. Greater occipital

c. Spinal accessory - SCM, traps

To assess joint play movement a therapist places the joint in the loose packed or resting position. The following statements describe this position. EXCEPT the loose packed position a. is one of minimal congruency between the articular surface and joint capsule b. is equivalent to the anatomic resting position for each joint c. allows the movement of spin, slide and roll in joint d. is the position in its range of motion where the joint is under least amount of stress

b. is equivalent to the anatomic resting position for each joint

If the client completes the range of motion against gravity with minimal-moderate resistance, the muscle is graded as a. fair plus b. good plus c. fair minus d. good minus

d. good minus Normal = strong; full ROM max resist Good plus = nearly strong, almost full Good = moderate Good minus = nearly moderate fair plus = slight Fair = No resistance

Forearm supination is measured with the moving arm of the goniometer placed on this side of the hand. a. Lateral b. Medial c. Dorsal d. Volar e. Anterolateral

d. Volar

These upper extremity positions are introduced one by one in the technique to mobilize the radial nerve EXCEPT a. forearm supination. b. wrist flexion. c. shoulder internal rotation. d. elbow extension

a. forearm supination. ULTT 3 -> SH abd, IR; elbow ext; FA pron; wrist flex

When testing for hip abduction muscle strength, which possible substitutions can cause an inaccurate muscle grade? I. Hip external rotation and flexion II. Lateral flexion of the trunk III. Hip extension IV. Hip internal rotation a. III and IV b. I only c. II, III and IV d. I and II e. II only

b. I only TFL - hip hiking sub

Among the elderly, humeral fractures at the surgical neck are common where this nerve is in direct contact. a. Ulnar b. Axillary c. Median d. Radial

b. Axillary

A post CVA patient can maintain standing position without external support and show limited postural sway. He can also remain standing while turning his head or trunk. What is his functional grade? _______ standing balance. a. Fair static and dynamic b. Good static and dynamic c. Good static and fair dynamic d. Fair static and good dynamic

c. Good static and fair dynamic Normal static: steady balance s handheld support Normal dynamic: max. challenge and can shift up Good static: c minimal postural sway Good dynamic: can pick up object from floor (moderate challenge) Fair static: occasional min assistance Fair dynamic: can maintain while turning head or trunk (min. challenge) Poor static: requires hand-held support; mod-max assist Poor dynamic: unable to accept challenge or move s loss of balance

This muscle can be palpated by placing the fingers over the temporal fossa. This muscle contracts as the subject bites down. a. Zygomaticus Major b. Masseter c. Buccinator d. Temporalis e. Medial Pterygoid

d. Temporalis closes mouth - masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid

Which of the following is NOT true of the Temporomandibular joint? a. When the mouth is closed, the convex condyle rides forwards on to the articular eminence. b. The joint can be felt and its movement appreciated by the palpating finger. c. As the mouth is opened, the head of the mandible moves forwards and the angle moves backwards. d. The center of this movement is near the midpoint of the ramus and not at the joint.

a. When the mouth is closed, the convex condyle rides forwards on to the articular eminence. closed mouth = convex condyle moves forward

The following is true in a malunion fracture complication, EXCEPT a. there was inadequate fracture reduction. b. if the malunion is slight, it may not have to be corrected because the correction procedure could cause delayed union or nonunion. c. if malunion is detected after healing is complete, surgical correction is necessary to obtain a more normal position for healing. d. the fracture has healed incorrectly, leaving the bone de formed, weak, and possibly causing pain. e. if malunion is detected before healing is complete, surgical correction is necessary to align the bone fragments.

e. if malunion is detected before healing is complete, surgical correction is necessary to align the bone fragments. malunion before healing is complete = reduction, angulation, manipulation first If still unaddressed: surgery

