Company Officer Flashcards
(1137 cards)
0
Q
Orders vs Directives:
- _____ are based upon the authority delegated to the fire officer to implement organizational policies and procedures. Compliance is mandatory because an order is based upon a policy or procedure.
vs - A _____ is not based on a policy or procedure; it is more in the nature of a request. They are not mandatory except during emergency situations.
However, on the fire ground or at other emergency incidents, they are both considered mandatory because of the seriousness of the situation.
A
- Orders
2. Directive
1
Q
\_\_\_\_\_ are based upon the authority delegated to the fire officer to implement organizational policies and procedures. Compliance is mandatory because an order is based upon a policy or procedure. Examples: -Open the roof. -Run a big line. -Raise a ladder to that window.
A. Orders.
B. Directives.
C. Priorities.
D. Goals.
A
A. Orders.
2
Q
A(n) _____ is not based on a policy or procedure; it is more in the nature of a request. They are not mandatory except during emergency situations.
Example:
-Wash the truck.
A. Order.
B. Directive.
C. Priority.
D. Goal.
A
B. Directive.
3
Q
The best method for handling the chronic complainer is to:
A. Arrange tasks that will provide a reasonable chance of success and high visibility.
B. Just ignore him and hope he will change.
C. Transfer him.
D. Discipline him.
A
A. Arrange tasks that will provide a reasonable chance of success and high visibility.
4
Q
At a fire you order one of your firefighters to get a ladder and ventilate the roof. On his way to do this assignment one of your superior officers stopped the firefighter and gives him different orders that he follows. What would be the best solution to this problem:
A. You should discuss the problem with your superior officer that gave him the orders.
B. You should consider this a personal problem.
C. The firefighter needs more training.
D. You should discipline the firefighter.
A
A. You should discuss the problem with your superior officer that gave him the orders.
5
Q
Which of the following could be held liable in a “tort” action:
A. A government agency but not an individual employee.
B. An individual employee but not a government agency.
C. Both an individual employee and a government agency.
D. Neither an individual employee nor a government agency.
A
C. Both an individual employee and a government agency.
6
Q
- _____ a management principle that states that each subordinate must have only one supervisor.
- _____ is the pathway of responsibility from the top of the organization to the bottom and vice versa.
- _____ is the number of subordinates that one individual can effectively supervise. This principle applies equally to supervising the crew of a single company or the officers of several companies under the direction of an incident commander.
A
- Unity of command
- Chain of command
- Span of control
7
Q
Span of Control:
A a rule of thumb for the fire service is that an officer can effectively direct or supervise ___ - ___ individuals, with the optimum number being ___ individuals.
A
3 - 7 individuals
5 individuals being optimum
8
Q
When firefighters are assigned to a new or different company, they may need help in learning the methods by which the crew operates. The company officer should open clear lines of communication from the beginning of the relationship to ensure proper and complete transfer of information to the new member. Which of the following would be a good way to open this relationship:
A. A one on one conversation with other members of the company.
B. The new member sharing expectations with the company.
C. Let the new member learn by observation.
D. A one on one conversation between the company officer and the new member.
A
D. A one on one conversation between the company officer and the new member.
9
Q
When conducting the interior facility survey by making a floor plan of each floor showing the location of…… the exception is:
A. Permanent walls. B. Desks.
C. Partitions. C. Machinery.
A
B. Desks.
10
Q
As a general rule, when authority is delegated and excepted earnestly, mistakes made by the subordinates should be considered as subjects for _____ .
A. Disciple.
B. Training rather than discipline.
C. Suspension.
D. Termination.
A
B. Training rather than discipline.
11
Q
An indicator of high power needs for firefighters would be which of the following.
A. Sticks with a task until completion.
B. Likes to discuss controversial subjects.
C. Enjoys challenges.
D. Tries hard to be friendly and to make friends.
A
B. Likes to discuss controversial subjects.
12
Q
If the type of building construction is not clear, it usually is easier to determine the type of building construction from; the exception is:
A. In an attic.
B. In an unfinished basement.
C. On the sidewalk in front of the house.
D. While on the roof.
A
C. On the sidewalk in front of the house. (False statement)
13
Q
The most productive way to harness the individuals potential is to align the requirements of the organization with the aspirations and skills of the individual. The best way to monitor this alignment is with:
A. Negative criticism.
B. Employee reprimand.
C. Employee evaluation.
D. Employee judgment.
A
C. Employee evaluation.
14
Q
At no time should an offense of attack and a defense of attack be conducted simultaneously. Trying to conduct both and offenses and defensive attack is especially risky to:
A. The offense of team.
B. The defense of team.
C. Neither the offenses nor defensive team.
D. Both the offenses and defensive teams.
A
A. The offense of team.
15
Q
Highwinds, a major factor in several fires throughout history should remind fire officers to consider master stream appliances for exposure protection as an initial priority and to use:
A. Fog nozzles instead of smoothbore tips.
B. Smoothbore tips instead of fog nozzles.
C. Neither smoothbore tips nor fog nozzles.
D. Both smoothbore tips and fog nozzles.
A
B. Smoothbore tips instead of fog nozzles.
16
Q
Loss of life’s greatest between:
A. Midnight and 6 AM.
B. 8 PM and 8 AM.
C. Midnight and 8 AM.
D. 10 PM and 8 AM.
A
A. Midnight and 6 AM.
17
Q
It is important for the officer to realize that the ability to positively influence the group is not dependent upon holding the informal leadership role. Generally, any role within the group can be used to help guide the group, and learn to use the influence of that role: The most detrimental action the officer can take is to:
A. Stay with the informal group.
B. Join the formal group.
C. Separate from the informal group.
D. Stay with the formal group.
A
C. Separate from the informal group.
18
Q
People tend to pursue actions for which they received positive strokes. They tend to avoid actions for which they receive negative strokes. If no strokes are given by the company officer, individual members of the company can be expected to:
A. Be grateful that they have been left alone.
B. At least seek a negative stroke.
C. Behave in a manner that will only produce positive strokes.
D. Complain to the company officer.
A
B. At least seek a negative stroke.
19
Q
Stopping by someone’s workplace just to say good morning is an example of what kind of power:
A. Coercive. C. Identification.
B. Expert. D. Reward.
A
D. Reward.
20
Q
Power Types: (5)
According to Webster’s dictionary, “power” is the possession of control, authority, or influence over others.
_____ - Power is based on one person’s perception of another’s ability to grant rewards. Perceived power increases in the direct relation to the amount of rewards an employee sees a leader or supervisor controlling. Results depend on the strength of subordinates’ desires for these rewards and their perceptions of the leader’s ability to provide them.
Examples:
-Getting a raise or bonus
-Being promoted to a more responsible job
-Getting an expanded operating budget
-Gaining trust or respect
-Gaining additional authority
A. Identification power B. Legitimate power C. Expert power D. Reward power E. Coercive
A
D. Reward power
21
Q
Power Types: (5)
According to Webster’s dictionary, “power” is the possession of control, authority, or influence over others.
_____ - Power is based on subordinates’ perceptions of the leader’s authority to punish.
Examples:
-Verbal or written reprimand for substandard work performance
-Suspension without pay
-Withholding a promised or expected reward such as a raise or promotion
-Termination
A. Identification power B. Legitimate power C. Expert power D. Reward power E. Coercive
A
E. Coercive
22
Q
Power Types: (5)
According to Webster’s dictionary, “power” is the possession of control, authority, or influence over others.
_____ - Power is derived from someone’s desire to identify with or emulate another. Celebrities often use this power to sell merchandise or deliver public service messages.
Another form of this power is reference or personal power, which is one’s perception that they have power because of a relationship with someone who does have power. For example, a company officer may be a neighbor of the mayor. The Fire Chief and others may perceive the company officer has power in the form of influence because of his relationship.
A. Identification power B. Legitimate power C. Expert power D. Reward power E. Coercive
A
A. Identification power
23
Q
Power Types: (5)
According to Webster’s dictionary, “power” is the possession of control, authority, or influence over others.
_____ - Power is based on one person’s perception that another’s knowledge and expertise can help in the first person’s endeavors. Knowledge is power, and those who have knowledge also have power. In any given situation, the one with the most knowledge often has the most power, even if that person does not have the most authority. In certain situations, a formal leader will accede to a subordinate who has greater knowledge about a subject, process, or situation.
Example:
-A firefighter who is a ropes expert in a high angle rescue situation
-A firefighter who is a hazmat specialist in a hazmat situation
A. Identification power B. Legitimate power C. Expert power D. Reward power E. Coercive
A
C. Expert power
24
Power Types: (5)
According to Webster's dictionary, "power" is the possession of control, authority, or influence over others.
_____ - Power is derived because of the organizational structure of the department/organization. The agency (department/organization) invests this power in company officers in order to conduct the functions assigned to their unit.
```
A. Identification power
B. Legitimate power
C. Expert power
D. Reward power
E. Coercive
```
B. Legitimate power
25
_____ power is one's perception that they have power because of a relationship with someone who does have power. For example, a company officer may be a neighbor of the mayor. The Fire Chief and others may perceive the company officer has power in the form of influence because of his relationship.
A. Personal power.
B. Knowledge power.
C. Legitimate power.
D. Information power.
A. Personal power aka Referent power.
| Other forms of "Identification Power"
26
_____ power is based on the perception that a person or group controls information that is needed to perform a duty or activity.
A. Personal power.
B. Referent power.
C. Identification Power.
D. Information power.
D. Information power or Knowledge power.
| Other forms of Expert Power
27
_____ is another term derived because of the organizational structure of the department/organization.
A. Personal power.
B. Knowledge power.
C. Position Power.
D. Referent power.
C. Position Power or Organizational Authority.
| Other terms for Legitimate power
28
Company officers are most likely involved and what type of planning:
A. Medium-range. C. Short term.
B. Long-range. D. Medium-long.
C. Short term.
29
Early in life, individuals realize that they belong to various groups. These groups, from an individual's perspective, are "in-groups". Unfortunately, many people seem to comprehend their in-group memberships largely in terms of the differences, real and imagined from members of out-groups. The action of thinking of themselves as distinctly different from out-group members often results in the rejection of out-groups. This rejection is expressed in the form of… The exception is:
A. Verbal rejection.
B. Physical avoidance.
C. Physical confrontation.
D. Discrimination.
C. Physical confrontation. (False)
30
Basic Leadership Style:
_____ -The leader tell subordinates what to do and how to do it with little or no input from them. If this is the dominant leadership style used, it may result in significant challenges from subordinates. This style is appropriate for emergency operations but lacks effectiveness in daily operations.
Example: Giving emergency scene orders and commands.
```
A. Democratic.
B. Autocratic.
C. Laissez-faire.
D. Two-Dimensional.
E. Contingency Leadership Theory.
```
B. Autocratic.
31
Basic Leadership Style:
_____ -The leader includes employees in the decision making process and allows them to work with the least amount of supervision necessary. The style is appropriate for both day-to-day and special emergency operations such as hazardous materials or technical rescue incidents where knowledge and skills are more important than rank.
```
A. Democratic.
B. Autocratic.
C. Laissez-faire.
D. Two-Dimensional.
E. Contingency Leadership Theory.
```
A. Democratic.
32
Basic Leadership Style:
_____ -The leader leaves employees to make all the decisions and does not supervise them at all. This style is appropriate for routine station or community tasks. However, if it is the dominant leadership style, it can result in the loss of respect from followers and has the potential for a challenge from a strong informal leader. It should never be used at emergency incidents.
```
A. Democratic.
B. Autocratic.
C. Laissez-faire.
D. Two-Dimensional.
E. Contingency Leadership Theory.
```
C. Laissez-faire.
| In French, it literally means "to allow to do".
33
_____ Leadership Style is represented by a four-quadrant chart that compares the degree of job structure to the degree of employee consideration (also referred to as job-centered and employee-centered). Depending on the amount of emphasis placed on getting the job done through an autocratic approach or allowing employees full authority (as in the laissez-faire approach), this type of leadership style can be plotted on a graph. Graph measures concern for people over concern for task and plotted on the four quadrants: participating, delegating, telling, selling.
```
A. Democratic.
B. Autocratic.
C. Laissez-faire.
D. Two-Dimensional.
E. Contingency Leadership Theory.
```
D. Two-Dimensional Leadership Style.
34
_____ Leadership Theory is based on the belief that there is no single best leadership style. Application of this theory requires that the situation be matched to the leadership style.
Factors that affect the success or failure of particular leadership style include answers to the following questions:
-How good is the relationship between the leader in the subordinates?
-Is the task structured or unstructured?
-Is the leader working from a position of strong or weak power?
```
A. Democratic.
B. Autocratic.
C. Laissez-faire.
D. Two-Dimensional.
E. Contingency.
```
E. Contingency Leadership Theory.
35
Contemporary Leadership Styles:
_____ - Inspires follower loyalty and creates an enthusiastic vision that others work to attain. Leaders have strong personalities, and it is sometimes difficult to separate the personality of a leader from that of the organization. When the leader dies or leaves the organization, it is difficult to find a replacement who can live up to the image of the _____ leader.
A. Transactional.
B. Transformational.
C. Symbolic.
D. Charismatic.
D. Charismatic.
36
Contemporary Leadership Styles:
_____ - Depends on continuous learning, innovation, and change within the organization. This leader works to involve followers in the change process, challenge them to attain their full potential, and create follower satisfaction and growth while still meeting organizational goals.
A. Transactional.
B. Transformational.
C. Symbolic.
D. Charismatic.
B. Transformational.
37
Contemporary Leadership Styles:
_____ - Involves an exchange between a leader and followers in which followers perform tasks effectively in exchange for rewards provided by the leader. It is a style that can be used by first-line supervisors and middle-level managers who have the authority or ability to provide rewards.
A. Transactional.
B. Transformational.
C. Symbolic.
D. Charismatic.
A. Transactional.
38
Contemporary Leadership Styles:
_____ - Bases theory on a strong organizational culture that holds common values and believes. Leadership starts at the top of the organization and extends downward to the first-line supervisor. Employees and subordinates have full faith and trust in the leadership of the organization. Leaders are viewed as infallible.
The difficulty associated with this type of leadership is that employees fail to question leadership decisions or to speak openly when management makes apparent errors.
A. Transactional.
B. Transformational.
C. Symbolic.
D. Charismatic.
C. Symbolic.
39
_____ leadership believes:
- The average worker is inherently lazy, dislikes work, and will avoid it whenever possible.
- Because of their inherent dislike of work, most workers must be coerced into performing adequately by threats of punishment.
- The average worker prefers to be closely supervised and shuns responsibility because of a general lack of ambition.
A. Theory W.
B. Theory X.
C. Theory Y.
D. Theory Z.
B. Theory X.
40
_____ leadership believes:
- The average worker does not inherently dislike work; in fact, workers feel work can be as natural as rest or play.
- Workers will perform adequately with self-direction and self-control without coercion.
- Workers will support organizational objectives if they associate those objectives with their personal goals.
- The average worker learns not only to accept responsibility but, in fact, also learns to seek responsibility.
- Only a small part of the workers intelligence, ingenuity, and imagination is ever harnessed but with proper leadership, workers will excel.
A. Theory W.
B. Theory X.
C. Theory Y.
D. Theory Z.
C. Theory Y.
41
_____ leadership believes:
- Leadership style that focuses on the people.
- Employees remaining with the company for life.
- Close relationship between work and social life.
- Workers goal to produce economic success nurtures togetherness.
- Participative approach to decision-making.
- One problem that has been associated with this theory is a resistance to change.
A. Theory W.
B. Theory X.
C. Theory Y.
D. Theory Z.
D. Theory Z.
42
Situational Leadership Theories (3):
_____ - Is used to determine what leadership style (ranging from autocratic to democratic leadership) a leader should supply to a situation. Leaders that embrace empowerment move along a continuum from one extreme to another, using the most effective and efficient leadership style based on the specific situation.
A. Leadership-Continuum Theory.
B. Path-Goal Theory.
C. Results-Based Leadership Theory.
D. Principle-Centered Leadership.
A. Leadership-Continuum Theory.
43
Situational Leadership Theories (3):
_____ - Is based on employees perceptions of the units goals and objectives. These perceptions are composed of situational factors. The leader then determines the best of four styles to use in influencing members in the accomplishment of these goals.
Directive, supportive, participative, achievement.
A. Leadership-Continuum Theory.
B. Path-Goal Theory.
C. Results-Based Leadership Theory.
D. Principle-Centered Leadership.
B. Path-Goal Theory.
44
Situational Leadership Theories (3):
_____ - Explains that leadership ability should not be judged by personal traits alone but by the results those traits have on the success of the organization.
A. Leadership-Continuum Theory.
B. Path-Goal Theory.
C. Results-Based Leadership Theory.
D. Principle-Centered Leadership.
C. Results-Based Leadership Theory.
45
_____ - Focuses on the use of basic values or principles to lead an organization. It suggests that there are certain core ethical values on which individuals base decisions and live their lives.
Focuses on value driven leadership and proactively living one's own life versus enduring a reactive life.
A. Leadership-Continuum Theory.
B. Path-Goal Theory.
C. Results-Based Leadership Theory.
D. Principle-Centered Leadership.
D. Principle-Centered Leadership.
46
Leadership Levels: (5)
_____ - Highly capable individual: person who makes productive contributions through talent, knowledge, skills, and good work habits.
```
A. Level 1 leader.
B. Level 2 leader.
C. Level 3 leader.
D. Level 4 leader.
E. Level 5 leader.
```
A. Level 1 leader.
47
Leadership Levels: (5)
_____ - Contributing team member: person who contributes individual capabilities to the achievement of group objectives and works effectively with others in a group setting.
```
A. Level 1 leader.
B. Level 2 leader.
C. Level 3 leader.
D. Level 4 leader.
E. Level 5 leader.
```
B. Level 2 leader.
48
Leadership Levels: (5)
_____ - Competent manager: person who organizes people and resources towards the effective and efficient pursuit of predetermined objectives.
```
A. Level 1 leader.
B. Level 2 leader.
C. Level 3 leader.
D. Level 4 leader.
E. Level 5 leader.
```
C. Level 3 leader.
49
Leadership Levels: (5)
_____ - Effective leader: person who catalyzes commitment to and vigorous pursuit of a clear and compelling vision, simulating higher performance standards.
```
A. Level 1 leader.
B. Level 2 leader.
C. Level 3 leader.
D. Level 4 leader.
E. Level 5 leader.
```
D. Level 4 leader.
50
Leadership Levels: (5)
_____ - Executive: person who builds enduring greatness through the paradoxical blend of personal humility and professional willpower.
```
A. Level 1 leader.
B. Level 2 leader.
C. Level 3 leader.
D. Level 4 leader.
E. Level 5 leader.
```
E. Level 5 leader.
51
_____ is the possession of control, authority, or influence over others.
A. Leadership.
B. Power.
C. Management.
D. Supervision.
B. Power.
52
The major problem encountered with Theory Z management is:
A. More concerned with production or the results than people.
B. More concerned with people than production or results.
C. A resistance to change.
D. Fail to except when applied to specific individuals.
C. A resistance to change.
53
During a fire the officer should check the walls to see if there are any metal stars on the walls. These metal stars mean which of the following:
A. They are ornamental to decorate the wall.
B. That the wall can fail at moderate temperatures when the rods and cables between the stars fail.
C. The rods between the stars can fail from high temperatures.
D. The stars mean that it is a fire resistive building.
B. That the wall can fail at moderate temperatures when the rods and cables between the stars fail.
54
The category of injuries that is the least likely cause of fire ground injuries is:
A. Exposure to fire products.
B. Fell, slipped.
C. Overexertion.
D. Exposure to chemicals and radiation.
D. Exposure to chemicals and radiation.
55
When you are writing a report and you want to ensure that it does not contain any errors in spelling or grammar, the best way to ensure that it does not would be to:
A. Put it down for an hour and then take a second look at it.
B. Read it again immediately while it is fresh in your mind.
C. Put it aside for a week and then check it.
D. Give it to another person to proofread.
D. Give it to another person to proofread.
56
Information that tends to require the closest attention to prevent grapevine distortion is information about….The exception is:
A. Promotions.
B. Hirings and sirens.
C. Layoffs and transfers.
D. Job assignments.
D. Job assignments.
57
The grapevine has spread word that the layoffs are planned and shift changes will be necessary. In order to combat the rumors that are causing havoc in the company, the company officer should:
A. Confide in a senior member but ask him to keep it to himself.
B. Do nothing because the rumors are unfounded.
C. Published a daily or weekly bulletin.
D. Refer all inquiries to headquarters.
C. Published a daily or weekly bulletin.
58
If, as a officer, you had a poorly motivated firefighter, what would be the best way to build his moral:
A. Team him with firefighters who seem to consistently do good work.
B. Transfer him to another job.
C. Give him an easier job.
D. Give him a tougher job.
A. Team him with firefighters who seem to consistently do good work.
59
Operational strategies differ from operational tactics. Which of the following would be an example of an operational strategy:
A. Confining a fire to a second-floor bedroom area.
B. Cutting a hole in the roof.
C. Placing ladders.
D. Directing master streams on exposures.
A. Confining a fire to the second-floor bedroom area. (Operational strategy)
60
The _____ of an incident is the overall desired outcome, and the _____ are the activities used to reach that outcome. Both are included in the IAP and must be communicated to all personnel involved in the operation.
A. Goal ; Objectives.
B. Objective ; Goals.
C. Conclusion ; Tasks.
D. Task ; Conclusions.
A. Goal ; Objectives.
61
_____ are the overall plan for controlling and incident. They are broad, general statements of the final outcomes to be achieved. They are dictated by the three overall priorities of life safety, incident stabilization, and property conservation. They are based on the Layman decision-making model are RECEO-VS.
A. Tactical goals.
B. Strategic goals.
C. Tactical objectives.
D. Strategic objectives.
B. Strategic goals.
62
```
_____ are statements of measurable outcomes. Achieving them leads to the completion of the strategic goals. They are specific tasks assigned two units and personnel to accomplish.
Examples:
-Ventilating a roof
-Placing ladders
-Directing master streams on exposures
```
A. Tactical goals.
B. Strategic goals.
C. Tactical objectives.
D. Strategic objectives.
C. Tactical objectives.
63
The three overall priorities of firefighting are:
1. Life safety
2. Incident stabilization
3. Property conservation
64
What is Layman's decision making model:
```
RECEO-VS
-----------------------------------------
Rescue
Exposures
Confinement
Extinguishment
Overhaul
-
Ventilation
Salvage
```
65
Facility Survey Drawings:
Three general types of drawings used to show building information are described as follows:
1. _____ - Indicate how buildings are situated with respect to other buildings and streets in the area.
2. _____ - Show the layout of individual floors, subfloors, and roofs.
3. _____ - Show side views of structures that depict the number of floors in buildings and grades of the surrounding ground.
1. Plot plans
2. Floor plans
3. Elevations
66
An indicator of high affiliation needs would be:
A. Strives to accept responsibility.
B. Enjoys group projects.
C. Likes to be in charge.
D. Enjoys challenges.
B. Enjoys group projects.
67
Problem solving involves an 8 step process. If the officer determines that corrective action is necessary, he should go back to:
A. Step 1 - Recognize the problem.
B. Step 2 - Collect data.
C. Step 3 - Analyze the data.
D. Step 4 - Develop alternatives.
B. Step 2 - Collect data.
68
At what stage of the problem-solving process showed the officer never make assumptions:
A. Selecting the best alternative.
B. Implementing the solution.
C. Analyzing the problem.
D. Collecting the data.
D. Collecting the data.
69
Goals that are scheduled to be reached in less than a year are called:
A. Short range goals.
B. Medium-range goals.
C. Medium goals.
D. Long-range goals.
A. Short range goals.
70
An effective leader is one who deals with conflict by:
A. Ignoring it until it causes havoc in the group.
B. Confronting it.
C. Asking the chief of the department to intervene.
D. Reprimanding the members involved.
B. Confronting it.
71
Noted fire service author David Gratz has listed several methods company officers can use to justify their preliminary budgets. The exception is:
A. Let officials know how spending funds in a certain program now will bring savings in the future.
B. Use what has happened in the past to justify more spending in a problem area.
C. Compare the company's operations and situation with those of other companies or divisions in the fire department.
D. Inflating costs in one program so that the company officer can later transfer the excess to another program that have a less of a chance of being approved at the desired level.
D. Inflating costs in one program so that the company officer can later transfer the excess to another program that have a less of a chance of being approved at the desired level.
72
There are four basic leadership styles. A leadership style that is characterized by low concern for production and a low concern for people would be which of the following:
A. Dual issue leadership.
B. Middle of the road leadership.
C. Single issue leadership.
D. Bureaucratic leadership.
D. Bureaucratic leadership.
73
Of the two examples given which is the better example of proper radio communication.
1. ) "This is Lt. Murphy on Engine 9 portable. I need another truck company at box 1333 for manpower."
2. ) "Engine 9 portable to communications - dispatch one truck company to box 1333."
Statement 2 is better
74
There are many symptoms that indicate a firefighter may be suffering from critical incident stress at the scene. An example of one of these symptoms would be… The exception is:
A. Anger. C. Frustration.
B. Anxiety. D. Feelings of guilt.
D. Feelings of guilt. (This would be a symptom that would happen after the incident)
75
A department that does not have written standard operating procedures does not have:
A. Operational strategies.
B. Operational tactics.
C. Strategic plans.
D. Operational strategy and tactics.
C. Strategic plans.
76
To ensure conciseness, the company officer must learn to plan communications. This can be done by planning the message. The officer should:
A. Let firefighters interpret the message themselves.
B. Direct messages to individuals -not companies.
C. Make messages task oriented.
D. Give options from messages.
C. Make messages task oriented.
77
At an emergency incident scene, there is no time for company officers to stop and think about the correct method for communicating by radio. Therefore, they must follow effective and accepted communication protocols in day-to-day operations so that these skills will become second nature.
In radio communications - Conciseness, Clarity, Confidence, Control, and Capability are know as:
The Five C's of Radio Communication
78
The Five C's of Radio Communication:
To ensure _____ the following actions are recommended:
- Make messages task oriented
- Direct messages to companies, not individuals
- Match messages to receivers
- Keep messages specific
```
A. Conciseness.
B. Clarity.
C. Confidence.
D. Control.
E. Capability
```
A. Conciseness.
79
The Five C's of Radio Communication:
The _____ of a message adds to the overall effectiveness of all incident communications. Company officers should use standard terms and everyday language. When planning their transmissions, company officers should also strive to combine _____ with simplicity.
For orders to be effective, they should describe only one task at a time before having the unit report back for additional tasks.
```
A. Conciseness.
B. Clarity.
C. Confidence.
D. Control.
E. Capability
```
B. Clarity.
80
The Five C's of Radio Communication:
1. Company officers must show _____ when using communication equipment, especially during emergency operations. Company officers can communicate _____ by using a calm, natural tone and speaking at a controlled rate.
2. This is also known as ____ ____.
```
A. Conciseness.
B. Clarity.
C. Confidence.
D. Control.
E. Capability.
F. Command Presence.
```
C. Confidence.
F. Command presence.
81
The Five C's of Radio Communication:
An example of _____ is being displayed when at the beginning of a transmission, each unit identifies who they are calling and identifies themselves; the receiver of the message should repeat or paraphrase the essence of the message back to the sender. This reduces the chances of misunderstanding, it tells the sender that the message was understood as transmitted or alerts the sender that the message was not understood correctly and further clarification is necessary. The most important people responsible for controlling communications at the company level are telecommunicator and the incident commander.
```
A. Conciseness.
B. Clarity.
C. Confidence.
D. Control.
E. Capability
```
D. Control.
82
The Five C's of Radio Communication:
_____ is not limited to technical proficiency; it also includes an ability to communicate, which means that company officers must be capable of listening effectively as well as initiating effective messages.
Effective communication depends on well-trained senders and receivers.
```
A. Conciseness.
B. Clarity.
C. Confidence.
D. Control.
E. Capability
```
E. Capability.
83
Policies and procedures are examples of "standing" or "repeat use" of plans to deal with the reoccurring problems of an organization. Communicating these plans _____ helps ensure that organizational objectives will be met throughout all divisions of the department.
A. Face-to-face. C. In writing.
B. By telephone. D. By radio.
C. In writing.
84
Organizational Structure:
_____ structure is the common organizational structure in the fire and emergency services. Defined as having an uninterrupted series of steps or a chain of authority. Is a paramilitary, pyramid-type of organization with authority centralized at the top. Decisions are directed down from the top of the organizational structure through intermediate levels to the base of the structure. Information in turn, Is transmitted up from the bottom through the structure to the positions at the top.
A. Scalar structure.
B. Flat organizational structure.
C. Functional supervision.
D. Division of labor.
A. Scalar structure.
85
Organizational Structure:
_____ structure is well-suited for dealing with emergency situations for the following reasons:
- Span of control is maintained.
- Information is centralized for decision-making.
- Functional chain of command is maintained.
A. Scalar structure.
B. Flat organizational structure.
C. Functional supervision.
D. Division of labor.
A. Scalar structure.
86
Organizational Structure:
Fire and emergency services personnel are separated into two distinct groups:
(1) _____ are those who deliver services to the public or external customers; typical functions include fire suppression, emergency medical services, inspections, education, and investigations.
(2) _____ are those who provide support to the line personnel or internal customers; typical functions are training, logistics, and personal administration.
A. Line personnel.
B. Staff personnel.
C. Centralized authority.
D. Decentralized authority.
1) A. Line personnel.
| 2) B. Staff personnel.
87
_____ refers to the legal ability of an individual to make and implement decisions for which the individual is held accountable.
A. Authority.
B. Power.
C. Management.
D. Supervision.
A. Authority.
88
What are the two types of authority?
Centralized and Decentralized
89
_____ - Decisions are made by one person at the top of the structure. _____ works well in very small organizations such as an individual fire company, but in large organizations the leader's span of control may be exceeded unless decision-making authority is delegated.
A. Line personnel.
B. Staff personnel.
C. Centralized authority.
D. Decentralized authority.
C. Centralized authority.
90
_____ - Decisions are allowed to be made at a lower level (basically delegation of authority), with the effects of the decisions reported through the structure. For this authority to work effectively, the Fire Chief or CEO must ensure that all members understand the direction, values, and goals of the organization.
A. Line personnel.
B. Staff personnel.
C. Centralized authority.
D. Decentralized authority.
D. Decentralized authority.
91
_____ is when personnel are signed by their supervisor to perform duties that fall under the authority of another supervisor. While performing those duties, the subordinates are allowed to report to the second supervisor on matters relating to that function.
A. Scalar structure.
B. Flat organizational structure.
C. Functional supervision.
D. Division of labor.
C. Functional supervision.
92
_____ principle consists of dividing large jobs into smaller tasks that are then assigned to specific individuals.
In fire and emergency services this is important for the following reasons:
-Assigns responsibility
-Prevents duplication of effort
-Makes specific, clear-cut assignments
A. Scalar structure.
B. Flat organizational structure.
C. Functional supervision.
D. Division of labor.
D. Division of labor.
93
Organizational Structure:
_____ consists of one person with all the authority supervising the group on a one to one basis.
A. Scalar structure.
B. Flat organizational structure.
C. Functional supervision.
D. Division of labor.
B. Flat organizational structure.
94
Fire ground communication should be _____ .
A. Technical and complicated.
B. Tactical and authoritative.
C. Short and simple.
D. Explained and directed.
C. Short and simple.
95
The official leader of the fire company (formal group) is not necessarily the informal leader. It is desirable when the company officer is the leader in both the formal and informal groups, but this is not always the case. If this is the case how should the company officer respond in this situation:
A. Get rid of the group completely and start over.
B. Eliminate the leader of the group.
C. Accept his role and learn to deal within the group in both roles.
D. Separate totally from the informal group.
C. Accept his role and learn to deal within the group in both roles.
96
_____ stems from three sources: shared values, acceptance of social structure, or the sanction of a legitimizing agent.
A. Reward power.
B. Coercive power.
C. Identification power.
D. Legitimate power.
D. Legitimate power.
97
When a firefighter first enters the fire service, their attitudes are chiefly influenced by the _____ :
A. Chief of the department.
B. Company officer to whom they are assigned.
C. Union official.
D. Training officer.
B. Company officer to whom they are assigned.
98
John has been a difficult employee, as the company officer, you decide to team John together with Paul, a member who has consistently done good work. The likely outcome of this partnership is it:
A. Usually helps John only.
B. Usually helps Paul only.
C. Usually helps both John and Paul.
D. Usually helps neither John nor Paul.
C. Usually helps BOTH John and Paul.
99
Personality differences account for much of the variation in individual behavior in fire departments. These differences are defined largely in terms of needs: for achievement, power, and affiliation of the following indicators, which is an indicator of high power needs for firefighters.
A. Enjoys challenges.
B. Strives to accept responsibility.
C. Is status oriented.
D. Enjoys group projects.
C. Is status oriented.
100
When handling complaints, to separate the problem from the feelings officers must know why people complain. When the session begins, the officer should be a listener. The officer should help the individual see the difference, using open ended and reflective questions. An example of a reflective question is:
A. You really like this shift, but there are some guys who bother you?
B. You really like this shift, but there are some guys who bother you? How do they bother you?
C. Do you really like this shift?
D. Do some of the guys bother you?
A. You really like this shift, but there are some guys who bother you?
101
Most individuals will have complaints from time to time, a natural result of people working together. However there are certain individuals who chronically complain. Of the following choices, the one which should NOT be used to handle the chronic complainer is:
A. Send him to the chief.
B. Arrange tasks that will provide a reasonable chance of success.
C. Advise him to seek professional psychiatric help.
D. Ignore him, he'll get over it.
D. Ignore him, he'll get over it.
102
Operational strategies and tactics are interrelated. Of the following examples, which one is an operational strategy (opposed to tactics).
A. Confine the fire to the kitchen area.
B. Advance a headline to the second floor.
C. Directing master streams on exposures.
D. Ladder the side of a building.
A. Confine the fire to the kitchen area.
103
Weather will have many effects on incident operations. The company officer must ask 3 basic questions when sizing up the weather; exception is:
A. How will weather affect the ability of the firefighters to function?
B. How will weather affect the incident?
C. How will weather effect apparatus and other equipment?
D. How will wet weather affect the rate of burning?
D. How will wet weather affect the rate of burning?
104
Critical incident stress is a type of stress that deserves special attention. It occurs as a result of a particularly traumatic or disturbing incident. There are many symptoms that indicate a firefighter may be suffering from critical incident stress. Of the following symptoms, the one that would occur at the scene is:
A. Doubts of performance ability.
B. Feelings of guilt.
C. Restlessness.
D. Irritability.
A. Doubts of performance ability.
105
The purpose of peer support is to give a firefighter who has been exposed to a critical incident someone to talk to. Of the following characteristics of a potential peer supporter, the most important characteristic is:
A. Lieut. Jones is an easy person to talk to and well liked.
B. Firefighter Brown has the ability to follow through.
C. Firefighter Jackson has the ability to keep information confidential.
D. Enlist a variety of departmental ranks.
C. Firefighter Jackson has the ability to keep information confidential.
106
A tort is a civil wrong or injury. The main purpose of a tort action is to seek payment for damages to property and injuries to individuals. The following elements must exist for a valid tort action:
1. ) The defendant must owe a legal duty to the plaintiff.
2. ) There must be a breach of duty, that is, the defendant must have failed to perform or to properly perform that duty.
3. ) The breach of duty must be a proximate cause of the accident or injury that resulted.
4. ) The plaintiff must have suffered damages as a result.
The major issue in most court liability cases is:
A. Matter of duty.
B. Plaintiff has suffered damages.
C. Causation.
D. Breach of legal duty.
C. Causation.
(The question of causation is the most difficult to prove in a tort civil action case. The breach of duty must be a proximate cause of the accident or injury that resulted.)
(In-other-woods one that is a naturally continuous sequence produces the injury or damage and without which the injury or damage would not have occurred.)
107
It is important to note that not only can a government agency be held liable in tort, but an individual employee may also be liable. In this case, a plaintiff would have to show that the employee had performed with complete disregard for his training and the agencies:
A. Training and schedule.
B. Guidelines and policies.
C. Doctrine of immunity.
D. The common law.
B. Guidelines and policies.
108
Four elements must exist for a valid tort action. Of the following four elements, the one that is the major issue in most tort liability cases is:
A. The plaintiff must have suffered damages as a result.
B. The breach of duty must be a proximate cause of the incident.
C. There must be a breach of duty.
D. The defendant must owe a legal duty to the plaintiff.
B. The breach of duty must be a proximate cause of the accident.
109
Negligence is the failure to exercise such care as a reasonable, prudent, careful person would use under the same or similar circumstances. The essence of negligence is best represented by:
A. The adequacy of performance.
B. The dollar amount of damages.
C. The size of the incident.
D. How many injuries occurred.
A. The adequacy of performance.
110
Many items of information may be brought into the court to aid in establishing the prevailing standard of care. One of the strongest types of evidence will be:
A. The agency's own guidelines and policies.
B. Opinions of expert witnesses.
C. Research publications.
D. Professional journals.
A. The agency's own guidelines and policies.
111
An effective method of minimizing the effects of the "grapevine" is to:
A. Ignore it.
B. Have individual conversations.
C. Hold meetings.
D. Print and post a daily or weekly bulletin.
D. Print and post a daily or weekly bulletin.
112
An effective leader structures the relationship among firefighters so that they _____ to achieve the shared goals of the company and _____ with other companies to achieve the fire department's goal.
A. Competition. C. Objectives.
B. Cooperate. D. Goals.
B. Cooperate.
113
An indicator of high power needs for firefighters is:
A. Likes to discuss controversial subjects.
B. Strives to accept responsibility.
C. Is status oriented.
D. Is sensitive to what others think.
A. Likes to discuss controversial subjects.
114
The best method for handling the chronic complainer is to:
A. Punish him.
B. Ignore him.
C. Lead by example.
D. Arrange tasks that will provide a reasonable chance of success and high visibility.
D. Arrange tasks that will provide a reasonable chance of success and high visibility.
(***Asked all the time***)
115
The company officer has the responsibility of attempting to recognize when a firefighter is under stress. Some of the more noticeable signs that indicate that stress may be building to dangerous levels are... the exception is:
A. General irritability
B. Fatigue
C. Restless sleep
D. Overeating.
D. Overeating
116
There are 4 basic organizational principles that company officers must use. They are... the exception is:
```
A. Unity of Command.
B. Span of control.
C. Division of labor.
D. Discipline.
E. Teamwork.
```
E. Teamwork. (FALSE)
1. Unity of Command
2. Span of control
3. Division of labor
4. Discipline
117
There are several factors that can effect the number of people who can be effectively supervised at one time (span of control), they are... the exception is:
A. Ability and experience of the company officer
B. Ability and experience of the firefighters
C. Situation under which the task is performed (nature of task)
D. Personality of the officer
E. Proximity of subordinates to the fire officer and each other
F. Consequences of a mistake
D. Personality of the officer (false)
| The rest are true
118
The company officer's role in the group becomes one of meshing the goals of the formal and informal groups. The officer must learn to work within the relationships of the company. The exception is:
A. Informal groups form within all formal groups.
B. The informal group may have greater influence on the productivity and success of the formal group than does any other factor.
C. The most detrimental action the officer can take is to separate from the informal group.
D. The informal leader is also the formal leader.
D. The informal leader is also formal leader. (This is not always true)
(while desirable for the company officer to be both informal and formal leader, this isn't always the case)
119
The most productive leadership style to be used on the fireground is:
A. Middle-Of-The-Road Leadership
B. Dual-Issue Leadership
C. Single-issue Leadership
D. Bureaucratic Leadership
C. Single-issue Leadership
120
It is important to note that not only can a government agency now be held liable in this case:
1. ) A plaintiff would have to show that the employee had performed with complete disregard for his or her training.
2. ) A plaintiff would have to show that the employee had performed with complete disregard for the agency's standard operating procedures.
A. #1 is true. C. #1 & #2 are true
B. #2 is true. D. #1 & #2 are false
C. #1 & #2 are true.
121
Several actions by the company officer will have positive effects in reducing a substantial number of firefighter injuries. If unsafe acts are being performed by a firefighter it indicates:
A. The need for training.
B. The need for psychiatric help.
C. If he is assigned to a truck company, transfer him to an engine company.
D. He should be sent to the fire prevention bureau.
A. The need for training.
122
When making field inspections of buildings a fire inspector must determine the type of building construction that the building has. An excellent place to examine the type of construction is... the exception is:
A. While on the roof.
B. While on the first floor.
C. While in the attic.
D. While in the unfinished basement.
B. While on the first floor.
123
The technical data provided by staff positions is then put into directives and sent directly through the chain of command. This method works well for policy matters. However, because of the bulk of information that must go down through the chain of command, it is not well suited for procedural matters. The above statement best describes the:
A. Traditional Staff Advisory Method
B. Staff Direct Implementation Method
C. Staff Direct Advice Method
D. Mutual Staff/Line Overlap Method
B. Staff Direct Implementation Method
124
On Maslow's hierarchy of needs which are fulfilled when a person feels that the limits of his or her ability have been reached. Generally, individuals reach this level in respect to a certain job or achievement. For example, a firefighter save a child, or when a company effectively extinguishes a potentially major fire. At these times, individuals will fulfill the need, but soon, possibly the next call, the individual will be striving to meet it again.
A. Security. C. Self-esteem.
B. Social. D. Self-Actualzation.
D. Self-Actualization.
125
Annual reports continually support an approximate breakdown of causes of injuries on the fireground. The major cause of injuries on the fairground is:
A. Fell, slipped.
B. Overexertion.
C. Exposure to fire products.
D. Struck by objects.
C. Exposure to fire products.
126
The company officer's main task during phase two of implementation are:
A. Directing but not controlling
B. Both directing and controlling
C. Controlling but not directing
D. Neither directing nor controlling
B. Both directing and controlling
| What is this question referring too?
127
To some degree stress is beneficial. When controlled, stress can help a firefighter perform more quickly and effectively. After examining Dr. Hans Selye's General Adaptation Syndrome, it may be easier to understand why chronic stress and not acute stress affect our health. The _____ is the stage where permanent damage to the system occurs. This damage may be small or large. It should be noted that if the stressor is not removed during this stage death with result.
A. Alarm reaction stage
B. Resistance stage
C. Initial stage
D. Exhaustion stage
D. Exhaustion stage
128
An order such as, "Smith, get a roof ladder and a flathead ax, then ventilate the structure by cutting a hole in the top of the roof where you see the smoke rising from the eaves."
A. Is a waste of valuable time.
B. Is an insult to a rookie firefighter.
C. If it is necessary to be that explicit, the firefighter is being ordered to perform a task beyond his or her capability.
D. Is the best way to see that the tactic is carried out.
C. If it is necessary to be that explicit, the firefighter is being ordered to perform a task beyond his or her capability.
129
A _____ is a guide to decision-making within an organization. They originate with top management and are disseminated into lower levels for implementation. It also defines the boundaries and standards that the administration expects company officers and members to use.
A. Policy.
B. Procedure.
C. Order.
D. Directive.
A. Policy.
130
A _____ is a detailed plan of action. It details in writing the steps to follow in conducting organizational policy for some specific, reoccurring problem or situation. These are better developed at the company level because these individuals will be responsible for following and implementing them to meet certain policies.
A. Policy.
B. Procedure.
C. Order.
D. Directive.
B. Procedure.
131
The memorandum is usually short into the point. Of the following statements, the statement which is false is:
A. Memos transmit exactly the same information to several locations or individuals.
B. Memos typically formalize a telephone call.
C. Memos provide specific information concerning questions or results in a somewhat informal manner.
D. Memos provide a verbal record of decisions, requests, or policies.
D. Memos provide a verbal record of decisions, requests, or policies.
(False, the provide a written record)
132
Every day the bulk of organizational information is transmitted via the "grapevine". The single most effective method of minimizing the effects of the "grapevine" is to:
A. Print and post a daily or weekly bulletin.
B. Ignore the grapevine.
C. Filter information which is out on the grapevine.
D. Provide adequate flow of official information.
D. Provide adequate flow of official information.
***(^ This is the single most effective method, an example of using this method would be by printing and posting a daily or weekly bulletin)
133
Bureaucratic leadership is characterized by a _____ concern for production and a _____ concern for people.
A. High, high. C. Low, low.
B. High, low. D. High, high.
C. Low, low
134
1. Which of the following indicators would be exhibited by a firefighter who has high achievement needs?
&
2. Which of the following indicators would be exhibited by a firefighter who has high power need?
A. Likes to discuss controversial subjects.
B. Strives to accept responsibility.
C. Is status oriented.
D. Is sensitive to what others think.
1) B. Strives to accept responsibility.
- ----------------------------------------
2) A. Likes to discuss controversial subjects.
135
Open-ended questions are better for gathering information. What's of the following questions are open-ended questions?
1. Joe, what do you think the problem is?
2. George, is there a fire inside?
3. Tom, what seems to be wrong with the truck?
A. Questions 1 and 2 only.
B. Questions 2 and 3 only.
C. Questions 1 and 3 only.
D. Questions 1, 2, and 3.
C. Questions 1 and 3 only.
136
Problem solving involves an 8 step process. If the officer determines that corrective action is necessary, he should go back to:
A. Step one – recognize the problem.
B. Step two – collect data.
C. Step three – analyze the data.
D. Step four – develop alternatives.
B. Step two - collect data.
137
Critical incident stress is a _____ response to an abnormal situation.
A. Good.
B. Bad.
C. Normal.
D. Abnormal.
C. Normal.
138
The staff direct implementation method:
A. Is the current method of using staff personnel to route their advice through upper and middle management.
B. Works well for procedural matters.
C. Is not well-suited for policy matters.
D. Does not allow the staff positions to deal directly with the line structure to implement the decision.
A. Is the current method of using staff personnel to route their advice through upper and middle management.
139
The flat organization structure:
A. Works well on the fire ground.
B. Bogs down in routine work.
C. Is well suited to accomplish tasks when none of the tasks are interdependent.
D. Works well with complex tasks.
C. Is well suited to accomplish tasks when none of the tasks are interdependent.
140
The _____ aids in the effective routing of a message for a specific action.
A. Letter. C. Report.
B. Form. D. Memorandum.
D. Memorandum.
141
Planning is the first step in any type of management. The manager must have a plan. Which of the following statements is true regarding planning?
A. The company officer is most likely involved in short-term planning, which typically deals specifically with assigning personnel to attain immediate goals or meet day-to-day demands.
B. Medium-range plans cover a period from 6 to 10 years.
C. Company officer typically becomes involved in long-term planning.
D. Company officer does not set goals and/or develop a plan for the company.
A. The company officer is most likely involved in short-term planning, which typically deals specifically with assigning personnel to attain immediate goals or meet day-to-day demands.
142
Progressive discipline: 3 steps
1st step -
2nd step -
3rd step -
1st step - Oral reprimand.
2nd step - Written reprimand.
3rd step - Discipline (Suspension/ termination)
143
When conducting a formal evaluation session, after explaining the purpose of the agenda, the next step in the interview is:
A. Tell the firefighter what personal behavior makes him or her asset to the organization.
B. Review the firefighter strengths and weaknesses.
C. Ask the firefighter to talk about how he or she views the work and relationships with the department.
D. Describe the changes the firefighter needs to make in his or her behavior.
B. Review the firefighter strengths and weaknesses.
144
1. Pre-incident _____ - Gathering information or facts about a particular structure, occupancy, or high-risk (target) hazards.
2. Pre-incident _____ - Is the entire process of gathering and evaluating information, developing procedures based on that information, and ensuring that the information remains current.
A. Survey.
B. Analysis.
C. Report
D. Planning.
1) A. Survey.
| 2) D. Planning.
