Clinical Self Eval

Question 1

Which of the following methods I used to classify muscle contusions? Isokinetic testing; comparative ROM in the non-injured joint; magnitude of pain; degree of swelling

Answer 1

Comparative ROM in the non-injured joint

Question 2

What differentiates myositis ossificans from a malignant tumor?

Answer 2

Pain and lesion size typically decrease in myositis ossificans but increase with malignant tumors

Question 3

The protocol that decreases disability time after a quadriceps muscle contusion uses:

Answer 3

early flexion procedures

Question 4

Which of the following is NOT appropriate treatment for delayed-onset muscle soreness? Applying ice; stretching gently; taking a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication, vigorously exercising the affected muscles.

Answer 4

Vigorously exercising the affeted muscles

Question 5

Which step is LEAST important in assessing serious sports-related extremity injuries? Assessing for associated cervical spine and head injuries; differentiating between severe sprain and a fracture; evaluating motor function; measuring capillary refill time.

Answer 5

Differentiating between severe sprain and a fracture

Question 6

Severe acute ankle injuries should be protected initially with a

Answer 6

posterior splint

Question 7

Which of the following tests is the most reliable indicator of an acute ACL sprain? Apley’s test, Lachman’s test, Anterior drawer test, Pivot shift

Answer 7

Lachman’s test

Question 8

In Osgood-Schlatter disease, knee pain usually

Answer 8

is increase with resisted knee extension

Question 9

What is the major mechanism responsible for cervical spine injuries in tackle football. The greatest risk of sustaining a cervical spine these injuries resulting in permanaent quadriplegia is in defensive backs who use their heads as the initial point of contact.

Answer 9

Axial

Question 10

______________ is a rare cause of death among the many participants in sports and recreational athletics, but it attracts widespread attention because the deaths occur in young, apparently healthy people. It is the single most common cardiovasular cause of sudden death in young athletes.

Answer 10

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

Question 11

Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to play regarding cervical spine condition recommendations for participation in contact sports? Ligamentous laxity greater than 3.5mm; Atlanto-occipital fusion; spear tackler’s spine; verterbral body fracture with a sagittal component; all the above

Answer 11

All the above

Question 12

Which of the following is the best test for a chronic ACL injury? Lachman, drawer, privot shift, sag sign

Answer 12

Drawer

Question 13

T/F: In order to have a concussion you must lose consciousness

Answer 13

FALSE

Question 14

Adolescents have a higher incidence of nonmuscular causes for back pain, including tumor, that add urgency to the treatment scenario. Posterior element injuries of the bony spine may account for up to _____% of the cases.

Answer 14

75%

Question 15

Saddle numbness and bowel and/or bladder control issues may indicate a cord compression syndrome and should be treated as a(n)

Answer 15

Cauda equina

Question 16

The single-leg standing hyperextension test, commonly called the stork test, is more sensitive and specific for which of the following: posterior element injury; disc; slipped capital femoral epiphysis; saroiliac dysfunction; hip flexor strain

Answer 16

Posterior element injury

Question 17

Acute, transient brachial plexus injuries, are typically traction neurapraxias occurring in younger athletes as a result of shoulder depression and lateral neck deviation away from the side of injury. These are called_______

Answer 17

Stingers

Question 18

Which of the following injuries is best described by the following? Neurologic findings may include both arms, both legs, all four extremities, or an ipsilateral arm and leg. The symptoms may result in sensory changes with or without motor findings. Sensory changes include burning pain, numbness or tingling; motor changes consist of weakness or complete paralysis. An episode usually lasts less than 15 minutes, although some cases may take up to 48 hours to resolve. Complete motor function and full, pain-free cervical motion normally return. Spinal Shock; cervical cord neurapraxia; brachial plexus axonotemesis; concussion

Answer 18

Cervical cord neurapraxia

Question 19

The “cowboy collar” is used with which of the following conditions? Cervical cord neuropraxia, disk injury, cervical strain, brachial plexus injury.

Answer 19

Brachial plexus injury

Question 20

What is described by the following? -Asymptomatic patients with a canal/vertebral body ratio of 0.8 or less: no contraindications. - Patients with a ratio of 0.8 or less who have had one CCN episode:relative contraindication. -Measured off a lateral cervical. Options: Torg ratio, Pavlov’s Ratio, Bennet’s Ratio, Two of the above

Answer 20

Two of the above (Torg and Pavlov’s ratios are the same)

Question 21

T/F: Upper cervical nerve injuries are relatively rare and reer dysesthetic pain to the head, the neck, and the upper trapezius region.

Answer 21

TRUE

Question 22

Dysesthesias along the ulnar forearm from the elbow into the fourth and fifth fingers may be associated with ulnar nerve entrapment at the elbow (cubital tunnel syndrome) an must be differentiated from a _____radiculopathy.

Answer 22

C8

Question 23

The posterior cruciate ligament does which of the following: prevents excessive exernal rotation; guides the knee in flexion; acts as drag during the later gliding phase in flexion; all the above; none of the above

Answer 23

Guides the knee in flexion

Question 24

T/F: Capsular ligaments are taut during full flexion

Answer 24

FALSE

Question 25

T/F: Capsular ligaments allow for ration to occur

Answer 25

TRUE

Question 26

T/F: Deeper capsular ligaments remain taut to keep rotation in check

Answer 26

TRUE

Question 27

This test is performed at 0 and 30 degrees to assess the integrity of the lateral collateral ligament.

Answer 27

Varus stress test

Question 28

Which two tests can be used to assess the integrity of the meniscus?

Answer 28

Apley’s compression and McMurray’s

Question 29

This test is utilized to assess anterolateral rotary instability.

Answer 29

Pivot Shift

Question 30

T/F: The Q-Angle is comprised of lines that bisect the patella relative to the ASIS and tibial tubercle

Answer 30

TRUE

Question 31

T/F: The Q-Angle is normal in females at 10 degrees and 15 degrees for males

Answer 31

FALSE

Question 32

T/F: The Q-Angle can be indicative of specific pathologies if greater than normal.

Answer 32

TRUE

Question 33

T/F: Regarding the Q-Angle, normal angles change relative to body position.

Answer 33

TRUE

Question 34

T/F: A peroneal nerve contusion is often the result of a direct blow to the lateral aspect of the leg.

Answer 34

TRUE

Question 35

T/F: The infrapatellar bursa generally becomes inflamed as a result of continued kneeling.

Answer 35

FALSE

Question 36

T/F: The patella apprehension test is generally negative in individuals that have dislocated or subluxed their patella.

Answer 36

FALSE

Question 37

T/F: Osgood Schlatter Disease is common in immature adolescent knees and is characterized by an apophysitis of the tibial tubercle.

Answer 37

True (aphysitis only occurs in growing people)

Question 38

T/F: Posterior cruciate ligament injuries are most often seen in athletes that have fallen on a bent knee and may have had some degree of rotational force involved.

Answer 38

TRUE

Question 39

T/F: Athletes rarely complain of having heard or feeling a pop as a result of a torn ACL, and usually complain of severe pain that dissipates shortly after injury.

Answer 39

FALSE

Question 40

T/F: Healing of meniscal injuries may be limited and compromised due to the level of blood supply which is provided to these cartilagenous disks.

Answer 40

TRUE