Dividing the body into front and back, abduction and adduction occurs in this plane. a. Frontal b. Transfrontal c. Horizontal d. Sagittal e. Transverse

a. Frontal

Dividing the body into right and left, flexion and extension occurs in which plane? a. Transverse b. Sagittal c. Frontal d. Horizontal

b. Sagittal

Upon actively flexing the head, the client complains of electric shock sensations radiating down the spine into the legs. This sign is termed _________. a. Spurling’s b. Lhermitte’s c. Laseque’s d. Lasegne’s

b. Lhermitte’s

What is the correct position when testing the shoulder abduction muscles grades normal to fair? a. Prone b. Sidelying c. Supine d. Sitting

d. Sitting

When a muscle contracts and produces tension with no change in the angle of the joint, such contraction is: a. Eccentric b. Isokinetic c. Isometric d. Isotonic

c. Isometric

The following statements apply to condylar fractures of the knee, EXCEPT: a. Supracondylar fractures may be caused by direct trauma or by a torsion stress placed upon the lower extremity b. Prolonged, rigid immobilization is usually unnecessary, but months following the injury c. Usually, there is an anterior displacement of the distal fragment caused by the muscular action of the gastrocnemius muscles as well as a reduction of the femoral length by the action of the hamstring and the quadriceps femoris muscles d. Femoral condyles are rarely injured, and fractures of the femur may be of the “Y” or “T” type and usually include soft tissue damage e. Single condylar fracture often occur from severe varus or valgus forces and the fracture line may be vertical and in the sagittal plane or it may be vertical and in the coronal plane.

c. Usually, there is an anterior displacement of the distal fragment caused by the muscular action of the gastrocnemius muscles as well as a reduction of the femoral length by the action of the hamstring and the quadriceps femoris muscles anterior displacement no longer involve the quads and hamstring

What is the correct position when testing the shoulder abduction muscles grades poor to zero? a. Sitting b. Prone c. Sidelying d. Supine

a. Sitting supine is an alternate position

What fracture does NOT involve the bones of the foot? a. Jone’s b. Nutcracker c. Jefferson’s d. Shepherd’s

c. Jefferson’s Jefferson's - burst fx of ring of atlas/C1 Jone's - 5th MT Shepherd's - lateral tubercle of talus Nutcracker - calcaneocuboid

Delayed union is a fracture complication wherein callus formation is retarded, so the fracture fails to mend within the normal healing time. Factors contributing to this complication include the following EXCEPT: ______________. a. Defective metabolism, especially protein metabolism b. Infection of the surrounding tissues (as in open fracture) c. Vitamin E deficiency d. Inadequate fracture manipulation

c. Vitamin E deficiency Vit. D deficiency contributes to impaired bone healing

What is the motor nerve to the muscles of mastication? a. Trigeminal b. Vagus c. Facial d. Oculomotor

a. Trigeminal (mixed) Sensory: sensation of the face Motor: ms of mastication

What movements are performed against resistance, with constant load and tension? a. Eccentric b. Isotonic c. Isometric d. Isokinetic

b. Isotonic

Which of the following statements describe the temporomandibular joint? I. As the mouth is opened, the head of the mandible moves forwards and the angle moves backwards. II. The joint can be felt and its movement appreciated by the palpating finger. III. As the mouth is closed, the head of the mandible moves forwards and the angle moves backwards. IV. When the mouth is closed, the convex condyle rides forwards on to the articular eminence. V. The center of this movement is near the midpoint of the ramus and not at the joint. a. II, III and IV b. I, II, and III c. I, II and V d. II, III and V

c. I, II and V

A therapist positions a client in prone with the knee flexed to 70 degrees prior to completing a manual muscle test of the hamstrings. To isolate the biceps femoris the therapist should: a. Place the thigh in slight medial rotation and the leg in slight medial rotation on the thigh b. Position the knee in 120 degrees of flexion c. Place the thigh in slight lateral rotation and the leg in slight lateral rotation on the thigh d. Position the knee in 100 degrees of flexion

c. Place the thigh in slight lateral rotation and the leg in slight lateral rotation on the thigh

What type of joint is the glenohumeral joint? a. Trochoid b. Spheroid c. Ginglymus d. Syndesmosis e. Sellar

b. Spheroid trochoid - pivot ginglymous - hinge syndesmosis - synarthrodial sellar - saddle