145
After assessing the sequence of operational strategies, the incident commander must quickly decide whether the primary size up was correct. To make this check, the most important consideration is:
A. Life safety.
B. Fire control.
C. The timing necessary with other objectives.
D. Whether there are adequate resources on the scene to implement the operational strategies outlined.
D. Whether there are adequate resources on the scene to implement the operational strategies outlined.
146
Violation of the "one-supervisor principle" can lead to confusion and frustration by company members. This statement best describes what to the following:
A. Unity of command.
B. Span of control.
C. Division of labor.
D. Chain of command.
A. Unity of command.
147
There are four basic structures or methods of overlapping authority. When introducing new equipment to the fire company, the least effective overlap situation is:
A. Undesirable overlap.
B. Staff direct overlap.
C. Mutual staff/line overlap.
D. Line advice to staff overlap.
A. Undesirable overlap.
148
The group formation of a fire company is not significantly different from the formation of any other formal or informal group. Shift changes, policy changes, labor generated conflicts, serious injury or death within the group, or any other traumatic occurrence can result in a disruption. This statement best describes which of the following?
A. Common binding interests.
B. Vital group image.
C. Sense of continuity.
D. Shared set of moral values.
C. Sense of continuity.
149
There are four basic leadership styles. Leadership style that has a high degree of concern for people with a high concern for production is known as:
A. Bureaucratic leadership.
B. Single-issue leadership.
C. Middle-of-the-road leadership.
D. Dual-issue leadership.
D. Dual-issue leadership.
150
The method used to find effective solutions is called the eight-step method of problem resolution. The step where you determine; what brought the problem to the officers attention? What are the symptoms? Who is involved, and what is the standard, would be watched step in the method?
A. Recognize and define the problem.
B. Collect applicable data.
C. Analyze the problem.
D. Select the best alternative.
A. Recognize and define the problem.
151
The preincident survey is the fact gathering of preincident planning. The key to developing a suitable working relationship between the company officer and the tenant is respect and understanding. understanding. The following statements are FALSE… The exception is:
A. Facility surveys of public assembly occupancies should be scheduled during an event.
B. The company officer should explain the purpose of the survey when the appointment is made.
C. The preincident survey must not be scheduled near a fire enforcement inspection.
D. Facility survey must be completed in one day.
B. The company officer should explain the purpose of the survey when the appointment is made. (TRUE)
-----------------------------------------
A. Facility surveys of public assembly occupancies should be scheduled during an event. (sometimes but not always)
C. The preincident survey must not be scheduled near a fire enforcement inspection. (It would be unwise)
D. Facility survey must be completed in one day. (FALSE, no literature found that states this)
152
Operational strategies and tactics are interrelated. An example of operational strategy is:
A. Advancing and lines.
B. Cutting a hole in the roof.
C. Overhaul.
D. Placing ladders.
C. Overhaul.
(Operational strategy = RECEO-VS;
tactics = actions to accomplish ^ )
153
When an incident occurs and the fire department is notified, the sequence moves into the operational strategy phase. When the dispatcher receives an alarm, information is collected, and the company officer is able to choose the appropriate operational strategy using the following decision-making factors… The exception is:
A. Standard operating procedures.
B. Standard fire ground priorities.
C. Information obtained by the fire department.
D. The officers inexperience.
D. The officers inexperience.
154
Wendhausen equal effect on both the incident and on fire department personnel. Wind can also affect the severity of an incident. The most correct statement regarding operations in windy conditions is:
A. In windy situations, cross ventilation can be less effective; therefore, more personnel will be needed for ventilation assignment.
B. Officers should consider master-stream appliances for exposure protection and use fog nozzles instead of smoothbore tips.
C. Aerial equipment should be deployed to knockdown firebrands even before the fire is ventilated for ventilate itself.
D. Precipitation does not affect the ability of firefighters to perform.
C. Aerial equipment should be deployed to knockdown firebrands even before the fire is ventilated for ventilate itself.
155
There are many symptoms that indicate a firefighter maybe suffering critical incident stress. Of the following symptoms, the one which occurs at the scene is:
A. Feelings of guilt.
B. Denial of the situation.
C. Restlessness.
D. Irritability.
B. Denial of the situation.
| Occurs on scene or during an incident, the other examples occur after an incident
156
In the fire service, there are two major sources of standards. The first and most important is :
A. Federal jurisdiction.
B. State jurisdiction.
C. Local jurisdiction.
D. Nationally recognized consensus standards.
C. Local jurisdiction.
157
In order to manage personnel and other important resources in a fire company, an officer must have a plan of action. Once the plan is established and the resources organized, the next management step is implementing the plan. The most important leadership function for the company officer is:
A. Planning. C. Controlling.
B. Directing. D. Evaluating.
B. Directing.
158
Based on the initial assessment of the incident scene, company officers must make decisions based on "acceptable risk". This concept is clearly stated in a decision-making model developed by the Phoenix Fire Department. The essence of the model is as follows: (4)
1. Each emergency response is begun with the assumption that "responders can protect lives and property."
2. Responders will "risk their lives a lot, if necessary, to save savable lives." (1)aka:
3. Responders will "risk their lives a little, and in a calculated manner, to save salvageable property." (2)aka:
4. Responders will NOT "risk their lives at all to save lives and property that have all ready been lost." (3)aka:
1. "Risk a lot to save a lot."
2. "Risk little to save little."
3. "Risk nothing to save nothing."
159
Command Activities:
The first-arriving officer has the following three optional command activities available... the exception is:
A. Nothing-showing.
B. Fast-attack.
C. Command.
D. Investigating.
D. Investigating. (FALSE)
160
Command Activities:
The first-arriving officer has 3 optional command activities available. The following describes:
_____ - When the problem generating the response is not obvious to the first-arriving unit, the company officer should assume command of the incident and announced that " _____ ". The officers then directs the other responding units to stage.
A. Nothing-showing.
B. Fast-attack.
C. Command.
D. Investigating.
A. Nothing – showing.
161
Command Activities:
The first-arriving officer has 3 optional command activities available. The following describes:
_____ - When the company officer's direct involvement is necessary for the unit to take immediate action to save a life or stabilize the situation, the officer should take command and announce that the unit is initiating a " _____ ". This will last until one of the following situations occurs:
- Incident is stabilized.
- Incident is not stabilized, but the officer must withdraw to outside the hazardous area to establish a formal incident command post.
- Command is transferred.
A. Nothing-showing.
B. Fast-attack.
C. Command.
D. Investigating.
B. Fast – attack.
162
Command Activities:
The first-arriving officer has 3 optional command activities available. The following describes:
1.) _____ - Because of the nature and/or scope of some incidents, immediate and strong overall " _____ " is needed. In these instances, the first-arriving officer should assume command by naming the incident and designating and ICP, giving the initial report on conditions, and requesting additional resources need.
Two types:
2. ) _____ - Involves the company officer performing multiple tasks such as serving as an incident commander, developing the incident action plan, and performing active tasks such as advancing a hoseline.
3. ) _____ - Involves the company officer remaining at the mobile radio in the apparatus, assigning tasks to unit personnel, communicating with other responding units, and expanding the NIMS – ICS as needed.
```
A. Nothing-showing.
B. Fast-attack.
C. Command.
D. Command Combat.
E. Formal Command.
```
1) C. Command.
2) D. Combat Command.
3) E. Formal Command.
163
Supervision Definitions: (4)
_____ - Act of directing, overseeing, or controlling the activities and behavior of employees who are signed to a particular supervisor.
A. Leading.
B. Managing.
C. Supervising.
D. Following.
C. Supervising.
164
Supervision Definitions: (4)
_____ - Act of controlling, monitoring, or directing a project, program, situation, or organization through the use of authority, discipline, or persuasion.
A. Leading.
B. Managing.
C. Supervising.
D. Following.
B. Managing.
165
Supervision Definitions: (4)
_____ - Act of controlling, directing, conducting, guiding, and administrating through the use of personal behavioral traits or personality characteristics that motivate employees to the successful completion of an organization's goals.
A. Leading.
B. Managing.
C. Supervising.
D. Following.
A. Leading.
166
Supervision Definitions: (4)
_____ - Act of being a team player while working toward a common goal.
A. Leading.
B. Managing.
C. Supervising.
D. Following.
D. Following.
167
Complaints are problems, but they are special because they involve someone's feelings. Ideally, the officers objective in handling complaints should be two:
A. Solve the problem using the problem solving process, then deal with the firefighters feelings the bad feelings must be resolved.
B. Solve the problem using the problem-solving process, but the officer is not responsible for the firefighters feelings.
C. Separate the feelings from the problem, and then apply the problem-solving process to the problem.
D. Resolve the firefighters bad feelings, and the underlining problems will resolve themselves.
C. Separate the feelings from the problem, and then apply the problem-solving process to the problem.
168
Size-up is a process of gathering and evaluating information, probabilities, and resources of a situation. It is the assessment of the incidents during specific intervals and situations. Four basic areas of information must be considered (1)Environment, (3)Nature of Incident, (4)Occupancy, and Resources. In each of these areas, the officer should strive to FIRST determine:
A. The resources needed for the situation.
B. The possibilities of the situation.
C. The probabilities of the situation.
D. The facts of the situation.
D. The facts of the situation.
169
The most correct statement regarding potential collapse in older buildings is:
A. Cast-iron ornamental façades often separate and fall during a fire.
B. Ornamental metal stars attached to the stairs indicate the collapse hazard of the stairway.
C. Ornamental iron doors and windows will fail quickly during a fire.
D. Missing outside attachments such as ornamental marquees may injure firefighters.
A. Cast-iron ornamental façades often separate and fall during a fire.
170
Many serious injuries occur on the fireground. It is estimated that 55% of all firefighter injuries occur:
A. Responding to or returning from an incident.
B. On scene of an incident.
C. During training.
D. That's nonemergency incidents.
B. On the scene of an incident.
171
According to Company Officer:
1. ) Between 2000 and 2006 an average of ____ firefighters died while on duty.
2. ) The two leading causes of death to firefighters are result of _____ and _____ resulting from physical stress.
3. ) _____ is the leading cause of firefighter fatalities,
4. ) while _____ or _____ that results in heart attacks or strokes is the leading cause of firefighter injury.
1. ) 107
2. ) motor vehicle accidents and heart attacks
3. ) Cardiac arrest
4. ) Overexertion or stress
173
The third structure of centralized authority is the circular structure. The circular structure involves a central authority interacting with the individuals of a group, and members interacting among themselves. The disadvantage of the circular structure is:
A. Involves a high level of interaction.
B. Fresh and innovative solutions are found.
C. Personal commitment of members tend to be higher because of the ability to receive feedback to provide input.
D. Used effectively as a task-implementer, but can be cumbersome for problem-solving.
D. Used effectively as a task-implementer, but can be cumbersome for problem-solving.
174
Planning is the first step in any type of management. Management planning is divided into several time frames. The company officer is most likely involved in _____ .
A. Short-term planning.
B. Long-term planning.
C. Standing planning.
D. Contingency planning.
A. Short-term planning.
175
An effective leader/manager helps people by cooperating to set meaningful goals. People work more diligently and effectively when they have a verbalize description, not just some vague understanding or generalized expectation of where they are going. The manager must allow people to help set their goals so they can feel responsible for their actions. The manager thereby shows trust in their capabilities and concern for hearing their opinions and ideas. The ability to influence people becomes based mostly on:
A. Legitimate power.
B. Expert power.
C. Identification power.
D. Coercive power.
C. Identification power.
176
The national fire protection Association (NFPA) conducts annual survey of accident locations and injury types. The greatest cause of "fire ground" injuries is exposure to fire products. The next most frequent cause is:
A. Overexertion.
B. Fell, slipped.
C. Exposure to chemicals or radiation.
D. Struck by object.
B. Fell, slipped.
(Can't find "fire ground injury" in book; book sts "Overexertion" and "stress" as leading cause of firefighter "injury".)
177
Exposures within the building receives initial consideration, especially floors above probable fire locations. The second exposure consideration is any adjoining buildings. Which of the buildings below is a secondary exposure?
A. The building on the left of the fire building.
B. The building on the right of the fire building.
C. The building to the rear of the fire building.
D. The building across the street from the fire building.
C. The building to the rear of the fire building.
| Exam 13, Q-94 - seems strange but could very well be correct
178
Stress is simply an adjustment to change. The change can be good or it can be bad. In psychology, good stress it's called eustress and bad stress is called dystress. In which of the following stages of stress will death result?
A. The alarm stage.
B. The resistance stage.
C. The fight/flight stage.
D. The exhaustion stage.
D. The exhaustion stage.
| Define all stages in flash cards when found in book
179
Critical Incident Stress is the stress that occurs after a particularly traumatic or disturbing incident. There are several things the company officer can do to help alleviate the immediate reactions to a critical incident. The following statements are TRUE regarding critical incident stress... the exception is:
A. One thing would be to get the company back in service immediately.
B. The officer can make sure the company gets proper rest after the incident.
C. The officer should arrange vacation time of each of the company members.
D. The officer should provide professional counseling.
A. One thing would be to get the company back in service immediately. (False)
180
Company officers must develop the skills necessary to manage the responsibility of company safety. The following are all actions by the company officer that will have a positive effect in reducing a substantial number of firefighter injuries... the exception is:
A. Personal commitment by the company officer to reduce injuries.
B. Designing and conducting effective training for firefighters in the use of self-contained breathing apparatus.
C. Developing and supporting ineffective physical fitness program.
D. Making sure the firefighters wear the protective clothing 75% of the time.
D. Making sure the firefighters wear the protective clothing 75% of the time. (False)
181
The fire service is one of the most hazardous occupations in North America. The company officer can get a good idea whether a firefighter tends to work safely or takes unnecessary risks on the fire ground by:
A. Reviewing the firefighters training records from the fire Academy.
B. Examining the everyday work habits of the firefighter.
C. Asking the opinion of other members of the company.
D. Asking the training chief.
B. Examining the everyday work habits of the firefighter.
182
Clearly, the most important duty of a company officer is to:
A. Get the job done. (Meeting the organizations goals/objectives)
B. Build teamwork and cooperation.
C. Protect all members of the company from injury or illness.
D. Development members skills.
C. Protect all members of the company from injury or illness.
183
The statement "In most cases, what you are able to contribute to and achieve in the fire service is limited only by the degree of your personal commitment" is best associated with which of the following statements?
A. Be loyal to your department.
B. Learn your job, be sincerely interested in it, and be dedicated to it.
C. Accept criticism graciously; except praise, honors, and advancement modestly.
D. Be aggressive in the pursuit of education and training opportunities
B. Learn your job, be sincerely interested in it, and be dedicated to it.
184
One of the advantages of _____ is that enables different fire companies to work together well because each company officer understand the capabilities, requirements, and needs of the other.
A. Unity of command.
B. Span of control.
C. Division of labor.
D. Cross training.
D. Cross training.
185
In addition to being essential to the cohesion of the group, _____ is one of the greatest influences on the success of the group.
A. Having a common binding interest.
B. Having a sense of continuity.
C. The group image.
D. Having a shared set of moral values.
C. The group image.
186
In most of the industrialized world, the fulfillment of the first two levels of human needs are almost guaranteed by employment opportunities and social welfare programs. This is certainly true in the United States and Canada. The next level in the hierarchy is that of:
A. Safety and security.
B. Esteem and status.
C. Belonging and social activity.
D. Self-actualization and fulfillment.
C. Belonging and social activities.
| List all when found in book
187
Knowledge is power. In any given situation, the one with the most knowledge often has the most power, even if he does not have the most authority. This statement best describes which of the following types of power?
A. Expert power
B. Coercive power
C. Identification power
D. Legitimate power
A. Expert power
188
Formal communications are essential to successful discharge of the departments responsibilities to the citizens of the community. _____ provide direction on which specific actions are based. _____ are the basis for much of the company level skills training, such as initial fire attack, supporting automatic sprinkler systems, coordinated fire attack, ground search and rescue, and others.
A. Written policies and procedures.
B. Standing operating procedures.
C. Orders.
D. Directives.
B. Standing operating procedures (SOP's)
189
In formal groups, the leader is usually either signed or elected. In informal groups, a natural or indigenous leader emerges regardless of whether any formal selection process is used. The following statements are true regarding formal and informal leaders… The exception is:
A. It is not desirable that the company officer be the leader in both the formal and informal groups.
B. It is important for company officers to realize that the ability to positively influence a group is not dependent upon being their in formal leader.
C. The company officer must strive to become the informal leader as well as the appointed leader by earning the respect of the crew members.
D. The most detrimental thing a company officer can do is to distance himself from the informal group.
A. It is not desirable that the company officer be the leader in both the formal and informal groups. (False)
190
Authority refers to the legal ability of an individual to make and implement decisions for which the individual is held accountable. There two types of authority: centralized and decentralized. The difference between centralized and decentralized authority is the level at which decisions are made. The desired result of decentralization is:
A. Decisions are made by one person at the top structure.
B. When decisions are made at lower levels in an organization, upper management personnel are freed to concentrate on more important matters.
C. The Chief may centralize the authority to make certain decisions only specific areas.
D. The chief delegates to officers authority to make decisions and to implement plans, and accountability for any decisions made.
B. When decisions are made at lower levels in an organization, upper management personnel are freed to concentrate on more important matters.
191
Company officers are bound by ADA employment regulations and maybe held personally liable for failure to comply with them. The following statements are true regarding reasonable accommodation may mean changing the working environment and/or the way the job is performed... the exception is:
A. Require that essential parts of the job be assigned to another worker in order to accommodate a disabled.
B. Providing work surfaces that are at wheelchair height and putting necessary switches and controls within reach of someone in a wheelchair.
C. Moving a job function to a ground-floor office if there is no elevator.
D. Rewriting the job description to eliminate nonessential functions that a disabled person could not perform.
A. Require that essential parts of the job be assigned to another worker in order to accommodate a disabled. (False)
192
There are five key dimensions that determine the quality of an officers leadership ability. An effective leader is one who can:
A. Structure competitive rather than cooperative relationships.
B. Resolve conflicts by avoiding or forcing a particular solution rather than confronting issues together.
C. Builds others' trust in the leader.
D. Stimulate and promote task-oriented thinking and behavior.
C. Builds others' trust in the leader.
193
Different activities generally fall into one of three categories; "must-do, should-do,and may-do". Which of the following activities calls into the "must-do" category?
A. Training.
B. Public-education.
C. Emergency calls.
D. Code-enforcement.
C. Emergency calls.
194
In the fire service, one of the most widely used techniques for presenting new information is the fourth step method of instruction. The steps involved are preparation, presentation, application, and evaluation.
The _____ step is the most important because this is where most of the learning takes place.
A. Preparation C. Application
B. Presentation. D. Evaluation
C. Application
195
This is one of the most effective skill development and maintenance techniques, especially for the most critical skills. Like the four-step method of instruction, _____ has been around for many years and has proven its effectiveness. However, while _____ is highly effective, it is not as effective as the four-step method because it often involves small group instruction. The _____ in the statement is best represented by:
A. Small-step learning
B. Prescriptive training
C. Traditional training
D. Mastery learning
D. Mastery learning
| Define all when found in book
196
A detailed narrative should be a part of every incident report. In general, company officers should use the following guidelines when preparing the narrative portion of their reports... The exception is:
A. Include only known facts. Do include speculation.
B. Organize the narrative in chronological sequence of events.
C. Be thorough. Gather information from all company members before writing the report, and clarify any apparent conflicting information.
D. Avoid using fire service jargon, acronyms, or technical terminology that some readers may not understand.
A. Include only known facts. Do include speculation. (False)
-----------------------------------------
Do NOT include speculation.
All other answers are true.
197
If asked to define communications, most people might respond, "talking between two people" or "words" or some other simplistic answer. These answers are only partially correct. They fail to identify communications as a process:
A. Of a person sending the information - "the sender".
B. Of the actual message.
C. That exchanges ideas and information between two parties.
D. Of a person receiving the information - "the receiver".
C. That exchanges ideas and information between two parties.
198
The single most effective method of minimizing the effects of the "grapevine" is for the administration to:
A. Provide a daily or weekly information bulletin in every station.
B. Ignore the grapevine.
C. Provide an adequate flow of official information.
D. Provide a regular flow of false information.
C. Provide an adequate flow of official information.
| Providing a daily or weekly information bulletin is a way to provide adequate/official information
199
The _____ of management was based on the belief that a happy worker is a productive worker. It's major proponent was Elton Mayo of Harvard.
A. Scientific theory of management.
B. Human relations theory
C. Hygiene theory
D. Management by objectives (MBO
B. Human relations.
200
While the publics perception of the fire department is influenced by what they see and hear from the various news media, the primary source of their image of the department is their:
A Listening to the Fire Chief at government meetings.
B. Observation of fire stations and department apparatus.
C. Encounters with fire apparatus on city streets.
D. Day to day contact with department personnel at fires, medical calls, rescues, inspections, and public education presentations.
A.
D. Day to day contact with department personnel at fires, medical calls, rescues, inspections, and public education presentations.
201
The most important duty of every firefighter is to prevent fires and other emergencies from occurring because that is the most cost-effective way of protecting life and property. The goal toward which every fire department strives is to:
A. Reduce the loss of life and property within the jurisdiction.
B. Adopt enforce appropriate ordinances, codes and standards.
C. Prevent all emergencies.
D. Conscientiously apply the inspection program at the company level.
C. Prevent all emergencies.
202
When the company arrives at the business to be inspected, the inspection team members should enter the business through the main entrance and go directly to the main office. The inspection teams primary concern is:
A. Code violations.
B. Means of egress.
C. Risks.
D. Hazards.
B. Means of egress.
203
A department's infectious disease control program is designed to protect the health of its members, but it also helps to protect the department against related liability. One component of an infectious control program known as _____ is described as the three most effective ways of protecting firefighters from communicable diseases on the job are through "immunizations, protective barriers, and proper disposal of contaminated materials".
A. A written policy statement.
B. Exposure control plan.
C. An infectious control SOP.
D. A training / education program.
B. Exposure control plan.
204
Laws come from many different sources. In general, the major sources of laws in the Western world are common law, constitutional law, statutory law, case law, and administrative law. _____ law is described as within the limits of the statutory law that creates them, government agencies such as 0SHA, EPA, and state fire marshal's offices are empowered to create and enforce rules and regulations to implement the legislation for which they are responsible. These rules and regulations have the force of law.
```
A. Common law.
B. Case law.
C. Constitutional law.
D. Administrative law.
E. Statutory laws.
```
D. Administrative law.
205
SOURCES of LAWS:
_____ law - "laws of the land", Describes the organization of the federal government, the powers assigned to each branch of government, and the powers ascribed to the states or Providence. Contains the US Constitution and Bill of Rights. All laws enacted by Congress/Parliament, states/provincial legislators or local entities must be consistent with the respective federal Constitution.
```
A. Common law.
B. Case law.
C. Constitutional law.
D. Administrative law.
E. Statutory laws.
```
C. Constitutional law.
206
The federal court system and, ultimately, the U.S. Supreme Court is the arbiter in matters of constitutional law in the U.S. The Constitution creates a federal government structure consisting of three branches:
1. Legislative branch (creates laws)
2. Executive branch (implements, administers, and enforces laws)
3. Judicial branch (interprets the laws)
207
1. The Legislative branch - ____ laws.
2. Executive branch - ____, ____, and ____ laws.
3. Judicial branch - ____ the laws.
1. Creates
2. Implements, administers, and enforces
3. Interprets
208
SOURCES of LAWS:
_____ laws - Are the result of legislation actions such as those laws passed by the US Congress, state, or local entities. The authority to create these laws stem from the federal Constitution. These laws, referred to as statutes or ordinances, maybe a revised or repealed by the body that enacted them.
For example, a local municipality has the right to enact and enforce laws regarding open burning, fireworks, or occupancy limitations. However, a local ordinance may not be in conflict with federal or state law.
A. Common laws (aka Case law).
B. Statutory laws.
C. Administrative laws.
D. Constitutional law.
B. Statutory laws.
209
SOURCES of LAWS:
_____ - Is that body of law that is based on tradition, custom, usage, and decisions of the judicial courts within a particular country, society, or culture. Therefore, ____ law consists of laws that were developed by judicial decisions rather than legislative action (statutory law).
A. Common laws (aka Case law).
B. Statutory laws.
C. Administrative laws.
D. Constitutional law.
A. Common laws (aka Case law).
210
SOURCES of LAWS:
_____ law - Within the limits of statutory laws that created them, federal, state, and local government agencies such as OSHA, EPA, state fire marshal's offices, and local code enforcement departments are empowered to create and enforce rules and regulations to implement the legislation for which they are responsible.
A. Common laws (aka Case law).
B. Statutory laws.
C. Administrative laws.
D. Constitutional law.
C. Administrative laws.
211
All supervisors, whether paid or volunteer, are responsible for all the work that is assigned to the company and for making sure that it is done properly and on time. To accomplish this, company officers should do the following; carefully plan, schedule, and coordinate work. Organized subordinates so that they cooperate and work together as a team. Delegate as much work-related authority as possible, and monitor and evaluate the quality and quantity of work being done, is:
A. Getting the job done.
B. Keeping the work area safe and healthy.
C. Developing member skills.
D. Keeping records and making reports.
A. Getting the job done.
212
Four- step method of instruction:
_____ - Establish lesson relevancy to the job by introducing the topic, gaining the students attention, and stating the learning objectives. How the students will be evaluated should also be mentioned.
A. Step 1: Preparation.
B. Step 2: Presentation.
C. Step 3: Application.
D. Step 4: Evaluation.
A. Step 1: Preparation.
213
Four- step method of instruction:
_____ - Present the information to be taught using an orderly, sequential outline. Select the teaching method that is appropriate to the learning styles of the students in the topic to be taught. Can be combined with application. Generally, the presentation choices available are lecture, illustrated lecture, discussion, demonstration, learning activities (such as role-play).
A. Step 1: Preparation.
B. Step 2: Presentation.
C. Step 3: Application.
D. Step 4: Evaluation.
B. Step 2: Presentation.
214
Four- step method of instruction:
_____ - Provide opportunities for learning through activities, exercises, discussions, workgroups, skill practice, practical training evolutions, and similar learning activities. The purpose is to reinforce the students learning.
***Most learning takes place during this step, making this step critically important.***
A. Step 1: Preparation.
B. Step 2: Presentation.
C. Step 3: Application.
D. Step 4: Evaluation.
C. Step 3: Application.
| Described as the most important step
215
Four- step method of instruction:
_____ - Have students demonstrate how much they have learned through a written, oral, or practical examination or test. The purpose is to determine whether students achieved the lesson objectives or course outcomes.
A. Step 1: Preparation.
B. Step 2: Presentation.
C. Step 3: Application.
D. Step 4: Evaluation.
D. Step 4: Evaluation.
216
There are two major reasons for _____ listening: One, there is too much to hear so the listener only hears what he can understand. Two, the listener does not like what is being said and so hears only the parts of the message with what she agrees.
A. Selective.
B. Active.
C. Not.
D. Comprehensive.
A. Selective listening.
217
If a reporter should ask for a prepared news or press release on a particular event or topic, it can be submitted in an outline form or it can be submitted in narrative form. Regardless of what form is being used, the content should be limited to the facts of the event or topic and should be a simple and straightforward as possible. The following statements are FALSE regarding the guidelines for a press release... the exception is:
A. Summarize the piece in the last sentence by answering the questions Who? What? When? Where? and Why?
B. Use the inverted pyramid style of organization by putting the most important facts first and the least important ones last.
C. Limit sentence length to more than 20 words.
D. Write no less than four or five lines per paragraph.
B. Use the inverted pyramid style of organization by putting the most important facts first and the least important ones last. (TRUE)
-----------------------------------------
A. Summarize the piece in the "last sentence" by answering the questions Who? What? When? Where? and Why? (FALSE - first sentence)
C. Limit sentence length to "more" than 20 words. (FALSE- less than 20 words)
D. Write no "less" than four or five lines per paragraph. (FALSE - no more than)
218
Although gathering information about a particular building or occupancy during a pre-incident survey is often referred to as pre-incident planning, there is a difference. When company level personnel conduct at a preincident survey, they are there to... the exception is:
A. Concentrate on where and how fires are most likely to occur and how those fires are likely to behave.
B. See that the occupant has done everything that the code requires to prevent fires from occurring and that will allow the occupants to get out if and when the fire does occur.
C. Focus on what is likely to happen and what they will need in order to mitigate those contingencies.
D. Determine what firefighters will need to know about the occupancy in order to function there safely when their vision is totally obscured by darkness and/or smoke.
E. Identify the number and type of resources needed to handle an incident at the location.
F. Identify critical conditions that were not noted during any previous facility surveys or have changed since the last survey.
B. See that the occupant has done everything that the code requires to prevent fires from occurring and that will allow the occupants to get out if and when a fire does occur.
(FALSE - this is done during inspections not pre-incident survey's)
219
A common means of communication is essential for maintaining control, coordination, and safety. The following statements are TRUE regarding common communications the exception is:
A. All units must use the 10-code or other agency specific radio codes.
B. Individual channels may be assigned for command, safety, tactical, support, ground-to-air, or air-to-air.
C. All unit leaders should be given a copy of the communications plan for the incident when they check in.
D. If mutual aid units are not equipped with radios that can receive and transmit on the channels assigned to them in the plan, they must be issued portable radios that will function on those channels.
A. All units must use the 10-code or other agency specific radio codes. (FALSE)
220
A type of stress that deserves special attention is the stress that occurs as result of a particular traumatic or disturbing incident. This type of stress is called critical incident stress. An example of a common delayed symptom is:
A. Denial of the situation.
B. Anger.
C. Feelings of guilt.
D. Frustration.
C. Feelings of guilt.
221
There are 5 Essential Elements of a Group. Which one is defined as draws members together by some common interest that is important to them on some level. Weather it be shared hobby's, beliefs, or needs.
```
A. Common Binding Interests.
B. Vital Group Image.
C. Sense of Continuity.
D. Shared set of Values.
E. Different Roles within the Group.
```
A. Common binding interest.
(Volunteer and combination organizations must determine, communicate, and supports the common binding interests of their members if they are to retain them.)
222
There are 5 Essential Elements of a Group. Which one is defined as the members of the group must recognize the existence of their group and take pride in it. This pride contributes to group spirit and high morale. This feeling of pride must extend beyond the unit to the entire and organization. In addition to being essential to the cohesion of the group, it is one of the greatest influences on the success of the group.
```
A. Common Binding Interests.
B. Vital Group Image.
C. Sense of Continuity.
D. Shared set of Values.
E. Different Roles within the Group.
```
B. Vital group image.
***it is one of the greatest influences on the success of the group***.
223
There are 5 Essential Elements of a Group. Which one is considered very important to group integrity. Without it commitment to the group may diminish. The group can be fragmented, and the members may begin to think and act more independently.
```
A. Common Binding Interests.
B. Vital Group Image.
C. Sense of Continuity.
D. Shared set of Values.
E. Different Roles within the Group.
```
C. Sense of continuity.
***considered very important to group integrity. ***
224
There are 5 Essential Elements of a Group. Which one is considered part of the cohesive structure of most groups. They are sometimes a composite of individual perception of reality, responsibility, and integrity.
```
A. Common Binding Interests.
B. Vital Group Image.
C. Sense of Continuity.
D. Shared set of Values.
E. Different Roles within the Group.
```
D. Shared set of values.
| Common values
225
There are 5 Essential Elements of a Group. Which one is defined as - Within each group, different individuals act in different capacities such as company officer, formal and informal leader, and member.
```
A. Common Binding Interests.
B. Vital Group Image.
C. Sense of Continuity.
D. Shared set of Values.
E. Different Roles within the Group.
```
E. Different roles within the group.
226
According to Webster, power is "the possession of control, authority, or influence over others". Those with power can give advice, offer rewards, or threaten subordinates with a variety of sanctions. Company officers who rely on their _____ power alone are not likely to be successful. They should strive to develop the ability to exercise all forms of power as each situation demands.
A. Reward power.
B. Coercive power.
C. Legitimate power.
D. Expert power.
C. Legitimate power.
227
Most fire service recruits today are significantly different than those of 20 or 30 years ago. The following statements are FALSE regarding today's fire service recruits... the exception is:
A. They generally have less work experience than their predecessors.
B. They have less formal education.
C. They are less computer literate.
D. They are less aware social issues.
A. They generally have less work experience than their predecessors. (TRUE)
-----------------------------------------
B. They have less formal education.(False they have MORE)
C. They are less computer literate.(false they have MORE)
D. They are less aware social issues. (False they have MORE)
228
_____ is a frequently used technique by firefighters who are preparing for promotional or certification examination. The _____ process is based upon several fundamental principles. They apply equally to skill development and skill maintenance situations, and they are very effective when used as part of a prescriptive training program.
A. Traditional training.
B. Non-traditional training.
C. Small-step learning.
D. Mastery learning.
D. Mastery learning.
| Look up all definitions if found in book, esp mastery learning
229
_____ - Is the likelihood of suffering harm from a hazard. Can also be thought of as the potential for failure or loss. Is the exposure to a hazard.
Example - Fire related _____ is often expressed as the number of incidents, injuries, or deaths per capita.
Risk
230
_____ - Usually refers to the source of a risk. Is a condition, substance, or device that can directly cause an injury or loss.
Examples include ignition sources (such as smoking materials or faulty electrical wiring) or behaviors (such as children playing with matches or persons overloading electrical outlets).
Hazard
231
The terms hazard and risk are often used interchangeably. Technically, however, hazards and risks described two different things. RISK is the exposure to the hazard, and a HAZARD is a condition, substance, or device that can directly cause injury or loss. Which of the following is an example of a fire-related risk:
A. Smoking materials.
B. Number of deaths per capita.
C. Faulty electrical wiring.
D. Children playing with matches.
B. Number of deaths per capita.
232
Examples of fire related _____ include ignition sources (such as smoking materials or faulty electrical wiring) or behaviors (such as children playing with matches or persons overloading electrical outlets).
A. Risks.
B. Hazards.
C. Dangers.
D. Violations.
B. Hazards.
233
Fire related _____ is often expressed as the number of incidents, injuries, or deaths per capita.
A. Risks.
B. Hazards.
C. Dangers.
D. Violations.
A. Risk.
234
Of the following items, the one which relates to the other major issue about which firefighters are often concerned - job security is:
A. Grievance procedures.
B. Use of sick leave.
C. Overtime.
D. Vacations.
A. Grievance procedures.
235
Usually shortened to just "memos", memoranda are a form of letter that is usually reserved for internal communication only - that is, within the department or the organization. The following statement is FALSE regarding memos:
A. Memos are sometimes used to document a face-to-face conversation.
B. Memos are used to transmit the same information to several locations or individuals.
C. Memos provide specific information concerning questions or requests in a formal manner.
D. Memos provide a written record of decisions, requests, or policies.
C. Memos provide specific information concerning questions or requests in a formal manner.
(FALSE - informal manner)
236
Which of the following statements represents the MOST COMMON cause of electrical fires?
A. An automatic coffee maker or similar appliance inadvertently being left on when the occupant leaves the premises.
B. Clothes dryers, both electric and gas, sometimes start fires because of a failure of the high temperature control of the timing mechanism.
C. Improperly installed wiring and/or equipment. Homeowners and business owners who lack the training to properly install electrical wiring and fixtures sometimes try to save money by doing the work themselves instead of calling a licensed contractor or electrician.
D. Misuse of the electrical system by the building occupants. This often involves the use of lightweight extension cords, sometimes called "zip cords".
D. Misuse of the electrical system by the building occupants. This often involves the use of lightweight extension cords, sometimes called "zip cords".
237
To ensure _____, company officers must learn to plan their transmissions before keying the microphone. They should do the following: make messages task-oriented, direct messages to companies and not individuals, match the message to the receiver, keep the messages specific.
A. Conciseness.
B. Clarity.
C. Confidence.
D. Control.
A. Conciseness.
238
Layman described a five-step process for analyzing any emergency situation. The step that he describes as... one set of facts that is known about the overall situation. Among these facts are the number and types of resources already at the scene. Also known are what additional resources are available immediately, with some delay, and with considerable delay,… is known as:
A. Facts.
B. Probabilities.
C. Own situation.
D. Plan of operation.
C. Own situation.
239
A common means of communication is essential to maintain the following... the exception is:
A. Control.
B. Command.
C. Coordination.
D. Safety.
B. Command.
240
Line and staff are terms that refer to the traditional organizational concept that separates fire department personnel into two distinct groups: line personnel and staff personnel. Which of the following activities would be carried out by line personnel?
A. Personal administration.
B. Training.
C. Emergency Medical Services.
D. Logistics.
C. Emergency medical services.
241
Which of the following roles is a traditional staff role of the fire department?
A. Hazardous materials response.
B. Fire prevention.
C. Personal administration.
D. Public education.
C. Personal administration.
242
Victor Vroom's V.I.E. Theory of Motivation is often referred to as the expectancy theory. In very simplified terms, it links motivation to expectations. The elements that are the operative ones are:
A. Value and expectancy.
B. Instrumentality and expectancy.
C. Value, instrumentality, and expectancy.
D. Value and instrumentality
A. Value and expectancy.
243
The responsibility that includes "supervising firefighters includes answering their questions and handling their complaints while maintaining order and discipline within the company. To do this, the company officer must communicate the organizations culture and goals downward to the company members, and identify community concerns and opportunities upward to the administration" is:
A. Keeping the work area safe and healthy.
B. Developing member skills.
C. Encouraging teamwork and cooperation.
D. Keeping records and making reports.
C. Encouraging teamwork and cooperation.
244
A prescriptive training program system is one in which clearly defined and measurable performance standards have been developed for all the various individual skills and company evolutions deems necessary for the department to be able to fill its mission. The following statement is FALSE regarding prescriptive training:
A. The company officer evaluates the skills of his company members.
B. The training officer and/or the company officer supervisor evaluates the company evolutions.
C. Any performance found to be deficient must be brought up to standard within a specific period of time.
D. Prescriptive training systems are very efficient because they are processed-based, not performance-based.
D. Prescriptive training systems are very efficient because they are processed-based, not performance-based. (FALSE - they are performance-based)
245
A _____ program system is one in which clearly defined and measurable performance standards have been developed for all the various individual skills and company evolutions deems necessary for the department to be able to fill its mission.
The company officer evaluates the skills of his company members; The training officer and/or the company officer supervisor evaluates the company evolutions; Any performance found to be deficient must be brought up to standard within a specific period of time;
These systems are very efficient because they are performance-based, not processed-based.
A. Small-step learning
B. Prescriptive training
C. Traditional training
D. Mastery learning
B. Prescriptive training system.
246
There are many ways for a department to enhance the departments public image. The means most often used by fire department is public education. Three of the most effective means of enhancing the departments image are group presentations, _____, and direct assistance.
A. Company officer's response during day to day contact.
B. Media programs.
C. Company officer's response during emergency incidents.
D. Public education presentations.
B. Media programs.
247
While sometimes similar to handing citizen concerns, handling public inquiries is usually less strident and confrontational. An absolutely essential fire department customer service player is the company officer boss. The following statement is TRUE regarding the company officer.
A. They need to make a phone call to get permission to check a form or a computer screen.
B. The need to look up in the ops manual to determine what is going on.
C. They are typically captain and lieutenant types who do first level supervision as an integral (inside) part of the service delivery team.
D. Company officers operate outside the basic fire department service delivery team - fire company.
C. They are typically captain and lieutenant types who do first level supervision as an integral (inside) part of the service delivery team.
248
The fifth step in the "five-step planning process" is the evaluation step. This is the bottom line of public fire and life safety education programs. There are two types of feedback in the evaluation step; immediate feedback and long-term feedback. Which of the following is an example of long-term feedback?
A. Regardless of what the audience thought of the program, if it resulted in fewer fires, then it obviously succeeded. On the other hand, if there is little or no positive change in the data, it probably means that the program is less than successful. Either way, this is the most meaningful and reliable evaluation possible.
B. This feedback is valuable for its freshness, and immediately but it lacks objective validity.
C. The audience is asked to participate in the pretest/post-test approach.
D. Most people score higher after the presentation than they did before it.
A. Regardless of what the audience thought of the program, if it resulted in fewer fires, then it obviously succeeded. On the other hand, if there is little or no positive change in the data, it probably means that the program is less than successful. Either way, this is the most meaningful and reliable evaluation possible.
-----------------------------------------
(The others are examples of immediate feedback)
249
Because the injuries suffered by some of the victims at some accidents can be extremely gruesome and horrific, the firefighters and any others who had to deal directly with the victims should be required to attend a critical incident stress debriefing (CISD) process. They should attend the folder debriefing process within _____ of completing their work on the incident.
A. 24 hours.
B. 48 hours.
C. 72 hours.
D. Immediately.
C. 72 hours.
250
Common Terminology for Resources:
_____ - All personnel and major items of equipment available (or potentially available) for assignment to incident tasks on which status is maintained; maybe individual companies (single resources), task forces, strike teams, or specialized units.
Factors:
- _____ are considered available when they have checked in at the incident and are not currently committed to an assignment.
-It is imperative that the status of these _____ is tracked so that they may be assigned when and where they're needed without delay.
```
A. Resources.
B. Resource types.
C. Crew.
D. Single resources.
E. Task force.
F. Strike team.
```
A. Resources.
251
Common Terminology for Resources:
_____ -Classification based on the capability of the resource. _____ may be referred to as fire apparatus, crew transport (buses), hoseline crews, aircraft, hazardous material units, fireboats, or ICS position assignments. Type I resource is considered more capable than Type II, and in sequence Type III, to the least cable Type IV.
```
A. Resources.
B. Resource types.
C. Crew.
D. Single resources.
E. Task force.
F. Strike team.
```
B. Resource types.
252
Common Terminology for Resources:
_____ - Specified number of personnel assembled for an assignment such as search, ventilation, or hoseline deployment and operations.
The number of personnel assigned to a _____ should be within span-of-control guidelines. A _____ operates under the direct supervision of a _____ leader.
```
A. Resources.
B. Resource types.
C. Crew.
D. Single resources.
E. Task force.
F. Strike team.
```
C. Crew.
253
Common Terminology for Resources:
_____ resources - Individual pieces of apparatus (engines, ladders/trucks, water tenders, bulldozers, air tankers, helicopters, etc.) and all personnel required to make them functional.
```
A. Resources.
B. Resource types.
C. Crew.
D. Single resources.
E. Task force.
F. Strike team.
```
D. Single resources.
254
Common Terminology for Resources:
_____ - Any combination of resources (engines, ladders/trucks, bulldozers, etc.) assembled for specific mission or operational assignment. All units in the _____ must have common communication capabilities and a designated leader. Once a _____'s tactical objective has been met, it is disbanded; individual resources are reassigned or released.
```
A. Resources.
B. Resource types.
C. Crew.
D. Single resources.
E. Task force.
F. Strike team.
```
E. Task force.
255
Common Terminology for Resources:
_____ - Set number of resources of the same kind and type (engines, ladders/trucks, bulldozers, etc.) that have an established minimum number of personnel. All units in the team must have common communication capabilities and a leader in a separate vehicle. Remain together and function as a team through out an incident.
```
A. Resources.
B. Resource types.
C. Crew.
D. Single resources.
E. Task force.
F. Strike team.
```
F. Strike team.
256
Depending upon the needs of the incident, as specified in the incident action plan, resources maybe managed in different configurations. The resource that is described as "a set number of the same kind and type of resource, staffed with a specified minimum number of personnel. The leader must be in a separate vehicle". Is known as:
A. Single resources.
B. Task forces.
C. Groups.
D. Strike teams.
D. Strike teams.
257
While the experience may vary from department to department, NFPA statistics show that the majority of serious injuries to firefighters, as well as the greatest number of injuries, occur:
A. At the scene of emergency incidents.
B. During training.
C. While responding to a returning from alarms.
D. During housework.
A. At the scene of emergency incidents.
258
Improper lifting techniques can result not only a personal injury but also in damage to equipment that is dropped or improperly handled. Every firefighter should be trained in safe lifting techniques. Safe lifting techniques include... the exception is:
A. Getting as close the object as possible.
B. When lifting, firefighter should bend at the waist.
C. Getting a good grip on the object, keeping the back straight or slightly arched.
D. Lifting with the legs, not the back.
B.
B. When lifting, firefighter should bend at the waist. (FALSE)
259
Statutory law pertains to laws enacted by legislative bodies of government. 3 Examples:
1) _____ level - USFA, OSHA, EPA, EEOC, IRS
2) _____ level - created tax codes, marriage laws, voting laws, motor vehicle laws, gaming laws, hunting regulations, health and safety laws, and laws governing the special districts for fire protection, sanitation, recreation, education, ect.
3) _____ level - Created ordinances that adopt a particular addition of a building or fire code, establish speed limits on local streets and roads, require business licenses, and adopt the fire and emergency services organizations annual budget.
1) Federal level
2) State level
3) Local level
260
Which of the following is an example of a statutory law at the local level?
A. TAX CODES.
B. OSHA.
C. Hunting regulations.
D. Fire codes.
```
D. Fire codes. (Local level)
-----------------------------------------
A. TAX CODES. (State level)
B. OSHA. (Federal level)
C. Hunting regulations. (State level)
```
261
While it is possible for the same acts to be a violation of both criminal and civil law, most actionable behavior is either one or the other. Which of the following statements is most correct regarding criminal law?
A. It deals primarily with private rights and responsibilities.
B. It is the means by which society protects itself and it penalties are sometimes monetary.
C. It is the means by which individuals seek redress usually in the form of monetary damages.
D. The defendants guilt must be proven by a preponderance of the evidence.
B. It is the means by which society protects itself and it penalties are sometimes monetary. (Criminal law)
-----------------------------------------
A. It deals primarily with private rights and responsibilities. (Civil law)
C. It is the means by which individuals seek redress usually in the form of monetary damages. (Civil law)
D. The defendants guilt must be proven by a preponderance of the evidence. (Civil law)
262
In their book The Managerial Grid, Blake and Mouton Theorized that there are several basic types of leadership. Each type of leadership is based on the leader's concern (or lack thereof) for people and/or production. _____ leadership Is characterized by a low concern for people and a low concern for production.
A. Autocratic.
B. Bureaucratic.
C. Democratic.
D. Single-issue.
B. Bureaucratic.
263
In most cases, company officers will spend the majority of their time training with their firefighters "skill maintenance". Rather than focusing on learning new skills, this training focuses on maintaining the skills they have already learned. The following statement is TRUE regarding skill maintenance:
A. Drilling often involves nothing more than periodically practicing the skills that they do not apply frequently in the field is "Skill Maintance".
B. Drilling on using self-contained breathing apparatus is "Skill Maintance".
C. Drilling on applying cardiopulmonary resuscitation is "Skill Maintance".
D. Drilling on defibrillation techniques is "Skill Maintance".
A. Drilling often involves nothing more than periodically practicing the skills that they do not apply frequently in the field is "Skill Maintance".
(Other answers could possibly be correct but above answer is most correct)
264
Most states maintain a _____ office. In as many as 47 of the states, the _____ serves as the principle authority on fire protection. A key responsibility is to advise the legislature or assembly on fire and life-safety related legislation and to oversees the fire prevention program. In cases of fire involving state property, or private property located outside a municipal boundary, the _____ generally conducts cause and origin investigations. The _____ commonly serves on open panels and committees tasked with state planning for hazardous materials control and disaster preparedness.
Fire Marshal
265
Because the structure and function of agencies very greatly among the states, company officers must make an effort to become familiar with the exact agencies and their responsibilities that are active in their political subdivision. In most states, a key responsibility of the _____ is to advise the legislature or assembly on fire related legislation and to oversee the fire prevention program.
A. Fire Chief's Association
B. Firefighters Association
C. Fire Marshal
D. Fire Commission
C. Fire Marshal
266
The three most widely used forms of conflict resolution are mediation, arbitration, and fact-finding. Arbitration is sometimes required by local or state law is usually binding on both sides. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding arbitration?
A. The arbitrator is free to decide on any issue-by-issue basis.
B. Arbitrators look at the facts and developing list of suggested solutions.
C. The arbitrator meets separately with both sides in a conflict to identify the real issues and concerns that have caused the impasse.
D. Because arbitration is an all-or-nothing process, this forces each side to propose its most reasonable
package.
D. Because arbitration is an all-or-nothing process, this forces each side to propose its most reasonable
package. (TRUE)
267
The relationship-by-objectives (RBO) program is designed to improve relationships between labor and management. It concentrates on the process by which a labor and management may work co-operatively. An optional objective of this program is:
A. It does not replace the negotiation process between the entity and the union.
B. Development of skills that will enable participants to work together to address labor/management concerns.
C. Identification of viewpoints, conflicts, and concerns that hinder a productive labor/management relationship.
D. Formation of an objective-based plan designed to resolve problems into building mutually beneficial working relationship.
B. Development of skills that will enable participants to work together to address labor/management concerns.
268
_____ cover major purchases - items that cost more than a certain specified amount of money and are expected to last more than one year, usually three or more years.
A. Program budgets.
B. Line-item budgets.
C. Capital budgets.
D. Operating budgets.
C. Capital budgets.
269
Budget Types: (2)
_____ - Projected major purchases. Items that cost more than a specified amount of money and are expected to last more than one year (usually three or more years).
Fire apparatus/vehicles, equipment, and facilities are typical capital items for fire and emergency services organizations.
A. Program budgets.
B. Line-item budgets.
C. Capital budgets.
D. Operating budgets.
C. Capital budget.
270
Budget Types: (2)
_____ - Reoccurring expenditures of day-to-day operation. The largest single item in the _____ of most career organizations is personnel costs (salaries and benefits). Other items also includes utilities, office supplies, fuel, supplies, maintenance, etc...
A. Program budgets.
B. Line-item budgets.
C. Capital budgets.
D. Operating budgets.
D. Operating budget.
271
Fire departments that do not have a full-time PIO may task company officers with preparing press or news releases. In preparing the piece, the following guidelines should be used; the most correct statement is:
A. Use the inverted pyramids style of organization by putting the least important facts first and the most important ones last.
B. limit sentence length to no more than 20 words.
C. Write more than six lines per paragraph. One sentence paragraphs are not acceptable.
D. Use flowery really language and technical or exotic terms, avoid writing clearly and concisely.
B. limit sentence length to no more than 20 words. (TRUE)
-----------------------------------------
A. Use the inverted pyramid style of organization by putting the least important facts first and the most important ones last. (FALSE - inverted pyramid style puts most important first)
C. Write more than six lines per paragraph. One sentence paragraphs are not acceptable.(FALSE - no more than 4-5 lines per paragraph / one sentence paragraphs are acceptable)
D. Use flowery really language and technical or exotic terms, avoid writing clearly and concisely.(FALSE - avoid using)
272
Tires and vehicles behave according to the same physical laws as any other fire, and they may present the same challenges to those investigating them. Fires caused by electrical malfunctions are most likely to be in the engine compartment or:
A. In the upholstery or seat cushions.
B. In the carpet on the floor.
C. In the trunk area.
D. Under the dashboard.
D. Under the dashboard.
273
Company officers and the department administrations need to understand the difference between pre-incident surveys and code enforcement inspections. Each is conducted for entirely different purposes and should not be combined. The following statements are true regarding the pre-incident survey; the exception is:
A. Company officers concentrate on where and how fires are most likely to occur and how those fires are likely to behave.
B. Company officers focus on what is likely to happen and what they will need in order to mitigate those contingencies.
C. Company officers focus on any potential hazards to firefighter safety that may exist on the premises.
D. Company officers are there to see that the occupant has done everything that the code requires to prevent fires from occurring and that will allow the occupants to get out if and when he fired does occur.
D. Company officers are there to see that the occupant has done everything that the code requires to prevent fires from occurring and that will allow the occupants to get out if and when he fired does occur. (FALSE - this is code enforcement)
274
NFPA 220 lists five classifications of building construction. According to NFPA 220 the primary fire concern specific to _____ construction is the problem of fire and smoke spread through concealed spaces between the walls, floors, and ceiling.
```
A. Type I.
B. Type II.
C. Type III.
D. Type IV.
E. Type V.
```
C. Type III.
275
NFPA 220 has 5 classification codes but may use different terms to describe each classification.
Type I construction is also called -
```
A. Fire-resistive construction.
B. Noncombustible.
C. Ordinary construction.
D. Heavy timber construction.
E. Woodframe construction.
```
A. Fire-resistive construction.
276
NFPA 220 has 5 classification codes but may use different terms to describe each classification.
Type II construction is also called -
```
A. Fire-resistive construction.
B. Noncombustible.
C. Ordinary construction.
D. Heavy timber construction.
E. Woodframe construction.
```
B. Noncombustible.
aka noncombustible
aka limited combustible construction
277
NFPA 220 has 5 classification codes but may use different terms to describe each classification.
Type III construction is also called -
```
A. Fire-resistive construction.
B. Noncombustible.
C. Ordinary construction.
D. Heavy timber construction.
E. Woodframe construction.
```
C. Ordinary construction.
278
NFPA 220 has 5 classification codes but may use different terms to describe each classification.
Type IV construction is also called -
```
A. Fire-resistive construction.
B. Noncombustible.
C. Ordinary construction.
D. Heavy timber construction.
E. Woodframe construction.
```
D. Heavy timber construction.
279
NFPA 220 has 5 classification codes but may use different terms to describe each classification.
Type V construction is also called -
```
A. Fire-resistive construction.
B. Noncombustible.
C. Ordinary construction.
D. Heavy timber construction.
E. Woodframe construction.
```
E. Woodframe construction.
280
NFPA 220 has 5 classification codes but may use different terms to describe each classification.
Fire-resistive construction is also called -
```
A. Type I construction.
B. Type II construction.
C. Type III construction.
D. Type IV construction.
E. Type V construction.
```
A. Type I construction.
281
NFPA 220 has 5 classification codes but may use different terms to describe each classification.
Noncombustible or noncombustible/limited combustible construction is also called -
```
A. Type I construction.
B. Type II construction.
C. Type III construction.
D. Type IV construction.
E. Type V construction.
```
B. Type II construction.
282
NFPA 220 has 5 classification codes but may use different terms to describe each classification.
Ordinary construction is also called:
```
A. Type I construction.
B. Type II construction.
C. Type III construction.
D. Type IV construction.
E. Type V construction.
```
C. Type III construction.
283
NFPA 220 has 5 classification codes but may use different terms to describe each classification.
Heavy timber construction is also called -
```
A. Type I construction.
B. Type II construction.
C. Type III construction.
D. Type IV construction.
E. Type V construction.
```
D. Type IV construction.
284
NFPA 220 has 5 classification codes but may use different terms to describe each classification.
Wood-frame construction is also called -
```
A. Type I construction.
B. Type II construction.
C. Type III construction.
D. Type IV construction.
E. Type V construction.
```
E. Type V construction.
285
What makes IBC construction types different than NFPA construction types?
A. The NFPA designates five construction types, similar to IBC but with two subcategories for each type (with the exception of Type IV).
B. The IBC designates five construction types, similar to NFPA, but with two subcategories for each type (with the exception of Type IV).
C. The IBC designates five construction types, similar to NFPA, but with three. subcategories for each type (with the exception of Type IV).
D. A. The NFPA designates five construction types, similar to IBC but with three subcategories for each type (with the exception of Type IV).
B. The IBC designates five construction types, similar to NFPA, but with two subcategories for each type (with the exception of Type IV).
286
IBC Classifications:
_____ – consists of noncombustible materials characterized by the use of steel, iron, concrete, or masonry structural elements.
A. Type I.
B. Type IA.
C. Type IB.
D. Type IC.
A. Type I construction.
287
IBC Classifications:
_____ - Requires a 3-hour fire-resistance rating of the structural frame and load-bearing walls; Floors must have a 2-hour fire-resistance rating; and roofs must have 1 1/2 fire-resistance rating (most stringent classification).
A. Type I.
B. Type IA.
C. Type IB.
D. Type IC.
B. Type IA.
288
IBC Classifications:
_____ - Requires a 2-hour fire-resistance rating for the structural frame and loadbearing walls; Floors must have a 2-hour fire-resistance rating; and roofs must have a 1 hour fire-resistance rating.
A. Type I.
B. Type IA.
C. Type IB.
D. Type IC.
C. Type IB.
289
IBC Classifications:
_____ - Consists of noncombustible materials but with a reduced fire resistance rating when compared with Type I construction. Although the term is not completely accurate, this type is often referred to as a "1-hour building", which means that bearing walls and floors have a 1-hour fire-resistance rating.
Type II construction
290
IBC Classifications:
_____ - Consists of noncombustible materials but with a reduced fire resistance rating when compared with Type I construction. Although the term is not completely accurate, this type is often referred to as a "1-hour building", which means that bearing walls and floors have a 1-hour fire-resistance rating.
_____ - Requires noncombustible fire-resistant material similar to Type I buildings insofar as the structural elements must be of steel, concrete, or masonry.
A. Type II.
B. Type IIA.
C. Type IIB.
D. Type IIC.
1) A. Type II.
| 2) B. Type IIA.
291
IBC Classifications:
1) _____ - Consists of noncombustible materials but with a reduced fire resistance rating when compared with Type I construction. Although the term is not completely accurate, this type is often referred to as a "1-hour building", which means that bearing walls and floors have a 1-hour fire-resistance rating.
2) _____ - Requires approved noncombustible materials, but the materials used may have no assigned fire-resistance rating.
A. Type II.
B. Type IIA.
C. Type IIB.
D. Type IIC.
A. Type II.
C. Type IIB.
292
IBC Classifications:
_____ - Consists of structural elements made of any material permitted by the code. Exterior bearing walls must have a 2-hour fire-resistance rating.
A. Type III.
B. Type IIIA.
C. Type IIIB.
D. Type IIIC.
A. Type III.
293
IBC Classifications:
1) _____ - Consists of structural elements made of any materials permitted by the code. Exterior bearing walls must have a 2-hour fire-resistant rating.
2) _____ - Requires materials that will provide a 1-hour fire-resistant construction throughout the structure.
A. Type III.
B. Type IIIA.
C. Type IIIB.
D. Type IIIC.
1) A. Type III.
| 2) B. Type IIIA.
294
IBC Classifications:
1) _____ - Consists of structural elements made of any materials permitted by the code. Exterior bearing walls must have a 2-hour fire-resistant rating.
2) _____ - Lacks the 1-hour fire-resistant construction requirement for construction materials throughout the structure.
A. Type III.
B. Type IIIA.
C. Type IIIB.
D. Type IIIC.
1) A. Type III.
| 2) C. Type IIIB.
295
IBC Classifications:
_____ - Consists of structural elements of any type permitted by the code with exterior walls being constructed of noncombustible materials while interior building elements are constructed of solid or laminated wood having no concealed spaces (also known as heavy-timber or HT). Buildings must have permitted partitions, and members of the structural frame must have a minimum fire-resistant rating of at least 1-hour.
```
A. Type I.
B. Type II.
C. Type III.
D. Type IV.
E. Type V.
```
D. Type IV.
296
IBC Classifications:
_____ - Consists of structural elements and exterior and interior walls constructed of any materials permitted by the code (also known as wood-frame construction).
```
A. Type I.
B. Type II.
C. Type III.
D. Type IV.
E. Type V.
```
E. Type V.
297
IBC Classifications:
1) _____ - Consists of structural elements and exterior and interior walls constructed of any materials permitted by the code (also known as wood-frame construction).
2) _____ - Requires a 1-hour fire-resistance rating for all structural elements except for nonbearing interior walls and partitions.
A. Type V.
B. Type VA.
C. Type VB.
D. Type VC.
1) A. Type V.
| 2) B. Type VA.
298
IBC Classifications:
1) _____ - Consists of structural elements and exterior and interior walls constructed of any materials permitted by the code (also known as wood-frame construction).
2) _____ - May have non-fire-rated structural elements
A. Type V.
B. Type VA.
C. Type VB.
D. Type VC.
1) A. Type V.
| 2) C. Type VB.
299
NFPA 220 Classifications:
_____ - Consists of structural members, including walls, columns, beams, floors, and roofs, that are made of noncombustible or limited combustible materials. Buildings of this type were originally designed to confine any fire and it's resulting products of combustion to a given location.
```
A. Type I construction.
B. Type II construction.
C. Type III construction.
D. Type IV construction.
E. Type V construction.
```
A. Type I construction.
300
NFPA 220 Classifications:
The following are characteristics of _____ construction.
- Because of the limited combustibility of the construction materials, the primary fuel load (total fuel available) is composed of the contents of the structure.
- The ability of this construction to confine a fire to a certain area can be compromised by openings made in partitions and improperly designed heating, ventilating, and air-conditioning (HVAC) systems.
```
A. Type I construction.
B. Type II construction.
C. Type III construction.
D. Type IV construction.
E. Type V construction.
```
A. Type I.
301
NFPA 220 Classifications:
The following are characteristics of _____ construction:
- Contents of the structure compose the primary fuel load.
- Roofs are often flat, built-up types that may contain combustible felt (tar paper) and roofing tar. Fire extensions to the roof can eventually cause the entire roof to become involved and fail.
```
A. Type I construction.
B. Type II construction.
C. Type III construction.
D. Type IV construction.
E. Type V construction.
```
B. Type II construction.
302
NFPA 220 Classifications:
_____ - Consists of structural members similar to Type I except that the degree of fire-resistance is lower. In some cases, materials with no fire resistance rating (such as untreated wood) maybe used. The heat buildup from a fire in the building can cause structural supports to fail. Another potential problem is the type of roof.
```
A. Type I construction.
B. Type II construction.
C. Type III construction.
D. Type IV construction.
E. Type V construction.
```
B. Type II construction.
303
NFPA 220 Classifications:
_____ -Consists of exterior walls in structural members that are portions of exterior walls that are made of noncombustible or limited combustible materials. Interior structural members, including walls, columns, beams, floors, and roofs, may be completely or partially constructed of wood. The wood used in these members are smaller dimensions than that required for heavy timber construction. Fire hazards can be reduced if fire-stops are placed inside concealed spaces to limit the spread of combustion byproducts.
```
A. Type I construction.
B. Type II construction.
C. Type III construction.
D. Type IV construction.
E. Type V construction.
```
C. Type III construction.
304
NFPA 220 Classifications:
The following are fire concerns/characteristics for _____ construction:
- Fire and smoke spreading through concealed spaces between walls, floors, and ceilings.
- Heat conducting to concealed spaces through finished materials (drywall or plaster) or holes in finished materials, causing heat, smoke, and gases to spread to other parts of the structure.
- Fire actually burning within concealed spaces and feeding on combustible construction materials in the space.
```
A. Type I construction.
B. Type II construction.
C. Type III construction.
D. Type IV construction.
E. Type V construction.
```
C. Type III construction.
305
NFPA 220 Classifications:
_____ - Consists of exterior and interior walls and their associated structural members that are of noncombustible or limited combustible materials. Other interior structural members, including beams, columns, arches, floors, and roofs, are made of solid or laminated wood with no concealed spaces.
```
A. Type I construction.
B. Type II construction.
C. Type III construction.
D. Type IV construction.
E. Type V construction.
```
D. Type IV construction.
306
NFPA 220 Classifications:
The following are characteristics of _____ construction:
- Wooden members must have large enough dimensions to be considered heavy timber.
- Dimensions that qualify as heavy timber vary but are usually defined as being at least 8 inches and its smallest dimension.
```
A. Type I construction.
B. Type II construction.
C. Type III construction.
D. Type IV construction.
E. Type V construction.
```
D. Type IV construction.
307
NFPA 220 Classifications:
_____ -Consists of exterior walls, bearing walls, columns, beams, girders, trusses, arches, floors, and roofs made entirely or partially of wood or other approved combustible material. Buildings are typically wood-frame structures used for various mercantile occupancies, most single-family and multifamily residents, and other freestanding structures up to about six stories in height.
```
A. Type I construction.
B. Type II construction.
C. Type III construction.
D. Type IV construction.
E. Type V construction.
```
E. Type V construction.
308
NFPA 220 Classifications:
The following is characteristics of _____ construction:
- Construction differs from heavy timber construction mainly in the smaller dimensions of the structural members.
- Balloon framed and platform framed are two common styles of this construction.
```
A. Type I construction.
B. Type II construction.
C. Type III construction.
D. Type IV construction.
E. Type V construction.
```
E. Type V construction.
309
Control Zones:
_____ - Area where resolving the problem takes place - fires are suppressed, hazardous materials releases are controlled and contained, vehicle extrication is performed, etc. Only personnel who are directly involved in disposing of the problem are allowed, which limits crowds and confusion at the most critical area of the scene. The size of the zone may vary greatly, depending upon the nature and extent of the problem.
Hot zone
310
Control Zones:
The following are personal requirements for the _____ zone:
- Trained appropriately to manage the situation.
- Attired in complete personal protective equipment (PPE) designed for the specific hazard.
- Participated in a personal accountability system implemented by that incident commander (IC) or incident scene officer (ISO).
Hot zone
311
Control Zones:
_____ - Area immediately outside the hot zone for personnel who are directly supporting the work being preformed by those in the hot zone - limited to personnel who are operating hydraulic tool power plants, providing emergency lighting, and providing fire protection. These personnel are in full PPE and ready to enter the hot. In hazardous materials incidents, this is where a decontamination station is normally assembled.
Warm zone
312
Control Zones:
- limited to personnel who are operating hydraulic tool power plants, providing emergency lighting, and providing fire protection. These personnel are in full PPE.
- In hazardous materials incidents, this is where a decontamination station is normally assembled.
Warm zone
313
Control Zones:
_____ -Area may include the incident command post (ICP) with a rapid intervention crew (RIC) nearby, public information officer's (PIO) location, rehabilitation area, and staging areas for personnel and portable equipment.
Cold zone
314
Control Zones:
The following would be examples of the _____ zone.
- Witnesses and family members of victims
- News media accompanied by the PIO or organization representative
- Backup personnel available to enter the other zones.
Cold zone
315
Control Zones:
_____ - The outer boundary area of the cold zone would be _____ for the general public.
A. Prohibited line.
B. Control line.
C. No access line.
D. No entry line.
B. Control line.
aka Crowd-control line
316
There are numerous reasons to control the incident scene. Most common method of organizing incident scenes is to establish control zones. Vehicle extrication is done in the _____ zone.
Hot zone
317
Lloyd Layman described a 5-step process for analyzing any emergency situation. In the 5th step "Plan of Operation" a written incident action plan will be required in larger, more complex incidents. An IAP normally covers a single operational period, usually about ____ in duration.
A. 6 hours.
B. 12 hours.
C. 24 hours.
D. 48 hours.
B. 12 hours.
318
What are the 3 "Modes of Operation"?
1. Offensive mode
2. Defensive mode
3. Transitional mode (switching from offensive to defensive mode bc of a rapid change in conditions)
319
There are several possible types of facilities that can be established in and around an incident. The types of facilities and their locations are determined by the requirements of the incidents as outlined in the incident action plan. An incident base is described as:
A. Locations at which minor support functions are performed on very large wildland incident. They may be relocated as the needs of the incident dictate.
B. The location at which resources are held in reserve. On wildland fires and other incidents, units are on a three-minute availability.
C. The location at which primary support functions are performed. There is only one and its location remains fixed throughout the incident.
D. The location from which all incident operations are directed. There is only one per incident.
C. The location at which primary support functions are performed. There is only one and its location remains fixed throughout the incident. (Incident Base)
-----------------------------------------
A. Locations at which minor support functions are performed on very large wildland incident. They may be relocated as the needs of the incident dictate. (Camps)
B. The location at which resources are held in reserve. On wildland fires and other incidents, units are on a three-minute availability. (Mobilization/Staging areas)
D. The location from which all incident operations are directed. There is only one per incident. (Incident Command Post - ICP)
320
Predesigned Incident Facilities:
_____ - Location from where all incident tactical operations are directed; located at or in the immediate vicinity of the incident site. There is only one per incident.
A. Operations base.
B. Incident command post.
C. Safe zone.
D. Incident command base.
B. Incident command post (ICP).
321
Predesigned Incident Facilities:
_____ - Location (which remains fixed throughout the incident) to house equipment and personal support functions; performs primary support activities; only one is established per incident.
```
A. Incident base.
B. Camps.
C. Mobilization/staging areas.
D. Helibases.
E. Helispots.
```
A. Incident base.
322
Predesigned Incident Facilities:
_____ - Locations (remote from the incident base) from which essential auxiliary support functions (such as providing food, sleeping areas, and sanitation) are performed at very large incidents; may relocate as needs of the incident dictate.
```
A. Incident base.
B. Camps.
C. Mobilization/staging areas.
D. Helibases.
E. Helispots.
```
B. Camps.
323
Predesigned Incident Facilities:
_____ - Any location where resources (personal, supplies, and equipment) are held in reserve while awaiting operational assignment.
Examples:
-Wildland fires and other incidents: Units are on a three-minute availability.
-High-rise fire: Staging is located two floors below the fire floor.
```
A. Incident base.
B. Camps.
C. Mobilization/staging areas.
D. Helibases.
E. Helispots.
```
C. Mobilization/staging areas.
324
Predesigned Incident Facilities:
_____ - Locations where helicopters are parked, serviced, maintained, and loaded; may be more than one on large incidents.
```
A. Incident base.
B. Camps.
C. Mobilization/staging areas.
D. Helibases.
E. Helispots.
```
D. Helibases.
325
Predesigned Incident Facilities:
_____ - Temporary locations where helicopters can land, refuel, and reload.
```
A. Incident base.
B. Camps.
C. Mobilization/staging areas.
D. Helibases.
E. Helispots.
```
E. Helispots.
326
Legitimate power is derived from one of three sources. The three sources of legitimate power are... the exception is:
A. Shared values.
B. Sanction of a legitimizing agent.
C. Acceptance of a social structure.
D. Knowledge or expertise.
D. Knowledge or expertise. (FALSE)
327
The Managerial Grid (Blake & Mouton):
_____ leadership is characterized by a low concern for production, and a low concern for people.
A. Bureaucratic.
B. Single-issue.
C. Middle-of-the-road.
D. Dual-issue.
A. Bureaucratic.
328
The Managerial Grid (Blake & Mouton):
_____ leadership is characterized by a high concern for one dimension of leadership (people or production), coupled by a low concern for the other.
A. Bureaucratic.
B. Single-issue.
C. Middle-of-the-road.
D. Dual-issue.
B. Single-issue.
329
The Managerial Grid (Blake & Mouton):
_____ leadership is characterized by a moderate degree of concern for both people and production.
A. Bureaucratic.
B. Single-issue.
C. Middle-of-the-road.
D. Dual-issue.
C. Middle-of-the-road.
330
The Managerial Grid (Blake & Mouton):
_____ leadership is characterized by a high concern for production, and a high concern for people.
A. Bureaucratic.
B. Single-issue.
C. Middle-of-the-road.
D. Dual-issue.
D. Dual-issue.
331
The company officer must communicate the organizational culture and goals downward to the company members and identify community concerns and opportunities upward to the administration. This would be known as:
A. Getting the job done.
B. Keeping the work area safe and healthy.
C. Encouraging teamwork incorporation.
D. Developing member skills.
C. Encouraging teamwork incorporation
332
A _____ is a guide to decision making. They originate with top management and are disseminated to low levels for implementation. These not only aid in decision-making, but they also define the boundaries and standards that the administration expects company officers and members to use.
May include everything from sick leave to the smoking policy of the organization.
A. Policy.
B. Procedure.
C. Orders.
D. Demands.
A. Policy.
333
A _____ is a detailed plan of action. It details in writing the steps to follow in conducting organizational policy for some specific, reoccurring problem or situation. They are better developed at the company level because these individuals will be responsible for following and implementing them.
A. Policy.
B. Procedure.
C. Orders.
D. Demands.
B. Procedure.
334
Formal communications are essential to the successful discharge of the departments responsibility to the citizens of the community. Depending on the definition adopted by the authority having jurisdiction, these documents may be called by many different names (standard operating procedures/SOP, standing operating guidelines/SOG, policy and procedures manual/PPM, or general orders/GO). The most common term used is standard operating procedures or SOP's. An SOP is defined as:
A. A guide to decision-making within an organization. They originate with top management in the department and are disseminated to lower levels for implementation.
B. A document which gives department members a reference point for decision-making. They promote more uniform, consistent practices throughout the organization and more predictable outcomes in the field.
C. Based upon the authority delegated to the officer to implement departmental policies and procedures.
D. Most fire departments provide their personnel with specific, detailed information about how specific situations should be handled.
D. Most fire departments provide their personnel with specific, detailed information about how specific situations should be handled. (SOP's)
-----------------------------------------
A. A guide to decision-making within an organization. They originate with top management in the department and are disseminated to lower levels for implementation. (POLICIES)
B. A document which gives department members a reference point for decision-making. They promote more uniform, consistent practices throughout the organization and more predictable outcomes in the field. (PROCEDURES)
C. Based upon the authority delegated to the officer to implement departmental policies and procedures. (ORDERS)
335
_____ -Based upon the authority delegated to the officer to implement departmental policies and procedures. Compliance is mandatory because it is based upon a policy or procedure.
A. Policy.
B. Procedure.
C. Orders.
D. Demands.
C. Orders.
336
There are many symptoms that may indicate a firefighter is suffering from critical incident stress. Which of the following is one of the more common symptoms during an incident?
A. Feelings of guilt.
B. Irritability.
C. Sense of hopelessness.
D. Sleep disturbances.
C. Sense of hopelessness.
337
Regardless of how well planned and prioritize the daily schedule is, it is always subject to change - especially by fires and other emergencies. It is good to remember that handling emergencies is the company's primary job. An activity that falls into the "may-do" category is:
A. Training.
B. Preventative maintenance.
C. Code enforcement.
D. Public education.
B. Preventative maintenance.
338
_____ fire service training systems are processed-based. That is, monthly training assignments specify that a certain minimum number of hours must be spent in training on certain specific topics or skills such as ladders, SCBA, or interior attack. The company officer dutifully leads the company members through the signed subject matter for the required amount of time.
A. Mastery learning.
B. Traditional learning.
C. Small-step learning.
D. Prescriptive training.
B. Traditional training
339
Company Level Training:
_____ - a high-level or near complete proficiency in an execution of a skill. Can be competency, performance, or individually based.
```
A. Small-step learning.
B. Prescriptive training.
C. Traditional training.
D. Mastery learning.
E. Simple-to-complex sequencing.
F. Four-step method of instruction.
```
D. Mastery learning.
340
Company Level Training:
_____ - One of the most effective teaching models used for instructional delivery. Instructors use this model to develop lesson plans and as a process for teaching lessons and courses. Company officers can use the process for effective company level training. The model consists of preparation, presentation, application, and evaluation.
```
A. Small-step learning.
B. Prescriptive training.
C. Traditional training.
D. Mastery learning.
E. Skill maintenance.
F. Simple-to-complex sequencing.
G. Four-step method of instruction.
```
G. Four-step method of instruction.
341
Company Level Training:
_____ - Is an excellent method for teaching practical skills. It is well adopted for small-group study. A group of three or four firefighters can learn a skill with or without a formal instructor. It is also good for small groups that have a similar goal, such as promotional exams or college courses. Is based on seven principles.
```
A. Small-step learning.
B. Prescriptive training.
C. Traditional training.
D. Mastery learning.
E. Skill maintenance.
F. Simple-to-complex sequencing.
G. Four-step method of instruction.
```
D. Mastery learning.
342
Company Level Training:
_____ - Is based on seven principles: Mastery definition, small-step learning, Simple-to-complex sequencing, reinforcement, formative evaluation, corrective activities, and summative evaluation.
```
A. Small-step learning.
B. Prescriptive training.
C. Traditional training.
D. Mastery learning.
E. Skill maintenance.
F. Simple-to-complex sequencing.
G. Four-step method of instruction.
```
D. Mastery learning.
343
Company Level Training:
_____ - Often focuses on the number of hours taught rather than on what is taught or how effective the class is. There are often requirements for a minimum amount of time spent in training for each member of the department. Is processed based.
```
A. Small-step learning.
B. Prescriptive training.
C. Traditional training.
D. Mastery learning.
E. Skill maintenance.
F. Simple-to-complex sequencing.
G. Four-step method of instruction.
```
C. Traditional training.
344
Company Level Training:
_____ - Adopts measurable performance standards for each level. The training then focuses on helping the member meet these standards. If the performance standards are well done the training will be effective. The company officer just needs to adopt the performance standards into measurable objectives. Is performance based.
```
A. Small-step learning.
B. Prescriptive training.
C. Traditional training.
D. Mastery learning.
E. Skill maintenance.
F. Simple-to-complex sequencing.
G. Four-step method of instruction.
```
B. Prescriptive training.
345
Company Level Training:
_____ - Breaking a complex skill down into smaller, individual steps helps the trainee to avoid feeling overwhelmed by the challenge of mastering the entire skill.
```
A. Small-step learning.
B. Prescriptive training.
C. Traditional training.
D. Mastery learning.
E. Skill maintenance.
F. Simple-to-complex sequencing.
G. Four-step method of instruction.
```
A. Small-step learning.
346
Company Level Training:
_____ - Training focusing on skills already learned.
```
A. Small-step learning.
B. Prescriptive training.
C. Traditional training.
D. Mastery learning.
E. Skill maintenance.
F. Simple-to-complex sequencing.
G. Four-step method of instruction.
```
E. Skill maintenance.
347
Company Level Training:
_____ - Learning efficiency is increased when skills are taught from simplest to most complex (also called production order).
```
A. Small-step learning.
B. Prescriptive training.
C. Traditional training.
D. Mastery learning.
E. Skill maintenance.
F. Simple-to-complex sequencing.
G. Four-step method of instruction.
```
F. Simple-to-complex sequencing.
348
Company Level Training:
_____ - Consists of clearly defined and measurable performance standards for various skills necessary for a department to meet its goals (i.e. SCBA, defibrillators, ladders). Is very effective because it is performance based.
```
A. Small-step learning.
B. Prescriptive training.
C. Traditional training.
D. Mastery learning.
E. Skill maintenance.
F. Simple-to-complex sequencing.
G. Four-step method of instruction.
```
B. Prescriptive training.
349
Company Level Training:
_____ - Are process-based (i.e. monthly training). Focuses on the actual time spent (hours) on a subject.
```
A. Small-step learning.
B. Prescriptive training.
C. Traditional training.
D. Mastery learning.
E. Skill maintenance.
F. Simple-to-complex sequencing.
G. Four-step method of instruction.
```
C. Traditional training.
350
In addition to the fire protection agency, a local government is likely to include one or more of the agencies discussed in the following paragraphs. The definition which is most closely associated with "civil groups" is:
A. Frequently maintains files for building floor plans that indicate structural layout, locations of entrances and exits, fire suppression systems, and other features that can assist with the emergency.
B. Support fire protection efforts through crowd and traffic control, with large-scale evacuations, and by providing protection to firefighters during civil unrest.
C. Involved in the selection and allocation of sites for fire stations and support buildings such as training centers and maintenance facilities.
D. Allow the fire department to provide fire education to members and assist the department in publicizing and hosting classes, demonstrations, and other efforts designed to promote public awareness of fire and related safety issues.
D. Allow the fire department to provide fire education to members and assist the department in publicizing and hosting classes, demonstrations, and other efforts designed to promote public awareness of fire and related safety issues. (Civil groups)
-----------------------------------------
A. Frequently maintains files for building floor plans that indicate structural layout, locations of entrances and exits, fire suppression systems, and other features that can assist with the emergency.(Building department)
B. Support fire protection efforts through crowd and traffic control, with large-scale evacuations, and by providing protection to firefighters during civil unrest.(Law enforcement)
C. Involved in the selection and allocation of sites for fire stations and support buildings such as training centers and maintenance facilities.(Zoning commission)
351
In addition to the fire protection agency, a local government is likely to include one or more of the agencies discussed in the following paragraphs. The definition which is most closely associated with "Law enforcement" is:
A. Frequently maintains files for building floor plans that indicate structural layout, locations of entrances and exits, fire suppression systems, and other features that can assist with the emergency.
B. Support fire protection efforts through crowd and traffic control, with large-scale evacuations, and by providing protection to firefighters during civil unrest.
C. Involved in the selection and allocation of sites for fire stations and support buildings such as training centers and maintenance facilities.
D. Allow the fire department to provide fire education to members and assist the department in publicizing and hosting classes, demonstrations, and other efforts designed to promote public awareness of fire and related safety issues.
B. Support fire protection efforts through crowd and traffic control, with large-scale evacuations, and by providing protection to firefighters during civil unrest.(Law enforcement)
-----------------------------------------
A. Frequently maintains files for building floor plans that indicate structural layout, locations of entrances and exits, fire suppression systems, and other features that can assist with the emergency.(Building department)
C. Involved in the selection and allocation of sites for fire stations and support buildings such as training centers and maintenance facilities.(Zoning commission)
D. Allow the fire department to provide fire education to members and assist the department in publicizing and hosting classes, demonstrations, and other efforts designed to promote public awareness of fire and related safety issues. (Civil groups)
352
In addition to the fire protection agency, a local government is likely to include one or more of the agencies discussed in the following paragraphs. The definition which is most closely associated with "Building department" is:
A. Frequently maintains files for building floor plans that indicate structural layout, locations of entrances and exits, fire suppression systems, and other features that can assist with the emergency.
B. Support fire protection efforts through crowd and traffic control, with large-scale evacuations, and by providing protection to firefighters during civil unrest.
C. Involved in the selection and allocation of sites for fire stations and support buildings such as training centers and maintenance facilities.
D. Allow the fire department to provide fire education to members and assist the department in publicizing and hosting classes, demonstrations, and other efforts designed to promote public awareness of fire and related safety issues.
A. Frequently maintains files for building floor plans that indicate structural layout, locations of entrances and exits, fire suppression systems, and other features that can assist with the emergency.(Building department)
-----------------------------------------
B. Support fire protection efforts through crowd and traffic control, with large-scale evacuations, and by providing protection to firefighters during civil unrest.(Law enforcement)
C. Involved in the selection and allocation of sites for fire stations and support buildings such as training centers and maintenance facilities.(Zoning commission)
D. Allow the fire department to provide fire education to members and assist the department in publicizing and hosting classes, demonstrations, and other efforts designed to promote public awareness of fire and related safety issues. (Civil groups)
353
In addition to the fire protection agency, a local government is likely to include one or more of the agencies discussed in the following paragraphs. The definition which is most closely associated with "Zoning commission" is:
A. Frequently maintains files for building floor plans that indicate structural layout, locations of entrances and exits, fire suppression systems, and other features that can assist with the emergency.
B. Support fire protection efforts through crowd and traffic control, with large-scale evacuations, and by providing protection to firefighters during civil unrest.
C. Involved in the selection and allocation of sites for fire stations and support buildings such as training centers and maintenance facilities.
D. Allow the fire department to provide fire education to members and assist the department in publicizing and hosting classes, demonstrations, and other efforts designed to promote public awareness of fire and related safety issues.
C. Involved in the selection and allocation of sites for fire stations and support buildings such as training centers and maintenance facilities.(Zoning commission)
-----------------------------------------
A. Frequently maintains files for building floor plans that indicate structural layout, locations of entrances and exits, fire suppression systems, and other features that can assist with the emergency.(Building department)
B. Support fire protection efforts through crowd and traffic control, with large-scale evacuations, and by providing protection to firefighters during civil unrest.(Law enforcement)
D. Allow the fire department to provide fire education to members and assist the department in publicizing and hosting classes, demonstrations, and other efforts designed to promote public awareness of fire and related safety issues. (Civil groups)
354
Providing a systematic planning and action process is composed of five steps. Step which is "The objective of the _____ is to choose the most cost-effective or achievable objectives for the public education program. Being aware of the scope and limitations of available resources is important if planners are to be realistic about what an education program can accomplish."
```
A. Identification step.
B. Selection step.
C. Design step.
D. Implementation step.
E. Evaluation step.
```
B. Selection step.
355
Five-Step Planing Process:
Step 1: _____ -Major fire and life safety problems.
Step 2: _____ - The most cost-effective objectives for the education program.
Step 3: _____ - The program.
Step 4: _____ - The program plan.
Step 5: _____ - The program to determine impact.
```
Step 1: Identify
Step 2: Select
Step 3: Design
Step 4: Implement
Step 5: Evaluate
```
356
Five-Step Planing Process:
The following are some of the questions asked during the _____ step:
- What are the major fire and burn hazards?
- Where are the high-risk locations?
- When are the high-risk times?
- Who are the high-risk audiences?
- What is the high-risk behavior?
```
A. Step 1: Identification step.
B. Step 2: Selection step.
C. Step 3: Design step.
D. Step 4: Implementation step.
E. Step 5: Evaluation step.
```
A. Step 1: Identification step.
357
Five-Step Planing Process:
The following are some of the questions asked during the _____ step:
- Who are the potential audiences?
- What are the potential costs and benefits of various training options?
- What resources are available within the community?
```
A. Step 1: Identification step.
B. Step 2: Selection step.
C. Step 3: Design step.
D. Step 4: Implementation step.
E. Step 5: Evaluation step.
```
B. Step 2: Selection step.
358
Five-Step Planing Process:
By the end of the _____ step, program planners will be able to reach a crucial decision: "the specific objectives of the education program."
```
A. Step 1: Identification step.
B. Step 2: Selection step.
C. Step 3: Design step.
D. Step 4: Implementation step.
E. Step 5: Evaluation step.
```
B. Step 2: Selection step.
359
Five-Step Planing Process:
The _____ step is the bridge between planning a fire and life-safety education program and actually implementing it in the field. The objective is to develop the most effective means of communicating the program's message to the identified object. In other words, this step is the time when the public educator decides what to say and how to say it, based on the message, audience, and available resources.
```
A. Step 1: Identification step.
B. Step 2: Selection step.
C. Step 3: Design step.
D. Step 4: Implementation step.
E. Step 5: Evaluation step.
```
C. Step 3: Design step.
360
Five-Step Planing Process:
Is where the day-to-day job of public fire and life safety education happens. Planning the _____ step includes answering the following questions and identifying the associated tasks:
- How will the target audience participate and cooperate and implementing the program?
- How will public educators be trained and scheduled?
- How will materials be produced and distributed?
```
A. Step 1: Identification step.
B. Step 2: Selection step.
C. Step 3: Design step.
D. Step 4: Implementation step.
E. Step 5: Evaluation step.
```
D. Step 4: Implementation step.
361
Five-Step Planing Process:
_____ the "bottom line" of public fire and life safety education. It is the point for measuring the effects of education programs and modifying them as needed.
```
A. Step 1: Identification step.
B. Step 2: Selection step.
C. Step 3: Design step.
D. Step 4: Implementation step.
E. Step 5: Evaluation step.
```
E. Step 5: Evaluation step.
362
The most widely known job action is a strike, but there are others. Especially in the Public Safety sector where strikes were illegal, workers invented other ways of applying pressure on management in order to achieve their goals. The job action described as: "While the firefighters report for duty as scheduled, once on duty they refuse to do anything but respond to emergency calls. After they check their emergency clothing and equipment to make sure everything is ready if needed, then firefighter sit down, play cards, watch TV, or do anything other than their normal routine duties. This tactic can put a lot of pressure on company officers unless they are part of the job action also." is known as a _____ job action.
A. Selective duty.
B. Sick-out.
C. Work-to-rule.
D. Strike.
A. Selective duty.
| Define others
363
Usually shortened to just "Memos", memoranda are a form of letter. Their format usually includes the following headings: Date, To, From, and Subject. The following statements are TRUE regarding purposes of "memos"... the exception is:
A. To transmit the same information to several locations or individuals.
B. To provide a written record of decisions, requests, or policies.
C. To be used for external communication outside the department.
D. To provide specific information concerning questions or requests in a somewhat informal manner.
C. To be used for external communication outside the department. (FALSE - used within an organization)
364
Types of Documents:
_____ - Is it quick and relatively simple way of transmitting a message within an organization. It has the benefit of being brief and providing a written document that describes what, where, when, who, why, and sometimes how:
```
A. Memos.
B. Letters.
C. Press releases.
D. Reports.
E. Form-based reports.
```
A. Memos.
365
Types of Documents:
_____ are generally used with persons, groups, and agencies outside the organization. They are more formal and tend to represent the entire organization rather than a specific branch or section.
```
A. Memos.
B. Letters.
C. Press releases.
D. Reports.
E. Form-based reports.
```
B. Letters.
366
Types of Documents:
_____ - Use the inverted pyramid style of organization by putting the most important facts first and the least important ones left.
- Limit sentence length to no more than 20 words.
- Write no more than 4 to 5 lines per paragraph; one sentence paragraphs are acceptable.
- Use is an active voice; written clearly and concisely, avoiding flowery language and technical terms/jargon.
```
A. Memos.
B. Letters.
C. Press releases.
D. Reports.
E. Form-based reports.
```
C. Press releases.
367
Types of Documents:
_____ - Constitute the bulk of writing produced by most company officers. Some are simply forms that are completed with specific information concerning incident or event. Others are more like essays, written in narrative, paragraph form and requiring greater thought and organization.
```
A. Memos.
B. Letters.
C. Press releases.
D. Reports.
E. Form-based reports.
```
D. Reports.
368
Types of Documents:
_____ - Recorded on computers or hard copy forms, the officer is required to place specific information into spaces or fields. Reports that may consist of incident reports, injury reports, fire investigation reports, training reports, internal or external inspection reports, or attendance reports.
```
A. Memos.
B. Letters.
C. Press releases.
D. Reports.
E. Form-based reports.
```
E. Form-based reports.
369
General Inspection Categories: (6)
_____ - Is the single most important life-safety item to be inspected. Consists of three parts: the access to the exit, the exit itself, and exit discharge. Must be usable by a person with a severe mobility impairment. The inspector should look for a obstructions, markings, lighting, door swing, hardware, and stairwells.
```
A. Processes.
B. Fire protection.
C. Waste management.
D. Means of egress.
E. Housekeeping.
F. Storage.
```
D. Means of egress.
370
General Inspection Categories: (6)
_____ - Besides being potential environmental hazards, accumulations of flammable or combustible waste such as wastepaper or oily rags can be a significant fire and life safety hazard. These materials must be kept separate from sources of ignition.
-With flammable wastes, this most often means proper containment such as putting oily rags into approved, self-closing containers to putting flammable trash in metal containers in sprinkled enclosures.
```
A. Processes.
B. Fire protection.
C. Waste management.
D. Means of egress.
E. Housekeeping.
F. Storage.
```
C. Waste management.
371
General Inspection Categories: (6)
_____ - Is an indication of how homeowners and employees feel about a safe work environment.
-Accumulations of trash and litter in the workplace can be hazardous in several ways: can obscure or block access to the means of egress, can provide additional fuel to a fire, can create trip/fall hazards, can conceal the existence of other hazards such as leaking pipes or exposed wiring.
```
A. Processes.
B. Fire protection.
C. Waste management.
D. Means of egress.
E. Housekeeping.
F. Storage.
```
E. Housekeeping.
372
General Inspection Categories: (6)
_____ - Is based on the assumption that the other parts of the system may not always be successful in preventing fires.
Includes many components such as:
-Employees' knowledge of how to recognize and report a fire.
-Employees' knowledge of the capabilities and limitations of various types of portable fire extinguishers and how to use them safely.
-Built-in fire detection and alarm systems.
-Automatic sprinklers and other built-in fire suppression systems.
```
A. Processes.
B. Fire protection.
C. Waste management.
D. Means of egress.
E. Housekeeping.
F. Storage.
```
B. Fire protection.
373
General Inspection Categories: (6)
_____ - There are countless ways in which industrial "_____" can create hazards to human life. They can start fires or contribute to their spread or contaminant the environment. Because there are so many ways, requirements for each of the various classes of occupancies have been developed and included in the various codes.
```
A. Processes.
B. Fire protection.
C. Waste management.
D. Means of egress.
E. Housekeeping.
F. Storage.
```
A. Processes.
374
General Inspection Categories: (6)
_____ - May contain the raw materials used to produced finished products, boxes containing the finished products, or both. In any case, flammable materials, such as cardboard boxes, packing materials, or egg ignitable liquids, must be kept separate from sources of ignition. This may include prohibiting smoking and/or welding and cutting operations in these areas.
-Must not interfere with automatic sprinklers or other built-in fire protection devices or systems.
```
A. Processes.
B. Fire protection.
C. Waste management.
D. Means of egress.
E. Housekeeping.
F. Storage.
```
F. Storage.
375
General Inspection Categories: (6)
_____ - These areas come in all sizes and may contain a variety of items, some hazardous. Smaller "_____" areas/rooms may contain janitorial supplies, office supplies, or miscellaneous materials. Larger ones may contain retail merchandise such as toys, clothing, maintenance parts, or ignitable liquids.
```
A. Processes.
B. Fire protection.
C. Waste management.
D. Means of egress.
E. Housekeeping.
F. Storage.
```
F. Storage.
376
In all occupancies, regardless of size or classification, there are certain general fires and life safety items that must be inspected. These items fall into six categories: Means of Egress, Housekeeping, Processes, Storage, Waste Management, and Fire Protection.
These are referred to as the _____ .
A. General Inspection Categories
B. Required Inspection Categories.
C. Mandatory Inspection Categories.
D. Special Inspection Categories.
A. General Inspection Categories.
377
Determining the Cause of the Fire:
Generally, fires may be classified as: (4)
1. _____ - Those that did not result from intentional or malicious human activity.
2. _____ - Those that result from phenomena such as lightning strikes and earthquakes and not from human activity.
3. _____ - Those that involve human activity and are deliberately set. The intent may or may not be malicious.
4. _____ - Is the classification used when the specific cause of a fire cannot be determined.
1. Accidental fires
2. Natural fires
3. Incendiary fires
4. Undetermined
378
Determining the Cause of the Fire:
_____ - Fires that did not result from intentional or malicious human activity. Common causes are smoking related fires, pyrophoric ignition, and electrical fires.
A. Accidental fires.
B. Natural fires.
C. Incendiary fires.
D. Undetermined.
A. Accidental fires.
379
Determining the Cause of the Fire:
_____ - Those that result from phenomena such as lightning strikes and earthquakes and not from human activity.
-Other examples include fires caused by wind damage to electrical conductors and transmission lines, or flooding resulting in electrical system short outs that ignite combustibles.
A. Accidental fires.
B. Natural fires.
C. Incendiary fires.
D. Undetermined.
B. Natural fires.
380
Determining the Cause of the Fire:
_____ - Are started intentionally and may involve malicious intent. As a crime, intentionally set malicious fires are termed arson.
A. Accidental fires.
B. Natural fires.
C. Incendiary fires.
D. Undetermined.
C. Incendiary fires.
381
Determining the Cause of the Fire:
_____ - Although intentional, these fires lack the malicious intent. However, may still result in litigation if negligence is alleged.
A. Accidental fires.
B. Natural fires.
C. Incendiary fires.
D. Undetermined.
A. Accidental fires.
| An example could be a person burning leaves carelessly and the fire becomes out-of-control.
382
Determining the Cause of the Fire:
Use of accelerants, disabled fire detection systems, disabled fire suppression systems, or use of a delayed ignition device are signs of a fire-setter and could be classified as a(n) _____ fire.
A. Accidental fires.
B. Natural fires.
C. Incendiary fires.
D. Undetermined.
C. Incendiary fire.
383
Determining the Cause of the Fire:
Indicators that a fire was an _____ in origin and involved malicious intent are the following: Multiple points of origin, timing devices, trailers (when materials are used to intentionally spread the fire from one area to another) chemicals, matches, ignitable liquids, etc...
A. Accidental fires.
B. Natural fires.
C. Incendiary fires.
D. Undetermined.
C. Incendiary fire.
384
Determining the Cause of the Fire:
_____ - Is the classification used when the specific cause of a fire cannot be determined. This classification may be used as an interim classification as the fire investigation is proceeding, or it may be the final outcome if additional information cannot be developed that identifies the specific cause. However, a cause should be given sufficient information is available.