The following statements describe elbow joint range of motion, EXCEPT: a. Flexion and extension originate primary at the humeroulnar and humeroradial joints b. Involves the movements of elbow flexion and extension, forearm supination and pronation c. The subject may sit but not stand during the AROM test with the examiner at his side but not directly in front d. The radial head revolves at its articulation with the capitellum during supination and pronation e. Supination and pronation occurs at the radioulnar articulations at the elbow and wrist

c. The subject may sit but not stand during the AROM test with the examiner at his side but not directly in front

A therapist records the vital signs of individuals at a health and wellness fair. Which age group should the therapist expect to have the highest resting pulse rate? a. Children b. Adults c. Elderly d. Infants e. Women

d. Infants

The following statements describe balanced suspension traction, EXCEPT: _________. a. The weight that suspends the affected extremity is greater than the weight of the countertraction being applied b. This assembly allows more range of motion than other forms of traction without affecting the line of traction pull c. Most commonly used to support leg injuries such as femoral fractures with displacement, and nonaligned bone fragments. d. This assembly promotes neurovascular integrity by decreasing prolonged pressure on the back of the patient’s leg

a. The weight that suspends the affected extremity is greater than the weight of the countertraction being applied weight suspended/weight of countertraction = weight of extremity

The infrahyoids are the I. Sternohyoid II. Sternothyroid III. Stylohyoid a. II and III b. I and III c. I, II and III d. I and II

d. I and II Infrahyoid (TOSS) - Thyrohyoid, omohyoid, sternohyoid, sternothyroid Suprahyoid (DMSG) - digastric, mylohyoid, stylohyoid, geniohyoid

When a muscle contracts to eliminate some undesired movement that would otherwise be produced by the prime mover, it is said to be a/an a. prime mover. b. co-ordinator. c. synergist. d. fixators. e. antagonist

c. synergist

During MMT of the right gastrocnemius muscle, what grade would you assign this muscle if your client were able to stand on his right leg and get up on his toes and complete 20 heel raises? a. 3+ b. 4 c. 5 d. 3

b. 4 5 = 25

What is the correct position when testing the hip abduction muscles grades normal to fair? a. Sidelying b. Supine c. Sitting d. Prone

a. Sidelying

This is to test brachial plexus injury, brachial plexus neuritis or Meningitis. a. Westphal b. Keri c. Lhermittes d. Bіkеlе

d. Bіkеlе Bikele sign (active ULTT 4)

The silver fork deformity results from an unreduced or inadequately reduced a. fracture of the lower ulna b. fracture of one or more carpals c. fracture of the first metacarpal d. Colle's fracture

d. Colle's fracture Colle's - radial fracture c dorsal displacement ; MOI: FOOSH

A golfer, while swinging to drive the ball, felt an immediate sharp pain in the right lower back. The day after patient reported stiffness with easing of pain after a shower. With these information, the source of pain is MOST LIKELY: a. Nerve root compression b. Facet joint impingement c. A stress fracture d. Diminished blood supply to the spinal cord

b. Facet joint impingement

A patient with pain in the left lateral face and head is found to have limited active and passive mouth opening range of motion. However, passive lateral deviation is full to both sides. The probable cause for the limitation in mouth opening range of motion is . a. An anteriorly displaced disc without reduction in the left temporomandibular joint b. Decreased flexibility in the muscles of mastication on the left c. Capsular restriction of the left temporomandibular joint d. Decreased flexibility in the muscles of mastication on the left

b. Decreased flexibility in the muscles of mastication on the left no LOM in passive movement = muscular issue

In order to determine if an exercise session should be terminated, the patient assesses the level of exertion using the BORG Rating of Perceived Exertion Scale. The patient rates the level of exertion as 11 on the 6-19 scale. A rating of 11 corresponds to which of the following: a. Very, very light b. Very light c. Somewhat hard d. Fairly light

d. Fairly light

A major reason cervical traction is done intermittently is a. machine will not overheat b. to increase blood flow to that area c. greater poundage can be tolerated d. all of these

c. greater poundage can be tolerated

In a wellness center, a PT was assigned to do a study that examines body composition as a function of aerobic exercise and diet. The method of data collection that would provide the MOST accurate of body composition is . a. Skin fold measurements b. Hydrostatic weighing c. Bioelectrical impedance d. Anthropometric measurement

b. Hydrostatic weighing

Body composition is defined as the relative percentage of body weight that is comprised of fat and fat free tissue. Aside from skin fold measurement and hydrostatic weighing, the other methods are the following EXCEPT: a. Bioelectrical impedance analysis b. Body Mass Index c. Plethysmography d. Fat content analysis

d. Fat content analysis fat content analysis = analyzes contents of fat, not amount of fat in the body