A. Accidental fires.
B. Natural fires.
C. Incendiary fires.
D. Undetermined.
D. Undetermined.
385
Determining the Cause of the Fire:
_____ ignition - Considered a source of an accidental fire; These fires occur when wood or other cellulose material is more or less continuously subjected to a low level of heat over a long period, The material can be converted to "____" carbon through pyrolysis. As this conversion takes place, the ignition temperature of the material is gradually lowered until autoignition occurs.
-A common example is the autoignition of wood framing in walls adjacent to metal fireplace boxes and flues. Other examples include steam pipes, flu pipes (wood-burning stoves and fireplaces), and fluorescent light ballasts.
A. Pyrophoric ignition.
B. Monophonic ignition.
C. Spontaneous ignition.
D. Auto ignition .
A. Pyrophoric ignition.
386
Once the point of origin has been located and any obvious evidence protected, company officers must also apply the understanding of basic fire behavior to determine specific cause of fire. There are several classifications of a fire. _____ are fires that may still result in litigation if negligence is alleged.
A. Natural fires.
B. Suspicious fires.
C. Incendiary fires.
D. Accidental fires.
D. Accidental fires.
387
Determining the Cause of the Fire:
_____ - Is the term given to a maliciously set incendiary fire. Generally defined as the act of intentionally or maliciously destroying or damaging property through the use of fire.
A. Natural.
B. Suspicious.
C. Arson.
D. Accidental.
C. Arson.
388
Report drawings are polished versions of field sketches, and they must be drawn to scale showing the essential details of the building and its surroundings. The details should be shown using the standard mapping symbols adopted by the department. If an item must be included for which there is no standard symbol, it should be indicated by a:
A. Numeral within a square.
B. Letter within a square.
C. Numeral within a circle.
D. Letter within a circle.
C. Numeral within a circle.
389
If helicopters are to be used to transport injured or uninjured people, company-level personnel may be responsible for setting up the landing zone (LZ). The unobstructed open area should be at least ___x___ feet with no more than a ___% slope.
70 x 70' feet
2% slope
390
Because the injuries suffered by victims in some incidents can be extremely gruesome and horrific, the firefighters and any others who had to deal directly with the victims should be required to retain a critical incident stress debriefing (CISD) process. They should attend the full debriefing process within _____ of completing their work on the incident.
```
A. 6 hours.
B. 12 hours.
C. 24 hours.
D. 48 hours.
E. 72 hours.
```
E. 72 hours.
391
To help in the decision-making process, the company officer applies Lloyd Layman's Decision-Making Model. The following non-fire emergency is considered which step in RECEO-VS:
_____ - Is the term used to identify the life safety aspect of emergency incident priorities. Includes decisions such as evacuation or shelter in place.
```
A. Rescue.
B. Exposures.
C. Confinement.
D. Extinguishment.
E. Overhaul.
F. Ventilation.
G. Salvage.
```
A. Rescue.
392
To help in the decision-making process, the company officer applies Lloyd Layman's Decision-Making Model. The following non-fire emergency is considered which step in RECEO-VS:
_____ - Stopping oncoming traffic to protect the scene of a vehicle accident from being hit by other vehicles and thereby compounding the situation should be seen as addressing this priority.
```
A. Rescue.
B. Exposures.
C. Confinement.
D. Extinguishment.
E. Overhaul.
F. Ventilation.
G. Salvage.
```
B. Exposures.
393
To help in the decision-making process, the company officer applies Lloyd Layman's Decision-Making Model. The following non-fire emergency is considered which step in RECEO-VS:
_____ - Limiting a hazardous material problem to the smallest area of the property in which it originated should be seen as addressing this priority.
```
A. Rescue.
B. Exposures.
C. Confinement.
D. Extinguishment.
E. Overhaul.
F. Ventilation.
G. Salvage.
```
C. Confinement.
394
To help in the decision-making process, the company officer applies Lloyd Layman's Decision-Making Model. The following non-fire emergency is considered which step in RECEO-VS:
_____ - After a hazardous material release has been stopped, liquids must be cleaned up and package for proper disposal and any residues must be neutralized.
-In the case of a motor vehicle accident, the roadway must be cleared of debris and any liquids must be picked up or neutralized.
```
A. Rescue.
B. Exposures.
C. Confinement.
D. Extinguishment.
E. Overhaul.
F. Ventilation.
G. Salvage.
```
E. Overhaul.
395
To help in the decision-making process, the company officer applies Lloyd Layman's Decision-Making Model. The following non-fire emergency is considered which step in RECEO-VS:
_____ - Is a means of controlling or modifying the environment within a structure. Consists of those operations needed to replace a contaminated atmosphere with normal air. Could be applied to releases of toxic or harmful gases within a structure (ex CO). Can be applied any time needed during the implementation of the RECEO model.
```
A. Rescue.
B. Exposures.
C. Confinement.
D. Extinguishment.
E. Overhaul.
F. Ventilation.
G. Salvage.
```
F. Ventilation.
396
To help in the decision-making process, the company officer applies Lloyd Layman's Decision-Making Model. The following non-fire emergency is considered which step in RECEO-VS:
_____ - Process includes all actions taken to protect structures and contents from preventable damage and can be applied at any time during the implementation of the RECEO model.
```
A. Rescue.
B. Exposures.
C. Confinement.
D. Extinguishment.
E. Overhaul.
F. Ventilation.
G. Salvage.
```
G. Salvage.
397
Two terms identified in the RECEO-VS model are referred to as "floats" or "floating", meaning it may or may not be used when and if needed during any point of the REVECO model.
Ventilation & Salvage
398
Layman's list of priorities are represented by the acronym are RECEO-VS. The priority described as "even though Layman used this fire specific term, the concept is that of mitigating the problem. This is the phase of the operation in which the incident action plan that was based on the initial size up is implemented" is known as:
A. Exposures. C. Confinement.
B. Overhaul. D. Extinguishment.
D. Extinguishment.
399
_____ - are statements of measurable outcomes. Achieving them leads to the completion of strategic goals. These statements are less general and more specific than strategic goal statements. Units and personnel are assigned specific tasks to accomplish each objective.
Some common examples are:
-Initiate search and rescue.
-Provide a water curtain to protect exposures.
-Contain a hazardous material spill.
-Use salvage covers to route water from the building second floor.
A. Tactical objectives.
B. Operational strategies.
C. Orders.
D. Procedures.
A. Tactical objectives.
400
_____ are based on the Layman Decision-Making Model RECEO-VS.
They are the overall plans for controlling an incident. They are broad, general statement of the final outcome to be achieved. These goals are dictated by the three overall priorities of life safety, incident stabilization, and property conservation.
A. Tactical objectives.
B. Operational strategies.
C. Orders.
D. Procedures.
B. Operational strategies.
| aka Strategic goals
401
Under IMS, the first arriving officer has three operational modes available. An example of the "nothing showing mode" is:
A. Appoint one of the crew members as the acting officer, and give him a portable radio and an assignment.
B. He should direct the other responding units to stage at Level I, accompany the crew on an investigation of the situation, and maintain command using a portable radio.
C. Assign the crew to work under the supervision of another company officer.
D. Use the crew members to perform staff functions in support of command.
B. He should direct the other responding units to stage at Level I, accompany the crew on an investigation of the situation, and maintain command using a portable radio. (Nothing-showing)
-----------------------------------------
A. Appoint one of the crew members as the acting officer, and give him a portable radio and an assignment. (Formal command)
C. Assign the crew to work under the supervision of another company officer. (Formal command)
D. Use the crew members to perform staff functions in support of command. (Formal command)
402
Command Actives: (3)
_____ - When the problem generating the response is not obvious to the first arriving units, company officers should assume command of the incident and announced "_____" . The officer should direct the other responding units to stage at the last intersection in their route of travel before the reported incident location. The officer then accompanies unit personnel on an investigation of the situation and maintains command using a portable radio. Staging in this way allows for a maximum of deployment flexibility.
```
A. Nothing-showing.
B. Fast-attack.
C. Command.
D. Combat command.
E. Formal command.
```
A. Nothing-showing.
403
Command Actives: (3)
_____ - When the company officer's direct involvement is necessary for the unit to take immediate action to save a life or stabilize the situation, the officer should take command and announce that the unit is initiating a "____" . Personnel will continue the "____", which usually lasts only a short time, until one of the following situations occur:
- Incident is stabilized.
- Incident is not stabilized, but the officer must withdraw to outside the hazardous area to establish a formal incident command post.
- Command is transferred.
```
A. Nothing-showing.
B. Fast-attack.
C. Command.
D. Combat command.
E. Formal command.
```
B. Fast-attack.
404
Command Actives: (3)
_____ - Because of the nature and/or scope of some incidents, immediate and strong overall "____" is needed. In these incidents, the first arriving officer should assume "____" by naming the incident and designating an ICP, giving an initial report on conditions, and requesting additional resources needed.
```
A. Nothing-showing.
B. Fast-attack.
C. Command.
D. Combat command.
E. Formal command.
```
C. Command.
405
Command Actives: (3)
Two types of "Command" :
_____ - Involves the company officer performing multiple tasks such as serving as incident commander (IC), developing an incident action plan (IAP), and performing active tasks such as advancing hoseline.
```
A. Nothing-showing.
B. Fast-attack.
C. Command.
D. Combat command.
E. Formal command.
```
D. Combat command.
406
Command Actives: (3)
Two types of "Command" :
_____ - Involves the company officer remaining at the mobile radio in the apparatus, assigning tasks to unit personnel, communicating with other responding units, and expanding the NIMS-ICS as needed by the complexity of the incident.
```
A. Nothing-showing.
B. Fast-attack.
C. Command.
D. Combat command.
E. Formal command.
```
E. Formal command.
407
Command Actives: (3)
Two types of "Command" :
_____ - Under this type of command, the company officer must remain at the mobile radio inside the apparatus. In addition, must decide how to deploy the remainder of the unit. Three options are normally available:
- Appoint one unit member as the acting officer to supervise the rest of the unit, provide a portable radio, and make an assignment such as performing a search of the incident site.
- Assign unit members to work under the supervision of another company officer, performing the task assigned to that officer by the IC.
- Use unit members to perform staff functions in support of command such as the incident safety officer (ISO) or accountability officer.
```
A. Nothing-showing.
B. Fast-attack.
C. Command.
D. Combat command.
E. Formal command.
```
E. Formal command.
408
Improper lifting techniques and slip-and-fall accidents are two of the most common accidents that result in injury. Back _____ are the most common injuries related to improper lifting techniques. Improper lifting techniques can result not only in personal injury but also in damage to equipment that is dropped or improperly handled in the process of lifting.
A. Strains. B. Sprains.
C. Bruises. D. Disc rupture.
A. Strains.
409
Resource Allocation:
Agreements with other jurisdictions or agencies are normally formal, written plans that define the roles of the participants. Agreements can be categorized as three different types:
1.
2.
3.
1. Mutual aid
2. Automatic aid
3. Outside aid
410
Resource Allocation:
_____ - is the result of a reciprocal agreement between two or more fire and emergency service organizations. The agreement defines how the organizations will provide resources in various situations and how the actions of the shared resources will be monitored and controlled.
A. Mutual aid.
B. Automatic aid.
C. Outside aid.
D. Special aid.
A. Mutual aid.
411
Resource Allocation:
_____ - Results from a formal, written agreement between fire and emergency services organizations that share a common boundary. Occurs whenever certain predetermined conditions occur, such as a common jurisdictional boundary.
-May also be required at specific facilities such as airports, oil refineries, or chemical manufacturing plants.
A. Mutual aid.
B. Automatic aid.
C. Outside aid.
D. Special aid.
B. Automatic aid.
412
Resource Allocation:
_____ - Payment rather than reciprocal aid is made by one jurisdiction to the other. Is normally addressed through a signed contract under which one jurisdiction agrees to provide aid to another in return for an established payment that is normally an annual fee but may be on a pre-response basis.
A. Mutual aid.
B. Automatic aid.
C. Outside aid.
D. Special aid.
C. Outside aid.
413
Resource Allocation:
_____ - This type of agreement should define the following elements:
- Conditions under which support will be provided: automatic or on request
- Terms for conducting the response: command and communication, standard operating procedures/standing operating guidelines, legal considerations, etc.
A. Mutual aid.
B. Automatic aid.
C. Outside aid.
D. Special aid.
C. Outside aid.
414
Company officers may be asked to assist in the development and maintenance of mutual aid plans. The following statements are TRUE regarding mutual aid plans... the exception is:
A. Define roles of each agency, including incident management and chains of command.
B. Address insurance policy payments and legal considerations that may affect the agreement.
C. Define lines and methods of communication.
D. Establish operating guidelines.
E. Include common terminology, references, specifications, equipment compatibility, and other factors that may directly affect the effectiveness of the different organizations in working with each other.
F. Provide maps, evacuation routes, hydrant locations and data, details of potentially affected systems (sewers, railroads, waterways, etc.), and similar informational useful in a response outside of once jurisdiction.
G. Address insurance and legal considerations that may affect agreement.
H. Establish additional nonemergency agreements such as training and routine communications as required.
B. Address insurance "policy payments" and legal considerations that may affect the agreement. (FALSE)
415
The term used to describe the common organizational structure in the fire service is scalar The scalar organization is a paramilitary, pyramid type of organization with authority centralized at the top. The following statements are TRUE regarding scalar organizations... the exception is:
A. Information is decentralized for decision-making.
B. Span of control is maintained.
C. Well-suited for dealing with emergency situations.
D. A functional chain of command is maintained.
A. Information is "decentralized" for decision-making. (FALSE)
416
Statutory laws are those that are passed by the US Congress, state legislators, or local entities. These laws may be revised or repealed by the body that enacted them. An example of a state statutory law is:
A. Adopt the fire department's annual budget.
B. Health and safety laws.
C. Law creating the Occupational Health & Safety administration.
D. Fire code.
B. Health and safety laws. (State)
-----------------------------------------
A. Adopt the fire department's annual budget. (Local)
C. Law creating the Occupational Health & Safety administration. (Federal)
D. Fire code. (Local)
417
This is the body of law that is the result of court decision. _____ varies widely from jurisdiction to jurisdiction, so it is extremely important for the company officers know how the statutes that directly affect their duties have been interpreted by the courts in their area. The State fire Marshall's office and the jurisdictions attorney can help in this regard.
A. Common law.
B. Constitutional law.
C. Case law.
D. Administrative law.
C. Case law.
418
Civil law deals primarily with private rights and her spots ability. It is the means by which individuals seek redress, usually in the form of monetary damages, from other individuals, corporations, or government. The major issue in most tort liability cases is:
A. Misfeasance.
B. Nonfeasance.
C. Negligence.
D. Personal liability.
C. Negligence.
419
_____ is the major issue in most tort liability cases.
Negligence
420
Many items of information may be brought into court to aid in establishing the prevailing standard of care. Some of the strongest types of evidence are an organization's own guidelines and policies and _____ .
A. Professional texts and manuals (Such as IFSTA manuals).
B. Opinions of expert witnesses.
C. Research publications.
D. National consensus standards (such as NFPA).
D. National consensus standards (such as NFPA).
421
The group structure of a fire company is not significantly different from the structure of any other formal or informal group. Every group, including a fire company, tends to meet the five essential elements of a group. The element that is described as "They are a composite of individual views or reality, responsibility and integrity. The views of individual members surface as various subjects are confronted on a day-to-day basis in the normal interaction within the group structure. They can change as the membership of the group changes", is known as:
A. Common binding interest.
B. Common values.
C. Vital group image.
D. Sense of continuity.
B. Common values.
422
Maslow's "Hierarchy of Needs" theory, Provides one explanation of why individuals behave the way they do. The step described as "These needs are satisfied when people feel that they are doing what they were meant to do. When people find their niche, their work becomes of their life" is known as:
A. Basic physiological needs.
B. Esteem and Status needs.
C. Belonging and Social Activity needs.
D. Self-Actualization and Fulfillment needs.
D. Self-Actualization and Fulfillment needs.
| Define all
423
There are several basic types of leadership. _____ involves a high degree of concern for people and a high concern for production. This type of leadership offers workers the luxury of working for a leader who is concerned about their needs and is willing to allow them to produce.
A. Bureaucratic leadership.
B. Single-issue leadership.
C. Middle-of-the-Road leadership.
D. Dual-issue leadership.
D. Dual-issue leadership.
424
Mastery learning is one of the most effective skill development and maintenance techniques. The TRUE statement regarding mastery learning is:
A. Mastery learning is more efficient for group instruction than the four-step-method.
B. Mastery learning uses "complex to simple" sequencing of material.
C. Mastery learning uses clearly defined and measurable performance standards which have been developed for all the various individual skills and company evolutions deemed necessary.
D. Mastery learning is used for those skills that relate directly to life safety.
D. Mastery learning is used for those skills that relate directly to life safety.
425
There are a variety of different types of operating budgets used by fire departments, both public and private, career and volunteer. Many public entities use the line-item budget because those reviewing it easily can see where the money goes. Which of the following expenses would be listed in the "others" expenses category?
A. Special pay for serving out of classification.
B. Contracts with fuel suppliers.
C. Purchase of a new fire engine.
D. Life insurance, and workers compensation insurance.
B. Contracts with fuel suppliers.
________________________________
A. Special pay for serving out of classification. (Operating budget)
C. Purchase of a new fire engine. (Capital budget)
D. Life insurance, and workers compensation insurance. (Operating budget)
426
Laws come from many different sources. In general, the major sources of laws in the Western world are common-law, constitutional law, statutory law, case law, administrative law. In the United States, much of the federal, state, and local law is based on:
A. Constitutional law
B. Statutory law
C. Common law
D. Case law
C. Common law
427
In behavioral psychology, a stroke is anything that acknowledges a person's existence. Strokes can be either positive or negative. Consider the following statements regarding strokes.
1) Praise for a job well done.
2) Friendly greeting.
3) Silence and lack of eye contact (the "silent treatment").
4) Being chastised by a supervisor.
The following combinations of the above statements are considered "stamp collecting".
A. 1&2 are true.
B. 3&4 are true.
C. 2&3 are false.
D. All four are true.
D. All four are true.
428
Total quality management also known as continuous quality improvement, has been adopted by many private businesses and public organizations. It is based on for elements. The most important of these elements is:
A. Customer identification feedback.
B. Tracking performance.
C. Consistent and continuous improvement.
D. Employee participation in all processes.
D. Employee participation in all processes.
429
Which of the following activities falls into the "should do" category?
A. Emergency calls.
B. Citizen inquiries.
C. Code enforcement
D. Preventative maintenance.
C. Code enforcement
430
The following statement is TRUE regarding the fire commission... the exception is:
A. A few states have established commissions to conduct fire service training and certification programs.
B. The commission advises the legislature or assembly on fire related legislation.
C. The commission oversees the fire prevention program.
D. The commissioner commonly serves on panels and committees tasked with state planning for hazardous materials control and disaster preparedness.
A. A few states have established commissions to conduct fire service training and certification programs. (FALSE - most states (47))
431
Two of the most effective means of enhancing the fire department image through public education our media programs and _____ .
A. Day-to-day contact with department personnel at fires.
B. Times when the citizens make inquiries or lodge complaints.
C. Group presentations to civic groups, service clubs, and other organizations.
D. Inspections.
C. Group presentations to civic groups, service clubs, and other organizations.
(There are actually 3 ways: media, group presentation, and direct assistance)
432
In the five-step planning process, the step described as the bridge between planning and fire education program and actually implementing it in the field is known as:
A. Identification.
B. Evaluation.
C. Selection.
D. Design.
D. Design.
433
Company officers usually collaborate with their peers when developing the budget request for their station. In the _____ step the only involvement by company officers at this stage if any, is limited to preparing estimates of the fees to be generated by the services provided by the department.
A. Planning. C. Internal review.
B. Preparation. D. Implementation
A. Planning.
434
The typical EMS report is a combination of an incident report, which is open to the public by law, and a patient care report that is privileged information that the public is not allowed to see. Information about each of the following is open to the public... the exception is:
A. Information about the response, its location, who responded, general nature of the incident.
B. How many patients were involved.
C. Nature of the medical problem, mechanism of injury.
D. Information about patient transport to a medical facility.
C. Nature of the medical problem, mechanism of injury.
435
Formal communications consist of written policies and procedures, standing operating procedures, orders and directives, and fire ground orders. Policies and procedures are examples of "standing" or "repeat use" plans designed to deal with the reoccurring problems of an organization. The following statements are TRUE regarding policies and procedures... the exception is:
A. A policy is a guy to decision-making within an organization.
B. A policy provides fire department personnel specific and detailed information about how specific situations should be handled.
C. Policies not only aid in decision-making, but they also define the boundaries within which the administration expects company officers to act.
D. Written policies give department members a reference point for decision-making.
B. A "policy" provides fire department personnel specific and detailed information about how specific situations should be handled. (FALSE - Procedure)
436
There are many symptoms that may indicate that a firefighter is suffering from critical incident stress. stress. The following symptoms which occur during an incident are... the exception is:
A. Irritability.
B. Anger.
C. Frustration.
D. Sense of hopelessness.
A. Irritability. (Happens after)
437
Which of the following answers is an example of "discipline"?
A. Breaking large jobs down into smaller tasks that are assigned to specific individuals.
B. Refers to an organization's responsibility to provide the direction needed to satisfy the goals and objectives it has identified. It means setting the limits or boundaries for expected performance and enforcing them.
C. The number of subordinates that one individual can effectively supervise.
D. Although each member reports to one supervisor directly, every member is still responsible to the Fire Chief indirectly.
B. Refers to an organization's responsibility to provide the direction needed to satisfy the goals and objectives it has identified. It means setting the limits or boundaries for expected performance and enforcing them.
-----------------------------------------
A. Breaking large jobs down into smaller tasks that are assigned to specific individuals. (Division of labor)
C. The number of subordinates that one individual can effectively supervise. (Span of control)
D. Although each member reports to one supervisor directly, every member is still responsible to the Fire Chief indirectly. (Chain of command)
438
Which of the following examples is an example of a statutory law at the local level?
A. Laws governing the formation of special districts for fire protection, sanitation, and recreation.
B. Hunting regulations.
C. Adopt a particular edition of a fire code.
D. Occupational health and safety administration.
C. Adopt a particular edition of a fire code. (Local)
-----------------------------------------
A. Laws governing the formation of special districts for fire protection, sanitation, and recreation. (State)
B. Hunting regulations. (State)
D. Occupational health and safety administration. (Federal)
439
Every group, including a fire company, tends to meet the five essential elements of a group. _____ is described as "This pride contributes to the group spirit and high morale. In addition to being essential to the cohesion of the group, is one of the greatest influences on the success of the group".
A. Vital group image.
B. Sense of continuity.
C. Common binding interest.
D. Shared set of values.
A. Vital group image.
440
Blake and Mouton's book @The Managerial Grid" theorized that there are several basic types of leadership. The type of leadership characterized: "By an overriding concern for production. This results from a high concern for production, and a low concern for employee needs. This form is often associated with the Theory X perspective, attempting to arrange conditions so that the human element only minimally affects production", is known as:
A. Bureaucratic leadership.
B. Single-issue leadership.
C. Middle-of-the-Road leadership.
D. Dual-issue leadership.
B. Single-issue leadership.
441
There are five major responsibilities that are common to all supervisors. Which of the following statements describes the major responsibility of "encouraging teamwork and cooperation"?
A. Stress safety when teaching firefighters any new skill.
B. Carefully plan, schedule, and coordinate work so that subordinates know what they are supposed to do and the expected results.
C. To do this, the company officer must communicate the organizational culture and goals downward to the company members, and identified community concerns and opportunities upward to the administration.
D. Company officer should encourage their firefighters to grow in their jobs, accept more responsibility, and consistently strive to be the best firefighters and public servants of which they are capable.
C. To do this, the company officer must communicate the organizational culture and goals downward to the company members, and identified community concerns and opportunities upward to the administration.
442
The four-step method of instruction is one of the most widely used techniques for presenting new information in the fire service. Which of the following statements is the essence of the application step?
A. Any lapses in instruction will be identified and any misunderstandings corrected. It is critical that the firefighters be given the opportunity to practice applying the new information until they get it right.
B. That the firefighter demonstrate, by the means state in the behavioral objective, that he understands the new material and can apply it effectively.
C. That both the firefighter and the company officer know the important of the information to be presented. If either part of the step is ignored or done superficially, the rest of the presentation is likely to be less effective.
D. That firefighters be given all the information they need to meet the behavioral objectives stated in the lesson plan.
A. Any lapses in instruction will be identified and any misunderstandings corrected. It is critical that the firefighters be given the opportunity to practice applying the new information until they get it right. (Application)
-----------------------------------------
B. That the firefighter demonstrate, by the means state in the behavioral objective, that he understands the new material and can apply it effectively. (Evaluation)
C. That both the firefighter and the company officer know the important of the information to be presented. If either part of the step is ignored or done superficially, the rest of the presentation is likely to be less effective. (Preparation)
D. That firefighters be given all the information they need to meet the behavioral objectives stated in the lesson plan. (Presentation)
443
There are many symptoms of critical incident stress. Some of the more common delayed symptoms are... the exception is:
A. Irritability.
B. Restlessness.
C. Feelings of guilt.
D. Sense of hopelessness.
D. Sense of hopelessness. (Immediate/during an incident)
444
Progressive discipline usually involves three levels - preventive action, corrective action, and punitive action. Which of the following statements describes a corrective action?
A. The violator is given a letter, or one is sent by certified mail with a return receipt requested to guarantee that it is received. The letter includes a description of what the firefighter is or is not doing that violates department rules, review the department policy regarding the possible consequences if the behaviors continued, and a statement informing the firefighter that a copy of the letter will be placed in his file.
B. The violator is taken aside for an informal but private interview. During the interview, the company officer makes sure that the firefighter understands both the rule that was violated and the organizational necessity for the rule. The company officer should explain exactly what is expected of the firefighter in the future and what may happen if the rule is violated again.
C. Suspension.
D. Termination.
A. The violator is given a letter, or one is sent by certified mail with a return receipt requested to guarantee that it is received. The letter includes a description of what the firefighter is or is not doing that violates department rules, review the department policy regarding the possible consequences if the behaviors continued, and a statement informing the firefighter that a copy of the letter will be placed in his file. (Corrective action)
-----------------------------------------
B. The violator is taken aside for an informal but private interview. During the interview, the company officer makes sure that the firefighter understands both the rule that was violated and the organizational necessity for the rule. The company officer should explain exactly what is expected of the firefighter in the future and what may happen if the rule is violated again. (Preventative action)
C. Suspension. (Punitive action)
D. Termination. (Punitive action)
445
What are the three levels of progressive discipline:
1)
2)
3)
1. Preventive action (verbal warning)
2. Corrective action (written warning)
3. Punitive action (suspension/termination)
446
Which of the following activities takes place in the "warm zone"?
A. Providing emergency lighting.
B. Vehicle extrication.
C. Command post.
D. Hazardous materials releases are controlled and contained.
A. Providing emergency lighting. (Warm zone)
-----------------------------------------
B. Vehicle extrication. (Hot zone)
C. Command post. (Cold zone)
D. Hazardous materials releases are controlled and contained. (Hot zone)
447
According to Tannenbaum and Schmidt "Continuum of Leadership Behavior" the most appropriate behavior falls at different points along the continuum based on three variables - the leader, the subordinates, and the situation. Whenever possible, company officers should operate toward the right end of the continuum by _____ their subordinates and planning how to most effectively carry out their assigned task.
A. Telling.
B. Selling.
C. Consulting.
D. Joining.
D. Joining.
448
Feedback from a public fire and life safety program is critical. Feedback may be immediate or it may be long-term. Regardless of how feedback is obtained, it must be heeded. While positive feedback may be very gratifying, negative feedback may be more valuable. Which of the following statements best represents short-term feedback?
A. Ask the members to use the pretest/posttest feedback approach which works best with adult groups.
B. The results of the public education program are demonstrated in a positive change in the data on the fire and life safety within the community.
C. The results of the public education program are monitored over time.
D. Ask the members to fill out an evaluation form at the end of the program.
D. Ask the members to fill out an evaluation form at the end of the program. (Short-term feedback)
-----------------------------------------
A. Ask the members to use the pretest/posttest feedback approach which works best with adult groups. (Evaluation)
B. The results of the public education program are demonstrated in a positive change in the data on the fire and life safety within the community. (Long-term feedback)
C. The results of the public education program are monitored over time. (Long-term feedback)
449
In general, there are two types of budgets used by public entities - capital budgets and operating budgets. Even though these budgets include very different items and serve very different purposes, they are often combined into one budget document. Company officers are often involved in planning and preparing both types of budgets. Which of the following is an example of a capital budget item?
A. Fire hose. C. Benefits.
B. Salaries. D. Station utilities.
```
A. Fire hose. (Capital budget)
-----------------------------------------
B. Salaries. (Operating budget)
C. Benefits. (Operating budget)
D. Station utilities. (Operating budget)
```
450
The following statements are TRUE regarding "memos" ... the exception is:
A. Memos are sometimes used to document a face-to-face conversation or telephone call.
B. Memos provide a written record of decisions, requests, or policies.
C. Memos transmit the same information to several locations or individuals.
D. Memos provide specific information concerning questions or requests in a somewhat formal manner.
D. Memos provide specific information concerning questions or requests in a somewhat "formal" manner. (False - informal manner)
451
When preparing a news or press release the content should be limited to the facts of the event or topic and should be as simple and straightforward as possible. The following guidelines are FALSE regarding preparation of a news release the exception is:
A. Limit sentence length to no more than 30 to 35 words.
B. Use the inverted pyramid style of organization by putting the most important facts first and the least important ones last.
C. Do not write one sentence paragraphs.
D. Summarize the piece at the end by including Who, What, Where, and Why in that specific order.
B. Use the inverted pyramid style of organization by putting the most important facts first and the least important ones last. (True)
-----------------------------------------
A. Limit sentence length to no more than "30 to 35" words. (20 words)
C. "Do not write" one sentence paragraphs. (are acceptable)
D. Summarize the piece at the "end" by including Who, What, Where, and Why in that "specific order". (In the first sentence / doesn't have to be in that order)
452
Size-up is an ongoing process of evaluating a situation to determine what has happened, what is happening, what is likely to happen, and what resources will be needed to resolve the situation. One way to conform to the size-up definition given earlier involves using a three-step process. Evaluating any emergency, regardless of its specific nature, can be done by using the three-step process of locate, isolate, mitigate. Which of the following statements is an example of "isolate"?
A. Head to toe medical exam of the patient.
B. Striking additional alarms to get more personnel and equipment to the scene of a structure fire.
C. Damning or taking contaminated runoff water to limit it spread.
D. Determine what will be needed to eliminate the problem.
C. Damning or taking contaminated runoff water to limit it spread. (Isolate)
-----------------------------------------
453
_____ - Is the ongoing process of evaluating an emergency situation to determine the following facts:
- What has happened
- What is happening
- What is likely to happen
- What resources will be needed to resolve the situation
Size-up
454
Depending upon the needs of the incident, as specified in the incident action plan, resources may be managed in three different configurations. _____ are any combination of up to five resources assembled for specific assignment. There must be a leader, and all units must have common communications capability. Once the units tactical objective has been met, the unit is disbanded, and the individual resources reassigned or released.
A. Strike teams.
B. Task force.
C. Squad.
D. Companies.
B. Task force.
455
Common Terminology for Functional Structure:
Organizational Levels: (8)
_____ - Act of directing, ordering, and/or controlling resources by virtue of explicit legal, agency, or delegated authority; also used to denote the organizational level that is in overall command (incident commander - IC) of the incident. Lines of authority must be clear to all involved. Lawful commands by those in authority need to be followed immediately and without question.
```
A. Command.
B. Command staff.
C. General staff.
D. Section.
E. Branch.
F. Division.
G. Group.
H. Unit.
```
A. Command.
456
Common Terminology for Functional Structure:
Organizational Levels: (8)
_____ - Incident management personnel who are in overall command of the incident; includes the public information officer, safety officer, and liaison officer who advise the IC.
```
A. Command.
B. Command staff.
C. General staff.
D. Section.
E. Branch.
F. Division.
G. Group.
H. Unit.
```
B. Command staff.
457
Common Terminology for Functional Structure:
Organizational Levels: (8)
_____ - Incident management personnel who represent the major functional sections.
```
A. Command.
B. Command staff.
C. General staff.
D. Section.
E. Branch.
F. Division.
G. Group.
H. Unit.
```
C. General staff.
458
Common Terminology for Functional Structure:
Organizational Levels: (8)
_____ - Organizational level having responsibility for a major functional area of incident management such as Operations, Planning, Logistics, Finance/Administration, and Information and Intelligence (this function may be designated as a section, a branch within operations, or part of the command staff); Organizationally located between Command and Branch.
```
A. Command.
B. Command staff.
C. General staff.
D. Section.
E. Branch.
F. Division.
G. Group.
H. Unit.
```
D. Section.
459
Common Terminology for Functional Structure:
Organizational Levels: (8)
_____ - Organizational level having functional/geographic responsibility for major segments of incident operations; organizationally located between Section and Division or Group. They are identified by Roman numeral or functional area (such as Command, Operations, etc.).
```
A. Command.
B. Command staff.
C. General staff.
D. Section.
E. Branch.
F. Division.
G. Group.
H. Unit.
```
E. Branch.
460
Common Terminology for Functional Structure:
Organizational Levels: (8)
_____ - Organizational level having responsibility for operations within a defined geographic area; organizationally between Branch and single resources, task force, or strike team. Resources assigned to a "____" report to that "____" supervisor.
Examples:
- "____" are assigned clockwise around an outdoor incident with "____" A at the front of the incident.
- In multistory buildings, "____" are usually identified by the floor or area to which they are assigned: First floor is "____" I, second floor is "____" II, etc.
- In a one-story building, the entire interior maybe assigned as a "____" (Interior "____").
```
A. Command.
B. Command staff.
C. General staff.
D. Section.
E. Branch.
F. Division.
G. Group.
H. Unit.
```
F. Division.
461
Common Terminology for Functional Structure:
Organizational Levels: (8)
_____ - Organizational level, equal to Division, having responsibility for a specified "functional" assignment at an incident (such as ventilation, salvage, water supply, etc.) without regard for specific geographical area. When the assigned function has been completed, it is available for reassignment.
```
A. Command.
B. Command staff.
C. General staff.
D. Section.
E. Branch.
F. Division.
G. Group.
H. Unit.
```
G. Group.
462
Common Terminology for Functional Structure:
Organizational Levels: (8)
_____ - Organizational level within the sections that fulfill specific support functions such as the resources, documentation, demobilization, and situation units within the Planning section.
```
A. Command.
B. Command staff.
C. General staff.
D. Section.
E. Branch.
F. Division.
G. Group.
H. Unit.
```
H. Unit.
463
General Staff Composition and Duties:
_____ - Incident commander (IC) and command staff positions, including public information officer, safety officer, liaison officer, and other positions as required.
```
A. Command.
B. Planning Section.
C. Operations Section.
D. Logistics Section.
E. Finance/Administration Section.
F. Information and intelligence function.
```
A. Command.
464
General Staff Composition and Duties:
_____ - Responsible for the collection, evaluation, and dissemination of operational information and the preparation and documentation of the incident action plan (IAP); Includes the resources, situation, demobilization, and documentation units as well as technical specialists
```
A. Command.
B. Planning Section.
C. Operations Section.
D. Logistics Section.
E. Finance/Administration Section.
F. Information and intelligence function.
```
B. Planning Section.
465
General Staff Composition and Duties:
_____ - Responsible for all tactical incident operations; includes branches, divisions or groups, and single resources
```
A. Command.
B. Planning Section.
C. Operations Section.
D. Logistics Section.
E. Finance/Administration Section.
F. Information and intelligence function.
```
C. Operations Section.
466
General Staff Composition and Duties:
_____ - Responsible for providing facilities, services, and material support for the incident; includes the supply, food, ground support, communications, facilities, and medical units
```
A. Command.
B. Planning Section.
C. Operations Section.
D. Logistics Section.
E. Finance/Administration Section.
F. Information and intelligence function.
```
D. Logistics Section.
467
General Staff Composition and Duties:
_____ - Responsible for financial, reimbursement, and administrative services to support incident management activities; includes the compensation/claims, procurement, cost, and time units
```
A. Command.
B. Planning Section.
C. Operations Section.
D. Logistics Section.
E. Finance/Administration Section.
F. Information and intelligence function.
```
E. Finance/Administration Section.
468
General Staff Composition and Duties:
_____ - Responsible for managing internal information, intelligence, and operational security requirements supporting incident management activities; activated if necessary and may be the responsibility of a law enforcement official or unit; maybe part of the Command Staff, part of the Planning Section, or assigned independently
```
A. Command.
B. Planning Section.
C. Operations Section.
D. Logistics Section.
E. Finance/Administration Section.
F. Information and intelligence function.
```
F. Information and intelligence function.
469
In most cases, company officer's will spend the majority of their training time involved with their firefighters' skill maintenance. Rather than focusing on learning new skills, this training focuses on maintaining the skills they have already learned. On a periodic basis, usually monthly, the training officer prescribes a certain number of individual topics, skills, and/or company evolutions for that period. _____ is one in which clearly defined and measurable performance standards have been developed for all the various individual skills and company evolutions deemed necessary for the department to be able to fill its mission. There must be standards for using SCBA, raising letters, and every other essential topic.
A. Traditional learning
B. Mastery learning
C. Prescriptive training
D. Drilling
C. Prescriptive training
470
Listening is the key skill in one-to-one communications. It requires focus, energy, and a commitment to really hear what is meant as well as what is being said. The following statements are FALSE regarding listening... the exception is:
A. React to the messenger, not the message.
B. Focus on the issues, not the person.
C. Interrupt the speaker to ask questions or take issue with the speaker's position.
D. Take the responsibility for communication.
B. Focus on the issues, not the person.
471
Regardless of who is responsible for the incident report, it should be consistent with National Fire Incident Reporting System (NFIRS). The casualty section of the report should contain... the exception is:
A. Name of injured/deceased.
B. Any equipment lost or broken.
C. Home address.
D. Age.
B. Any equipment lost or broken.
472
Usually shortened to just "memos", memoranda are a form of letter that is usually reserved for internal communication only. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding memos:
A. To transmit the same information to several locations or individuals.
B. Memos are not used to document a face-to-face conversation or telephone call.
C. To provide specific information concerning questions or requests in a formal manner.
D. Does not provide a written record of decisions, requests, or policies.
A. To transmit the same information to several locations or individuals. (True)
-----------------------------------------
B. Memos are "not" used to document a face-to-face conversation or telephone call. (False)
C. To provide specific information concerning questions or requests in a "formal" manner. (False - informal)
D. Does "not" provide a written record of decisions, requests, or policies. (False)
473
_____ details in writing the steps to be followed in carrying out organizational policy for some specific, reoccurring problem or situation.
A. A policy.
B. A standard operating procedure.
C. A procedure.
D. A directive.
C. A procedure.
474
_____ - are an individuals attributes or personal characteristics that causes the individual to be involved in more or fewer accidents and other individuals. Has been classified into three broad categories:
- Improper attitude
- Lack of knowledge or skill
- Physically unsuited
A. Intelligence factor.
B. Human factor.
C. Laziness.
D. Complacency.
B. Human factors.
475
There are the three "Human Factor" classifications listed below... The exception is:
A. Complacency.
B. Improper attitude.
C. Lack of knowledge or skill.
D. Physically unsuited.
A. Complacency. (FALSE)
476
Human Factor: (3)
_____ - Includes willful disregard, recklessness, irresponsibility, laziness, disloyalty, uncooperativeness, fearfulness, oversensitivity, egotism, jealousy, impatience, obsession, phobia, absentmindedness, excitability, inconsideration, intolerance, or mental unsuitability in general. Readjusting any of these attitudes or personal traits through counseling, training, or discipline can lead to accident production.
A. Lack of knowledge or skill.
B. Improper attitude.
C. Physically unsuited.
D. Complacency.
B. Improper attitude.
477
Human Factor: (3)
_____ - Includes insufficient knowledge, misunderstandings, indecision, inexperience, poor training, or failure to recognize potential hazards. These problems can be reduced or eliminated through training.
A. Lack of knowledge or skill.
B. Improper attitude.
C. Physically unsuited.
D. Complacency.
A. Lack of knowledge or skill.
478
Human Factor: (3)
_____ - Includes problems of hearing, sight, weight, height, illness, allergies, slow reactions, disabilities, intoxication, or physical limitations in general. Correcting these physical limitations can often reduce accident rates. If they cannot be corrected, personnel should not be assigned to tasks where their limitations might create a hazard or be potentially dangerous to themselves or others.
A. Lack of knowledge or skill.
B. Improper attitude.
C. Physically unsuited.
D. Complacency.
C. Physically unsuited.
479
Human factors are an individual's attributes or personal characteristics that cause this individual to be involved in more or fewer accidents and other individuals. Human factors that often contribute to accidents have been classified into three broad categories. Improper attitude includes:
A. Insufficient knowledge.
B. Obesity.
C. Intoxication.
D. Willful disregard.
D. Willful disregard. (Improper attitude)
-----------------------------------------
A. Insufficient knowledge. (Lack of knowledge or skill)
B. Obesity. (Physically unsuited)
C. Intoxication. (Physically unsuited)
480
In behavioral psychology, a _____ is anything acknowledges a person's existence. It can be positive (rewarding) or negative (punishing).
For example public praise for a job well done is a powerful positive "____" ; in the contrary: silence, lack of eye contact, or a frown can be viewed as negative "____s".
If a person does not receive any type of "____" at all, they may attempt to pursue negative ones.
A. Praise.
B. Acknowledgment
C. Stroke.
D. Stamp collecting.
C. Stroke.
481
In behavioral psychology, the act termed as "_____" is collecting positive/negative strokes, then "cashing ____ in" to do positive (if many positive "_____" are collected) or negative (retaliating against those that gave negative strokes).
A. Praise.
B. Acknowledgment
C. Stroke.
D. Stamp collecting.
D. Stamp collecting.
| also called "gunny sacking"
482
Victor Voom, developed a theory of motivation that attempts to explain why people are motivated and others are not. He called this the "V.I.E. Theory of Motivation", although many people simply refer to it as the Expectancy Theory. Which of the following statements contained the "operative" elements?
1) The strength of the individual's desire to achieve some goal.
2) The availability of a means to achieve the goal.
3) The strength of that individual's belief that he can achieve that goal.
A. Statements #1 & #3 are correct.
B. Statements #2 & #3 are correct.
C. Statements #1 & #2 are correct.
D. All three statements are correct.
A. Statements #1 & #3 are correct.
483
Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs Theory includes 5 characteristics... the exception is:
```
A. Biological.
B. Safety.
C. Social.
D. Ego.
E. Self-actualization.
F. Societal recognition.
```
F. Societal recognition. (FALSE)
484
Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs Theory:
_____ - such as food, water and shelter.
```
A. Biological.
B. Safety.
C. Social.
D. Ego.
E. Self-actualization.
```
A. Biological.
485
Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs Theory:
_____ - such as PPE, secure firehouses, well-maintained apparatus and equipment.
```
A. Biological.
B. Safety.
C. Social.
D. Ego.
E. Self-actualization.
```
B. Safety.
486
Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs Theory:
_____ - such as friendships, social activities and camaraderie.
```
A. Biological.
B. Safety.
C. Social.
D. Ego.
E. Self-actualization.
```
C. Social.
487
Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs Theory:
_____ - such as recognition, rewards, praise, promotions and salary increases.
```
A. Biological.
B. Safety.
C. Social.
D. Ego.
E. Self-actualization.
```
D. Ego.
488
Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs Theory:
_____ - such as purpose, personal growth and achievement.
```
A. Biological.
B. Safety.
C. Social.
D. Ego.
E. Self-actualization.
```
E. Self-actualization.
489
Tannenbaum and Schmidt, Leadership-Continuum Theory is used to determine which leadership style a leader should apply to a situation. The continuum consists of Telling, Selling, Consulting, and Sharing(Joining); with the left side of the continuum being more autocratic and the left side being more democratic.
_____ - Makes the decision and announces it without discussion or employee involvement.
- Applies to an emergency scene situation that requires immediate action.
A. Telling.
B. Selling.
C. Consulting.
D. Sharing/joining.
A. Telling.
490
Tannenbaum and Schmidt, Leadership-Continuum Theory is used to determine which leadership style a leader should apply to a situation. The continuum consists of Telling, Selling, Consulting, and Sharing(Joining); with the left side of the continuum being more autocratic and the left side being more democratic.
_____ - Makes the decision and then explains it to employees based on why it is in the organization's best interest.
- Works when the leader is supporting a decision made by a higher authority such as the implementation of a new departmental policy.
A. Telling.
B. Selling.
C. Consulting.
D. Sharing/joining.
B. Selling.
491
Tannenbaum and Schmidt, Leadership-Continuum Theory is used to determine which leadership style a leader should apply to a situation. The continuum consists of Telling, Selling, Consulting, and Sharing(Joining); with the left side of the continuum being more autocratic and the left side being more democratic.
_____ - Presents ideas to members and invite their questions.
- Clarifies a decision the leader has made to subordinates.
A. Telling.
B. Selling.
C. Consulting.
D. Sharing/joining.
C. Consulting.
492
Tannenbaum and Schmidt, Leadership-Continuum Theory is used to determine which leadership style a leader should apply to a situation. The continuum consists of Telling, Selling, Consulting, and Sharing(Joining); with the left side of the continuum being more autocratic and the left side being more democratic.
_____ - Prevents a tentative decision to members that is subject to change.
-Desires some member participation such as duty assignments.
A. Telling.
B. Selling.
C. Consulting.
D. Sharing/joining.
C. Consulting.
493
Tannenbaum and Schmidt, Leadership-Continuum Theory is used to determine which leadership style a leader should apply to a situation. The continuum consists of Telling, Selling, Consulting, and Sharing(Joining); with the left side of the continuum being more autocratic and the left side being more democratic.
_____ - Present problem to members asked for suggestions, and then makes the decision based on the best recommendation.
-Allows members to provide alternative ideas while allowing the leader to make the final selection.
A. Telling.
B. Selling.
C. Consulting.
D. Sharing/joining.
C. Consulting.
494
Tannenbaum and Schmidt, Leadership-Continuum Theory is used to determine which leadership style a leader should apply to a situation. The continuum consists of Telling, Selling, Consulting, and Sharing(Joining); with the left side of the continuum being more autocratic and the left side being more democratic.
_____ - Defines limits on a decision and asks members to make the decision.
-Uses the consensus process to develop facility specifications.
A. Telling.
B. Selling.
C. Consulting.
D. Sharing/joining.
D. Sharing/joining.
495
Tannenbaum and Schmidt, Leadership-Continuum Theory is used to determine which leadership style a leader should apply to a situation. The continuum consists of Telling, Selling, Consulting, and Sharing(Joining); with the left side of the continuum being more autocratic and the left side being more democratic.
_____ - Sets limitations and allows members to make all decisions without interference.
-Requires the leader and members to agree upon limitations and the leader to feel comfortable empowering subordinates with the decision-making process.
A. Telling.
B. Selling.
C. Consulting.
D. Sharing/joining.
D. Sharing/joining.
496
Because the structure and function of agencies very greatly among states, company officers must make an effort to become familiar with the exact agencies and their responsibilities that are active in their political subdivision. _____ may also assist with arson investigations and other legal matters that cross jurisdictional boundaries.
A. Fire commission.
B. Health department.
C. Highway department.
D. State police.
D. State police.
497
Vehicle fires caused by electrical malfunction are most likely to be:
A. In the exhaust system.
B. In the wheel-and-brake assembly.
C. Under the dashboard.
D. In the seat cushions.
C. Under the dashboard.
498
A formal critique consists of a written report of the critiques findings, it should be shared with the members who attended, other fire department members, and the mutual aid departments that responded. The first part of the written report should contain:
A. Specific address of the incident.
B. Vital statistics.
C. Lessons learned.
D. Problems encountered.
```
D. Problems encountered. (First)
-----------------------------------------
A. Specific address of the incident.
B. Vital statistics. (Middle)
C. Lessons learned. (Final / Conclusion)
```
499
Span of control is the number of subordinates that one individual can effectively supervise. There are a number of variables that affect the span of control. A variable which would allow a minimal supervision is:
A. The ability and experience of the subordinates.
B. If mistakes by the workers are of little consequence.
C. Dissimilarity to tasks being performed by others.
D. Workers are widely separated from the supervisor and each other.
B. If mistakes by the workers are of little consequence.
-----------------------------------------
A. The ability and experience of the subordinates. (High experience or low experience?)
C. Dissimilarity to tasks being performed by others. (Difficult supervision)
D. Workers are widely separated from the supervisor and each other. (Difficult supervision)
500
The variables that affect span of control in any given situation are as follows... the exception is:
A. Ability and experience of the supervisor.
B. Ability and experience of the subordinates.
C. Nature of the task.
D. Proximity of subordinates to the supervisor and each other.
E. Consequence of a mistake.
F. Jurisdiction Having Authority (JHA) of the incident.
F. Jurisdiction Having Authority (JHA) of the incident. (FALSE)
-----------------------------------------
(A. through E. are all TRUE p.242)
501
Effective supervision, or maintaining Span of Control, is extremely difficult in the following circumstances... the exception is:
A. Tasks being performed are very complex.
B. Workers level of training is minimal.
C. When mistakes by workers are of little consequence.
D. Workers are performing dissimilar tasks.
E. Workers are widely separated from the supervisor and each other.
C. When mistakes by workers are little consequence. (FALSE)
-----------------------------------------
(The rest are all TRUE p.242)
502
At a major incident, the IC fails to organize the incident scene resources in a way that allows authority to be delegated appropriately (through Span of Control). The IC attempts to directly control all on-scene units, makes every decision at all levels, and is soon overwhelmed by the myriad details of the operation. This situation can cause the following conditions... the exception is:
A. Chaos at the incident scene.
B. Breakdowns in communication and coordination.
C. Duplication of effort by units operating on their own without consulting command.
D. Large jobs are divided into smaller tasks that are then assigned to specific individuals.
E. Confused, ineffective operation at best and perhaps losses of life and property.
E.
D. Large jobs are divided into smaller tasks that are then assigned to specific individuals. (FALSE - this is Division of Labor)
-----------------------------------------
(The rest are TRUE, p.242)
503
There are several variables that affect Span of Control in any given situation; one variable being "nature of the task". The following characteristics are TRUE regarding "nature of the task"... the exception is:
A. Urgency.
B. Conditions under which it must be performed, including the geographical area that subordinates may be working within.
C. Complexity.
D. Rate at which it must be performed.
E. Similarity/dissimilarity to tasks being performed by others.
F. Ability and experience of the subordinate.
F. Ability and experience of the subordinate. (FALSE - is a variable that effects Span of Control but not a specific characteristic of "nature of the task")
-----------------------------------------
(A. through E. are all TRUE p. 242)
504
_____ - When subordinates operate on their own without consulting command officers; Often leads to duplication of efforts.
A. Breaking command.
B. AWOL.
C. Division of labor.
D. Freelancing.
D. Freelancing.
505
_____ power is derived from one of three sources: shared values, acceptance of social structure, or the sanction of a legitimizing agent. Company officers have this power because of the organizational structure of the department.
A. Coercive.
B. Expert.
C. Identification.
D. Position.
D. Position. (aka Legitimate Power or Organizational authority)
506
_____ power is also sometimes called organizational authority or position power.
A. Coercive.
B. Expert.
C. Identification.
D. Legitimate.
D. Legitimate power.
507
Corrective action, the second step in "progressive discipline" is used when a firefighter repeats a violation or commits a different violation. It may also be used if he commits a more serious violation as a first offense. Corrective action differs from preventative action primarily in that:
A. It is an informal but private interview.
B. It is always done in writing.
C. It results in termination.
D. The suspension is punitive in nature.
B. It is always done in writing. (Corrective action)
-----------------------------------------
A. It is an informal but private interview. (Preventative action)
C. It results in termination. (Punitive action)
D. The suspension is punitive in nature. (Punitive action)
508
Progressive discipline usually involves the following three levels:
1.
2.
3.
1. Preventative action
2. Corrective action
3. Punitive action
509
Progressive Discipline:
_____ - Hold an individual counseling interview to correct the inappropriate behavior as soon as it is discovered and prevent it from becoming a pattern or progressing into a more serious offense.
A. Preventative action.
B. Corrective action.
C. Punitive action.
D. Formal discipline.
A. Preventative action.
510
The following statements are TRUE regarding the process of preventative action... the exception is:
A. Ensure that the employee understands both the rule that was violated and the organizational necessity for the rule during the interview.
B. Explain exactly what is expected of the employee in the future and what may happen if the rule violated again.
C. Document the interview in a written record.
D. Suspension.
D. Suspension. (FALSE - Punitive action)
511
Progressive Discipline:
_____ - When an employee repeats a violation for which preventative action was taken or commits a different violation. It may also be used if the employee commits a serious violation as a first offense. Is always done in writing.
-Give the employee a letter in person or send one by certified mail with a return receipt request to guarantee that it is received.
A. Preventative action.
B. Corrective action.
C. Punitive action.
D. Formal discipline.
B. Corrective action.
512
Progressive Discipline:
_____ - Give the employee notice of possible sanctions. Use this action when an employee either continues to exhibit inappropriate behavior, despite earlier corrective efforts, or commits a very serious violation of organizational rules as a first offense. Put the employee on notice that this behavior cannot and will not be tolerated. After meeting all mandated procedural rules and employee protection requirements, consider the range of possible sanctions.
A. Preventative action.
B. Corrective action.
C. Punitive action.
D. Formal discipline.
C. Punitive action.
513
Of the three levels of progressive disciplinary action, the company officer is most likely to use:
A. Preventative action.
B. Corrective action.
C. Punitive action.
D. Formal discipline.
A. Preventative action.
514
Corrective action is always done in writing; the letter includes the following information... the exception is:
A. Description of what transpired in the preventive interview if one was held.
B. Description of what the employee is or is not doing that violates organizational rules.
C. Notice of suspension.
D. Review of organizational policy regarding the possible consequences if the behavior continues or a change in behavior fails to meet organizational standards.
E. Statement informing the employee that a copy of the letter will be placed in the employee's personal file.
C. Notice of suspension. (FALSE - Punitive action)
515
The following are possible sanctions of punitive action... the exception is:
A. Formal written reprimand (similar to corrective letter except it is considered severe and formal discipline).
B. Five (specific monetary payment).
C. Suspension (time off without pay).
D. Demotion (loss of rank).
E. Termination (dismissal from organization).
F. Discipline (tasked with additional chores as punishment).
G. Prosecution (legal action that may result in a large fine or jail time)
F. Discipline (tasked with additional chores as punishment). (FALSE)
516
When violations are serious such as safety violations that cause injuries or property losses, the company officer may be required to either administer immediate _____ or notify the next level superior. _____ may include a written reprimand or suspension of the employee with pay, pending the outcome of investigations.
A. Preventative action.
B. Corrective action.
C. Punitive action.
D. Formal discipline.
D. Formal discipline.
517
In the fire service, one of the most widely used techniques for presenting information is the four-step method of instruction. "The purpose of this step is to determine whether students achieved lesson objectives or course outcomes by having them demonstrate how much they have learned through written, oral, or practical examination or test.
A. Evaluation.
B. Preparation.
C. Application.
D. Presentation.
A. Evaluation.
518
_____ law is the body of law that is the result of court decisions that affect the way particular statutory or administrative law is interpreted and applied. This law varies widely from jurisdiction to jurisdiction, so it is extremely important that company officers know how the statutes that directly relate to their duties have been interpreted by the courts in their area. The State fire marshal's office and the jurisdiction's attorney can help in this regard.
A. Case law.
B. Common law.
C. Statutory law.
D. Constitutional law.
A. Case law.
519
There are a host of different types of records kept by fire departments -many of them are at the company level. The three main categories of record keeping are maintenance, activity, and personal records. An example of maintenance record is:
A. Record of any emergency call to which the company responds.
B. Fire hose is inspected and tested annually to prevent it from failing during a fire.
C. Records of training conducted at company level.
D. Performance evaluations and work improvement plans.
B. Fire hose is inspected and tested annually to prevent it from failing during a fire. (Maintenance records)
-----------------------------------------
A. Record of any emergency call to which the company responds. (Activity records)
C. Records of training conducted at company level. (Activity records)
D. Performance evaluations and work improvement plans. (Personnel records)
520
Report drawings are polished versions of field sketches, and they must be drawn to scale. If an item must be included for which there is no standard symbol, should be indicated by a:
A. Number within a square.
B. Letter within a square.
C. Number within a circle.
D. Letter within a circle.
C. Number within a circle.
521
A(n) _____ allows a communication center to transmit dispatch information, incident patient status information, confidential messages not appropriate for verbal transmission over the radio, chemical information, and maps and charts. It may also be equipped with status buttons that allow the communication center to stay appraised of the units status (en route, on scene, available).
A. Geographic Information System (GIS).
B. Mobile Data Computer (MDC).
C. Global Positioning System (GPS).
D. Mobile Data Terminal (MDT).
D. Mobile Data Terminal (MDT).
- ----------------------------------------
* Mobile Data Computer (MDC) differs from an MDT because a MDC has a keyboard that allows two-way communication between the mobile units and the telecommunications center instead of the status buttons that MDT uses to transmit it status.
522
One way to conform to the size-up definition involves using a three-step process. Which of the following actions, would take place in the "Locate" step of the process?
A. Taking a patient's medical history and doing a total body exam.
B. Stopping the spread of contaminant runoff water by damning or diking.
C. Striking additional alarms to get more personnel and equipment to the scene.
D. Requesting one or more tow trucks to remove damaged and disabled vehicles.
A. Taking a patient's medical history and doing a total body exam. (Locate)
-----------------------------------------
B. Stopping the spread of contaminant runoff water by damning or diking. (Isolate)
C. Striking additional alarms to get more personnel and equipment to the scene. (Mitigate)
D. Requesting one or more tow trucks to remove damaged and disabled vehicles. (Mitigate)
523
Once an incident action plan has been developed, it must be deployed in a way that will do the most good. One of the first decisions relates to the mode of operation. Essentially, there are three possible modes of operation -defensive, offenses, rescue. Which of the following actions takes place in the offense of mode?
A. Search and rescue teams still take a charged hose line with them, but the line is only for their protection and that of those being rescued.
B. Sacrificing a building that is on fire to save others that are not burning.
C. Taking direct action to mitigate the problem, whatever that may be.
D. If the building is fully involved, and there are enough resources on scene, then the IC may decide that an offensive mode is possible.
C. Taking direct action to mitigate the problem, whatever that may be. (Offensive mode)
-----------------------------------------
A. Search and rescue teams still take a charged hose line with them, but the line is only for their protection and that of those being rescued. (Rescue mode)
B. Sacrificing a building that is on fire to save others that are not burning. (Defensive mode)
D. If the building is fully involved, and there are enough resources on scene, then the IC may decide that an offensive mode is possible. (Transitional attack mode)
524
In a still developing incident such as a working fire, the IC may be forced to use a defensive operational mode in the early stages because of resource limitations. But as additional resources arrived at the scene, it will be possible at some point to switch from a defensive to an offensive operational mode. This shift from defensive to offenses is referred to as:
A. Offensive mode
B. Defensive mode
C. Rescue mode
D. Transitional attack mode
D. Transitional attack mode
525
An example of a statutory law at the state level is:
A. Adoption of a particular edition of a fire code.
B. Laws that created OSHA.
C. Laws governing the formation of special districts for fire protection.
D. Laws that established speed limits on local streets and roads.
C. Laws governing the formation of special districts for fire protection. (State)
-----------------------------------------
A. Adoption of a particular edition of a fire code. (Local)
B. Laws that created OSHA. (Federal)
D. Laws that established speed limits on local streets and roads. (Local)
526
There are certain safety hazards common to any fire station. NFPA 1500 requires that fire stations be inspected for safety at least monthly. _____ are the most common injuries related to improper lifting techniques.
A. Back strains.
B. Bruises.
C. Back sprains.
D. Fractures.
A. Back strains.
527
_____ is represented by the following statement; "If the members of the group have their doubts about the groups continued existence, and their commitment to the group may diminish."
A. Common values.
B. Vital group image.
C. Common binding interest.
D. Sense of Continuity.
D. Sense of Continuity.
528
In their book The Managerial Grid, Blake and Mouton theorized that there are several basic types of leadership. Each of these types of leadership is based on the leaders concern (or lack thereof) for people and/or production. _____ Involves a high degree of concern for people, and a high concern for production. This type of leadership offers workers the luxury of working for a leader who is concerned about their needs and is willing to allow them to produce.
A. Single-issue leadership.
B. Bureaucratic leadership.
C. Middle-of-the-Road leadership.
D. Dual-issue leadership.
D. Dual-issue leadership.
529
Tennenbaum & Schmidt developed a simple diagram to depict leadership options that has become a classic in management / supervision theory. Called the "Continuum of Leadership Behavior", The diagram shows the variety of leader/subordinate relationships that can be used when trying to balance the leader's need for control against the subordinates need for autonomy. Company officers can apply this theory in a variety of ways. On the fire ground, where time is of the essence and orders must be followed without question, company officers operate towards the left end of the continuum where they simply _____ the firefighters what must be done to mitigate the emergency.
A. Tell. C. Consult.
B. Sell. D.Share/Join.
A. Tell.
530
We must recognize that basic fire department customer service delivery on the business end involves three major players: workers, bosses, and customers. While there are a lot of other people and places required to create the READY, GET SET, _____ can do the GO part of the organizational service delivery operation.
A. Workers.
B. Workers and bosses.
C. Bosses.
D. Workers and customers.
B. Workers and bosses.
531
Company officers usually collaborate with their peers when developing the budget requests for their station. There are a number of steps in the budget process. In the _____ step, the company officer is involved preparing estimates of the fees to be generated by the services provided by the department.
A. Preparation.
B. Internal review.
C. Planning.
D. External review.
C. Planning.
532
Critical incident stress can be very detrimental to both a firefighters professional life and personal life. A common delayed symptom of this stress is:
A. Denial situation.
B. Irritability.
C. Frustration.
D. Sense of hopelessness.
B. Irritability.
533
Decision-Making Models:
Two generally accepted decision-making models are taught in business management courses:
_____ - the leader gathers information and makes the decision based on the best possible alternative to the situation. This type of decision model is usually applied to the exceptional (nonprogrammed) decisions that have the potential for high risk or uncertain outcomes.
A. Bounded rationality model.
B. Classical model.
C. Participatory management style.
D. Basic leadership model.
B. Classical model.
aka Rational model
534
Decision-Making Models:
Two generally accepted decision-making models are taught in business management courses:
_____ - Allows the leader to select the decision that will satisfy the minimal requirements of the situation. This type of decision model is usually applied to generic (programmed) decisions that have certain outcomes.
A. Bounded rationality model.
B. Classical model.
C. Participatory management style.
D. Basic leadership model.
A. Bounded rationality model.
535
Decision-making is a daily activity for company officers and other members of the fire and emergency services. Two generally accepted decision-making models are taught in business management courses: rational model and bounded rationality model. The rational or "classical model" is described as:
A. An individual makes some of those decisions for personal reasons such as career advancement.
B. Usually applied to generic decisions that have certain outcomes.
C. Usually applied to exceptional decisions that have the potential for high risk or uncertain outcomes.
D. Decisions are group decisions made by members of the management staff or a project team.
C. Usually applied to exceptional decisions that have the potential for high risk or uncertain outcomes. (Rational/Classical model)
536
Decision-Making Models:
Decisions can be classified as one of two classifications:
_____ - Decisions that are routine or reoccurring are usually made based on existing standards, rules, regulations, procedures, or policies of an organization.
Example:
-Implementing the Incident Command System (ICS) at all emergency incidents.
A. Generic (programmed) decisions.
B. Exceptional (nonprogrammed) decisions.
C. Generic (programmed) problem classification.
D. Exceptional (nonprogrammed) problem classification.
A. Generic (programmed) decisions.
537
Classify the Problem:
Just like decisions, problems may be one of two classifications. In either case, sufficient information must be gathered to classify the problem.
_____ - One that is reoccurring and may even be a symptom of a larger problem. It can usually be solved through the application of a rule, policy, or principle.
Example:
-Increase in job-related back injuries.
A. Generic (programmed) decisions.
B. Exceptional (nonprogrammed) decisions.
C. Generic (programmed) problem classification.
D. Exceptional (nonprogrammed) problem classification.
C. Generic (programmed) problem classification.
538
Decision-Making Models:
Decisions can be classified as one of two classifications:
_____ - Decisions that involve a non-reoccurring, nonroutine, unique, and significant situation.
Example:
-Involving the emergency expenditure of funds to purchase a replacement apparatus when an existing unit is destroyed.
A. Generic (programmed) decisions.
B. Exceptional (nonprogrammed) decisions.
C. Generic (programmed) problem classification.
D. Exceptional (nonprogrammed) problem classification.
B. Exceptional (nonprogrammed) decisions.
539
Classify the Problem:
Just like decisions, problems may be one of two classifications. In either case, sufficient information must be gathered to classify the problem.
_____ (_____) problem classification - One that may only occur once. But it must be dealt with by a response that is particular to or customized for that problem.
Example:
-Chemical spill caused by a transport vehicle accident.
A. Generic (programmed) decisions.
B. Exceptional (nonprogrammed) decisions.
C. Generic (programmed) problem classification.
D. Exceptional (nonprogrammed) problem classification.
D. Exceptional (nonprogrammed) problem classification.
540
Decision-Making Models:
Generally, problems are based on the following three considerations... the exception is:
A. Whether decisions are generic (program) or exceptional (nonprogram).B. Conditions to which decisions are subject.
C. Choice of decision making models used to solve the problem.
D. Skill or experience level of subordinates.
D. Skill or experience level of subordinates. (FALSE)
541
Decision-Making Models:
The conditions that affect decisions are classified as: Certainty; Risk ; & Uncertainty. Which of the following defines Uncertainty?
A. Decisions have known results and require specific resources. Generic decisions usually involve this.
B. Decisions will have probable consequences, although there is the possibility of unknown outcomes. Exceptional decisions will have this.
C. Decisions have completely unknown consequences, usually because of a lack of information. Exceptional decisions will have both risk and this.
C. Decisions have completely unknown consequences, usually because of a lack of information. Exceptional decisions will have both risk and this. (Uncertainty)
________________________________
A. Decisions have known results and require specific resources. Generic decisions usually involve this. (Certainty)
B. Decisions will have probable consequences, although there is the possibility of unknown outcomes. Exceptional decisions will have this. (Risk)
542
Decision-Making Models:
Both rational and bounded rationality models can be applied when making an individual or group decision. The use of a group in the decision-making process is basic to the _____ that is part of democratic management. As the name implies, members of the unit are involved or participate in the process.
A. Bounded rationality model.
B. Classical model.
C. Participatory management style.
D. Basic leadership model.
C. Participatory management style.
543
Just as there is a formal speech communication process and specific characteristics for effective speakers, there is also a process for preparing a speech. Following a logical sequence in the preparation of an oral presentation helps to ensure the success of the speech. The first step is to select the subject, the second step is to determine the purpose, then the next step is:
A. Generate the main ideas.
B. Develop the central idea.
C. Gather supporting evidence.
D. Evaluate the speech.
A. Generate the main ideas.
-----------------------------------------
9 - Steps:
```
Step 1: Select the topic.
Step 2: Determine the purpose.
Step 3: Generate the main ideas.
Step 4: Develop the central idea.
Step 5: Gather supporting evidence.
Step 6: Organize the speech.
Step 7: Rehearse the speech.
Step 8: Deliver the speech.
Step 9: Evaluate the speech.
```
544
Using an outline format, arrange the central idea in the main ideas along with the supporting data. The speech can be organized into one of five basic formats. Once a format is selected, the material in the speech maybe further organized by using one of several strategies. The strategy described as "Place the most important information at the beginning of the body of text, which psychologically tells the listener that this information carries the greatest weight"... is known as:
A. Chronological.
B. Primacy.
C. Topical.
D. Recency.
B. Primacy.
545
Organize the Speech:
Using an outline format, arrange the central idea and main ideas along with the supporting data. The outline has the following three main parts: Introduction, Body, Conclusion. Which of the following explains "Conclusion":
A. Gets the attention of the audience and presents the central idea.
B. Develops the central idea and supports it with various analogies, stories, statistics, or opinions.
C. Summarizes the central idea, provides additional motivation, and requests action from the audience (in the case of the persuasive speech).
C. Summarizes the central idea, provides additional motivation, and requests action from the audience (in the case of the persuasive speech). (Conclusion)
________________________________
A. Gets the attention of the audience and presents the central idea. (Introduction)
B. Develops the central idea and supports it with various analogies, stories, statistics, or opinions. (Body)
546
Organize the Speech:
Using an outline format, arrange the central idea and main ideas along with the supporting data. The outline has the following three main parts: Introduction, Body, Conclusion. Which of the following explains "Body":
A. Gets the attention of the audience and presents the central idea.
B. Develops the central idea and supports it with various analogies, stories, statistics, or opinions.
C. Summarizes the central idea, provides additional motivation, and requests action from the audience (in the case of the persuasive speech).
B. Develops the central idea and supports it with various analogies, stories, statistics, or opinions. (Body)
________________________________
A. Gets the attention of the audience and presents the central idea. (Introduction)
C. Summarizes the central idea, provides additional motivation, and requests action from the audience (in the case of the persuasive speech). (Conclusion)
547
Organize the Speech:
Using an outline format, arrange the central idea and main ideas along with the supporting data. The outline has the following three main parts: Introduction, Body, Conclusion. Which of the following explains "Introduction":
A. Gets the attention of the audience and presents the central idea.
B. Develops the central idea and supports it with various analogies, stories, statistics, or opinions.
C. Summarizes the central idea, provides additional motivation, and requests action from the audience (in the case of the persuasive speech).
A. Gets the attention of the audience and presents the central idea. (Introduction)
________________________________
B. Develops the central idea and supports it with various analogies, stories, statistics, or opinions. (Body)
C. Summarizes the central idea, provides additional motivation, and requests action from the audience (in the case of the persuasive speech). (Conclusion)
548
Organize the Speech:
The speech can be organized into one of five basic formats: Which of the following defines the format "Spatial"?
A. Follows a timeline from start to finish, which is useful in presenting the development of a policy, program, or process.
B. Divides the central idea into even, natural divisions, which is useful in describing the functions of a section or branch of the organization.
C. Describes an area such as a training facility or anything that can be seen or touched. The main ideas flow from one structure or prop to another as though walking through the facility.
D. Describes a cause-and-effect relationship. For example, it may be arranged by first stating the effect (higher fire insurance premiums) and then the cause (increased response time). It may also be arranged by first showing the cause (lack of funding for fire services) and the effect (increased fire loss in the community).
E. States a problem followed by the solution (which is used in the persuasive speech). The order may be reversed to emphasize the problem.
C. Describes an area such as a training facility or anything that can be seen or touched. The main ideas flow from one structure or prop to another as though walking through the facility. (Spatial)
________________________________
A. Follows a timeline from start to finish, which is useful in presenting the development of a policy, program, or process. (Chronological)
B. Divides the central idea into even, natural divisions, which is useful in describing the functions of a section or branch of the organization. (Topical)
D. Describes a cause-and-effect relationship. For example, it may be arranged by first stating the effect (higher fire insurance premiums) and then the cause (increased response time). It may also be arranged by first showing the cause (lack of funding for fire services) and the effect (increased fire loss in the community). (Casual)
E. States a problem followed by the solution (which is used in the persuasive speech). The order may be reversed to emphasize the problem. (Problem/solution)
549
Organize the Speech:
The speech can be organized into one of five basic formats: Which of the following defines the format "Problem/solution"?
A. Follows a timeline from start to finish, which is useful in presenting the development of a policy, program, or process.
B. Divides the central idea into even, natural divisions, which is useful in describing the functions of a section or branch of the organization.
C. Describes an area such as a training facility or anything that can be seen or touched. The main ideas flow from one structure or prop to another as though walking through the facility.
D. Describes a cause-and-effect relationship. For example, it may be arranged by first stating the effect (higher fire insurance premiums) and then the cause (increased response time). It may also be arranged by first showing the cause (lack of funding for fire services) and the effect (increased fire loss in the community).
E. States a problem followed by the solution (which is used in the persuasive speech). The order may be reversed to emphasize the problem.
E. States a problem followed by the solution (which is used in the persuasive speech). The order may be reversed to emphasize the problem. (Problem/solution)
________________________________
A. Follows a timeline from start to finish, which is useful in presenting the development of a policy, program, or process. (Chronological)
B. Divides the central idea into even, natural divisions, which is useful in describing the functions of a section or branch of the organization. (Topical)
C. Describes an area such as a training facility or anything that can be seen or touched. The main ideas flow from one structure or prop to another as though walking through the facility. (Spatial)
D. Describes a cause-and-effect relationship. For example, it may be arranged by first stating the effect (higher fire insurance premiums) and then the cause (increased response time). It may also be arranged by first showing the cause (lack of funding for fire services) and the effect (increased fire loss in the community). (Casual)
550
Organize the Speech:
The speech can be organized into one of five basic formats: Which of the following defines the format "Causal"?
A. Follows a timeline from start to finish, which is useful in presenting the development of a policy, program, or process.
B. Divides the central idea into even, natural divisions, which is useful in describing the functions of a section or branch of the organization.
C. Describes an area such as a training facility or anything that can be seen or touched. The main ideas flow from one structure or prop to another as though walking through the facility.
D. Describes a cause-and-effect relationship. For example, it may be arranged by first stating the effect (higher fire insurance premiums) and then the cause (increased response time). It may also be arranged by first showing the cause (lack of funding for fire services) and the effect (increased fire loss in the community).
E. States a problem followed by the solution (which is used in the persuasive speech). The order may be reversed to emphasize the problem.
D. Describes a cause-and-effect relationship. For example, it may be arranged by first stating the effect (higher fire insurance premiums) and then the cause (increased response time). It may also be arranged by first showing the cause (lack of funding for fire services) and the effect (increased fire loss in the community). (Casual)
________________________________
A. Follows a timeline from start to finish, which is useful in presenting the development of a policy, program, or process. (Chronological)
B. Divides the central idea into even, natural divisions, which is useful in describing the functions of a section or branch of the organization. (Topical)
C. Describes an area such as a training facility or anything that can be seen or touched. The main ideas flow from one structure or prop to another as though walking through the facility. (Spatial)
E. States a problem followed by the solution (which is used in the persuasive speech). The order may be reversed to emphasize the problem. (Problem/solution)
551
Organize the Speech:
The speech can be organized into one of five basic formats: Which of the following defines the format "Chronological"?
A. Follows a timeline from start to finish, which is useful in presenting the development of a policy, program, or process.
B. Divides the central idea into even, natural divisions, which is useful in describing the functions of a section or branch of the organization.
C. Describes an area such as a training facility or anything that can be seen or touched. The main ideas flow from one structure or prop to another as though walking through the facility.
D. Describes a cause-and-effect relationship. For example, it may be arranged by first stating the effect (higher fire insurance premiums) and then the cause (increased response time). It may also be arranged by first showing the cause (lack of funding for fire services) and the effect (increased fire loss in the community).
E. States a problem followed by the solution (which is used in the persuasive speech). The order may be reversed to emphasize the problem.
A. Follows a timeline from start to finish, which is useful in presenting the development of a policy, program, or process. (Chronological)
________________________________
B. Divides the central idea into even, natural divisions, which is useful in describing the functions of a section or branch of the organization. (Topical)
C. Describes an area such as a training facility or anything that can be seen or touched. The main ideas flow from one structure or prop to another as though walking through the facility. (Spatial)
D. Describes a cause-and-effect relationship. For example, it may be arranged by first stating the effect (higher fire insurance premiums) and then the cause (increased response time). It may also be arranged by first showing the cause (lack of funding for fire services) and the effect (increased fire loss in the community). (Casual)
E. States a problem followed by the solution (which is used in the persuasive speech). The order may be reversed to emphasize the problem. (Problem/solution)
552
Organize the Speech:
The speech can be organized into one of five basic formats: Which of the following defines the format "Topical"?
A. Follows a timeline from start to finish, which is useful in presenting the development of a policy, program, or process.
B. Divides the central idea into even, natural divisions, which is useful in describing the functions of a section or branch of the organization.
C. Describes an area such as a training facility or anything that can be seen or touched. The main ideas flow from one structure or prop to another as though walking through the facility.
D. Describes a cause-and-effect relationship. For example, it may be arranged by first stating the effect (higher fire insurance premiums) and then the cause (increased response time). It may also be arranged by first showing the cause (lack of funding for fire services) and the effect (increased fire loss in the community).
E. States a problem followed by the solution (which is used in the persuasive speech). The order may be reversed to emphasize the problem.
B. Divides the central idea into even, natural divisions, which is useful in describing the functions of a section or branch of the organization. (Topical)
________________________________
A. Follows a timeline from start to finish, which is useful in presenting the development of a policy, program, or process. (Chronological)
C. Describes an area such as a training facility or anything that can be seen or touched. The main ideas flow from one structure or prop to another as though walking through the facility. (Spatial)
D. Describes a cause-and-effect relationship. For example, it may be arranged by first stating the effect (higher fire insurance premiums) and then the cause (increased response time). It may also be arranged by first showing the cause (lack of funding for fire services) and the effect (increased fire loss in the community). (Casual)
E. States a problem followed by the solution (which is used in the persuasive speech). The order may be reversed to emphasize the problem. (Problem/solution)
553
Organize the Speech:
Once a format is selected, the material in the speech maybe further organized by using one of the following strategies: Primacy, Recency, Complexity, Specificity, Soft-to-hard evidence. Which is described as: "Place the most important information at the beginning of the body text, which psychologically tells listen at this information carries the greatest weight."
```
A. Primacy.
B. Recency.
C. Complexity.
D. Specificity.
E. Soft-to-hard evidence.
```
A. Primacy.
554
Organize the Speech:
Once a format is selected, the material in the speech maybe further organized by using one of the following strategies: Primacy, Recency, Complexity, Specificity, Soft-to-hard evidence. Which is described as: "Place the most important information at the end of the body of text. By placing the information at the end, it is the last thing absorbed by members of the audience and remains fresh in their minds."
```
A. Primacy.
B. Recency.
C. Complexity.
D. Specificity.
E. Soft-to-hard evidence.
```
B. Recency.
555
Organize the Speech:
Once a format is selected, the material in the speech maybe further organized by using one of the following strategies: Primacy, Recency, Complexity, Specificity, Soft-to-hard evidence. Which is described as: "Move from the simple ideas or concepts to the more complex, which is useful when describing a process that requires a basic understanding of theories."
```
A. Primacy.
B. Recency.
C. Complexity.
D. Specificity.
E. Soft-to-hard evidence.
```
C. Complexity.
556
Organize the Speech:
Once a format is selected, the material in the speech maybe further organized by using one of the following strategies: Primacy, Recency, Complexity, Specificity, Soft-to-hard evidence. Which is described as: "Move from general to specific or specific to general, which may be used to relate statistics to individual members of the audience, such as first stating the national debt in dollars and relating it then to the amount that each member of the audience is responsible for."
```
A. Primacy.
B. Recency.
C. Complexity.
D. Specificity.
E. Soft-to-hard evidence.
```
D. Specificity.
557
Organize the Speech:
Once a format is selected, the material in the speech maybe further organized by using one of the following strategies: Primacy, Recency, Complexity, Specificity, Soft-to-hard evidence. Which is described as: "Move from opinions or inferences to facts and statistics; may take the form of a hypothetical situation that is supported then by specific figures."
```
A. Primacy.
B. Recency.
C. Complexity.
D. Specificity.
E. Soft-to-hard evidence.
```
E. Soft-to-hard evidence.
558
Company officers may be assigned the task of preparing press or news releases. When supplying the facts relating to an incident, company officers are in fact being interviewed; The following statement is TRUE regarding preparing a press release.
A. Write no more than 6-8 lines per paragraph.
B. Use flowery language and technical terms or jargon.
C. Use active voice.
D. Use the inverted pyramid style of organization by putting the least important facts first, and the most important ones last.
C. Use active voice. (True)
-----------------------------------------
A. Write no more than "6-8" lines per paragraph. (False - 4-5 lines)
B. "Use" flowery language and technical terms or jargon. (False - Avoid using)
D. Use the inverted pyramid style of organization by putting the "least" important facts first, and the "most" important ones last. (False - most important first, least important last)
559
In preparing a press release, use the following guidelines... the exception is:
A. Summarize the information in the first sentence by answering the questions who, what, when, where, and why. Information does not necessarily have to be in that order.
B. Use the inverted pyramid style of organization by putting the most important facts first and the least important ones last.
C. Limit sentence length to no more than 20 words.
D. Write no more than four or five lines per paragraph; one-sentence paragraphs are acceptable.
E. Use active voice.
F. Write clearly and concisely; avoid flowery language and technical terms or jargon.
G. Be sure that all direct quotes and paraphrased statements are properly attributed.
F. The content should be limited to the facts or opinions of the event or topic.
F. The content should be limited to the facts "or opinions" of the event or topic. (False)
560
If a reporter asks for a prepared press release on a particular event or topic, it can be submitted in one of two forms. Regardless of which form is used, the content should be limited to the facts of the event or topic and should be as simple straightforward as possible.
1) Narrative form - leaving it to the reporter to fill in the details; or
2) Outline form - as though it were a script.
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
D. #1 & #2 are false. (Opposite)
561
One problem that has been associated with Theory Z leadership is:
A. A leadership style that focuses on production.
B. Employees rarely remain with the company for life.
C. A resistance to change.
D. Supervisor makes the decisions.
C. A resistance to change.
562
The term used to describe common organizational structure in the fire and emergency services is scalar. The true scalar structure is well-suited for dealing with emergency situations for a number of reasons. Which of the following answer choices is one of these reasons:
A. Decisions are made from the intermediate level down.
B. Information is centralized for decision-making.
C. Group decisions have greater support than centralized decisions.
D. The subordinate sidesteps the immediate supervisor and takes a problem directly to an officer higher in the chain of command.
B. Information is centralized for decision-making.
563
The generally accepted basic classification of plans is based on the frequency with which they are used. Therefore, two broad categories can be established: standing plans and single use plans. Plans may also be categorized as strategic, operational / administrative, and contingency. Plan descriptions are as follows:
_____ - Develop policies, procedures, and rules that are used frequently. The creation of policies, procedures, and rules help to ensure a consistent and equal application of authority while defining responsibility within the organization. The company officer relies on the results of these plans to manage the day-to-day emergency and nonemergency activities of the unit.
```
A. Standing plans.
B. Single-use plans.
C. Strategic plans.
D. Operational/administrative plans.
E. Contingency plans.
```
A. Standing plans.
564
The generally accepted basic classification of plans is based on the frequency with which they are used. Therefore, two broad categories can be established: standing plans and single use plans. Plans may also be categorized as strategic, operational / administrative, and contingency. Plan descriptions are as follows:
_____ - Accomplish a specific objective such as the development of a program, project, or budget. These plans are usually intended to reach an objective within a short period of time. Company officers may be assigned the implementation of various types of these plans such as a voluntary home fire and life safety program.
```
A. Standing plans.
B. Single-use plans.
C. Strategic plans.
D. Operational/administrative plans.
E. Contingency plans.
```
B. Single-Use plans.
565
Which plan type is defined as:
_____ -Chart the course of the organization over an indefinite future that is divided into definite time components. The plan of times to take into account the external factors that will affect the organization such as changes in the economy, demographics, service requirements, hazards, and technology.
```
A. Standing plans.
B. Single-use plans.
C. Strategic plans.
D. Operational/administrative plans.
E. Contingency plans.
```
C. Strategic plans.
566
Which plan type is defined as:
_____ - Plans are based on trends and expectations of the future environment, but external factors are somewhat unpredictable and some on for seen events will occur.
```
A. Standing plans.
B. Single-use plans.
C. Strategic plans.
D. Operational/administrative plans.
E. Contingency plans.
```
C. Strategic plans.
567
Which plan type is defined as:
_____ -While relying on the best judgment of the planning committee based on analysis of available information, must be designed to be flexible and responsive to change.
```
A. Standing plans.
B. Single-use plans.
C. Strategic plans.
D. Operational/administrative plans.
E. Contingency plans.
```
C. Strategic plans.
568
Which plan type is defined as:
_____ -Must be communicated to members of all units, and those portions of the plans that are assigned to a particular unit must be implemented through the use of operational and administrative plans.
```
A. Standing plans.
B. Single-use plans.
C. Strategic plans.
D. Operational/administrative plans.
E. Contingency plans.
```
C. Strategic plans.
569
Which plan type is defined as:
_____ - Focus on how objectives will be accomplished as opposed to strategic plans that focus on what the organization will do. These plans are concerned with those factors that are within the control of the organization, objective, and fact based while strategic plans are subjective.
```
A. Standing plans.
B. Single-use plans.
C. Strategic plans.
D. Operational/administrative plans.
E. Contingency plans.
```
D. Operational/administrative plans.
570
Which plan type is defined as:
_____ - Create alternative plans that can be implemented in the event of uncontrollable circumstances. These plans attempts to prepare for the worst possible situation. Company officers should be aware of these plans for the most likely emergency situations that could occur.
For instance, in the case of a natural disaster interrupts the organization's communications system, company officers must be aware of alternative methods for communicating with other units or the dispatch/telecommunications center.
```
A. Standing plans.
B. Single-use plans.
C. Strategic plans.
D. Operational/administrative plans.
E. Contingency plans.
```
E. Contingency plans.
571
The generally accepted basic classification of plans is based on the frequency with which they are used. The plan described as: "Create alternative plans that can be implemented in the event of uncontrollable circumstances. These plans attempt to prepare for the worst possible situations." is known as:
A. Contingency plans.
B. Standing plans.
C. Single-Use plans.
D. Strategic plans.
A. Contingency plans.
572
Fire and life-safety program developers follow is structured and organized plan when creating programs. The planning process provides for systematic planning and action. Step known as _____ is described as: "Accomplishes two objectives, first it helps to identify the most significant local fire and life-safety problems and concerns. Second it helps to identify emerging issues such as the misuse of candles."
A. Evaluate. C. Identify.
B. Select. D. Implement.
C. Identify. (Step 1)
573
Which of the following activities takes place in the "warm zone"?
A. Vehicle extrication is performed.
B. Location of decontamination station.
C. Location of incident command post.
D. Staging area for personnel.
B. Location of decontamination station. (Warm zone)
-----------------------------------------
A. Vehicle extrication is performed. (Hot zone)
C. Location of incident command post. (Cold zone)
D. Staging area for personnel. (Cold zone)
574
All company officers will have some participation in interagency and intergovernmental relations. Knowledge of the existing agreements and the process that creates the agreements is important for all officers. The following statement is an example of: "The representatives prepare a list of these types of threats to their area and the specific targets that are at risk. They may also list the consequences that could occur in the event that one or more of these threats occurs."
```
A. Planning.
B. Training.
C. Implementing
D. Monitoring.
E. Evaluating.
F. Revising.
```
A. Planning.
575
All company officers will have some participation in interagency and intergovernmental relations. Knowledge of the existing agreements and the process that creates the agreements is important for all officers. The following statement is an example of: "Personnel from each agency must be trained in their responsibilities. First, each separate agency or organization communicates the agreement to its membership. Joint training exercises must be held after each agency or organization has trained and it's assigned tasks and is familiar with the NIMS/ICS that will be used at each type of emergency."
```
A. Planning.
B. Training.
C. Implementing
D. Monitoring.
E. Evaluating.
F. Revising.
```
B. Training.
576
All company officers will have some participation in interagency and intergovernmental relations. Knowledge of the existing agreements and the process that creates the agreements is important for all officers. The following statement is an example of: "The agreements will be implemented when conditions warrant. All fire officers within the organization must know their assigned duties in the event the agreement is implemented."
```
A. Planning.
B. Training.
C. Implementing
D. Monitoring.
E. Evaluating.
F. Revising.
```
C. Implementing.
577
All company officers will have some participation in interagency and intergovernmental relations. Knowledge of the existing agreements and the process that creates the agreements is important for all officers. The following statement is an example of: "Records are maintained on the planning process, the results of training scenarios and post-incident critiques, and on the strengths and weaknesses exhibited during the actual implementation of the agreement."
```
A. Planning.
B. Training.
C. Implementing
D. Monitoring.
E. Evaluating.
F. Revising.
```
D. Monitoring.
578
All company officers will have some participation in interagency and intergovernmental relations. Knowledge of the existing agreements and the process that creates the agreements is important for all officers. The following statement is an example of: "Periodic, usually annually, allows the participating agencies or organizations to report any changes in their needs or their resources. New hazards or facilities in the affected area, the reduction in personnel or equipment due to budget cuts, or the discovery of a new and potent threat will all require that the agreement be altered, augmented, or perhaps abandoned and replaced by different agreement. Information gathered from a post-incident critique may also point to the need to make changes in the agreement."
```
A. Planning.
B. Training.
C. Implementing
D. Monitoring.
E. Evaluating.
F. Revising.
```
E. Evaluating.
579
All company officers will have some participation in interagency and intergovernmental relations. Knowledge of the existing agreements and the process that creates the agreements is important for all officers. The following statement is an example of: "Will be similar to the planning phase. When the agreement will require that the planning committee made up of representatives of each agency or organization review the evaluation report and determine the appropriate action. By considering the strengths and weaknesses found in the evaluation, the committee can determine what changes must be made. Once the changes have been made, it must be approved by the participating organizations. The changes are then communicated to the personnel who use the agreement and training is provided to them."
```
A. Planning.
B. Training.
C. Implementing
D. Monitoring.
E. Evaluating.
F. Revising.
```
F. Revising.
580
The company officer should apply the situational leadership styles to the group process. The reader is reminded of the four-stage model developed by B.W. Tuckman for creating a cohesive team. The stage described as: "Employees are uncertain of their roles in the group in this initial stage. As relationships within the group grow, trust and respect developed, and the members began to see themselves as part of the group. This phase is critical within the team-development process and one in which the company officer can have a significant effect."
```
A. Forming stage.
B. Storming stage.
C. Norming stage.
D. Performing stage.
E. Adjourning stage.
```
A. Forming stage.
581
The company officer should apply the situational leadership styles to the group process. The reader is reminded of the four-stage model developed by B.W. Tuckman for creating a cohesive team. The stage described as: "Conflicts may result at this stage as members jockey for informational leadership or attempts to exert their own individual influence over the group. The most critical aspect of successful team development is to reduce the amount of time to group spends in this phase. The leader is supportive in the stage, actively listening to members and providing explanations for decisions."
```
A. Forming stage.
B. Storming stage.
C. Norming stage.
D. Performing stage.
E. Adjourning stage.
```
B. Storming stage.
582
The company officer should apply the situational leadership styles to the group process. The reader is reminded of the four-stage model developed by B.W. Tuckman for creating a cohesive team. The stage described as: "The group establishes its own sets of values that each member accepts and adheres to during this stage. The members become closer and more cohesive. The leader transitions into the role of team member, allowing leadership to be shared by the members."
```
A. Forming stage.
B. Storming stage.
C. Norming stage.
D. Performing stage.
E. Adjourning stage.
```
C. Norming stage.
583
The company officer should apply the situational leadership styles to the group process. The reader is reminded of the four-stage model developed by B.W. Tuckman for creating a cohesive team. The stage described as: "The supervisor works to maintain the team spirit as the group moves towards accomplishing objectives. At this point, the group is a true team with leadership shared by all members. The company officer must monitor progress in this area as well because team members can develop certain behaviors and attitudes that can work to destroy the team concept."
```
A. Forming stage.
B. Storming stage.
C. Norming stage.
D. Performing stage.
E. Adjourning stage.
```
D. Performing stage.
584
The company officer should apply the situational leadership styles to the group process. The reader is reminded of the four-stage model developed by B.W. Tuckman for creating a cohesive team. The stage described as: "Is the planned (and sometimes unplanned) termination of the group task. It includes the acknowledgment of the groups accomplishments in the participation of the individual members. Additionally, it is an opportunity to debrief the group members and determine if any changes in the process should be made. By bringing the process to a formal conclusion, the participants can feel satisfied by the results that have been achieved."
```
A. Forming stage.
B. Storming stage.
C. Norming stage.
D. Performing stage.
E. Adjourning stage.
```
E. Adjourning stage.
585
The company officer should apply the situational leadership styles to the group process. The reader is reminded of the four-stage model developed by B.W. Tuckman for creating a cohesive team. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the forming stage of the model?
A. As relationships within the group grow, trust and respect develop, and the members begin to see themselves as part of the group.
B. The leadership style is supportive at this stage, outlining the process and establishing the group structure.
C. The members become closer and more cohesive.
D. Company officer must monitor progress in this area as well because team members can develop certain behaviors and attitudes that can work to destroy the team concept.
E. It includes acknowledgment of the group's accomplishments and the participation of individual members. Additionally, it is an opportunity to debrief the group members and determine if any changes in the process should be made.
A. As relationships within the group grow, trust and respect develop, and the members begin to see themselves as part of the group. (Forming)
-----------------------------------------
B. The leadership style is supportive at this stage, outlining the process and establishing the group structure. (Storming)
C. The members become closer and more cohesive. (Norming)
D. Company officer must monitor progress in this area as well because team members can develop certain behaviors and attitudes that can work to destroy the team concept. (Performing)
E. It includes acknowledgment of the group's accomplishments and the participation of individual members. Additionally, it is an opportunity to debrief the group members and determine if any changes in the process should be made. (Adjourning)
586
Behavior Management:
Behavior management can be a difficult skill for a new company officer to master. It is, however, one of the most important skills for an officer to acquire and maintain. Company officers have a number of tools available to help manage the behavior of individual unit members:
_____ - The officer's expectations are stated positively and behavior limitations are set. May be used to establish boundaries and set expectations, or it may be used in the context of discipline and used to determine the cause of inappropriate behavior and establish a means of correcting it.
A. Providing peer assistance.
B. Mentoring.
C. Counseling.
D. Coaching.
C. Counseling.
587
Behavior Management:
Behavior management can be a difficult skill for a new company officer to master. It is, however, one of the most important skills for an officer to acquire and maintain. Company officers have a number of tools available to help manage the behavior of individual unit members:
_____ - The company officer guides the individual member through any new activities, reinforces corrective behaviors, and redirects incorrect behaviors.
A. Providing peer assistance.
B. Mentoring.
C. Counseling.
D. Coaching.
D. Coaching.
588
Behavior Management:
Behavior management can be a difficult skill for a new company officer to master. It is, however, one of the most important skills for an officer to acquire and maintain. Company officers have a number of tools available to help manage the behavior of individual unit members:
_____ - Assigning a more experienced member to work with the new member who is having difficulty becoming part of the group or learning the required duties.
A. Providing peer assistance.
B. Mentoring.
C. Counseling.
D. Coaching.
A. Providing peer assistance.
589
Behavior Management:
Behavior management can be a difficult skill for a new company officer to master. It is, however, one of the most important skills for an officer to acquire and maintain. Company officers have a number of tools available to help manage the behavior of individual unit members:
_____ - a supervisor or other superior acts as a trusted and friendly advisor or guide to the member who is new to a particular role.
A. Providing peer assistance.
B. Mentoring.
C. Counseling.
D. Coaching.
B. Mentoring.
590
Behavior management can be a difficult skill for a new company officer to master. It is, however, one of the most important skills for an officer to acquire and maintain. Company officers have a number of tools available to help manage the behavior of individual unit members. One of the ways to assist their subordinates in reaching their full potential is counseling. Counseling is:
A. A process that involves having members of the unit assist each other in learning teamwork or perfecting new skills.
B. A process that places a new subordinate under the guidance of a more experienced professional who acts as a tutor, guide, and motivator.