A 32-year-old male diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis reports progressive stiffening of the spine and associated pain for more than five years. The patient’s MOST typical standing posture demonstrates . a. Lateral curvature of the spine with fixed rotation of the vertebrae b. Posterior thoracic rib hump c. Excessive lumbar curve flattened thoracic curve d. Flattened lumbar curve, exaggerated thoracic curve

d. Flattened lumbar curve, exaggerated thoracic curve

The MOST effective energy utilization takes place in __________ contraction. a. eccentric b. isometric c. concentric d. isokinetic

a. eccentric

A patient recently admitted to an acute care hospital is referred to physical therapy. The PT documents the following clinical signs: pallor, cyanosis, and cool skin. These clinical signs are MOST consistent with ________________. a. Hypertension b. Anemia c. Diaphoresis d. Cor pulmonale

b. Anemia

Which of the statements about developmental motor control is NOT TRUE? a. isotonic control develops before isometric control b. gross motor control develops prior to fine motor control c. eccentric movement develops prior to concentric movement d. trunk control develops prior to distal extremity control

a. isotonic control develops before isometric control

A PT is evaluating a 76-year-old female with chronic forward head posturing in standing and sitting. To decrease the forward beading, the PT should stretch the _____________. a. longus capitis and longus colli muscles b. rectus capitis posterior minor and rectus capitis posterior major muscles c. rectus capitis anterior muscles d. middle trapezius and rhomboid muscles

b. rectus capitis posterior minor and rectus capitis posterior major muscles

A 60-year-old male patient was referred to PT for an exercise testing after experiencing shortness of breath twice 2 weeks prior to consultation. After monitoring the vital signs, the data collected are interpreted. The BEST indicator that patient had exerted maximal effort is __________. a. Decrease in diastolic BP of mmHg when compared to the resting value b. Rating of 12 on a perceived exertion scale c. Failure of the heart rate to increase with further increase in intensity d. Rise in systolic diastolic BP of 50 mmHg when compared to the resting value

c. Failure of the heart rate to increase with further increase in intensity

For each degree in Fahrenheit use in body temperature, pulse rate will increase about beats. a. 14 b. 4 c. 6 d. 10

d. 10

A PT will evaluate the shoulder of a patient with hepatitis B. PT finds no open wound abrasions. Patient has good hygiene. The prescription includes passive range of motion because of adhesive capsulitis. Which of these precautions is absolutely necessary to prevent infection for PT? a. PT should wear gloves b. none of these c. PT should wear a mask d. PT should wear a gown

b. none of these

What does it take to be an effective leader? All of the following are examples EXCEPT: a. Provide little control or feedback b. Resolve conflict early c. Provide subordinates an opportunity for growth d. Encourage creativity and innovation

a. Provide little control or feedback

A patient exhibits weak quadriceps (4/5) and complains of difficulty in descending stairs. Among the techniques below, the BEST exercise to regain strength in the quadriceps is a. isokinetic exercise at 36 degrees/second b. partial sit-ups later progressing to lunges c. progressive resistance exercises. 70 percent IRM, 3 sets of 10 d. maximum isometric exercise, at 45 and 90 degrees of knee extension

b. partial sit-ups later progressing to lunges

In the functional balance grades, what rate will you give a patient who is able to maintain balance while weight shifting? (JD) a. fair b. poor c. normal d. good

d. good

A patient with multiple sclerosis is a subject in a research study testing the efficacy of a new medication. The patient reports that the medication she is taking makes her feel much better and allows her to move more easily. At the end of the study, it is revealed that she was part of the control groups. Her responses are MOST LIKELY due to a. sampling bias b. pretest - treatment interference c. placebo effect d. Hawthorne effect