C. A process of giving motivational correction, positive reinforcement, and constructive feedback to subordinates in order to maintain and improve their performance.
D. A process to help individuals adjust to certain situations and a means of either reinforcing correct behavior or eliminating improper behavior.
D. A process to help individuals adjust to certain situations and a means of either reinforcing correct behavior or eliminating improper behavior. (Counseling)
-----------------------------------------
A. A process that involves having members of the unit assist each other in learning teamwork or perfecting new skills. (Providing peer assistance)
B. A process that places a new subordinate under the guidance of a more experienced professional who acts as a tutor, guide, and motivator. (Mentoring)
C. A process of giving motivational correction, positive reinforcement, and constructive feedback to subordinates in order to maintain and improve their performance. (Coaching)
591
Risk Control Techniques:
When the risks have been prioritized, it is time to apply risk control measures. Several approaches can be taken in risk control. _____ - is considered the best risk-control choice; Simply put, avoid the activity that creates the risk. In a fire and emergency service organization this approach frequently is impractical.
A. Risk avoidance.
B. Risk transfer.
C. Control measures.
A. Risk avoidance.
592
Risk Control Techniques:
When the risks have been prioritized, it is time to apply risk control measures. Several approaches can be taken in risk control.
_____ - including a policy prohibiting smoking by organization candidates when they are hired, thereby reducing the potential for long cancer and other smoking-related illnesses among members.
- or training in the use of safe-lifting techniques and/or safer equipment to prevent back injury risk
A. Risk avoidance.
B. Risk transfer.
C. Control measures.
A. Risk avoidance.
593
Risk Control Techniques:
When the risks have been prioritized, it is time to apply risk control measures. Several approaches can be taken in risk control.
_____ - Contracting the cleanup and disposal of hazardous waste to a private contractor who is trained and equipped to remove the waste and accepts the liability of the risks associated with those activities.
A. Risk avoidance.
B. Risk transfer.
C. Control measures.
B. Risk transfer.
594
Risk Control Techniques:
When the risks have been prioritized, it is time to apply risk control measures. Several approaches can be taken in risk control.
_____ - The purchase of insurance; While highly recommended to protect financial assets, does nothing to affect the likelihood or occurrence of risk.
A. Risk avoidance.
B. Risk transfer.
C. Control measures.
B. Risk transfer.
595
Risk Control Techniques:
When the risks have been prioritized, it is time to apply risk control measures. Several approaches can be taken in risk control.
_____ - (risk reduction) Is the most common method used for the management of risk. Includes safety, health, and wellness programs; Ongoing training and education programs; and well defined standard operating procedures or guidelines (SOP's/SOG's).
A. Risk avoidance.
B. Risk transfer.
C. Control measures.
C. Control measures.
596
Risk Control Techniques:
When the risks have been prioritized, it is time to apply risk control measures. Several approaches can be taken in risk control.
_____ - Includes use of accountability systems, use of full protective clothing, mandatory respiratory protection plans, training and education sessions, and health and wellness SOP/SOG's.
A. Risk avoidance.
B. Risk transfer.
C. Control measures.
C. Control measures.
597
When risks have been prioritized, it is time to apply risk control, including risk avoidance, risk transfer, and risk control measures. A risk control measures:
A. Include a policy prohibiting smoking by organization candidates when they are hired.
B. Safety, health, and wellness programs, ongoing training and education programs, and well-defined standard operating procedures or guidelines.
C. Contracting the cleanup and disposal of hazardous waste.
D. Purchase of insurance transfers financial risk only and does nothing to affect the likelihood or occurrence.
B. Safety, health, and wellness programs, ongoing training and education programs, and well-defined standard operating procedures or guidelines. (Control measures)
-----------------------------------------
A. Include a policy prohibiting smoking by organization candidates when they are hired. (Risk avoidance)
C. Contracting the cleanup and disposal of hazardous waste. (Risk transfer)
D. Purchase of insurance transfers financial risk only and does nothing to affect the likelihood or occurrence. (Risk transfer)
598
There are a number of state agencies which are involved in various aspects of fire protection. Which of the following statements is true regarding a state agency?
A. The fire marshal's office conducts fire and emergency services training and certification programs.
B. The fire commission may assist with arson investigations.
C. The Environmental Protection Agency, in addition to serving in inspection, enforcement, and training roles, personnel from these agencies often assist in the development of response plans and frequently deployed to incident sites to support local response efforts.
D. State police advised legislature on fire and life safety related legislation.
C. The Environmental Protection Agency, in addition to serving in inspection, enforcement, and training roles, personnel from these agencies often assist in the development of response plans and frequently deployed to incident sites to support local response efforts. (TRUE)
-----------------------------------------
A. "The fire marshal's office" conducts fire and emergency services training and certification programs. (FALSE - The Fire Commission)
B. "The fire commission" may assist with arson investigations. (FALSE - State Police)
D. "State police" advised legislature on fire and life safety related legislation. (FALSE - Fire Marshal)
599
Budget-Development Process:
In general, six steps are involved in the budget process.
Budget _____ - Those responsible for preparing the organization's budget request must begin preparing a budget request proposal including budget requests, funding request, and justification.
```
A. Planning.
B. Preparation.
C. Implementation.
D. Monitoring.
E. Evaluating.
F. Revising.
```
B. Budget Preparation.
600
Budget-Development Process:
In general, six steps are involved in the budget process.
Budget _____ -Once the budget has been approved, management now have the funds with which to turn the vision reflected in the budget into reality.
-Company officers should take this opportunity to meet with subordinates to review the budget and explain what it means to the project and organization's operation.
```
A. Planning.
B. Preparation.
C. Implementation.
D. Monitoring.
E. Evaluating.
F. Revising.
```
C. Budget Implementation.
601
Budget-Development Process:
In general, six steps are involved in the budget process.
Budget _____ - The budget process does not end with the implementation of the budget. It must be "____" to determine its effectiveness and prevent a budgetary crisis in the event of a change in economic environment.
```
A. Planning.
B. Preparation.
C. Implementation.
D. Monitoring.
E. Evaluating.
F. Revising.
```
D. Budget Monitoring.
602
Budget-Development Process:
In general, six steps are involved in the budget process.
Budget _____ - Applied to the purchase of materials, can be as simple as determining that the proper amount and quality of materials are available in a reasonable amount of time.
-When it is applied to programs and performance, it requires a cost/benefit analysis that compares the total effort necessary to produce desired results. The results can be used to justify program changes, additional funding for the program, or elimination of programs that are deemed cost-prohibitive.
```
A. Planning.
B. Preparation.
C. Implementation.
D. Monitoring.
E. Evaluating.
F. Revising.
```
E. Budget Evaluations.
603
Budget-Development Process:
```
In general, six steps are involved in the budget process.
Budget _____ - There is always the possibility that a budget will have to be changed during the budget cycle. Causes may include the following:
-Decrease in revenue
-Increase in operating costs
-Budget underestimated actual costs
-Increase in service requirements
-Change in labor/management agreement
-Unforeseen or catastrophic occurrence
```
```
A. Planning.
B. Preparation.
C. Implementation.
D. Monitoring.
E. Evaluating.
F. Revising.
```
F. Budget Revisions.
604
The behavioral theory of leadership was developed in the 1940s and includes several styles in theory's. The _____ was developed in the 1950s and is based on the belief that there is no single best leadership style. Application of this theory requires that the situation be matched to the leadership style.
A. Theory Z.
B. Contingency leadership.
C. Theory Y.
D. Laissez-faire leadership style.
B. Contingency leadership.
605
Theories:
_____ - this theory of leadership was developed in the 1940s and include several styles of theories, including, among others, the following: Basic leadership style; Two-dimensional leadership styles; Contingency leadership theory; Contemporary leadership styles; Theory X; Theory Y; Theory Z
A. Behavioral leadership theory.
B. Leadership continuum theory.
C. Path-goal theory.
D. Results based theory.
A. Behavioral leadership theory.
606
The "behavioral theory of leadership" was developed in the 1940s and and includes several styles and theories, including, among others, the following:
_____ - Includes autocratic, democratic, and laissez-faire categories.
```
A. Basic leadership style.
B. Two-dimensional leadership styles.
C. Contingency leadership theory.
D. Contemporary leadership styles.
E. Theory X.
F. Theory Y.
G.Theory Z.
```
A. Basic leadership style.
607
The "behavioral theory of leadership" was developed in the 1940s and and includes several styles and theories, including, among others, the following:
_____ - Includes job-centered and employee-centered models.
```
A. Basic leadership style.
B. Two-dimensional leadership styles.
C. Contingency leadership theory.
D. Contemporary leadership styles.
E. Theory X.
F. Theory Y.
G.Theory Z.
```
B. Two-dimensional leadership styles.
608
The "behavioral theory of leadership" was developed in the 1940s and and includes several styles and theories, including, among others, the following:
_____ - Believes that no single best style exists.
```
A. Basic leadership style.
B. Two-dimensional leadership styles.
C. Contingency leadership theory.
D. Contemporary leadership styles.
E. Theory X.
F. Theory Y.
G.Theory Z.
```
C. Contingency leadership theory.
609
The "behavioral theory of leadership" was developed in the 1940s and and includes several styles and theories, including, among others, the following:
_____ - Includes charismatic, transformational, transactional, and symbolic theories.
```
A. Basic leadership style.
B. Two-dimensional leadership styles.
C. Contingency leadership theory.
D. Contemporary leadership styles.
E. Theory X.
F. Theory Y.
G.Theory Z.
```
D. Contemporary leadership styles.
610
The "behavioral theory of leadership" was developed in the 1940s and and includes several styles and theories, including, among others, the following:
_____ - Bases theory on the average worker disliking work.
```
A. Basic leadership style.
B. Two-dimensional leadership styles.
C. Contingency leadership theory.
D. Contemporary leadership styles.
E. Theory X.
F. Theory Y.
G.Theory Z.
```
E. Theory X.
611
The "behavioral theory of leadership" was developed in the 1940s and and includes several styles and theories, including, among others, the following:
_____ - Bases theory on the average worker believing work in natural.
```
A. Basic leadership style.
B. Two-dimensional leadership styles.
C. Contingency leadership theory.
D. Contemporary leadership styles.
E. Theory X.
F. Theory Y.
G.Theory Z.
```
F. Theory Y.
612
The "behavioral theory of leadership" was developed in the 1940s and and includes several styles and theories, including, among others, the following:
_____ - Bases theory on involved workers performing without supervision.
```
A. Basic leadership style.
B. Two-dimensional leadership styles.
C. Contingency leadership theory.
D. Contemporary leadership styles.
E. Theory X.
F. Theory Y.
G.Theory Z.
```
G.Theory Z.
613
Leadership Definitions:
The terms "leading", "supervising", and "managing" are used to describe various approaches to the duties assigned to company officers.
_____ - Act of directing, overseeing, or controlling the activities and behavior of employees who are signed to a particular supervisor.
Supervising
614
Leadership Definitions:
The terms "leading", "supervising", and "managing" are used to describe various approaches to the duties assigned to company officers.
_____ - Act of controlling, monitoring, or directing a project, program, situation, or organization through the use of authority, discipline, or persuasion.
Managing
615
Leadership Definitions:
The terms "leading", "supervising", and "managing" are used to describe various approaches to the duties assigned to company officers.
_____ - Act of controlling, directing, conducting, guiding, and administering through the use of personal behavioral traits or personality characteristics that motivate employees to the successful completion of an organization's goals.
Leading
616
There are a number of generally accepted decision-making models taught in business management courses. The _____ allows the leader to select the decision that will satisfy the minimal requirements of the situation. This is usually applied to generic decisions that have certain outcomes.
A. Bounded rationality model.
B. Classical model.
C. Rationale model.
D. Contingency model.
A. Bounded rationality model.
617
Transitional words usually come at the end of one paragraph and then at the beginning of the next paragraph. Some common transitions used at the end of a paragraph to indicate summation include:
```
A. On the contrary.
B. On the whole.
C. In other words.
D. Consequently.
E. In particular.
```
B. On the whole. (Similarity)
-----------------------------------------
A. On the contrary. (Contrast or qualification)
C. In other words. (Continuity)
D. Consequently. (Cause and effect)
E. In particular. (Exemplification)
618
Paragraph Transitions:
Transitional words usually come at the end of one paragraph and then at the beginning of the next paragraph. Some common transitions used at the end of a paragraph to indicate "summation" include... the exception is:
A. After all, all in all, & all things considered.
B. Briefly & by and large.
C. Finally.
D. For example, for instance, in fact
E. In any case, in any event, in brief, in conclusion, in short, in summary, in the final analysis, & in the long run.
F. On balance & on the whole.
G. To sum up & to summarize.
D. For example, for instance, in fact (FALSE - Indicates exemplification)
619
Paragraph Transitions:
Transitional words usually come at the end of one paragraph and then at the beginning of the next paragraph. Some common transitions that may be used at the start of a paragraph to "Show contrast or qualification" include the following... the exception is:
```
A. On the contrary
B. However
C. In contrast
D. Still, yet, but
E. Contrarily, notwithstanding
F. Consequently
G. Nevertheless, in spite of
H. On one hand, on the other hand
I. Rather, or, not
J. Conversely
K. At the same time
L. While this may be true
```
F. Consequently (FALSE - shows cause and effect)
620
Paragraph Transitions:
Transitional words usually come at the end of one paragraph and then at the beginning of the next paragraph. Some common transitions that may be used at the start of a paragraph to "Indicate continuity" include the following... the exception is:
A. Besides, furthermore, in other words
B. Next, similarity, at first, first of all, to begin with
C. In the first place, at the same time, for now, for the time being
D. On the whole
E. The next step, in time, in turn, later on
F. Meanwhile, then, seeing, in the meantime
G. Later, while, earlier
H. Simultaneously, afterwards
D. On the whole (FALSE - indicates summation)
621
Paragraph Transitions:
Transitional words usually come at the end of one paragraph and then at the beginning of the next paragraph. Some common transitions that may be used at the start of a paragraph to "Show cause and effect" include the following... the exception is:
```
A. Thus, consequently, as a result
B. For this reason, so that, with the result that
C. Hence, accordingly, therefore
D. So, because, since, due to
E. In other words, then
F. On the contrary, however, in contrast
```
F. On the contrary, however, in contrast (FALSE - Shows contrast or qualification)
622
Paragraph Transitions:
Transitional words usually come at the end of one paragraph and then at the beginning of the next paragraph. Some common transitions that may be used at the start of a paragraph to "Indicate exemplification" include the following... the exception is:
A. Besides, furthermore, in other words
B. For example, for instance, in fact
C. To illustrate, namely, in other words
D. In particular, specifically, such as
A. Besides, furthermore, in other words (FALSE - Indicate continuity)
623
Line and staff are terms that refer to traditional organizational concepts that separate fire and emergency services personnel into two distinct groups. A typical line function is:
A. Training.
B. Logistics.
C. Emergency medical services (EMS).
D. Personnel administration.
C. Emergency medical services (EMS).
624
Line and Staff Personnel:
_____ - Those who deliver services to the public or external customers.
Line personnel
625
Line and Staff Personnel:
_____ - Those who provide support to the line personnel or internal customers.
Staff personnel
626
Line and Staff Personnel:
Typical functions of line personnel include... the exception is:
```
A. Fire suppression.
B. Emergency medical services (EMS).
C. Inspections.
D. Training.
E. Education.
F. Investigations.
```
D. Training. (FALSE - Staff personnel)
627
Line and Staff Personnel:
Typical functions of staff personnel include... the exception is:
A. Training.
B. Logistics.
C. Education.
D. Personnel administration.
C. Education. (FALSE - Line personnel)
628
Instructors use the four step method of instruction to develop lesson plans and as a process for teaching lessons and courses. The step described as: "Establish lesson relevancy to the job by introducing the topic, gaining the students' attention, and stating the learning objective" is known as:
A. Preparation.
B. Presentation.
C. Application.
D. Evaluation.
A. Preparation.
629
While there are many ways to enhance and organization's public image, the means most often used by fire and emergency service organizations is public fire and life-safety education. Three of the most effective means of providing fire and life-safety information and enhancing the organization's image through public education are "group presentations", "media programs", and "direct assistance". Example of direct assistance is:
A. Civic groups, service clubs, neighborhood associations, and other organizations are often looking for speakers to address their meetings, and these engagements can provide the company officer with numerous opportunities to make fire and life-safety presentation.
B. This may involve replacing a battery in a smoke detector, recommending the size and type of fire extinguisher for an occupancy, or referring a citizen to an appropriate agency for aid.
C. From a public-relations standpoint, it may be more important that these presentations be made by public-education specialists within the organization in order to maintain consistency in the message.
D. Live and/or prerecorded fire and life-safety messages delivered by fire and emergency services personnel through the various news media should be used frequently to increase public awareness while enhancing the organization's public image.
B. This may involve replacing a battery in a smoke detector, recommending the size and type of fire extinguisher for an occupancy, or referring a citizen to an appropriate agency for aid. (Direct assistance)
-----------------------------------------
A. Civic groups, service clubs, neighborhood associations, and other organizations are often looking for speakers to address their meetings, and these engagements can provide the company officer with numerous opportunities to make fire and life-safety presentation. (Group presentations)
C. From a public-relations standpoint, it may be more important that these presentations be made by public-education specialists within the organization in order to maintain consistency in the message. (Group presentations)
D. Live and/or prerecorded fire and life-safety messages delivered by fire and emergency services personnel through the various news media should be used frequently to increase public awareness while enhancing the organization's public image. (News media programs)
630
When conflict occurs, it is best to resolve it as soon as possible. The longer the company officer waits to confront a problem, the greater the effort that will be required to find a solution. The first step in conflict resolution is to classify/identify the problem. The second step is to:
A. Determine the right response/appropriate conflict management style.
B. List alternative options.
C. Convert the decision into action.
D. Define/diagnose the problem.
D. Define/diagnose the problem.
| -----------------------------------------
631
Conflict Resolution Steps: (6)
Five of the six steps of conflict resolution are as follows... what is the sixth step:
STEP 1: Classify/identify the problem
STEP 2: Define/diagnose the problem
STEP 3: List alternative options
STEP 4: Determine the right response/appropriate conflict management style
STEP 5: Convert the decision to an action
STEP 6: ________________________
STEP 6: Test the action against the desired outcome
632
Layman Decision-Making Model: (RECEO-VS)
_____ - Identifies the life-safety aspect of emergency incident priorities
Rescue
633
Layman Decision-Making Model: (RECEO-VS)
_____ - Describes the need to limit an emergency incident to the property or area of origin
Exposures
634
Layman Decision-Making Model: (RECEO-VS)
_____ - Describes the need to confine an emergency incident to the smallest possible area within the property of origin
Confinement
635
Layman Decision-Making Model: (RECEO-VS)
_____ - Describes the activities needed to resolve an emergency incident
Extinguishment
636
Layman Decision-Making Model: (RECEO-VS)
_____ - Describes activities that restore an incident scene to a condition that is as nearly normal as possible
Overhaul
637
Layman Decision-Making Model: (RECEO-VS)
_____ - Describes activities that control or modify the environment
Ventilation
638
Layman Decision-Making Model: (RECEO-VS)
_____ - Describes all actions taken to protect structures and contents from preventable damage
Salvage
639
The general purpose of presenting a report is to provide information. Reports may be presented internally when the status of a project or program must be reported to the administration or to various committees for management teams. One step that results in successful reports is:
A. Do not explain how the information that the report is based upon was gathered.
B. Anticipate questions that might arise.
C. Do not provide a written copy of the report to the audience.
D. Tell the general benefits for and effects on the audience.
B. Anticipate questions that might arise. (TRUE)
-----------------------------------------
A. Do "not" explain how the information that the report is based upon was gathered. (FALSE)
C. Do "not" provide a written copy of the report to the audience. (FALSE)
D. Tell the "general" benefits for and effects on the audience. (FALSE - Specific)
640
Report Presentations:
Generally, steps that result in successful reports are as follows (6 steps)... the exception is:
A. STEP 1 - Make an immediate statement of purpose
B. STEP 2 - Explain how the information that the report is based upon was gathered
C. STEP 3 - Present possible solutions to the situation
D. STEP 4 - Tell the "specific" benefits for and effects on the audience
E. STEP 5 - Anticipate any objections or questions that might arise
F. STEP 6 - Do not provide a written copy of the report to the audience
F. STEP 6 - "Do not" provide a written copy of the report to the audience (FALSE - Provide one)
641
Contract Content:
Labor unions and the fire and emergency services organization regularly enter into negotiations to establish contracts between the two. Labor/management agreements usually have a number of sections that address the five areas: "Routine clauses" can be defined as:
A. Constitutional items such as the preamble and purpose of the agreement, terms covered by the agreement, reopening conditions and amendments.
B. Items that describe the bargaining unit that the agreement covers; list the steps by which a labor union is recognized as an employee representative.
C. Items that recognize that management has the right to decide matters that the agreement does not address.
D. Items regarding discipline, termination, and the process for filing a grievance.
E. Areas such as wages, salaries, and fringe benefits; hours, holidays, vacations, and sick leaves; apprenticeships and training practices; hiring and firing policies; safety issues; and strikes and lockouts.
A. Constitutional items such as the preamble and purpose of the agreement, terms covered by the agreement, reopening conditions and amendments. (Routine clauses)
________________________________
B. Items that describe the bargaining unit that the agreement covers; list the steps by which a labor union is recognized as an employee representative. (Clauses affecting labor union security)
C. Items that recognize that management has the right to decide matters that the agreement does not address. (Clauses describing the rights and prerogatives of management)
D. Items regarding discipline, termination, and the process for filing a grievance. (Sections that describe how the department/ organization will handle employee grievances)
E. Areas such as wages, salaries, and fringe benefits; hours, holidays, vacations, and sick leaves; apprenticeships and training practices; hiring and firing policies; safety issues; and strikes and lockouts. (Sections that list the conditions of employment)
642
Contract Content:
Labor unions and the fire and emergency services organization regularly enter into negotiations to establish contracts between the two. Labor/management agreements usually have a number of sections that address the five areas: "Clauses describing the rights and prerogatives of management" can be defined as:
A. Constitutional items such as the preamble and purpose of the agreement, terms covered by the agreement, reopening conditions and amendments.
B. Items that describe the bargaining unit that the agreement covers; list the steps by which a labor union is recognized as an employee representative.
C. Items that recognize that management has the right to decide matters that the agreement does not address.
D. Items regarding discipline, termination, and the process for filing a grievance.
E. Areas such as wages, salaries, and fringe benefits; hours, holidays, vacations, and sick leaves; apprenticeships and training practices; hiring and firing policies; safety issues; and strikes and lockouts.
C. Items that recognize that management has the right to decide matters that the agreement does not address. (Clauses describing the rights and prerogatives of management)
________________________________
A. Constitutional items such as the preamble and purpose of the agreement, terms covered by the agreement, reopening conditions and amendments. (Routine clauses)
B. Items that describe the bargaining unit that the agreement covers; list the steps by which a labor union is recognized as an employee representative. (Clauses affecting labor union security)
D. Items regarding discipline, termination, and the process for filing a grievance. (Sections that describe how the department/ organization will handle employee grievances)
E. Areas such as wages, salaries, and fringe benefits; hours, holidays, vacations, and sick leaves; apprenticeships and training practices; hiring and firing policies; safety issues; and strikes and lockouts. (Sections that list the conditions of employment)
643
Contract Content:
Labor unions and the fire and emergency services organization regularly enter into negotiations to establish contracts between the two. Labor/management agreements usually have a number of sections that address the five areas: "Sections that list the conditions of employment" can be defined as:
A. Constitutional items such as the preamble and purpose of the agreement, terms covered by the agreement, reopening conditions and amendments.
B. Items that describe the bargaining unit that the agreement covers; list the steps by which a labor union is recognized as an employee representative.
C. Items that recognize that management has the right to decide matters that the agreement does not address.
D. Items regarding discipline, termination, and the process for filing a grievance.
E. Areas such as wages, salaries, and fringe benefits; hours, holidays, vacations, and sick leaves; apprenticeships and training practices; hiring and firing policies; safety issues; and strikes and lockouts.
E. Areas such as wages, salaries, and fringe benefits; hours, holidays, vacations, and sick leaves; apprenticeships and training practices; hiring and firing policies; safety issues; and strikes and lockouts. (Sections that list the conditions of employment)
________________________________
A. Constitutional items such as the preamble and purpose of the agreement, terms covered by the agreement, reopening conditions and amendments. (Routine clauses)
B. Items that describe the bargaining unit that the agreement covers; list the steps by which a labor union is recognized as an employee representative. (Clauses affecting labor union security)
C. Items that recognize that management has the right to decide matters that the agreement does not address. (Clauses describing the rights and prerogatives of management)
D. Items regarding discipline, termination, and the process for filing a grievance. (Sections that describe how the department/ organization will handle employee grievances)
644
Contract Content:
Labor unions and the fire and emergency services organization regularly enter into negotiations to establish contracts between the two. Labor/management agreements usually have a number of sections that address the five areas: "Sections that describe how the department/organization will handle employee grievances" can be defined as:
A. Constitutional items such as the preamble and purpose of the agreement, terms covered by the agreement, reopening conditions and amendments.
B. Items that describe the bargaining unit that the agreement covers; list the steps by which a labor union is recognized as an employee representative.
C. Items that recognize that management has the right to decide matters that the agreement does not address.
D. Items regarding discipline, termination, and the process for filing a grievance.
E. Areas such as wages, salaries, and fringe benefits; hours, holidays, vacations, and sick leaves; apprenticeships and training practices; hiring and firing policies; safety issues; and strikes and lockouts.
D. Items regarding discipline, termination, and the process for filing a grievance. (Sections that describe how the department/ organization will handle employee grievances)
________________________________
A. Constitutional items such as the preamble and purpose of the agreement, terms covered by the agreement, reopening conditions and amendments. (Routine clauses)
B. Items that describe the bargaining unit that the agreement covers; list the steps by which a labor union is recognized as an employee representative. (Clauses affecting labor union security)
C. Items that recognize that management has the right to decide matters that the agreement does not address. (Clauses describing the rights and prerogatives of management)
E. Areas such as wages, salaries, and fringe benefits; hours, holidays, vacations, and sick leaves; apprenticeships and training practices; hiring and firing policies; safety issues; and strikes and lockouts. (Sections that list the conditions of employment)
645
Contract Content:
Labor unions and the fire and emergency services organization regularly enter into negotiations to establish contracts between the two. Labor/management agreements usually have a number of sections that address the five areas: "Clauses affecting labor union security" can be defined as:
A. Constitutional items such as the preamble and purpose of the agreement, terms covered by the agreement, reopening conditions and amendments.
B. Items that describe the bargaining unit that the agreement covers; list the steps by which a labor union is recognized as an employee representative.
C. Items that recognize that management has the right to decide matters that the agreement does not address.
D. Items regarding discipline, termination, and the process for filing a grievance.
E. Areas such as wages, salaries, and fringe benefits; hours, holidays, vacations, and sick leaves; apprenticeships and training practices; hiring and firing policies; safety issues; and strikes and lockouts.
B. Items that describe the bargaining unit that the agreement covers; list the steps by which a labor union is recognized as an employee representative. (Clauses affecting labor union security)
________________________________
A. Constitutional items such as the preamble and purpose of the agreement, terms covered by the agreement, reopening conditions and amendments. (Routine clauses)
C. Items that recognize that management has the right to decide matters that the agreement does not address. (Clauses describing the rights and prerogatives of management)
D. Items regarding discipline, termination, and the process for filing a grievance. (Sections that describe how the department/ organization will handle employee grievances)
E. Areas such as wages, salaries, and fringe benefits; hours, holidays, vacations, and sick leaves; apprenticeships and training practices; hiring and firing policies; safety issues; and strikes and lockouts. (Sections that list the conditions of employment)
646
The state _____ has a role in providing fire and emergency services organizations with usable thoroughfares to support emergency response and to accommodate the required apparatus.
A. Department of Transportation.
B. Environmental Protection Agency.
C. Highway department.
D. State police.
C. Highway department.
647
Behavior management can be a difficult skill for a new company officer to master. It is, however, one of the most important skills for a company officer to acquire and maintain. Company offers have a number of tools available to help manage the behavior of individual unit members. The tool described as: "Designed to help individuals adjust to certain situations and a means of either reinforcing correct behavior or eliminating improper behavior. Involves resolving behavior issues through such actions as giving advice, having discussions, recommending career path choices, and providing professional development opportunities."
A. Counseling.
B. Coaching.
C. Providing peer assistance.
D. Mentoring.
A. Counseling.
648
Behavior management can be a difficult skill for a new company officer to master. It is, however, one of the most important skills for a company officer to acquire and maintain. Company offers have a number of tools available to help manage the behavior of individual unit members. The tool described as: "An intensive process of directing the skills performance of an individual. For the company officer, it is the process of giving motivational correction, positive reinforcement, and constructive feedback to subordinates in order to maintain and improve their performance. To be effective, the feedback needs to be positive, immediate, direct, and frequent."
A. Counseling.
B. Coaching.
C. Providing peer assistance.
D. Mentoring.
B. Coaching.
649
Behavior management can be a difficult skill for a new company officer to master. It is, however, one of the most important skills for a company officer to acquire and maintain. Company offers have a number of tools available to help manage the behavior of individual unit members. The tool described as: "A process that involves having members of a union assist each other and learning teamwork or perfecting new skills. Some subordinates, in particular
Members, are intimidated or free to perform in front of the company officer until they feel confident in their abilities."
A. Counseling.
B. Coaching.
C. Providing peer assistance.
D. Mentoring.
C. Providing peer assistance.
650
Behavior management can be a difficult skill for a new company officer to master. It is, however, one of the most important skills for a company officer to acquire and maintain. Company offers have a number of tools available to help manage the behavior of individual unit members. The tool described as: "A process that places a new subordinate under the guidance of a more experienced professional who acts as tutor, guide, and motivator."
A. Counseling.
B. Coaching.
C. Providing peer assistance.
D. Mentoring.
D. Mentoring.
651
In general, two types of budgets are used by public organizations: capital budgets and operating budgets. The largest single item in the operating budget of most career organizations is:
A. Fire apparatus.
B. Hose.
C. Salaries and benefits.
D. Self-contained breathing apparatus.
C. Salaries and benefits.
652
When a trend appears that indicates that an account lacks sufficient funds to last the remainder of the fiscal year, the officer will have to determine the best option to address the problem. The preferred option is to:
A. Restrict further purchases from the account to an amount that can be evenly spread over the remainder of the year.
B. Request a budget adjustment from the jurisdiction.
C. Do nothing while continuing to monitor the account until it is empty or the trend ceases.
D. Transfer funds from an underutilized account while maintaining a balanced total in the budget.
D. Transfer funds from an underutilized account while maintaining a balanced total in the budget. (Best option)
-----------------------------------------
A. Restrict further purchases from the account to an amount that can be evenly spread over the remainder of the year. (2nd best option)
B. Request a budget adjustment from the jurisdiction. (3rd best option)
C. Do nothing while continuing to monitor the account until it is empty or the trend ceases. (Worst option)
653
Data Collection:
The Post Incident Analysis (PIA) is a critical and objective assessment of the emergency incident based on all available information sources. The source that is described as "Provides background information on the structure, facility, or occupancy (if available)." is known as:
```
A. Site plan.
B. Preincident survey or fire and life safety inspection report.
C. Size up.
D. Command and general staff records.
E. Incident Action Plan (IAP).
F. Outside agency reports.
G. Interviews.
H. Incident safety plan.
I. Personal accountability system.
J. Weather reports.
K. Communication records.
L. Miscellaneous reports.
```
B. Preincident survey or fire and life safety inspection report.
( *** Practice Exam Question *** )
654
Data Collection:
The Post Incident Analysis (PIA) is a critical and objective assessment of the emergency incident based on all available information sources. The source that is described as "Provides information on the structure, facility, occupancy, or location based on the impressions of the first-arriving company officer and crew." is known as:
```
A. Site plan.
B. Preincident survey or fire and life safety inspection report.
C. Size up.
D. Command and general staff records.
E. Incident Action Plan (IAP).
F. Outside agency reports.
G. Interviews.
H. Incident safety plan.
I. Personal accountability system.
J. Weather reports.
K. Communication records.
L. Miscellaneous reports.
```
C. Size-up
| *** Practice Exam Question ***
655
Data Collection:
The Post Incident Analysis (PIA) is a critical and objective assessment of the emergency incident based on all available information sources. The source that is described as "Provides information on the actions that were taken to mitigate the incident. These actions may or may not have actually occurred." is known as:
```
A. Site plan.
B. Preincident survey or fire and life safety inspection report.
C. Size up.
D. Command and general staff records.
E. Incident Action Plan (IAP).
F. Outside agency reports.
G. Interviews.
H. Incident safety plan.
I. Personal accountability system.
J. Weather reports.
K. Communication records.
L. Miscellaneous reports.
```
E. Incident Action Plan (IAP).
656
Data Collection:
The Post Incident Analysis (PIA) is a critical and objective assessment of the emergency incident based on all available information sources. The source that is described as "Provide a detailed view of the activities of each of the ICS functions during the incident." is known as:
```
A. Site plan.
B. Preincident survey or fire and life safety inspection report.
C. Size up.
D. Command and general staff records.
E. Incident Action Plan (IAP).
F. Outside agency reports.
G. Interviews.
H. Incident safety plan.
I. Personal accountability system.
J. Weather reports.
K. Communication records.
L. Miscellaneous reports.
```
D. Command and general staff records.
| *** Practice Exam Question ***
657
Data Collection:
The Post Incident Analysis (PIA) is a critical and objective assessment of the emergency incident based on all available information sources. The source that is described as "Provide information on the assistance provided by other agencies." is known as:
```
A. Site plan.
B. Preincident survey or fire and life safety inspection report.
C. Size up.
D. Command and general staff records.
E. Incident Action Plan (IAP).
F. Outside agency reports.
G. Interviews.
H. Incident safety plan.
I. Personal accountability system.
J. Weather reports.
K. Communication records.
L. Miscellaneous reports.
```
F. Outside agency reports.
658
Data Collection:
The Post Incident Analysis (PIA) is a critical and objective assessment of the emergency incident based on all available information sources. The source that is described as "Provide a narrative of the actions of each of the participants as well as the impressions of witnesses; some information may be provided by the fire investigator." is known as:
```
A. Site plan.
B. Preincident survey or fire and life safety inspection report.
C. Size up.
D. Command and general staff records.
E. Incident Action Plan (IAP).
F. Outside agency reports.
G. Interviews.
H. Incident safety plan.
I. Personal accountability system.
J. Weather reports.
K. Communication records.
L. Miscellaneous reports.
```
G. Interviews.
659
Data Collection:
The Post Incident Analysis (PIA) is a critical and objective assessment of the emergency incident based on all available information sources. The source that is described as "Provides a visual aid in placing the responding units and personnel as well as casualties and occupants." is known as:
```
A. Site plan.
B. Preincident survey or fire and life safety inspection report.
C. Size up.
D. Command and general staff records.
E. Incident Action Plan (IAP).
F. Outside agency reports.
G. Interviews.
H. Incident safety plan.
I. Personal accountability system.
J. Weather reports.
K. Communication records.
L. Miscellaneous reports.
```
A. Site plan.
| *** Practice Exam Question ***
660
Data Collection:
The Post Incident Analysis (PIA) is a critical and objective assessment of the emergency incident based on all available information sources. The source that is described as "Provides information gathered by the Incident Safety Officer (ISO) on all safety- and health-related issues." is known as:
```
A. Site plan.
B. Preincident survey or fire and life safety inspection report.
C. Size up.
D. Command and general staff records.
E. Incident Action Plan (IAP).
F. Outside agency reports.
G. Interviews.
H. Incident safety plan.
I. Personal accountability system.
J. Weather reports.
K. Communication records.
L. Miscellaneous reports.
```
H. Incident safety plan.
661
Data Collection:
The Post Incident Analysis (PIA) is a critical and objective assessment of the emergency incident based on all available information sources. The source that is described as "Provides an accurate record of the participants and their time of arrival and release from the incident." is known as:
```
A. Site plan.
B. Preincident survey or fire and life safety inspection report.
C. Size up.
D. Command and general staff records.
E. Incident Action Plan (IAP).
F. Outside agency reports.
G. Interviews.
H. Incident safety plan.
I. Personal accountability system.
J. Weather reports.
K. Communication records.
L. Miscellaneous reports.
```
I. Personal accountability system.
662
Data Collection:
The Post Incident Analysis (PIA) is a critical and objective assessment of the emergency incident based on all available information sources. The source that is described as "Provide information on weather conditions that may have contributed to fire spread or hampered unit access. This is particularly important when analyzing wildland and urban interface incidents." is known as:
```
A. Site plan.
B. Preincident survey or fire and life safety inspection report.
C. Size up.
D. Command and general staff records.
E. Incident Action Plan (IAP).
F. Outside agency reports.
G. Interviews.
H. Incident safety plan.
I. Personal accountability system.
J. Weather reports.
K. Communication records.
L. Miscellaneous reports.
```
J. Weather reports.
663
Data Collection:
The Post Incident Analysis (PIA) is a critical and objective assessment of the emergency incident based on all available information sources. The source that is described as "Provide accurate dispatch times and transcripts of radio communications at the incident." is known as:
```
A. Site plan.
B. Preincident survey or fire and life safety inspection report.
C. Size up.
D. Command and general staff records.
E. Incident Action Plan (IAP).
F. Outside agency reports.
G. Interviews.
H. Incident safety plan.
I. Personal accountability system.
J. Weather reports.
K. Communication records.
L. Miscellaneous reports.
```
K. Communication records.
664
Data Collection:
The Post Incident Analysis (PIA) is a critical and objective assessment of the emergency incident based on all available information sources. The source that is described as "Provide additional information that may be of value, such as apparatus or equipment maintenance records of vehicles or equipment that may have broken down during the incident." is known as:
```
A. Site plan.
B. Preincident survey or fire and life safety inspection report.
C. Size up.
D. Command and general staff records.
E. Incident Action Plan (IAP).
F. Outside agency reports.
G. Interviews.
H. Incident safety plan.
I. Personal accountability system.
J. Weather reports.
K. Communication records.
L. Miscellaneous reports.
```
L. Miscellaneous reports.
665
Incident response reports provide the basis for an understanding of the most frequent types of emergency responses. Although most organizations are too small to rely on their own database for statistically valid trend, national averages and trends are available from a number of sources. The national source described as: "Collects injury and fatality statistics from fire and emergency services, compiled information, and issues an annual report based on the results" is:
A. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA).
B. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH).
C. National Fallen Firefighters Foundation.
D. National Fire Academy (NFA).
A. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA).
666
Risk Identification:
Incident response reports provide the basis for an understanding of the most frequent types of emergency responses. Although most organizations are too small to rely on their own database for a statistically valid trend, national averages and trends are available from a number of sources. The national source described as: "Provides statistics on illnesses and injuries that have been reported nationally and issues warnings on potential trends that may affect the health of the nation." is:
A. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
B. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH).
C. Fire Department Safety Officers Association (FDSOA).
D. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA).
E. National Fire Academy (NFA).
F. National Fallen Firefighters Foundation.
G. National Fire Fighter Near-Miss Reporting System.
H. Close Calls.Com.
A. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
667
Risk Identification:
Incident response reports provide the basis for an understanding of the most frequent types of emergency responses. Although most organizations are too small to rely on their own database for a statistically valid trend, national averages and trends are available from a number of sources. The national source described as: "Investigates fire and emergency responder fatalities; issues an evaluation of each incident and a list of recommendations for preventing a recurrence of the incident." is:
A. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
B. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH).
C. Fire Department Safety Officers Association (FDSOA).
D. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA).
E. National Fire Academy (NFA).
F. National Fallen Firefighters Foundation.
G. National Fire Fighter Near-Miss Reporting System.
H. Close Calls.Com.
B. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
668
Risk Identification:
Incident response reports provide the basis for an understanding of the most frequent types of emergency responses. Although most organizations are too small to rely on their own database for a statistically valid trend, national averages and trends are available from a number of sources. The national source described as: "Professional organization that promotes safety in the fire and emergency services. Information is available on all aspects of safety activities." is:
A. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
B. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH).
C. Fire Department Safety Officers Association (FDSOA).
D. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA).
E. National Fire Academy (NFA).
F. National Fallen Firefighters Foundation.
G. National Fire Fighter Near-Miss Reporting System.
H. Close Calls.Com.
C. Fire Department Safety Officers Association (FASOA).
669
Risk Identification:
Incident response reports provide the basis for an understanding of the most frequent types of emergency responses. Although most organizations are too small to rely on their own database for a statistically valid trend, national averages and trends are available from a number of sources. The national source described as: "Collects injury and fatality statistics from fire and emergency services, compiles the information, and issues and annual report based on the results." is:
A. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
B. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH).
C. Fire Department Safety Officers Association (FDSOA).
D. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA).
E. National Fire Academy (NFA).
F. National Fallen Firefighters Foundation.
G. National Fire Fighter Near-Miss Reporting System.
H. Close Calls.Com.
D. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA).
670
Risk Identification:
Incident response reports provide the basis for an understanding of the most frequent types of emergency responses. Although most organizations are too small to rely on their own database for a statistically valid trend, national averages and trends are available from a number of sources. The national source described as: "Maintains data on safety, health, and wellness initiatives based on the annual statistics." is:
A. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
B. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH).
C. Fire Department Safety Officers Association (FDSOA).
D. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA).
E. National Fire Academy (NFA).
F. National Fallen Firefighters Foundation.
G. National Fire Fighter Near-Miss Reporting System.
H. Close Calls.Com.
E. National Fire Academy (NFA).
671
Risk Identification:
Incident response reports provide the basis for an understanding of the most frequent types of emergency responses. Although most organizations are too small to rely on their own database for a statistically valid trend, national averages and trends are available from a number of sources. The national source described as: "Tracks and maintains information on line-of-duty deaths and provides support to survivors and family members." is:
A. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
B. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH).
C. Fire Department Safety Officers Association (FDSOA).
D. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA).
E. National Fire Academy (NFA).
F. National Fallen Firefighters Foundation.
G. National Fire Fighter Near-Miss Reporting System.
H. Close Calls.Com.
F. National Fallen Firefighters Foundation.
672
Risk Identification:
Incident response reports provide the basis for an understanding of the most frequent types of emergency responses. Although most organizations are too small to rely on their own database for a statistically valid trend, national averages and trends are available from a number of sources. The national source described as: "Sponsored jointly by the IAFF, IAFC, and the VCOS, this initiative collects, compiles, and provides reports on incidents that are defined as- an unintentional, unsafe occurrence that could have resulted in an injury, fatality, or property damage. This is a voluntary reporting system that provides information on the types of incidents that are not reported to other organizations." is:
A. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
B. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH).
C. Fire Department Safety Officers Association (FDSOA).
D. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA).
E. National Fire Academy (NFA).
F. National Fallen Firefighters Foundation.
G. National Fire Fighter Near-Miss Reporting System.
H. Close Calls.Com.
G. National Fire Fighter Near-Miss Reporting System.
673
Risk Identification:
Incident response reports provide the basis for an understanding of the most frequent types of emergency responses. Although most organizations are too small to rely on their own database for a statistically valid trend, national averages and trends are available from a number of sources. The national source described as: "Web-based sources of information on near tragic incidents reported to these sites. Many include photos or videos of the incident and can be used as training aids." is:
A. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
B. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH).
C. Fire Department Safety Officers Association (FDSOA).
D. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA).
E. National Fire Academy (NFA).
F. National Fallen Firefighters Foundation.
G. National Fire Fighter Near-Miss Reporting System.
H. Close Calls.Com.
H. Close Calls.Com.
| FirefighterCloseCalls.Com & EMSCloseCalls.Com
674
The company officer should review these rules and apply them with special regard to the company officer's role in the fire service. Which one of the following is an exemption to these "six" rules:
A. Learn and be sincerely interested in and dedicated to your job.
B. Be loyal to the department and to your coworkers.
C. Be cautious. Guard your speech while on duty.
D. Lead by example
E. Support all types of education and training.
F. Accept criticism graciously and accept praise, honors, and advancement modestly.
G. Praise in public; discipline in private.
C. Be cautious. Guard your speech while on duty. (FALSE)
-----------------------------------------
Would be correctly stated as follows:
Guard conversations -Never say anything, both on and off the job, that would bring dishonor onto a person, a position, or an organization.
Do not disclose information that is confidential, and particular information concerning subordinates. Consider information confidential unless told otherwise.
675
Research indicates that the public has greater contact with members of local government than with any other government level. The company officer and members of the unit are the first direct contact the public will have with the fire and emergency services of a local government. The company officer may interact with the public by providing services such as... the exception is:
A. Issuing burning permits.
B. Inspecting facilities.
C. Providing public fire and life-safety education.
D. Investigating suspicious fires.
E. Providing emergency care to victims of hazardous incidents.
F. Gives advice.
F. Gives advice. (FALSE)
P.15
676
Span of control is the number of subordinates that one individual can effectively supervise. There is no absolute rule for determining how many subordinates that one person effectively can't supervise; the number varies with the situation but is usually considered to be somewhere between _____ .
A. 2-6
B. 1-5
C. 3-7
D. 5-9
C. 3-7 (with the optimal being 5)
677
_____ are terms that refer to the traditional organizational concept that separates fire department personnel into two distinct groups: those who deliver emergency services, and those who support the efforts of the line personnel.
A. Line and staff.
B. Scalar.
C. Traditional staff.
D. Program.
A. Line and staff.
678
```
Line and staff are terms that refer to a concept of traditional origin. This concept separates a fire department into two distinct sections.
#1) Line - those who fight fires.
#2) Staff - those who support the emergency operations.
```
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 and #2 are true.
D. #1 and #2 are false.
C. #1 and #2 are true.
679
Line and staff are terms that refer to the traditional organizational concept that separate fire and emergency services personnel into the following two distinct groups:
_____ personal - Those who deliver services to the public or external customers; typical functions include fire suppression, emergency medical services (EMS), inspections, education, and investigations.
Line personnel
680
Line and staff are terms that refer to the traditional organizational concept that separate fire and emergency services personnel into the following two distinct groups:
_____ personnel - Those who provide support to the line personnel or internal customers; those who support the emergency operations; typical functions are training, logistics, and personnel administration.
Staff personnel
681
Laws come from many different sources. In general, the major sources of laws in the Western world are... the exception is:
A. State constitutional law.
B. Administrative law.
C. Federal constitutional law.
D. Federal law.
D. Federal law.
682
A critical issue in negligence liability is the care with which the company officer's responsibilities are discharged. Sources of information that helps to establish the standard of care include... the exception is:
A. Gravity of harm posed by the condition.
B. Agency directives and policies.
C. Directives of a superior agency (legal mandates).
D. Guidelines and policies of other agencies (locally accepted practices).
E. Guidelines and standards developed by professional organizations (such as NFPA).
F. Professional text and manuals (such as IFSTA manuals).
G. Professional journals; Research publications
H. Opinions of expert witnesses.
A. Gravity of harm posed by the condition. (FALSE)
-----------------------------------------
B. through H. are all TRUE, p.104
683
The communication process exists in many forms but all communication accomplishes the tasks of exchanging information. Regardless of the form used, the communication process is comprised of five essential elements. An exception is:
```
A. The sender.
B. The actual message.
C. From where the message is transmitted.
D. The receiver.
E. The medium/channel.
F. The feedback.
```
C. From where the message is transmitted. (FALSE)
-----------------------------------------
The rest are TRUE, p.124
684
Five of the elements of the process are essential to effective interpersonal communication to occur. Understanding the remaining element, _____ , allows the participant to recognize and overcome this potential barrier to effective communication.