c. placebo effect

Patient comes to therapy because of poor motor control of the Lower extremities PT determines that to work efficiently toward bringing the patient back to prior level of ambulation, he must follow this sequence of control a. stability, controlled stability, mobility skill b. mobility, stability, controlled mobility, skill c. mobility, controlled mobility, stability, skill d. skill, controlled stability, controlled mobility

b. mobility, stability, controlled mobility, skill

This is a test for thoracic outlet syndrome where patient is positioned in sitting or supine. The therapist moves the patient's arm overhead in the frontal plane while monitoring the patient's radial pulse. A positive test is indicated by an absent or diminished radial pulse and may be indicative of compression in the costoclavicular space. a. Roos b. Allen c. Adson maneuver d. Wright test

d. Wright test

A 52-year-old male weighing 175 lbs. complained of left neck pain radiating to his left thumb. His Spurling's sign was positive in the left with depressed left biceps jerk. His X-rays showed a spondylosis with narrowing of his C5-C6 interspace. The program would MOST LIKELY include ____________. a. Continuous traction, sitting, with neck at neutral with 20 lbs weight b. Intermittent cervical traction, supine with neck in 20 degrees of flexion and poundage gradually increasing to 30 lbs c. Continuous traction lying down with a single pulley in the headboard holding a weight of 10 lbs which may be increased to 30 d. Intermittent cervical traction while sitting with neck flexed at 45 degrees and poundage gradually increasing to 10 newtons

b. Intermittent cervical traction, supine with neck in 20 degrees of flexion and poundage gradually increasing to 30 lbs C1-C2 0-5deg C2-C5 10-20deg C5-C8 25-30deg

A grade of Fair of lumbar extensors means that the patient is able to do this: a. Clear the upper chest off the table b. Clear the umbilicus off the table c. Clear the costal rib off the table d. Clear the xiphoid process off the table

b. Clear the umbilicus off the table

In measuring wrist flexion with a goniometer, the bony landmark used to align the instrument are a. Lateral condyle of the humerus and the ulna b. Styloid process of the ulna and the fifth proximal IP joint c. Lateral midline of the ulna and the fifth metacarpal d. Lateral midline of the radius and first metacarpal

c. Lateral midline of the ulna and the fifth metacarpal Fulcrum: lateral aspect of the wrist, over triquetrum

A 50-year-old paraplegic was referred for evaluation and management after one week of bed inactivity. The MMT yielded: upper extremity muscles were grossly graded 3+/5, both hip flexors and extensor graded 3/5, both quadriceps is 2+/5 and both ankle dorsiflexors are 2-/5. Initial goals of treatment should be ______. a. Increase muscle strength b. All of these c. Increase postural tolerance d. Independence in ADL

a. Increase muscle strength

Proper positioning of the upper extremity in supine would best be described as shoulder _______. a. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow fully extended. b. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 90 degrees. c. In neutral, elbow flexed to 90 degrees. d. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 45 degrees.

b. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 90 degrees.

The annular ligament at the elbow facilitates which of the following motions? a. Extension of the elbow b. Pronation of the forearm and flexion of the elbow c. Supination of the forearm and flexion of the elbow d. Pronation and supination of the forearm

d. Pronation and supination of the forearm

The following statements describe the acromioclavicular joint EXCEPT a. no loss of scapular rotation was apparent with acromioclavicular joint fixation. b. range of motion of the scapula is equal to the sum of sternoclavicular and acromioclavicular ranges of motion. c. the joint has two axes and two degrees of freedom. It contributes 20 degrees of scapular elevation and about 20 degrees of upward rotation during full arm elevation. d. the glenoid fossa is aligned with the humeral head during shoulder flexion or abductionthrough small anterior and posterior movements of the acromion

c. the joint has two axes and two degrees of freedom. It contributes 20 degrees of scapular elevation and about 20 degrees of upward rotation during full arm elevation. the joint has 3 axes and 3 degrees of freeedom