```
A. Sender
B. Message
C. Medium or channel
D. Receiver
E. Interference
F. Feedback to the sender
```
E. Interference
685
```
Fire ground orders have a different nature than regular orders. Due to the dangers involved, company officers must be able to issue fire ground orders in a clear, concise and complete manner.
#1) Fireground communications involves face-to-face communications.
#2) Fireground communications involves radio communications.
#3) Fire ground communications involves both face-to-face and radio communications.
```
A. #1 and #2 are true.
B. #1 and #3 are true.
C. #2 and #3 are true.
D. All three are true.
D. All three are true.
686
```
Research into the relationship of formal and informal groups has brought to light two important facts.
#1) Informal groups from within all formal groups.
#2) The formal group may have greater influence on the productivity and success of the group than any other factor.
```
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 and #2 are true.
D. #1 and #2 are false.
```
A. #1 is true.
-----------------------------------------
#1) Informal groups from within all formal groups. (TRUE)
#2) The "formal" group may have greater influence on the productivity and success of the group than any other factor. (FALSE - informal)
```
687
As first-level supervisors for a group of employees, Level 1 Fire Officers must be able to perform the following duties involving human resource management... the exception is:
A. Assign tasks.
B. Prepare projects and divisional budgets.
C. Evaluate personal performance.
D. Provide company-level training.
E. Provide effective supervision for both emergency and nonemergency activities.
F. Administer policies and procedures efficiently and equitably.
G. Recommend actions when situations exceed their authority or ability.
H. Act as a project manager in certain situations.
I. Provide professional development opportunities for members.
J. Initiate or assist with personal transfers, personal benefits, change in those benefits, awards and commendations, disciplinary actions, and labor/management issues (including grievances).
B. Prepare projects and divisional budgets. (FALSE - Level 2)
________________________________
The rest are the examples for Level 1 Fire Officers p.23)
688
In addition to the Level I duties, the Level II Fire Officer must also perform the following human resource management duties... the exception is:
A. Evaluate personal performance and ensure that employees perform to the best of their abilities.
B. Prepare projects and divisional budgets.
C. Assign tasks.
D. Provide punitive discipline.
D. Provide punitive discipline. (FASE)
________________________________
A. Evaluate personal performance and ensure that employees perform to the best of their abilities. (Level 2)
B. Prepare projects and divisional budgets. (Level 2)
C. Assign tasks. (Level 1)
689
The company officer must be able to recognize the difference between a leader and a manager. Sarah White has articulated one version of the difference in an article in a professional pharmacists journal. The following statements are FALSE... the exception is:
A. Managers ask how and when; leaders ask what and why.
B. Managers ensure that the right things are done, leaders ensure that things are done right.
C. Managers challenge the status quo, leaders accept the status quo.
D. Managers are originals, leaders are copies.
A. Managers ask how and when; leaders ask what and why. (TRUE)
-----------------------------------------
690
The company officer must be able to recognize the difference between a leader and a manager. Sarah White has articulated one version of the difference in an article in a professional pharmacists journal. She states differences as follows... the exception is:
A. Managers administer; leaders innovate.
B. Managers ask how and when; leaders ask what and why.
C. Managers focus on systems; leaders focus on people.
D. Managers ensure that things are done right; leaders ensure that the right things are done.
E. Managers maintain; leaders develop.
F. Managers rely on control; leaders inspire trust.
G. Managers have a short-term perspective; leaders have a long-term perspective.
H. Managers accept the status quo; leaders challenge the status quo.
I. Managers have an eye on the bottom line; leaders have an eye on the horizon.
J. Managers are the classic good soldiers; leaders are their own people.
K. Managers are originals; leaders are copies.
K. Managers are "originals"; leaders are "copies". (FALSE - Managers are copies; leaders are originals.)
-----------------------------------------
The rest are TRUE p.47
691
According to Webster, power is the "possession of control, authority, or influence over others". According to psychologist John French and Bertram Raven there are five types of power, they are... the exception is:
```
A. Reward power.
B. Coercive power.
C. Official power.
D. Identification power.
E. Expert power.
F. Legitimate power.
```
C. Official power. (FALSE)
-----------------------------------------
The others are all TRUE p.47
692
```
A company officer guides the group I journey from disjointed individuals to a cohesive team. According to research by B.W. Tuckman, that journey can be illustrated with a basic four-stage development model. Consider these two statements:
#1) Storming is defined as "The group establishes its own set of norms and values that each member accepts and it hears too."
#2) Performing is defined as "The supervisor works to maintain team spirit as the group moves towards accomplishing its objectives."
```
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 and #2 are true.
D. #1 and #2 are false.
```
B. #2 is true.
-----------------------------------------
#1) Storming is defined as "The group establishes its own set of norms and values that each member accepts and it hears too." (FALSE - Norming)
```
693
The basic principle behind Theory _____ management believes that the average worker does not inherently dislike work - in fact, workers feel work can be as natural as play or rest. The Theory _____ workers will perform adequately with self-direction and self-control without coercion.
A. W. B. X.
C. Y. D. Z.
C. Y
694
```
Logic and ethics are terms that find their origin in Ancient Greek civilization of the sixth century B.C.E. they were considered by philosophers of the time to be essential to a strong human character. Definitions were as follows:
#1) Logic - Ability to reason and present a strong argument in favor of or against a position. It was also the ability to recognize fallacies in the arguments of others and thereby be able to refute or correct the opposing position.
#2) Ethics - Analysis of the principles of human conduct in order to be able to determine between right and wrong. Sometimes called moral philosophy.
```
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 and #2 are true.
D. #1 and #2 are false.
C. #1 and #2 are true.
695
Ethics and ethical behavior are learned traits. They are transmitted to an individual from many sources. The primary source is the family, which instills personal values and morals. Other sources are organized religions, educational institutions, society and peers. The values instilled by these sources remain with individual for life unless the person consciously alters them. Examples of ethical values include... the exception is:
```
A. Honesty.
B. Fairness.
C. Mortality.
D. Consistency.
E. Integrity.
F. Impartiality.
G. Loyalty.
H. Dedication.
I. Responsibility.
J. Accountability.
K. Perseverance.
L. Frugality.
M. Faithfulness.
N. Heroism.
O. Patriotism.
```
D. Consistency. (FALSE)
-----------------------------------------
The rest are TRUE p.79
696
In the fire service, one of the most widely used techniques for presenting new information is the four-step method of instruction. The steps involved in this method are.... the exception is:
```
A. Preparation.
B. Presentation.
C. Application.
D. Repetition.
E. Evaluation.
```
D. Repetition. (FALSE)
697
Making decisions can be difficult because the barriers that exist within the individual. Some of these barriers are psychological while others are generated by organizational culture. Which of the following is a psychological barrier?
A. Lack of data.
B. Distrust.
C. Lack of resources.
D. Lack of commitment.
B. Distrust.
698
Making decisions can be difficult because the barriers that exist within the individual. Some of these barriers are psychological (internal) while others are generated by organizational culture (external). The following are psychological (internal) barriers... the exception is:
```
A. Fear
B. Ego or self-esteem
C. Indecisiveness
D. Distrust
E. Antagonism
F. Jealousy
G. Unethical motives
H. Lack of commitment
```
H. Lack of commitment (FALSE - Organizational "external" barrier)
699
Making decisions can be difficult because the barriers that exist within the individual. Some of these barriers are psychological (internal) while others are generated by organizational culture (external). The following are organizational (external) barriers... the exception is:
```
A. Lack of data
B. Lack of accurate analysis
C. Lack of resources
D. Lack of management/ membership support
E. Lack of commitment
F. Lack of capacity
G. Lack of trust
```
G. Lack of trust (FALSE - Psychological "internal" barrier)
700
```
In everyday conversation, the terms hazard and risk are often used interchangeably. Technically, however, hazards and risks describe two different things.
#1) The term risk usually refers to the source of a hazard.
#2) A hazard is the likelihood of suffering harm from a risk.
```
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 and #2 are true.
D. #1 and #2 are false.
```
D. #1 and #2 are false.
-----------------------------------------
#1) The term HAZARD usually refers to the source of a RISK.
#2) A RISK is the likelihood of suffering harm from a HAZARD.
```
701
The generally accepted basic classification of plans is based on the frequency with which they are used. Therefore, two broad categories can be established standing plans and single use plans. Consider the following statements regarding operational/administrative plans, and strategic plans:
```
#1) Operational plans focus on "what" objectives will be accomplished as opposed to strategic plans that focus on "how" the organization will do.
#2) Administrative plans are concerned with those factors that are within the control of the organization, "subjective" and fact based, while strategic plans are "objective".
```
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 and #2 are true.
D. #1 and #2 are false.
```
D. #1 and #2 are false.
-----------------------------------------
#1) Operational plans focus on HOW objectives will be accomplished as opposed to strategic plans that focus on WHAT the organization will do.
the organization will do.
#2) Administrative plans are concerned with those factors that are within the control of the organization, OBJECTIVE and fact based, while strategic plans are SUBJECTIVE.
```
p.286
702
_____ is sometimes required by local or state law and is usually binding on both sides. The _____ is not free to decide on an issue-by-issue basis. Because it is an all-or-nothing process, this forces each side to purpose its most reasonable package.
A. Arbitration.
B. Mediation.
C. Fact-finding.
D. Job Actions.
A. Arbitration.
703
Negotiation Process:
Despite good-faith negotiations by management and labor, bargaining can hit an impasse (sticking point over which neither side is willing to compromise). "Mediation" and "Fact-finding" are the most common means of resolving impasses in the public safety sector. "Arbitration" and "strikes" may also be used to resolve an impasse. The following is a description of:
_____ - A third, neutral party talks with each side and discovers the real issues and concerns that are stalling negotiations.
- They clarify misconceptions that one side holds about the positions of the other and gets both sides talking again in hopes of leaving them to reconciliation and a contract
- Uses information from other labor disputes around the country to move one or both sides away from unrealistic or unattainable positions
- Provides both sides access to high-ranking officials and improves the chances for a contract settlement
A. Mediation.
B. Fact-finding.
C. Arbitration.
D. Strike.
A. Mediation.
704
Negotiation Process:
Despite good-faith negotiations by management and labor, bargaining can hit an impasse (sticking point over which neither side is willing to compromise). "Mediation" and "Fact-finding" are the most common means of resolving impasses in the public safety sector. "Arbitration" and "strikes" may also be used to resolve an impasse. The following is a description of:
_____ - Arbitrators look at facts and then develop suggested solutions (similar to arbitration). However these suggestions are not binding. The procedure identifies facts that can convince government officials and other policymaking bodies to make concessions in return for a settlement. Neither management nor labor is forced to make a serious effort to come up with its strongest offers; therefore, the procedure may not resolve a dispute, and suggestions might not satisfy either party.
A. Mediation.
B. Fact-finding.
C. Arbitration.
D. Strike.
B. Fact-finding.
705
Negotiation Process:
Despite good-faith negotiations by management and labor, bargaining can hit an impasse (sticking point over which neither side is willing to compromise). "Mediation" and "Fact-finding" are the most common means of resolving impasses in the public safety sector. "Arbitration" and "strikes" may also be used to resolve an impasse. The following is a description of:
_____ - hear evidence from both sides in the dispute and determine a binding solution. Neither management nor labor particularly likes the procedure because it takes the final decision out of their control, but state laws or municipal charters or ordinance sometimes require this.
A. Mediation.
B. Fact-finding.
C. Arbitration.
D. Strike.
C. Arbitration.
706
Negotiation Process:
Despite good-faith negotiations by management and labor, bargaining can hit an impasse (sticking point over which neither side is willing to compromise). "Mediation" and "Fact-finding" are the most common means of resolving impasses in the public safety sector. "Arbitration" and "strikes" may also be used to resolve an impasse. The following is a description of:
_____ -The labor union can use a work stoppage as the last resort when it sees no other way around an impasse or wants to pressure management game concession. By public employees these are against the law in most states.
A. Mediation.
B. Fact-finding.
C. Arbitration.
D. Strike.
D. Strike.
707
Arbitration - Arbitrators hear evidence from both sides in the dispute and determine a binding solution. Neither management nor labor particularly likes the procedure because it takes the final decision out of their control, but state laws or municipal charters or ordinance sometimes require this. Generally there are three types of arbitration: Final offer arbitration; Single arbitrator or panel; Strike-off procedure.
_____ : Involves each side offering what is supposed to be its most generous offer on each issue to be resolved. The arbitrator must choose one of the offers on each issue without compromise. The procedure theoretically forces each side to make realistic proposals while coming close to what its final offer on each issue would be.
A. Final offer arbitration.
B. Single arbitrator or panel.
C. Strike-off procedure.
A. Final offer arbitration.
708
Arbitration - Arbitrators hear evidence from both sides in the dispute and determine a binding solution. Neither management nor labor particularly likes the procedure because it takes the final decision out of their control, but state laws or municipal charters or ordinance sometimes require this. Generally there are three types of arbitration: Final offer arbitration; Single arbitrator or panel; Strike-off procedure.
_____ : Both sides usually choose names from a list supplied by a professional organization such as the American Arbitration Association.
A. Final offer arbitration.
B. Single arbitrator or panel.
C. Strike-off procedure.
B. Single arbitrator or panel.
709
Arbitration - Arbitrators hear evidence from both sides in the dispute and determine a binding solution. Neither management nor labor particularly likes the procedure because it takes the final decision out of their control, but state laws or municipal charters or ordinance sometimes require this. Generally there are three types of arbitration: Final offer arbitration; Single arbitrator or panel; Strike-off procedure.
_____ : Each side alternately strikes a name from a list of professional arbitrators until the required number is left.
A. Final offer arbitration.
B. Single arbitrator or panel.
C. Strike-off procedure.
C. Strike-off procedure.
710
Understanding the composition of the community requires a basic knowledge of demographics: results of a statistically-based study of the population. Population is categorized into groups based on physical, social, or economic characteristics such as... the exception is:
```
A. Age.
B. Politics.
C. Marital status.
D. Occupation.
E. Family size.
F. Education.
G. Geographic location.
```
B. Politics. (FALSE)
The rest are TRUE p.331
711
_____ is based then, on one's perception that another's knowledge and expertise, can help him in his endeavors. The _____ in the sentence above statement is best represented by:
A. Reward power.
B. Coercive power.
C. Expert power.
D. Identification power.
C. Expert power.
712
```
In general, there are two types of budgets used by public entities; capital budgets and operating budgets.
#1) Operating budgets cover major purchases; items that cost more than a certain specified amount of money and are expected to last more than one year, usually three or more years.
#2) Capital budgets are used to pay for the reoccurring expenses of the day-to-day operation of the department. The largest single item in the capital budget of most career fire departments is the cost of personnel; salaries and benefits.
```
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 and #2 are true.
D. #1 and #2 are false.
```
D. #1 and #2 are false.
-----------------------------------------
#1) CAPITAL budgets cover major purchases; items that cost more than a certain specified amount of money and are expected to last more than one year, usually three or more years.
#2) OPERATING budgets are used to pay for the reoccurring expenses of the day-to-day operation of the department. The largest single item in the capital budget of most career fire departments is the cost of personnel; salaries and benefits.
```
713
The company officer must incorporate good communication procedures into every day operations until these become second nature. There are five "C's" of communication that every company officer must master... the exception is:
```
A. Conciseness.
B. Clarity.
C. Confidence.
D. Criteria.
E. Control.
F. Capability.
```
D. Criteria. (FALSE)
714
NFPA 101 Life Safety Code further classifies every individual occupancy according to the relative fire hazard of its contents. There are three contents-hazard classifications... the exception is:
A. Low hazard.
B. Moderate hazard.
C. Ordinary hazard.
D. High hazard.
B. Moderate hazard. (FALSE)
715
NFPA 101 Life Safety Code further classifies every individual occupancy according to the relative fire hazard of its contents.
_____ - Is the classification for contents of such low combustibility that a self-propagating fire cannot occur in them. Examples of such materials might include fiberglass insulation or minerals that do not contain hydrocarbons.
A. Low hazard.
B. Ordinary hazard.
C. High hazard.
A. Low hazard.
716
NFPA 101 Life Safety Code further classifies every individual occupancy according to the relative fire hazard of its contents.
_____ - Is the classification for contents that are likely to burn with moderate rapidity or give off a considerable volume of smoke. Examples of these materials might include paper, cardboard, textiles, and some plastics.
A. Low hazard.
B. Ordinary hazard.
C. High hazard.
B. Ordinary hazard.
717
NFPA 101 Life Safety Code further classifies every individual occupancy according to the relative fire hazard of its contents.
_____ - Is the classification for contents that are likely to burn with extreme rapidity or from which explosions are likely. Examples of these materials might include flammable liquids or highly reactive substances.
A. Low hazard.
B. Ordinary hazard.
C. High hazard.
C. High hazard.
718
```
Public fire alarm systems are usually owned and maintained by the municipality or other entity of which the fire department is a part. These systems are classified as either Type A or Type B.
#1) In Type A, (manual retransmission) systems, alarms received from the street boxes must be manually retransmitted to the affected fire station by the alarm operator.
#2) In Type B (automatic retransmission) systems, alarms received from the street boxes are automatically retransmitted to all fire stations within the jurisdiction.
```
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 and #2 are true.
D. #1 and #2 are false.
C. #1 and #2 are true.
719
```
With the initial size-up complete, the company officer must implement the operational decisions have been made. Goals and objectives must be established, appropriate resources must be assigned, and the need for additional resources must be considered. With the priorities established and a decision-making model ready for use, the company officer must be ready to take command of the situation. The first-arriving officer has three optional command activities available; nothing showing, fast attack, and
command.
#1) When the problem generating the response is not obvious to the first arriving unit, the company officer should assume command of the incident and announce that nothing is showing.
#2) When the company officers direct involvement is necessary for the unit to take immediate action to save a life or stabilize the situation, the officer should take command and announced that the unit is initiating a fast attack.
```
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 and #2 are true.
D. #1 and #2 are false.
C. #1 and #2 are true.
720
The first priority of the facility survey is to identify life safety concerns. Life safety information is collected in two basic areas: protection and evacuation of occupants; and protection of the firefighters. Information about occupant protection includes the following... the exception is:
A. Location and size of the exits and entrances.
B. Location of escalators and elevators.
C. Unsupported partitions or walls.
D. Location of windows suitable for rescue access.
E. Special evacuation considerations for disabled occupants, very old or very young occupants, and large numbers of occupants.
F. Locations of areas of safe refuge.
G. Flammable and toxic interior finishes or processes.
C. Unsupported partitions or walls. (FALSE)
721
While making a preincident survey, firefighters gather information about occupant life-safety and also record the information about hazards in the building that will threaten their own safety. Some of the fire hazards to be aware of are... the exception is:
```
A. Toxic chemicals.
B. Explosives.
C. Location and size of exits.
D. Reactive metals.
E. Flammable and combustible liquids.
F. Biological hazards.
G. Radioactive materials.
H. Manufacturing processes that are inherently dangerous.
```
C. Location and size of exits. (FALSE - Occupant protection)
722
The objectives of incident scene management should always reflect the overall incident objectives. Therefore, the objectives of incident scene management are... the exception is:
A. Life safety.
B. Fire extinguishment.
C. Incident stabilization.
D. Property conservation.
B. Fire extinguishment. (FALSE)
723
Master streams require a greater volume of water than do handlines. If a master stream requires a water flow greater than the capacity of a single pumper, multiple pumpers may be used to supply the device. When calculating friction loss for a layout using a master stream device, add _____ to the calculation.
A. 10 psi
B. 15 psi
C. 20 psi
D. 25 psi
D. 25 psi
724
Layman described a five-step process for analyzing any emergency situation. The steps he described include... the exception is:
```
A. Facts.
B. Mitigation.
C. Probabilities.
D. Own situation.
E. Decision.
F. Plan of operation.
```
B. Mitigation. (FALSE)
725
To separate the problem from the feelings, officers must know why people complain. Basically, people complain because they perceive a problem that adversely affects them. Firefighters complain for four basic reasons….The exception is:
A. To bring out change.
B. To release pressure.
C. To divert attention from themselves.
D. To confront personality conflicts.
C. To divert attention from themselves. (False)
| Write down the 4th reason if found in book
726
The leadership continuing theory was developed in 1973 by R. Tannenaum and W.H. Schmidt and is used to determine which leadership style (ranging from autocratic to democratic leadership) a leader should apply to a situation. The leader action that would be used to "sell" the issue would be described as:
A. Clarifies a decision the leader has made to subordinates.
B. Works when the leader is supporting a decision made by a higher authority such as the implementation of a new departmental policy.
C. Desires some member participation such as duty assignment.
D. Allows members to provide alternative ideas while allowing the leader to make the final selection.
B. Works when the leader is supporting a decision made by a higher authority such as the implementation of a new departmental policy. (Sell)
________________________________
Sell - Makes the decision and then sells it to employees based on why it is in the organization's best interest.
727
The leadership continuing theory was developed in 1973 by R. Tannenaum and W.H. Schmidt and is used to determine which leadership style (ranging from autocratic to democratic leadership) a leader should apply to a situation. The leader action described as: "Makes the decision and announces it without discussion or employee involvement." is:
A. Tell.
B. Sell.
C. Consult.
D. Share.
A. Tell.
________________________________
• Tell - Makes the decision and announces it without discussion or employee involvement. Applies to any emergency scene situation that requires immediate action.
• Sell - Makes the decision and then sells it to employees based on why it is in the organization's best interest. Works when the leader is supporting a decision made by a higher authority such as the implementation of a new departmental policy.
• Consult - Presents ideas to members and invite their questions. Clarifies a decision the leader has made to subordinates.
• Consult - Prevents a tentative decision to members that is subject to change. Desire some member participation such as duty assignment.
• Consult - Presents the problem to members, ask for suggestions, and then makes the decision based on the best recommendation. Allows members to provide alternative ideas while allowing the leader to make the final selection.
• Share - Defines the limits on a decision and asks members to make the decision. Uses the consensus process to develop facility specifications.
• Share - Sets limitations and allows members to make all decisions without interference. Requires the leader and members to agree upon the limitations and the leader to feel comfortable empowering subordinates with the decision-making process.
728
The leadership continuing theory was developed in 1973 by R. Tannenaum and W.H. Schmidt and is used to determine which leadership style (ranging from autocratic to democratic leadership) a leader should apply to a situation. The leader action described as: "Makes the decision and then sells it to employees based on why it is in the organization's best interest." is:
A. Tell.
B. Sell.
C. Consult.
D. Share.
B. Sell.
________________________________
• Tell - Makes the decision and announces it without discussion or employee involvement. Applies to any emergency scene situation that requires immediate action.
• Sell - Makes the decision and then sells it to employees based on why it is in the organization's best interest. Works when the leader is supporting a decision made by a higher authority such as the implementation of a new departmental policy.
• Consult - Presents ideas to members and invite their questions. Clarifies a decision the leader has made to subordinates.
• Consult - Prevents a tentative decision to members that is subject to change. Desire some member participation such as duty assignment.
• Consult - Presents the problem to members, ask for suggestions, and then makes the decision based on the best recommendation. Allows members to provide alternative ideas while allowing the leader to make the final selection.
• Share - Defines the limits on a decision and asks members to make the decision. Uses the consensus process to develop facility specifications.
• Share - Sets limitations and allows members to make all decisions without interference. Requires the leader and members to agree upon the limitations and the leader to feel comfortable empowering subordinates with the decision-making process.
729
The leadership continuing theory was developed in 1973 by R. Tannenaum and W.H. Schmidt and is used to determine which leadership style (ranging from autocratic to democratic leadership) a leader should apply to a situation. The leader action described as: "Presents ideas to members and invite their questions." is:
A. Tell.
B. Sell.
C. Consult.
D. Share.
C. Consult.
________________________________
• Tell - Makes the decision and announces it without discussion or employee involvement. Applies to any emergency scene situation that requires immediate action.
• Sell - Makes the decision and then sells it to employees based on why it is in the organization's best interest. Works when the leader is supporting a decision made by a higher authority such as the implementation of a new departmental policy.
• Consult - Presents ideas to members and invite their questions. Clarifies a decision the leader has made to subordinates.
• Consult - Prevents a tentative decision to members that is subject to change. Desire some member participation such as duty assignment.
• Consult - Presents the problem to members, ask for suggestions, and then makes the decision based on the best recommendation. Allows members to provide alternative ideas while allowing the leader to make the final selection.
• Share - Defines the limits on a decision and asks members to make the decision. Uses the consensus process to develop facility specifications.
• Share - Sets limitations and allows members to make all decisions without interference. Requires the leader and members to agree upon the limitations and the leader to feel comfortable empowering subordinates with the decision-making process.
730
The leadership continuing theory was developed in 1973 by R. Tannenaum and W.H. Schmidt and is used to determine which leadership style (ranging from autocratic to democratic leadership) a leader should apply to a situation. The leader action described as: "Presents a tentative decision to members that is subject to change." is:
A. Tell.
B. Sell.
C. Consult.
D. Share.
C. Consult.
________________________________
• Tell - Makes the decision and announces it without discussion or employee involvement. Applies to any emergency scene situation that requires immediate action.
• Sell - Makes the decision and then sells it to employees based on why it is in the organization's best interest. Works when the leader is supporting a decision made by a higher authority such as the implementation of a new departmental policy.
• Consult - Presents ideas to members and invite their questions. Clarifies a decision the leader has made to subordinates.
• Consult - Prevents a tentative decision to members that is subject to change. Desire some member participation such as duty assignment.
• Consult - Presents the problem to members, ask for suggestions, and then makes the decision based on the best recommendation. Allows members to provide alternative ideas while allowing the leader to make the final selection.
• Share - Defines the limits on a decision and asks members to make the decision. Uses the consensus process to develop facility specifications.
• Share - Sets limitations and allows members to make all decisions without interference. Requires the leader and members to agree upon the limitations and the leader to feel comfortable empowering subordinates with the decision-making process.
731
The leadership continuing theory was developed in 1973 by R. Tannenaum and W.H. Schmidt and is used to determine which leadership style (ranging from autocratic to democratic leadership) a leader should apply to a situation. The leader action described as: "Presents the problem to members, ask for suggestions, and then makes the decision based on the best recommendation." is:
A. Tell.
B. Sell.
C. Consult.
D. Share.
C. Consult.
________________________________
• Tell - Makes the decision and announces it without discussion or employee involvement. Applies to any emergency scene situation that requires immediate action.
• Sell - Makes the decision and then sells it to employees based on why it is in the organization's best interest. Works when the leader is supporting a decision made by a higher authority such as the implementation of a new departmental policy.
• Consult - Presents ideas to members and invite their questions. Clarifies a decision the leader has made to subordinates.
• Consult - Prevents a tentative decision to members that is subject to change. Desire some member participation such as duty assignment.
• Consult - Presents the problem to members, ask for suggestions, and then makes the decision based on the best recommendation. Allows members to provide alternative ideas while allowing the leader to make the final selection.
• Share - Defines the limits on a decision and asks members to make the decision. Uses the consensus process to develop facility specifications.
• Share - Sets limitations and allows members to make all decisions without interference. Requires the leader and members to agree upon the limitations and the leader to feel comfortable empowering subordinates with the decision-making process.
732
The leadership continuing theory was developed in 1973 by R. Tannenaum and W.H. Schmidt and is used to determine which leadership style (ranging from autocratic to democratic leadership) a leader should apply to a situation. The leader action described as: "Defines the limits on a decision and asks members to make the decision." is:
A. Tell.
B. Sell.
C. Consult.
D. Share.
D. Share.
________________________________
• Tell - Makes the decision and announces it without discussion or employee involvement. Applies to any emergency scene situation that requires immediate action.
• Sell - Makes the decision and then sells it to employees based on why it is in the organization's best interest. Works when the leader is supporting a decision made by a higher authority such as the implementation of a new departmental policy.
• Consult - Presents ideas to members and invite their questions. Clarifies a decision the leader has made to subordinates.
• Consult - Prevents a tentative decision to members that is subject to change. Desire some member participation such as duty assignment.
• Consult - Presents the problem to members, ask for suggestions, and then makes the decision based on the best recommendation. Allows members to provide alternative ideas while allowing the leader to make the final selection.
• Share - Defines the limits on a decision and asks members to make the decision. Uses the consensus process to develop facility specifications.
• Share - Sets limitations and allows members to make all decisions without interference. Requires the leader and members to agree upon the limitations and the leader to feel comfortable empowering subordinates with the decision-making process.
733
The leadership continuing theory was developed in 1973 by R. Tannenaum and W.H. Schmidt and is used to determine which leadership style (ranging from autocratic to democratic leadership) a leader should apply to a situation. The leader action described as: "Sets limitations and allows members to make all decisions without interference" is:
A. Tell.
B. Sell.
C. Consult.
D. Share.
D. Share.
________________________________
• Tell - Makes the decision and announces it without discussion or employee involvement. Applies to any emergency scene situation that requires immediate action.
• Sell - Makes the decision and then sells it to employees based on why it is in the organization's best interest. Works when the leader is supporting a decision made by a higher authority such as the implementation of a new departmental policy.
• Consult - Presents ideas to members and invite their questions. Clarifies a decision the leader has made to subordinates.
• Consult - Prevents a tentative decision to members that is subject to change. Desire some member participation such as duty assignment.
• Consult - Presents the problem to members, ask for suggestions, and then makes the decision based on the best recommendation. Allows members to provide alternative ideas while allowing the leader to make the final selection.
• Share - Defines the limits on a decision and asks members to make the decision. Uses the consensus process to develop facility specifications.
• Share - Sets limitations and allows members to make all decisions without interference. Requires the leader and members to agree upon the limitations and the leader to feel comfortable empowering subordinates with the decision-making process.
734
The leadership continuing theory was developed in 1973 by R. Tannenaum and W.H. Schmidt and is used to determine which leadership style (ranging from autocratic to democratic leadership) a leader should apply to a situation. The leader action described as _____ requires the leader and members to agree upon the limitations and the leader to feel comfortable empowering subordinates with the decision-making process.
A. Telling.
B. Selling.
C. Consulting.
D. Sharing.
D. Sharing.
________________________________
• Tell - Makes the decision and announces it without discussion or employee involvement. Applies to any emergency scene situation that requires immediate action.
• Sell - Makes the decision and then sells it to employees based on why it is in the organization's best interest. Works when the leader is supporting a decision made by a higher authority such as the implementation of a new departmental policy.
• Consult - Presents ideas to members and invite their questions. Clarifies a decision the leader has made to subordinates.
• Consult - Prevents a tentative decision to members that is subject to change. Desire some member participation such as duty assignment.
• Consult - Presents the problem to members, ask for suggestions, and then makes the decision based on the best recommendation. Allows members to provide alternative ideas while allowing the leader to make the final selection.
• Share - Defines the limits on a decision and asks members to make the decision. Uses the consensus process to develop facility specifications.
• Share - Sets limitations and allows members to make all decisions without interference. Requires the leader and members to agree upon the limitations and the leader to feel comfortable empowering subordinates with the decision-making process.
735
The leadership continuing theory was developed in 1973 by R. Tannenaum and W.H. Schmidt and is used to determine which leadership style (ranging from autocratic to democratic leadership) a leader should apply to a situation. The leader action described as _____ uses the consensus process to develop facility specifications.
A. Telling.
B. Selling.
C. Consulting.
D. Sharing.
D. Sharing.
________________________________
• Tell - Makes the decision and announces it without discussion or employee involvement. Applies to any emergency scene situation that requires immediate action.
• Sell - Makes the decision and then sells it to employees based on why it is in the organization's best interest. Works when the leader is supporting a decision made by a higher authority such as the implementation of a new departmental policy.
• Consult - Presents ideas to members and invite their questions. Clarifies a decision the leader has made to subordinates.
• Consult - Prevents a tentative decision to members that is subject to change. Desire some member participation such as duty assignment.
• Consult - Presents the problem to members, ask for suggestions, and then makes the decision based on the best recommendation. Allows members to provide alternative ideas while allowing the leader to make the final selection.
• Share - Defines the limits on a decision and asks members to make the decision. Uses the consensus process to develop facility specifications.
• Share - Sets limitations and allows members to make all decisions without interference. Requires the leader and members to agree upon the limitations and the leader to feel comfortable empowering subordinates with the decision-making process.
736
The leadership continuing theory was developed in 1973 by R. Tannenaum and W.H. Schmidt and is used to determine which leadership style (ranging from autocratic to democratic leadership) a leader should apply to a situation. The leader action described as _____ allows members to provide alternative ideas while allowing the leader to make the final selection.
A. Telling.
B. Selling.
C. Consulting.
D. Sharing.
C. Consulting.
________________________________
• Tell - Makes the decision and announces it without discussion or employee involvement. Applies to any emergency scene situation that requires immediate action.
• Sell - Makes the decision and then sells it to employees based on why it is in the organization's best interest. Works when the leader is supporting a decision made by a higher authority such as the implementation of a new departmental policy.
• Consult - Presents ideas to members and invite their questions. Clarifies a decision the leader has made to subordinates.
• Consult - Prevents a tentative decision to members that is subject to change. Desire some member participation such as duty assignment.
• Consult - Presents the problem to members, ask for suggestions, and then makes the decision based on the best recommendation. Allows members to provide alternative ideas while allowing the leader to make the final selection.
• Share - Defines the limits on a decision and asks members to make the decision. Uses the consensus process to develop facility specifications.
• Share - Sets limitations and allows members to make all decisions without interference. Requires the leader and members to agree upon the limitations and the leader to feel comfortable empowering subordinates with the decision-making process.
737
The leadership continuing theory was developed in 1973 by R. Tannenaum and W.H. Schmidt and is used to determine which leadership style (ranging from autocratic to democratic leadership) a leader should apply to a situation. The leader action described as _____ desires some member participation such as duty assignment.
A. Telling.
B. Selling.
C. Consulting.
D. Sharing.
C. Consulting.
________________________________
• Tell - Makes the decision and announces it without discussion or employee involvement. Applies to any emergency scene situation that requires immediate action.
• Sell - Makes the decision and then sells it to employees based on why it is in the organization's best interest. Works when the leader is supporting a decision made by a higher authority such as the implementation of a new departmental policy.
• Consult - Presents ideas to members and invite their questions. Clarifies a decision the leader has made to subordinates.
• Consult - Prevents a tentative decision to members that is subject to change. Desire some member participation such as duty assignment.
• Consult - Presents the problem to members, ask for suggestions, and then makes the decision based on the best recommendation. Allows members to provide alternative ideas while allowing the leader to make the final selection.
• Share - Defines the limits on a decision and asks members to make the decision. Uses the consensus process to develop facility specifications.
• Share - Sets limitations and allows members to make all decisions without interference. Requires the leader and members to agree upon the limitations and the leader to feel comfortable empowering subordinates with the decision-making process.
738
The leadership continuing theory was developed in 1973 by R. Tannenaum and W.H. Schmidt and is used to determine which leadership style (ranging from autocratic to democratic leadership) a leader should apply to a situation. The leader action described as _____ clarifies a decision the leader has made to subordinates.
A. Telling.
B. Selling.
C. Consulting.
D. Sharing.
C. Consulting.
________________________________
• Tell - Makes the decision and announces it without discussion or employee involvement. Applies to any emergency scene situation that requires immediate action.
• Sell - Makes the decision and then sells it to employees based on why it is in the organization's best interest. Works when the leader is supporting a decision made by a higher authority such as the implementation of a new departmental policy.
• Consult - Presents ideas to members and invite their questions. Clarifies a decision the leader has made to subordinates.
• Consult - Prevents a tentative decision to members that is subject to change. Desire some member participation such as duty assignment.
• Consult - Presents the problem to members, ask for suggestions, and then makes the decision based on the best recommendation. Allows members to provide alternative ideas while allowing the leader to make the final selection.
• Share - Defines the limits on a decision and asks members to make the decision. Uses the consensus process to develop facility specifications.
• Share - Sets limitations and allows members to make all decisions without interference. Requires the leader and members to agree upon the limitations and the leader to feel comfortable empowering subordinates with the decision-making process.
739
The leadership continuing theory was developed in 1973 by R. Tannenaum and W.H. Schmidt and is used to determine which leadership style (ranging from autocratic to democratic leadership) a leader should apply to a situation. The leader action described as _____ works when the leader is supporting a decision made by a higher authority such as the implementation of a new departmental policy.
A. Telling.
B. Selling.
C. Consulting.
D. Sharing.
B. Selling.
________________________________
• Tell - Makes the decision and announces it without discussion or employee involvement. Applies to any emergency scene situation that requires immediate action.
• Sell - Makes the decision and then sells it to employees based on why it is in the organization's best interest. Works when the leader is supporting a decision made by a higher authority such as the implementation of a new departmental policy.
• Consult - Presents ideas to members and invite their questions. Clarifies a decision the leader has made to subordinates.
• Consult - Prevents a tentative decision to members that is subject to change. Desire some member participation such as duty assignment.
• Consult - Presents the problem to members, ask for suggestions, and then makes the decision based on the best recommendation. Allows members to provide alternative ideas while allowing the leader to make the final selection.
• Share - Defines the limits on a decision and asks members to make the decision. Uses the consensus process to develop facility specifications.
• Share - Sets limitations and allows members to make all decisions without interference. Requires the leader and members to agree upon the limitations and the leader to feel comfortable empowering subordinates with the decision-making process.
740
The leadership continuing theory was developed in 1973 by R. Tannenaum and W.H. Schmidt and is used to determine which leadership style (ranging from autocratic to democratic leadership) a leader should apply to a situation. The leader action described as _____ applies to any emergency scene situation that requires immediate action.
A. Telling.
B. Selling.
C. Consulting.
D. Sharing.
A. Telling.
________________________________
• Tell - Makes the decision and announces it without discussion or employee involvement. Applies to any emergency scene situation that requires immediate action.
• Sell - Makes the decision and then sells it to employees based on why it is in the organization's best interest. Works when the leader is supporting a decision made by a higher authority such as the implementation of a new departmental policy.
• Consult - Presents ideas to members and invite their questions. Clarifies a decision the leader has made to subordinates.
• Consult - Prevents a tentative decision to members that is subject to change. Desire some member participation such as duty assignment.
• Consult - Presents the problem to members, ask for suggestions, and then makes the decision based on the best recommendation. Allows members to provide alternative ideas while allowing the leader to make the final selection.
• Share - Defines the limits on a decision and asks members to make the decision. Uses the consensus process to develop facility specifications.
• Share - Sets limitations and allows members to make all decisions without interference. Requires the leader and members to agree upon the limitations and the leader to feel comfortable empowering subordinates with the decision-making process.
741
Command presence is the complex ability to identify the components of situation, assess the need for action, determine nature of the necessary intervention, and initiate the action - and also to be perceived as having the ability necessary to take this action. Along with these six personality characteristics, leaders can take the following eight steps to create command presence. The first step is to know what the situation is, the second step is:
A. To know what resources are available to apply to the situation.
B. To know the strategy and tactics required to resolve the situation.
C. To take responsibility for the decision.
D. To implement the decision.
A. To know what resources are available to apply to the situation. (2nd step)
________________________________
Step 1: Know what the situation is.
Step 2: Know what resources are available to apply to the situation.
Step 3: Know the strategy and tactics required to resolve the situation.
Step 4: Listen to all points of view.
Step 5: Make the decision.
Step 6: Take responsibility for the decision.
Step 7: Implement the decision.
Step 8: Evaluate the decision.
742
Leaders can take the eight steps to create command presence. The 1st & 2nd steps would be:
A. Know what the situation is ; Know what resources are available to apply to the situation.
B. Know the strategy and tactics required to resolve the situation ; Listen to all points of view.
C. Make the decision ; Take responsibility for the decision.
D. Implement the decision ; Evaluate the decision.
A. Know what the situation is ; Know what resources are available to apply to the situation.
________________________________
Step 1: Know what the situation is.
Step 2: Know what resources are available to apply to the situation.
Step 3: Know the strategy and tactics required to resolve the situation.
Step 4: Listen to all points of view.
Step 5: Make the decision.
Step 6: Take responsibility for the decision.
Step 7: Implement the decision.
Step 8: Evaluate the decision.
743
Leaders can take the eight steps to create command presence. The 3rd & 4th steps would be:
A. Know what the situation is ; Know what resources are available to apply to the situation.
B. Know the strategy and tactics required to resolve the situation ; Listen to all points of view.
C. Make the decision ; Take responsibility for the decision.
D. Implement the decision ; Evaluate the decision.
B. Know the strategy and tactics required to resolve the situation ; Listen to all points of view.
________________________________
Step 1: Know what the situation is.
Step 2: Know what resources are available to apply to the situation.
Step 3: Know the strategy and tactics required to resolve the situation.
Step 4: Listen to all points of view.
Step 5: Make the decision.
Step 6: Take responsibility for the decision.
Step 7: Implement the decision.
Step 8: Evaluate the decision.
744
Leaders can take the eight steps to create command presence. The 5th & 6th steps would be:
A. Know what the situation is ; Know what resources are available to apply to the situation.
B. Know the strategy and tactics required to resolve the situation ; Listen to all points of view.
C. Make the decision ; Take responsibility for the decision.
D. Implement the decision ; Evaluate the decision.
C. Make the decision ; Take responsibility for the decision.
________________________________
Step 1: Know what the situation is.
Step 2: Know what resources are available to apply to the situation.
Step 3: Know the strategy and tactics required to resolve the situation.
Step 4: Listen to all points of view.
Step 5: Make the decision.
Step 6: Take responsibility for the decision.
Step 7: Implement the decision.
Step 8: Evaluate the decision.
745
Leaders can take the eight steps to create command presence. The 7th & 8th steps would be:
A. Know what the situation is ; Know what resources are available to apply to the situation.
B. Know the strategy and tactics required to resolve the situation ; Listen to all points of view.
C. Make the decision ; Take responsibility for the decision.
D. Implement the decision ; Evaluate the decision.
D. Implement the decision ; Evaluate the decision.
________________________________
Step 1: Know what the situation is.
Step 2: Know what resources are available to apply to the situation.
Step 3: Know the strategy and tactics required to resolve the situation.
Step 4: Listen to all points of view.
Step 5: Make the decision.
Step 6: Take responsibility for the decision.
Step 7: Implement the decision.
Step 8: Evaluate the decision.
746
Essential to meeting all challenges is the establishment of priorities. The company officer's priorities are based primarily on the mission statement of the organization. In the fire and emergency services. In order to for the company officer to meet his/her priorities, he/she should consider the following preparation activity. _____ is described as: "Included in this category are the completion of reports and records, station maintenance, and other administrative duties assigned to the office".
A. Mental preparation for emergency response.
B. Direct preparation for emergency response.
C. Application of efficient organizational skills.
D. Mental preparation for nonemergency activities.
C. Application of efficient organizational skills.
747
Essential to meeting all challenges is the establishment of priorities. The company officer's priorities are based primarily on the mission statement of the organization. In the fire and emergency services. In order to for the company officer to meet his/her priorities, he/she should consider the following preparation activity. _____ is described as: "The company officer and members of the unit must be mentally and emotionally prepared to respond to any type of emergency situation at anytime during their work shift."
A. Mental preparation for emergency response.
B. Direct preparation for emergency response.
C. Application of efficient organizational skills.
D. Mental preparation for nonemergency activities.
A. Mental preparation for emergency response.
748
Essential to meeting all challenges is the establishment of priorities. The company officer's priorities are based primarily on the mission statement of the organization. In the fire and emergency services. In order to for the company officer to meet his/her priorities, he/she should consider the following preparation activity. _____ is described as: "These activities include training and drilling as a team, preparing the apparatus, obtaining personal protective equipment (PPE) and tools with which to respond, and developing preincident plans for occupancies and hazards within the response area."
A. Mental preparation for emergency response.
B. Direct preparation for emergency response.
C. Application of efficient organizational skills.
D. Mental preparation for nonemergency activities.
B. Direct preparation for emergency response.
749
Making decisions can be difficult because of the personal barriers that exist within the individual. Some of these barriers are internal, others are external. External barriers that exist outside the individual maybe created by how a situation is organized. The external barrier that is described as: "Every effort must be made to look at the total picture of the incident or problem based on all available information to determine the correct relationship of the various parts" is known as:
```
A. Lack of data.
B. Lack of accurate analysis.
C. Lack of resources.
D. Lack of management/ membership support.
E. Lack of commitment.
F. Lack of capacity.
```
B. Lack of accurate analysis.
750
Making decisions can be difficult because of the personal barriers that exist within the individual. Some of these barriers are internal, others are external. External barriers that exist outside the individual maybe created by how a situation is organized. The external barrier that is described as: "The lack of accurate, sufficient, or timely information. Can result in making no decision, making the wrong decision, or accepting a compromise that is not adequate to completely resolve the problem" is known as:
```
A. Lack of data.
B. Lack of accurate analysis.
C. Lack of resources.
D. Lack of management/ membership support.
E. Lack of commitment.
F. Lack of capacity.
```
A. Lack of data.
751
Making decisions can be difficult because of the personal barriers that exist within the individual. Some of these barriers are internal, others are external. External barriers that exist outside the individual maybe created by how a situation is organized. The external barrier that is described as: "The lack of finances, personnel, time, and equipment for the inability to enforce the decision to keep the most effective decision from being made and permit the implementation of an unacceptable compromise. A _____ delays decisions, may require that the decision be implemented in phases or postpone." is known as:
```
A. Lack of data.
B. Lack of accurate analysis.
C. Lack of resources.
D. Lack of management/ membership support.
E. Lack of commitment.
F. Lack of capacity.
```
C. Lack of resources.
752
Making decisions can be difficult because of the personal barriers that exist within the individual. Some of these barriers are internal, others are external. External barriers that exist outside the individual maybe created by how a situation is organized. The external barrier that is described as: "Dooms decisions to failure from the start. Lack of _____ will simply result in a good intention that does not become an action." is known as:
```
A. Lack of data.
B. Lack of accurate analysis.
C. Lack of resources.
D. Lack of management/ membership support.
E. Lack of commitment.
F. Lack of capacity.
```
D. Lack of management/ membership support.
753
Making decisions can be difficult because of the personal barriers that exist within the individual. Some of these barriers are internal, others are external. External barriers that exist outside the individual maybe created by how a situation is organized. The external barrier that is described as: "Leads to ineffective decisions. The personal commitment of the decision-maker and those affected by the decision are required in order to have effective decisions." is known as:
```
A. Lack of data.
B. Lack of accurate analysis.
C. Lack of resources.
D. Lack of management/ membership support.
E. Lack of commitment.
F. Lack of capacity.
```
E. Lack of commitment.
754
Making decisions can be difficult because of the personal barriers that exist within the individual. Some of these barriers are internal, others are external. External barriers that exist outside the individual maybe created by how a situation is organized. The external barrier that is described as: "Lacks the authority or ability to make a decision in some cases. Overcoming this barrier may require political alliances inside and outside the organization." is known as:
```
A. Lack of data.
B. Lack of accurate analysis.
C. Lack of resources.
D. Lack of management/ membership support.
E. Lack of commitment.
F. Lack of capacity.
```
F. Lack of capacity.
755
Making decisions can be difficult because of the personal barriers that exist within the individual. Some of these barriers are internal, others are external. Internal barriers are the results of psychological conflicts within the individual. The internal barrier described as: "Becomes one of the main personal barriers to making a decision. Most are unfounded and exists only in the mind of the individual." is known as:
```
A. Fear.
B. Ego or self-esteem.
C. Indecisiveness.
D. Distrust.
E. Antagonism.
F. Jealousy.
D. Unethical motives.
```
A. Fear.
756
Making decisions can be difficult because of the personal barriers that exist within the individual. Some of these barriers are internal, others are external. Internal barriers are the results of psychological conflicts within the individual. The internal barrier described as: "Too much can lead to overconfidence that causes the individual to ignore the advice of others; On the other hand, too little leads to indecisiveness. EPA counseling, outside professional counselors, or strong personal commitment can help if one suffers from too high/low _____ ." is known as:
```
A. Fear.
B. Ego or self-esteem.
C. Indecisiveness.
D. Distrust.
E. Antagonism.
F. Jealousy.
D. Unethical motives.
```
B. Ego or self-esteem.
757
Making decisions can be difficult because of the personal barriers that exist within the individual. Some of these barriers are internal, others are external. Internal barriers are the results of psychological conflicts within the individual. The internal barrier described as: "Means that events will overtake the need for the decision. When _____ occurs, the problem may overwhelm the available resources. Making a best judgment decision and taking action, even if the decision and action later proved to be wrong, is better than allowing an action to take control of the situation." is known as:
```
A. Fear.
B. Ego or self-esteem.
C. Indecisiveness.
D. Distrust.
E. Antagonism.
F. Jealousy.
D. Unethical motives.
```
C. Indecisiveness.
758
Making decisions can be difficult because of the personal barriers that exist within the individual. Some of these barriers are internal, others are external. Internal barriers are the results of psychological conflicts within the individual. The internal barrier described as: "Causes a lack of trust in one's own ability to make a correct decision and in others to provide accurate information to implement a decision. _____ is result of low self-esteem and can cause paralysis and keep any decision from being made." is known as:
```
A. Fear.
B. Ego or self-esteem.
C. Indecisiveness.
D. Distrust.
E. Antagonism.
F. Jealousy.
```
D. Distrust.
759
Making decisions can be difficult because of the personal barriers that exist within the individual. Some of these barriers are internal, others are external. Internal barriers are the results of psychological conflicts within the individual. The internal barrier described as: "Means that active opposition to a decision by others causes the decision-maker to compromise even though the compromise might not be the best solution to the problem. _____ may be the result of ego, personality differences, or jealousy." is known as:
```
A. Fear.
B. Ego or self-esteem.
C. Indecisiveness.
D. Distrust.
E. Antagonism.
F. Jealousy.
```
E. Antagonism.
760
Making decisions can be difficult because of the personal barriers that exist within the individual. Some of these barriers are internal, others are external. Internal barriers are the results of psychological conflicts within the individual. The internal barrier described as: "Involves personal gain, enhanced self image, and personal protection at the expense of others. Bad decisions can be generated when the reason for making them is unethical." is known as:
```
A. Fear.
B. Ego or self-esteem.
C. Indecisiveness.
D. Distrust.
E. Antagonism.
F. Jealousy.
```
F. Jealousy.
761
The message is the meaning, idea, or concept that a speaker is attempting to communicate to the listener/receiver. While most people think of a message as the spoken word, it actually consists of nonverbal factors as well. The message maybe transmitted by auditory, visual, tactical, olfactory, gustatory, gestural or any combination of these means. Speech communications research indicate that the following components listed in the descending order of message percentage are:
A. Verbal, Kinesics, Vocal tones/ inflections.
B. Kinesics, Verbal, Vocal tones/ inflections.
C. Vocal tones/ inflections, Kinesics, Verbal.
D. Kinesics, Vocal tones/ inflections, Verbal.
```
D. Kinesics, Vocal tones/ inflections, Verbal.
________________________________
Kinesics = 55%
Vocal tones/ inflections = 38%
Verbal = 7%
```
762
The message is the meaning, idea, or concept that a speaker is attempting to communicate to the listener/receiver. While most people think of a message as the spoken word, it actually consists of nonverbal factors as well. _____ includes eye contact, facial expressions, gestures, posture, and poise. _____ can project a person's self perception, emotional state, approachability, or cultural background. In most messages, the _____ provides a listener the greatest percentage of the message (55%).