The following statements describe the triquetrium EXCEPT: a. Lies just distal to the ulnar styloid process, in the proximal row b. It lies under the pisiform c. Palpated by radially deviating the hand d. Third highest of all the carpal bones in incidence of fracture e. Formed within the flexor ulnaris tendon

e. Formed within the flexor ulnaris tendon the pisiform is formed within the FCU tendon

The following applies to radio-ulnar articulation, EXCEPT the: a. proximal joint lies within the capsule of the elbow joint. b. axis of motion is represented proximally by a line through the center of head of the ulna and distally through the center of the head of the radius. c. radius rotate in relation to the ulna due to the connection between them. d. one degree of freedom allows pronation and supination only.

b. axis of motion is represented proximally by a line through the center of head of the ulna and distally through the center of the head of the radius. proximally through the center of the head of the radius and distally through the center of the head of the ulna

Which of the following statements correctly describe abduction of the arm at the shoulder? I. The rotator cuff muscles depress the head of the humerus during shoulder abduction to prevent impingement of the humerus on the acromion II. Internal rotation of the humerus accompanies complete abduction III. Abduction is produced by means of the deltoid and supraspinatus musclesworking together. IV. External rotation of the humerus accompanies complete abduction. V. Abduction is more powerful in the position of external rotation than in theposition of internal rotation a. I, II, III and IV b. I, II, and IV c. I, III, IV, and V d. I, IV, and V

c. I, III, IV, and V

What is the function of the acromioclavicular joint? I. Vital joint to force transmission in the upper extremity II. Permits the scapula to glide forward and backward on the clavicle in congruence with the direction of the humeral head III. Allow scapula to move sideways on the chest when the arm is raised a. I b. I and II c. I and III d. II

b. I and II

What long muscles flex the second to fifth digits of the IP joints? I. Flexor digitorum superficialis II. Palmaris longus III. Lumbricals and interossei IV. Flexor digitorum profundus V. Flexor pollicis longus a. I and IV b. III, IV, and V c. II and III d. I, II, and IV

a. I and IV technically I, IV, and V are correct but choose the closest/most accurate answer

9. Which progressive resistive exercise functions to strengthen the infraspinatus and teres minor? a. extension of the shoulder with dumbbell weights b. external rotation of the shoulder with elastic tubing c. internal rotation of the shoulder with elastic tubing d. flexion of the shoulder with dumbbell weights

b. external rotation of the shoulder with elastic tubing

Which of the following is a beneficial effect of Cryotherapy? a. Decrease muscle spasticity b. Increase collagenase activity in synovium c. Analgesia d. Produce sedation

c. Analgesia

Which muscle does NOT flex the hand at the wrist joint? a. Flexor carpi ulnaris b. Pronator teres c. Palmaris longus d. Flexor carpi radialis

b. Pronator teres

A therapist checks the water temperature of the hot pack machine after several clients report theheat being very strong. Which of the following temperatures is acceptable? a. 190 degrees Fahrenheit b. 130 degrees Fahrenheit c. 88 degrees Celsius d. 71 degrees Celsius

d. 71 degrees Celsius

During wrist flexion at what joint(s) does the motion occur? a. Midcarpal joint only b. Majority at the radiocarpal joint with some motion at the midcarpal joint c. Majority at the midcarpal joint with some motion at the radiocarpal joint d. Radiocarpal joint only

b. Majority at the radiocarpal joint with some motion at the midcarpal joint FREM (flexion radiocarpal, extension midcarpal)

Which of the following statements do NOT apply to elbow flexion range of motion? a. It has hard end-feel on contact of muscles between arm and forearm. b. The contact of the muscles between the forearm and arm can stop the motion c. The subjects with little soft-tissue have a hard end-feel d. The normal variation is between 120 to 160 degrees

a. It has hard end-feel on contact of muscles between arm and forearm. generally soft but may have hard end feel in pts with little soft tissue

A patient has difficulty maintaining balance while walking. Upon observation of his gait, it showed to be ataxic. Cerebellar dysfunction was ruled out. To diagnose the condition, this cervical nerve must be tested to diagnose the condition? a. 10 b. 6 c. 12 d. 8

d. 8 might mean cranial not cervical nerve CN 8 = vestibulocochlear

Which of the following structures provide stability of the acromioclavicular joint? I. Shape of the joint II. Acromioclavicular ligament III. Strong joint capsule IV. Conoid and trapezoid a. I and II b. I and III c. IV only d. II and IV

d. II and IV

Which of the following statements does NOT describe the Median Nerve? a. It enters the palm with the long tendons and supplies the three thenar muscles, and all lumbrical b. It gives off branch only until it reaches the elbow region c. As it passes the cubital fossa, it gives off a deep branch, the Anterior Interosseous Nerved. It is formed from the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus

a. It enters the palm with the long tendons and supplies the three thenar muscles, and all lumbrical supplies the three thenar muscles and the lateral lumbricals. the medial lumbricals are supplied by the ulnar N. LMUM (lateral median, ulnar medial)

The following statements are true of the shoulder joint EXCEPT a. the ligaments are few and only provide stability in limited joint ranges of motion b. an implication of the shoulder's structural modification to increase mobility is that it relieson muscles to provide adequate stability. c. the articular surfaces of the humeral head and the glenoid fossa of the scapula lack congruity. d. the scapula, which forms the mobile base of the shoulder joint, has minimal passive suspension from the skeleton via the acromioclavicular joint and coracoclavicular ligament. e. the joint capsule is thin and lax, allowing up to 5 cm of traction between articular surfaces.

e. the joint capsule is thin and lax, allowing up to 5 cm of traction between articular surfaces. only allows up to 2-3cm of traction

C5, C6 and the lateral cord receive contributions from the a. middle trunk. b. upper trunk. c. medial cord. d. lower trunk. e. anterior cord.

a. middle trunk. should probably be the lateral cord receives contributions from C5, C6, and ___

Plantar-flexion contractures can interfere with the performance of functional tasks through I. increases in plantar flexor moment when the ankle is in dorsiflexed positions II. increased peak hip extension in late stance phase III. increased ankle dorsiflexion during the swing phase IV. knee hyperextension during the stance phase V. soft tissues passively limiting dorsiflexion to the muscle moment developed about the ankle during the stance phase a. I, II and III b. I, III and IV c. I, IV and V d. I and III only e. II, IV and V

c. I, IV and V plantarflexion decreases hip extension moment in stance phase so II is wrong

The feet slap the ground in this high stepping ataxic gait pattern. a. Tabetic b. Antalgic c. Double step d. Steppage

a. Tabetic steppage is high stepping gait tabetic is ataxic + high stepping

The Median Nerve innervates the following structures, EXCEPT: a. The skin of the palm b. Flexor Digitorum Superficialis c. Flexor Carpi Radialis d. All interossei, Opponens Pollicis

d. All interossei, Opponens Pollicis median N -> FDS, FCR, Opponens pollicis, some part of the skin of the palm ulnar N - interossei (UNI)

A therapist is measuring shoulder external rotation. Proper positioning of the upper extremity insupine would best be described as shoulder _______. a. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow fully extended. b. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 90 degrees. c. In neutral, elbow flexed to 90 degrees. d. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 45 degrees.

b. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 90 degrees.

Throughout its course, the median nerve accompanies what artery as it enters the upper arm onthemedial side of the humerus? a. Median b. Brachial c. Ulnar d. Radial

b. Brachial

The ability to hold the arms extended above the head is impaired in weakness of the shoulder girdlefrom any cause. The following statements are true when testing for shoulder and arm strength EXCEPT: ______________. a. A painful atrophic shoulder joint will limit movement and seriously interfere in the diagnosis of a neurologic lesion. b. When weakness of the deltoid interferes with scapular winging testing, another method is to push against the wall with outstretched arms, first one side and then the other. c. Impairment in function of the trapezius, serratus anticus or other muscles stabilizing the shoulder girdle may compromise the ability of the deltoid to hold the arms abducted at 900against the examiner’s downward pressure. d. When the serratus anticus is weak, the upper angle of the scapula will wing out and be displaced medialward and up.

d. When the serratus anticus is weak, the upper angle of the scapula will wing out and be displaced medialward and up lateralward

CI Flashcards

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