A. Verbal.
B. Vocal tones/inflections.
C. Kinesics.
D. Gestures.
C. Kinesics.
763
Nonemergency casualties include any fatalities or injuries that occurred while performing administrative duties, training code enforcement and inspections, maintenance, or other non-incident related situations. Training related fatalities, which are about 10% of all annual firefighter LODD, have risen in recent years. The leading cause of training related fatalities has been heart attacks followed by:
A. Stroke.
B. Traumatic injuries.
C. Burns.
D. Asphyxiation.
B. Traumatic injuries.
764
The two leading causes of emergency scene fatalities to firefighters are the result of _____ and heart attacks resulting from physical stress.
A. Motor vehicle accidents.
B. Burns.
C. Stroke.
D. Asphyxiation.
A. Motor vehicle accidents.
765
_____ is the leading cause of firefighter fatalities.
```
A. Cardiac arrest.
B. Heart attacks.
C. Strokes.
D. Motor vehicle accidents.
E. Traumatic injury.
F. Asphyxiation.
G. Burns.
H. Cancer.
```
A. Cardiac arrest.
________________________________
A. Cardiac arrest. (Leading cause of FF "death")
B. Heart attacks. (Leading cause of FF "injury" w stroke and training related death)
C. Strokes. (Leading cause of FF "injury" with heart-attack)
D. Motor vehicle accidents. (Leading cause of on scene FF death with heart-attack)
E. Traumatic injury. (2nd leading cause of training death behind heart-attack)
F. Asphyxiation. (N/A)
G. Burns. (N/A)
H. Cancer. (N/A)
766
Cardiac arrest is the leading cause of firefighter fatalities, while overexertion or stress that results in _____ and _____ is the leading cause the firefighter "injury".
```
(2 answers:)
A. Cardiac arrest.
B. Heart attacks.
C. Strokes.
D. Motor vehicle accidents.
E. Traumatic injury.
F. Asphyxiation.
G. Burns.
H. Cancer.
```
B. Heart attacks.
&
C. Strokes.
767
The accident, injury, illness, and fatality statistics that are used to analyze accidents and determine trends are only as accurate as the original information that is gathered by investigating company officers. In conducting an investigation, company officers collect basic information about the participants, event, or incident. Which of the following answer choices contain general information?
A. Personal protective clothing or equipment in use.
B. Date and time of incident.
C. Age and condition of apparatus/equipment.
D. Weather and temperature.
B. Date and time of incident. (General information)
________________________________
A. Personal protective clothing or equipment in use. (Employee characteristics - participant)
C. Age and condition of apparatus/equipment. (Apparatus/equipment information)
D. Weather and temperature. (Environmental information)
768
The accident, injury, illness, and fatality statistics that are used to analyze accidents and determine trends are only as accurate as the original information that is gathered by investigating company officers. In conducting an investigation, company officers collect basic information about the participants, event, or incident. The investigation should provide the following information... the exception is:
```
A. General information.
B. Employee characteristics - participant.
C. Environmental information.
D. Apparatus/equipment information.
E. Human factors.
```
E. Human factors. (FALSE)
769
Practical training evolutions (sometimes called company drills) are essential for providing safe and effective fire and emergency services to the public. Company officers may use a wide variety of sites for practical training evolutions. A remote training site that may be used for standpipe operation and high-angle rescue training is:
A. Abandoned structures.
B. Condemned buildings.
C. Parking garages.
D. Parking lots.
C. Parking garages.
770
While it is the responsibility of the chief officers and the administrative staff to develop formal organizational plans, it is the responsibility of company officers to implement them. Company officers must know the types of plans used by the organization, how the planning process works, and how to apply it at the company or unit level, and the process for altering existing plans. The company officer relies on the results of _____ to manage day-to-day emergency and nonemergency activities of the unit.
```
A. Strategic plans.
B. Operational/Administrative plans.
C. Contingency plans.
D. Standing plans.
E. Single-use plans.
```
D. Standing plans.
771
Company officers must know the types of plans used by the organization, how the planning process works, and how to apply it at the company or unit level, and the process for altering existing plans. ______ is described as: "Develop policies, procedures, and rules that are used frequently. The creation of policies, procedures, and rules helps to ensure the consistent and equal application of authority while defining responsibility within the organization. The company officer relies on them to manage the day-to-day emergency and nonemergency activities of the unit."
```
A. Strategic plans.
B. Operational/Administrative plans.
C. Contingency plans.
D. Standing plans.
E. Single-use plans.
```
D. Standing plans.
772
Company officers must know the types of plans used by the organization, how the planning process works, and how to apply it at the company or unit level, and the process for altering existing plans. ______ is described as: "Accomplished a specific objective such as the development of a program, project, or budget. These plans are usually intended to reach an objective within a short period of time."
```
A. Strategic plans.
B. Operational/Administrative plans.
C. Contingency plans.
D. Standing plans.
E. Single-use plans.
```
E. Single-use plans.
773
Company officers must know the types of plans used by the organization, how the planning process works, and how to apply it at the company or unit level, and the process for altering existing plans. ______ is described as: "Chart the course of the organization over an indefinite future that is divided into definite time components. The plan attempts to take into account the external factors that will affect the organization such as changes in the economy, demographics, service requirements, hazards, and technology."
```
A. Strategic plans.
B. Operational/Administrative plans.
C. Contingency plans.
D. Standing plans.
E. Single-use plans.
```
A. Strategic plans.
774
Company officers must know the types of plans used by the organization, how the planning process works, and how to apply it at the company or unit level, and the process for altering existing plans. ______ is described as: "Focus on HOW objectives will be accomplished as opposed to strategic plans that focus on WHAT the organization will do. ______ are concerned with those factors that are within the control of the organization, objective, and fact based while strategic plans are subjective."
```
A. Strategic plans.
B. Operational/Administrative plans.
C. Contingency plans.
D. Standing plans.
E. Single-use plans.
```
B. Operational/Administrative plans.
775
Consider the following statements:
1) Operational/administrative plans focus on HOW objectives will be accomplished as opposed to strategic plans that focus on WHAT the organization will do.
2) Operational/administrative plans are OBJECTIVE, and fact based while strategic plans are SUBJECTIVE.
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
776
Consider the following statements:
1) Operational/administrative plans focus on HOW objectives will be accomplished as opposed to strategic plans that focus on WHAT the organization will do.
2) Operational/administrative plans are SUBJECTIVE, while strategic plans are OBJECTIVE and
fact based.
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
A. #1 is true.
777
Consider the following statements:
1) Operational/administrative plans focus on WHAT objectives will be accomplished as opposed to strategic plans that focus on HOW the organization will do.
2) Operational/administrative plans are OBJECTIVE, and fact based while strategic plans are SUBJECTIVE.
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
B. #2 is true.
778
Consider the following statements:
1) Strategic plans focus on HOW objectives will be accomplished as opposed to operational/ administrative plans that focus on WHAT the organization will do.
2) Strategic plans are OBJECTIVE, and fact based while operational/ administrative plans are SUBJECTIVE.
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
779
Strategic plans chart the course of the organization over an indefinite future that is divided into definite time components. The plan attempts to take into account the external factors that will affect the organization such as changes in the economy, demographics, service requirements, hazards, and technology. Strategic plans have the following characteristics... the exception is:
A. Strategic plans are based on trends and expectations of the future environment, but external factors are somewhat predictable and some unforeseen events will occur.
B. Strategic planning, while relying on the best judgment of the planning committee based on analysis of the available information, must be designed to be flexible and responsive to change.
C. Strategic plans must be communicated to members of all units, and those portions of the plans that are assigned to a particular unit must be implemented through the use of operational and administrative plans.
D. Strategic plans create alternative plans that can be implemented in the event of uncontrollable circumstances. These plans attempt to prepare for the worst possible situations.
D. "Strategic plans" create alternative plans that can be implemented in the event of uncontrollable circumstances. These plans attempt to prepare for the worst possible situations. (FALSE - "Contingency plans")
780
One of the responsibilities of all company officers in managing conflict occurs when people are in opposition or disagreement. The conflict management style described as: "Sharing of information openly and honestly, which usually results in the best solution to the conflict. This style is focused on the best interest of the organization, community or service area" is known as:
```
A. Avoiding conflict.
B. Accommodating conflict.
C. Forcing conflict.
D. Negotiating conflict.
E. Collaborating conflict.
```
E. Collaborating conflict.
781
One of the responsibilities of all company officers in managing conflict occurs when people are in opposition or disagreement. The conflict management style described as: "Taking a nonassertive or passive approach; people may deny that a problem exists, refuse to take a stand on a situation, or mentally or physically withdraw from a situation. The result is a lose – lose situation because the conflict is never resolved" is known as:
```
A. Avoiding conflict.
B. Accommodating conflict.
C. Forcing conflict.
D. Negotiating conflict.
E. Collaborating conflict.
```
A. Avoiding conflict.
782
One of the responsibilities of all company officers in managing conflict occurs when people are in opposition or disagreement. The conflict management style described as: "Relying on an aggressive and uncooperative approach to conflict management, resulting in a win - lose situation. This style can damage relationships, create animosity, and result in a single-solution response to problems" is known as:
```
A. Avoiding conflict.
B. Accommodating conflict.
C. Forcing conflict.
D. Negotiating conflict.
E. Collaborating conflict.
```
C. Forcing conflict.
783
One of the responsibilities of all company officers in managing conflict occurs when people are in opposition or disagreement. The conflict management style described as: "Appeasing other persons by passively giving in to their positions. The result is a lose – win situation because the second person's needs are met at the expense of the first person" is known as:
```
A. Avoiding conflict.
B. Accommodating conflict.
C. Forcing conflict.
D. Negotiating conflict.
E. Collaborating conflict.
```
B. Accommodating conflict.
784
One of the responsibilities of all company officers in managing conflict occurs when people are in opposition or disagreement. The conflict management style described as: "Reaching a compromise solution that all parties can agree upon. The supervisor is moderately assertive and cooperative. The result is a decision that causes everyone to compromise on some things while benefiting on others. The conflict is resolved relatively quickly and relationships are maintained" is known as:
```
A. Avoiding conflict.
B. Accommodating conflict.
C. Forcing conflict.
D. Negotiating conflict.
E. Collaborating conflict.
```
D. Negotiating conflict.
785
In this information age, people tend to think of all information as being public and assessable. At the same time, in general, the public wants privacy. This conflict is apparent in government entities where the records that are generated by the organization, at taxpayers expense, are generally considered public record and open to scrutiny. At the same time, some of the records deal with the private lives of the individuals who work for the organization. Which of the following records would be considered confidential?
A. Handwritten notes.
B. Individual training records.
C. Computer data (including emails).
D. Documents, maps, and photographs.
B. Individual training records.
786
The company officer must be familiar with local, state, and federal laws that regulate both privacy and public access to data, reports, and records that they generate. Records that must be kept confidential include... the exception is:
A. Personal files.
B. Individual training records.
C. Medical files.
D. Emails.
D. Emails. (considered public record when created in/by municipalities or government agencies)
787
The company officer must be familiar with local, state, and federal laws that regulate both privacy and public access to data, reports, and records that they generate. Public records include virtually all records of agencies and jurisdictions within the state/providence. These records include... the exception is:
```
A. Individual training records.
B. Documents, maps, and photographs.
C. Videotapes.
D. Handwritten notes and/or letters.
E. Computer data (including emails).
```
A. Individual training records. (confidential)
788
Because the company officer may feel an obligation or commitment to guarantee that every task is completed, the decision to delegate authority to finish a task is often difficult. Challenges such as delegating tasks can be alleviated through a good training program that not only builds knowledge, skills, and abilities but also trust. _____ assigns responsibilities, prevents duplication of effort and makes specific, clear-cut assignments.
```
A. Unity of command.
B. Chain of command.
C. Division of labor.
D. Span of control.
E. Functional supervision.
```
C. Division of labor.
789
Because the company officer may feel an obligation or commitment to guarantee that every task is completed, the decision to delegate authority to finish a task is often difficult. Challenges such as delegating tasks can be alleviated through a good training program that not only builds knowledge, skills, and abilities but also trust. _____ is a management principle that states that each subordinate must have only one supervisor.
```
A. Unity of command.
B. Chain of command.
C. Division of labor.
D. Span of control.
E. Functional supervision.
```
A. Unity of command.
790
Because the company officer may feel an obligation or commitment to guarantee that every task is completed, the decision to delegate authority to finish a task is often difficult. Challenges such as delegating tasks can be alleviated through a good training program that not only builds knowledge, skills, and abilities but also trust. _____ is the pathway of responsibility from the top of the organization to the bottom and vice versa.
```
A. Unity of command.
B. Chain of command.
C. Division of labor.
D. Span of control.
E. Functional supervision.
```
B. Chain of command.
791
Because the company officer may feel an obligation or commitment to guarantee that every task is completed, the decision to delegate authority to finish a task is often difficult. Challenges such as delegating tasks can be alleviated through a good training program that not only builds knowledge, skills, and abilities but also trust. _____ is when personnel are signed by their supervisors to perform duties that fall under the authority of another supervisor, the subordinates are now allowed to report to the second supervisor on matters relating to that function.
```
A. Unity of command.
B. Chain of command.
C. Division of labor.
D. Span of control.
E. Functional supervision.
```
E. Functional supervision.
792
Because the company officer may feel an obligation or commitment to guarantee that every task is completed, the decision to delegate authority to finish a task is often difficult. Challenges such as delegating tasks can be alleviated through a good training program that not only builds knowledge, skills, and abilities but also trust. _____ is the number of subordinates that one individual can effectively supervise. This principle applies equally to supervising the crew of a single company or the officers of several companies under the direction of an incident commander (IC).
```
A. Unity of command.
B. Chain of command.
C. Division of labor.
D. Span of control.
E. Functional supervision.
```
D. Span of control.
793
While there is no absolute rule for determining how many subordinates that one person effectively can supervise, The National Incident Management System-Incident Command System (NIMS-ICS) model is based on a span-of-control ratio of one supervisor to 3 - 7 subordinates or functions with an optimum of 5. The variables that affect span-of-control in any given situation are as follows... the exception is:
A. Ability and experience of the supervisor but not the subordinates.
C. Nature of the task (including urgency, conditions under which it must be performed, complexity, rate at which it must be performed, and similarity/dissimilarity to task being performed by others).
D. Proximity of subordinates to the supervisor and each other.
E. Consequences of the mistake.
F.
A. Ability and experience of the supervisor "but not the subordinates". (FALSE)
________________________________
Ability and experience of the supervisor. &
Ability and experience of the subordinates.
794
The actions of a manager or supervisor can destroy employee motivation and damage relationships and unit cohesion. _____ causes the employee to be uncertain of his or her duties and contribution to the units goals and objectives.
A. Permanent employees to criticize each other.
B. Permit employees to compete in an unfriendly manner.
C. Be vague about the employee's role in the unit and organization.
D. Micromanage.
C. Be vague about the employee's role in the unit and organization.
795
The actions of a manager or supervisor can destroy employee motivation and damage relationships and unit cohesion. _____ indicates a lack of trust by the supervisor/manager and results in an inefficient use of resources.
A. Permanent employees to criticize each other.
B. Permit employees to compete in an unfriendly manner.
C. Be vague about the employee's role in the unit and organization.
D. Micromanage.
D. Micromanage.
796
The actions of a manager or supervisor can destroy employee motivation and damage relationships and unit cohesion. _____ can destroy the unit integrity and result in loss of unit effectiveness.
A. Permanent employees to criticize each other.
B. Permit employees to compete in an unfriendly manner.
C. Be vague about the employee's role in the unit and organization.
D. Micromanage.
B. Permit employees to compete in an unfriendly manner.
797
The actions of a manager or supervisor can destroy employee motivation and damage relationships and unit cohesion. _____ will destroy the unit and kill mutual respect.
A. Permanent employees to criticize each other.
B. Permit employees to compete in an unfriendly manner.
C. Be vague about the employee's role in the unit and organization.
D. Micromanage.
A. Permanent employees to criticize each other.
798
The most drastic change in the organization of the federal government occurred in 2002, with the creation of the Department of Homeland Security (DHS). Agencies that were previously part of other departments were moved into DHS in an attempt to consolidate intelligence gathering efforts to prevent further acts of terrorism. One of the agencies that was moved into DHS is:
A. Federal aviation agency (FAA).
B. Nuclear regulatory commission (NRC).
C. United States fire administration (USFA).
D. Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC).
C. United States fire administration (USFA).
799
The most drastic change in the organization of the federal government occurred in 2002, with the creation of the Department of Homeland Security (DHS). Agencies that were previously part of other departments were moved into DHS in an attempt to consolidate intelligence gathering efforts to prevent further acts of terrorism. Among the fire and emergency services agencies that were absorbed into DHS were... the exception is:
A. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA).
B. United States Fire Administration (USFA).
C. National Fire Academy (NFA).
D. US Forest Service (USFS).
E. The US CoastGuard, formally part of the Treasury Department.
F. Citizen and Immigration Services & US Secret Service, formally part of the Department of Justice (DOJ).
G. Newly created Transportation Security Administration (TSA).
D. US Forest Service (USFS).
FALSE - falls under US Department of Agriculture (USDA).
800
Besides the HVAC system, some types of structures are equipped with built-in ventilation devices that are designed to limit the spread of fire, release heated fire gases, or control smoke and contaminated atmospheres. _____ are installed in large vertical openings in the center of structures such as high-rise hotels and office buildings to the outside. Building codes in most areas require that _____ be equipped with automatic vents that are usually designed to be activated by either smoke or heat detectors.
```
A. Curtain boards.
B. Atrium vents.
C. Monitors.
D. Skylights.
E. Automatic roof and wall vents.
```
B. Atrium vents.
801
Besides the HVAC system, some types of structures are equipped with built-in ventilation devices that are designed to limit the spread of fire, release heated fire gases, or control smoke and contaminated atmospheres. _____ release heat and smoke outside through vents that work automatically and are placed at the highest point of the roof or wall to limit the spread of fire within a building. Although some are now activated by smoke detectors, most still operate through the use of fusible links connected to spring-loaded or counterweighted cover assemblies. Operating sprinklers may slow or prevent the activation of _____ . If they do not open automatically, firefighters will have to open them manually with manual release mechanisms. Characteristics include "fusible links" which separate when their designated fusing temperature is reached, allowing vent covers to open; and "automatic locking devices" that ensure vent covers remain open, even gusty winds.
```
A. Curtain boards.
B. Atrium vents.
C. Monitors.
D. Skylights.
E. Automatic roof and wall vents.
```
E. Automatic roof and wall vents.
802
Besides the HVAC system, some types of structures are equipped with built-in ventilation devices that are designed to limit the spread of fire, release heated fire gases, or control smoke and contaminated atmospheres. _____ release heat and smoke to the outside from square or rectangular structures that usually penetrated the roofs of single-story buildings but may be found on high-rise buildings as well. They may have metal, glass, wired glass, or louvered sides; Which rely on fusible links and gravity to open or upon the glass breaking to provide ventilation in case of a fire.
```
A. Curtain boards.
B. Atrium vents.
C. Monitors.
D. Skylights.
E. Automatic roof and wall vents.
```
C. Monitors.
803
Besides the HVAC system, some types of structures are equipped with built-in ventilation devices that are designed to limit the spread of fire, release heated fire gases, or control smoke and contaminated atmospheres. _____ ventilate heat and smoke in the event of fire. Those equipped with thermoplastic panels or ordinary window glass can act as automatic vents because the temperature of a fire will melt the plastic or break the glass. Those without thermoplastic panels or automatic venting will have to be removed or glass panes will have to be broken. If equipped with wired-glass, panes may have to be removed from their frames.
```
A. Curtain boards.
B. Atrium vents.
C. Monitors.
D. Skylights.
E. Automatic roof and wall vents.
```
D. Skylights.
804
Besides the HVAC system, some types of structures are equipped with built-in ventilation devices that are designed to limit the spread of fire, release heated fire gases, or control smoke and contaminated atmospheres. _____ consist of fire-resistive half-walls that extended down from the underside of the roof to limit the horizontal spread of heat and smoke by confining them to a relatively small area directly over their sources. They also concentrate heat and smoke directly under automatic roof vents to accelerate the vents activation and may also accelerate the activation of automatic sprinklers in that area.
```
A. Curtain boards.
B. Atrium vents.
C. Monitors.
D. Skylights.
E. Automatic roof and wall vents.
```
A. Curtain boards.
| aka Draft curtains
805
Characteristics of curtain boards or draft curtains include:
1) Extend generally a distance equal to at least 20% of the vertical distance from the floor to the roof but not lower than 10 feet above the floor.
2) Areas encompassed will generally be those containing critical industrial processes and/or concentrations of flammable liquids or other hazardous materials with high fire potential.
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
806
Curtain boards (also known as draft curtains) extend generally a distance to at least _____ of the vertical distance from the floor to the roof but not lower than ____ above the floor.
A. 10% ; 20 feet.
B. 15% ; 15 feet.
C. 20% ; 10 feet.
D. 25% ; 10 feet.
C. 20% ; 10 feet.
807
Ventilation is a means of controlling or modifying the environment and spread of fire within a structure. Ventilation helps reduce the possibility of backdraft or flashover conditions, improves the chances of affecting a rescue by reducing hot gases and poisonous smoke, improves the visibility for responders, and reduces property damage. _____ technique using smoke ejectors to develop artificial circulation and pull smoke out of the structure; smoke ejectors are placed in windows, doors, or roof vent holes to pull the smoke, and gases from inside the building and eject them to the exterior.
A. Negative-pressure.
B. Positive-pressure.
C. Horizontal.
D. Vertical.
A. Negative-pressure.
808
Ventilation is a means of controlling or modifying the environment and spread of fire within a structure. Ventilation helps reduce the possibility of backdraft or flashover conditions, improves the chances of affecting a rescue by reducing hot gases and poisonous smoke, improves the visibility for responders, and reduces property damage. _____ method of ventilating a confined space by mechanically blowing fresh air into the space in sufficient volume to create a slight pressure within and thereby forcing the contaminated atmosphere out the exit opening.
A. Negative-pressure.
B. Positive-pressure.
C. Horizontal.
D. Vertical.
B. Positive-pressure.
809
Ventilation is a means of controlling or modifying the environment and spread of fire within a structure. Ventilation helps reduce the possibility of backdraft or flashover conditions, improves the chances of affecting a rescue by reducing hot gases and poisonous smoke, improves the visibility for responders, and reduces property damage. _____ any technique by which heat, smoke, and other particles of combustion are channeled out of a structure by way of existing or creating openings in such as windows, doors, or other holes in walls.
A. Negative-pressure.
B. Positive-pressure.
C. Horizontal.
D. Vertical.
C. Horizontal.
810
Ventilation is a means of controlling or modifying the environment and spread of fire within a structure. Ventilation helps reduce the possibility of backdraft or flashover conditions, improves the chances of affecting a rescue by reducing hot gases and poisonous smoke, improves the visibility for responders, and reduces property damage. _____ method of ventilating at the highest point of a building through existing or creating openings and channeling the contaminated atmosphere _____ within the structure and out the top; uses holes cut in the roof and open building features such as skylights, roof vents, or roof doors.
A. Negative-pressure.
B. Positive-pressure.
C. Horizontal.
D. Vertical.
D. Vertical.
811
Making decisions can be difficult because of the personal barriers that exist within the individual. Some of these barriers are psychological while others are generated by the organizational culture. Internal barriers are the result of psychological conflicts within the individual. Jealousy is described as:
A. Prevents effective decision-making.
B. Becomes one of the main personal barriers to making a decision.
C. Causes a lack of trust in one's own ability to make a correct decision and in others to provide accurate information to implement a decision.
D. Causes an individual to act irrationally and block the suggestions of others.
D. Causes an individual to act irrationally and block the suggestions of others. (Jealousy)
________________________________
A. Prevents effective decision-making. (Ego or self-esteem)
B. Becomes one of the main personal barriers to making a decision. (Fear)
C. Causes a lack of trust in one's own ability to make a correct decision and in others to provide accurate information to implement a decision. (Distrust)
812
If there is no PIO assigned or available, Company officers should follow organizational policies and procedures when being interviewed. The following guidelines are TRUE regarding company officers giving interviews... the exception is:
A. Remember that there is no such thing as "off the record". Anything said to a reporter can be reported.
B. Do not hesitate to answer forced choice questions.
C. Do not be led into answering questions beyond the officers area of knowledge or expertise.
D. Be prepared. Rehearse your interview technique, and try to improve delivery.
B. Do not hesitate to answer forced choice questions. (FALSE)
813
The term used to describe the common organizational structure in the fire and emergency services is _____ , which is defined as having an uninterrupted series of steps or a "chain of authority".
A. Decision making authority.
B. Unity of command.
C. Span of control.
D. Scalar structure.
D. Scalar structure.
814
Typically, emergency services use _____ organizations. It is a paramilitary, pyramid-type of organization with authority centralized at the top. Decisions are directed down from the top of the organizational structure through intermediate levels to the base of the structure. Information, in turn, is transmitted up from the bottom through the structure to the positions at the top.
A. Chain of authority.
B. Unity of command.
C. Span of control.
D. Scalar structure.
D. Scalar structure.
815
Scalar structure is well-suited for dealing with emergency situations for the following reasons... the exception is:
A. Span of control is maintained.
B. Information is decentralized for decision-making.
C. Functional chain of command is maintained.
D. Certain decision-making authority is delegated to lower levels, and communication is enhanced.
B. Information is "decentralized" for decision-making. (FALSE - "centralized")
816
Company officers may be asked to assist in the development and maintenance of mutual aid plans. Additionally, mutual aid plans should be reviewed periodically to ensure that they remain current and up-to-date. Both the creation and maintenance of mutual aid agreements require personnel to work with other organizations and agencies, including their own and other governmental jurisdictions. The following statement is TRUE regarding mutual aid.
A. Mutual aid may be initiated whenever an emergency is reported along a mutual jurisdictional boundary.
B. Mutual aid normally involves payment by one jurisdiction to the other.
C. Agreement may provide for automatic aid in the event of any fire involving a given number of alarms.
D. Mutual aid is the result of a reciprocal agreement between two or more fire and emergency services organizations.
D. Mutual aid is the result of a reciprocal agreement between two or more fire and emergency services organizations. (TRUE)
817
Agreements with other jurisdictions or agencies are normally formal, written plans that define the roles of the participants. Agreements can be categorized as mutual aid, automatic aid, or outside aid.
_____ is described as: "The result of a reciprocal agreement between two or more fire and emergency services organizations. The agreement defines how the organizations will provide resources in various situations and how the actions of the shared resources will be monitored and controlled."
A. Mutual aid.
B. Automatic aid.
C. Outside aid.
A. Mutual aid.
818
Agreements with other jurisdictions or agencies are normally formal, written plans that define the roles of the participants. Agreements can be categorized as mutual aid, automatic aid, or outside aid. Responses under _____ are usually on and "on-request" basis meaning assistance is provided only when an organization asks for assistance as when it's resources are depleted, it is important to remember that the request may be denied.
A. Mutual aid.
B. Automatic aid.
C. Outside aid.
A. Mutual aid.
819
Agreements with other jurisdictions or agencies are normally formal, written plans that define the roles of the participants. Agreements can be categorized as mutual aid, automatic aid, or outside aid. _____ results from a formal, written agreement between fire and emergency services organizations that share a common boundary; _____ occurs whenever certain predetermined conditions occur.
A. Mutual aid.
B. Automatic aid.
C. Outside aid.
B. Automatic aid.
820
Agreements with other jurisdictions or agencies are normally formal, written plans that define the roles of the participants. Agreements can be categorized as mutual aid, automatic aid, or outside aid. _____ is normally addressed through a signed contract under which one jurisdiction agrees to provide aid to another in return for an established payment that is normally and annual fee but may be on a per-response basis.
A. Mutual aid.
B. Automatic aid.
C. Outside aid.
C. Outside aid.
821
Practical training evolutions (sometimes called company drills) are essential for providing safe and efficient fire and emergency services to the public. They are key elements in any fire and emergency services organizations training program. An example of simple training evolution is:
A. Hazardous materials incidents.
B. Structural collapses.
C. Forced entry through doors.
D. Natural disasters such as floods.
C. Forced entry through doors.
822
Practical training evolutions (sometimes called company drills) are essential for providing safe and efficient fire and emergency services to the public, they can be simple or complex. "Simple" training evolutions involve small numbers of students performing a single task that requires only a few skills. Examples include... the exception is:
```
A. Lifting and setting ground ladders.
B. Using portable fire extinguishers.
C. Lifting and moving patients.
D. Forcing entry through doors.
E. Taking and recording patients vital signs.
F. Deploying and advancing attack hoselines.
G. Driving and parking fire apparatus.
H. Automatic or mutual aid responses.
```
H. Automatic or mutual aid responses. (FALSE - Complex training)
823
Practical training evolutions (sometimes called company drills) are essential for providing safe and efficient fire and emergency services to the public, they can be simple or complex. "Complex" training evolutions may involve multiple units, agencies, or jurisdictions and scenarios that require high levels of cooperation and coordination. Some examples of complex scenarios are... the exception is:
A. Automatic or mutual aid responses.
B. Large area structure fires.
C. Using portable fire extinguishers.
D. Structural collapses.
E. Natural disasters such as floods, tornadoes, or earthquakes.
F. Hazardous material incidents.
G. Human caused disasters, including terrorist attacks.
H. Large area forest, wildland, or urban interface fires.
I. Transportation incidents such as aircraft crashes, bus or truck accidents, or shipboard.
C. Using portable fire extinguishers. (FALSE - Simple training)
824
Discipline is often thought of as punishment; however, the vast majority of the discipline imposed is done to correct inappropriate behavior, not to punish persons. Most public entities have laws requiring some form of progressive discipline, although it may not be called by that name. The level of progressive discipline the company officer is most likely to use is:
A. Preventative action.
B. Corrective action.
C. Punitive action.
D. Termination.
A. Preventative action.
825
Progressive discipline usually involves three levels. The _____ level holds an individual counseling interview to correct the inappropriate behavior as soon as it is discovered and prevent it from becoming a pattern or progressing to a more serious offense.
A. Preventative action.
B. Corrective action.
C. Punitive action.
D. Termination.
A. Preventative action.
826
Progressive discipline usually involves three levels. The process of the _____ level is to:
- Ensure that the employee understands both the rule that was violated and the organizational necessity for the rule during the interview.
- Explain exactly what is expected from the employee in the future and what may happen if the rule is violated again.
- Document the interview in a written record.
A. Preventative action.
B. Corrective action.
C. Punitive action.
D. Termination.
A. Preventative action.
827
Progressive discipline usually involves three levels. The _____ level is used when an employee repeats a violation for which preventative action was taken or commits a different violation. It may also be used if an employee commits a serious violation as a first offense. _____ is always done in writing. Give the employee a letter in person or send one by certified mail with a return receipt requested to guarantee that it is received.
A. Preventative action.
B. Corrective action.
C. Punitive action.
D. Termination.
B. Corrective action.
828
Progressive discipline usually involves three levels. In the _____ level, the letter includes the following information:
- Description of what transpired in the preventative interview if one was held.
- Description of what the employee is or is not doing that violates organizational rule.
- Review of organizational policy regarding the possible consequences if the behavior continues or a change in behavior fails to meet organizational standards.
- Statement informing the employee that a copy of the letter will be placed in the employee's personal file.
A. Preventative action.
B. Corrective action.
C. Punitive action.
D. Termination.
B. Corrective action.
829
Progressive discipline usually involves three levels. The _____ level gives the employee notice of possible sanctions. This action is used when an employee either continues to exhibit inappropriate behavior, despite earlier corrective efforts, or commits a very serious violation of organizational rules as a first offense. The employee is put on notice that this behavior cannot and will not be tolerated. Possible sanctions include:
- A more severe formal written reprimand.
- Fine.
- Suspension.
- Demotion.
- Termination.
- Prosecution (legal action may result in large fine or jail time).
A. Preventative action.
B. Corrective action.
C. Punitive action.
D. Termination.
C. Punitive action.
830
Although labor unions exist in both public and private sectors and are responsible for negotiating member benefits with management, there are differences between the two categories. The following statements are TRUE regarding these differences... the exception is:
A. In the public sector, the fire and emergency services organization usually has a monopoly on fire protection in the community or response area.
B. The fire and emergency services are extremely vital to the public.
C. Public-sector collective-bargaining is more likely to involve the courts.
D. The law governing collective-bargaining in the private sector, is not as uniform as laws governing the public sector.
C. Public-sector collective-bargaining is more likely to involve the courts. (FALSE)
831
The IBC designates five construction types with two subcategories for each type with the exception of Type IV. Type I construction consists of noncombustible materials characterized by the use of steel, iron, concrete, or masonry structural elements. Type 1B requires the following fire-resistance ratings:
A. 3 hour fire-resistance rating of the structural frame and loadbearing walls, 3 hour fire-resistance rating of the floors, and 3 hour fire-resistance rating of the roofs.
B. 2 hour fire-resistance rating of the structural frame and loadbearing walls, 2 hour fire-resistance of floors, and 1 hour fire-resistance rating of roofs.
C. 3 hour fire-resistance rating of the structural frame and loadbearing walls, 2 hour fire-resistance rating of floors, and 1 1/2 hour fire-resistance rating of roofs.
D. 2 hour fire-resistance rating of structural frame and loadbearing walls, 1 hour fire-resistance of floors, and 1 hour fire-resistant rating of roofs.
B. 2 hour fire-resistance rating of the structural frame and loadbearing walls, 2 hour fire-resistance of floors, and 1 hour fire-resistance rating of roofs. (Type 1B)
832
The IBC designates five construction types with two subcategories for each type with the exception of Type IV. Type I construction consists of noncombustible materials characterized by the use of steel, iron, concrete, or masonry structural elements. Type 1A requires the following fire-resistance ratings:
A. 3 hour fire-resistance rating of the structural frame and loadbearing walls, 3 hour fire-resistance rating of the floors, and 3 hour fire-resistance rating of the roofs.
B. 2 hour fire-resistance rating of the structural frame and loadbearing walls, 2 hour fire-resistance of floors, and 1 hour fire-resistance rating of roofs.
C. 3 hour fire-resistance rating of the structural frame and loadbearing walls, 2 hour fire-resistance rating of floors, and 1 1/2 hour fire-resistance rating of roofs.
D. 2 hour fire-resistance rating of structural frame and loadbearing walls, 1 hour fire-resistance of floors, and 1 hour fire-resistant rating of roofs.
C. 3 hour fire-resistance rating of the structural frame and loadbearing walls, 2 hour fire-resistance rating of floors, and 1 1/2 hour fire-resistance rating of roofs. (Type 1A)
833
The IBC designates five construction types with two subcategories for each type with the exception of Type IV. Type II consists of noncombustible materials but with a reduced fire-resistance rating when compared with Type I construction. Although the term is not completely accurate, this type is often referred to as a "1-hour building", which means that bearing walls and floors have a 1 hour fire resistance rated. Subcategory Type IIA requires:
A. Requires noncombustible fire-resistant materials similar to Type I buildings insofar as the structural elements must be of steel, concrete, or masonry.
B. Requires approved noncombustible materials, but the materials used may have no assigned fire-resistance rating.
C. Requires materials that will provide a 1-hour fire-resistance construction throughout the structure.
D. Requires a 2-hour fire-resistance rating for the structural frame and loadbearing walls; floors must have a 2-hour fire-resistance rating; and roofs must have a 1-hour fire-resistance rating.
A. Requires noncombustible fire-resistant materials similar to Type I buildings insofar as the structural elements must be of steel, concrete, or masonry. (Type IIA)
________________________________
B. Requires approved noncombustible materials, but the materials used may have no assigned fire-resistance rating. (Type IIB)
C. Requires materials that will provide a 1-hour fire-resistance construction throughout the structure. (Type VA)
D. Requires a 2-hour fire-resistance rating for the structural frame and loadbearing walls; floors must have a 2-hour fire-resistance rating; and roofs must have a 1-hour fire-resistance rating. (Type IB)
834
The IBC designates five construction types with two subcategories for each type with the exception of Type IV. Type II consists of noncombustible materials but with a reduced fire-resistance rating when compared with Type I construction. Although the term is not completely accurate, this type is often referred to as a "1-hour building", which means that bearing walls and floors have a 1 hour fire resistance rated. Subcategory Type IIB requires:
A. Requires noncombustible fire-resistant materials similar to Type I buildings insofar as the structural elements must be of steel, concrete, or masonry.
B. Requires approved noncombustible materials, but the materials used may have no assigned fire-resistance rating.
C. Requires materials that will provide a 1-hour fire-resistance construction throughout the structure.
D. Requires a 2-hour fire-resistance rating for the structural frame and loadbearing walls; floors must have a 2-hour fire-resistance rating; and roofs must have a 1-hour fire-resistance rating.
B. Requires approved noncombustible materials, but the materials used may have no assigned fire-resistance rating. (Type IIB)
________________________________
A. Requires noncombustible fire-resistant materials similar to Type I buildings insofar as the structural elements must be of steel, concrete, or masonry. (Type IIA)
C. Requires materials that will provide a 1-hour fire-resistance construction throughout the structure. (Type VA)
D. Requires a 2-hour fire-resistance rating for the structural frame and loadbearing walls; floors must have a 2-hour fire-resistance rating; and roofs must have a 1-hour fire-resistance rating. (Type IB)
835
The IBC designates five construction types with two subcategories for each type with the exception of Type IV. Type III Is consists of structural elements made of any materials permitted by the code. Exterior walls must have a 2-hour fire-resistance rating. Subcategory Type IIIA requires:
A. Requires materials that will provide a 1-hour fire-resistance construction throughout the structure.
B. Lacks the 1-hour fire-resistance construction requirement.
C. A 1-hour fire-resistance rating for all structural elements except for nonbearing interior walls and partitions.
D. May have non-fire-rated structural elements.
A. Requires materials that will provide a 1-hour fire-resistance construction throughout the structure. (Type IIIA)
________________________________
B. Lacks the 1-hour fire-resistance construction requirement. (Type IIIB)
C. A 1-hour fire-resistance rating for all structural elements except for nonbearing interior walls and partitions. (Type VA)
D. May have non-fire-rated structural elements. (Type VB)
836
The IBC designates five construction types with two subcategories for each type with the exception of Type IV. Type III Is consists of structural elements made of any materials permitted by the code. Exterior walls must have a 2-hour fire-resistance rating. Subcategory Type IIIB requires:
A. Requires materials that will provide a 1-hour fire-resistance construction throughout the structure.
B. Lacks the 1-hour fire-resistance construction requirement.
C. A 1-hour fire-resistance rating for all structural elements except for nonbearing interior walls and partitions.
D. May have non-fire-rated structural elements.
B. Lacks the 1-hour fire-resistance construction requirement. (Type IIIB)
________________________________
A. Requires materials that will provide a 1-hour fire-resistance construction throughout the structure. (Type IIIA)
C. A 1-hour fire-resistance rating for all structural elements except for nonbearing interior walls and partitions. (Type VA)
D. May have non-fire-rated structural elements. (Type VB)
837
The IBC designates five construction types with two subcategories for each type with the exception of Type IV. Type V consists of structural elements and exterior and interior walls constructed of any materials permitted by the code (also known as wood-frame construction). Subcategories Type VA requires:
A. Requires materials that will provide a 1-hour fire-resistance construction throughout the structure.
B. Lacks the 1-hour fire-resistance construction requirement.
C. A 1-hour fire-resistance rating for all structural elements except for nonbearing interior walls and partitions.
D. May have non-fire-rated structural elements.
C. A 1-hour fire-resistance rating for all structural elements except for nonbearing interior walls and partitions. (Type VA)
________________________________
A. Requires materials that will provide a 1-hour fire-resistance construction throughout the structure. (Type IIIA)
B. Lacks the 1-hour fire-resistance construction requirement. (Type IIIB)
D. May have non-fire-rated structural elements. (Type VB)
838
The IBC designates five construction types with two subcategories for each type with the exception of Type IV. Type V consists of structural elements and exterior and interior walls constructed of any materials permitted by the code (also known as wood-frame construction). Subcategories Type VB requires:
A. Requires materials that will provide a 1-hour fire-resistance construction throughout the structure.
B. Lacks the 1-hour fire-resistance construction requirement.
C. A 1-hour fire-resistance rating for all structural elements except for nonbearing interior walls and partitions.
D. May have non-fire-rated structural elements.
D. May have non-fire-rated structural elements. (Type VB)
________________________________
A. Requires materials that will provide a 1-hour fire-resistance construction throughout the structure. (Type IIIA)
B. Lacks the 1-hour fire-resistance construction requirement. (Type IIIB)
C. A 1-hour fire-resistance rating for all structural elements except for nonbearing interior walls and partitions. (Type VA)
839
Type IV construction consists of structural elements of any type permitted by the code with exterior walls being constructed of noncombustible materials while interior building elements are constructed of solid or laminated wood having no concealed spaces (also known as heavy timber or HT). Buildings must have permanent partitions, and members of the structural frame must have a minimum fire-resistance rating of at least 1-hour. Wooden columns characteristics:
A. Requires a minimum 8 x 6 inch when supporting a floor or a minimum of 8 x 8 inch when supporting roof or ceiling loads only.
B. Requires a minimum 10 x 6 inch when supporting a floor or a minimum of 10 x 10 inch when supporting roof or ceiling loads only.
C. Requires a minimum 4 x 4 inch when supporting a floor or a minimum of 6 x 4 inch when supporting roof or ceiling loads only.
D. Requires a minimum 12 x 6 inch when supporting a floor or a minimum of 8 x 8 inch when supporting roof or ceiling loads only.
A. Requires a minimum 8 x 6 inch when supporting a floor or a minimum of 8 x 8 inch when supporting roof or ceiling loads only. (HT Wooden columns)
840
Type IV construction consists of structural elements of any type permitted by the code with exterior walls being constructed of noncombustible materials while interior building elements are constructed of solid or laminated wood having no concealed spaces (also known as heavy timber or HT). Buildings must have permanent partitions, and members of the structural frame must have a minimum fire-resistance rating of at least 1-hour. Floor framing (including wood beams and girders) characteristics:
A. Requires sawn or glued-laminated timber of at least 6 x 10 inches.
B. Requires sawn or glued-laminated timber of at least 10 x 6 inches.
C. Requires sawn or glued-laminated timber of at least 6 x 8 inches.
D. Requires sawn or glued-laminated timber of at least 8 x 10 inches.
A. Requires sawn or glued-laminated timber of at least 6 x 10 inches. (HT Floor framing)
841
Type IV construction consists of structural elements of any type permitted by the code with exterior walls being constructed of noncombustible materials while interior building elements are constructed of solid or laminated wood having no concealed spaces (also known as heavy timber or HT). Buildings must have permanent partitions, and members of the structural frame must have a minimum fire-resistance rating of at least 1-hour. Roof-framing characteristics:
A. Requires wood-frame or glued-laminated arches or roof construction that rises from the floor with a minimum of 6 x 6 inches for entire length.
B. Requires wood-frame or glued-laminated arches or roof construction that rises from the floor with a minimum of 6 x 8 inches for the first half of its length and then no less than 6x6 inches for the top half of its length.
C. Requires wood-frame or glued-laminated arches or roof construction that rises from the floor with a minimum of 6 x 6 inches for the first half of its length and then no less than 6x8 inches for the top half of its length.
D. Requires wood-frame or glued-laminated arches or roof construction that rises from the floor with a minimum of 6 x 8 inches for the entire length.
B. Requires wood-frame or glued-laminated arches or roof construction that rises from the floor with a minimum of 6 x 8 inches for the first half of its length and then no less than 6x6 inches for the top half of its length. (HT Roof-framing)
842
Type IV construction consists of structural elements of any type permitted by the code with exterior walls being constructed of noncombustible materials while interior building elements are constructed of solid or laminated wood having no concealed spaces (also known as heavy timber or HT). Buildings must have permanent partitions, and members of the structural frame must have a minimum fire-resistance rating of at least 1-hour. Roofs characteristics:
A. Requires a 3-hour fire-resistance rating.
B. Requires a 2-hour fire-resistance rating.
C. Must be constructed without concealed spaces.
D. Must be constructed with concealed spaces.
C. Must be constructed without concealed spaces. (HT Roofs)
843
In the past 20 years, communications technology has made significant advancements because of research and development efforts in private industry in general, the aerospace industry in particular, and the military. Federal government grants have made new technologies available to many organizations. A new technology that benefits the fire and emergency services is described as: "A radio-operated data terminal that allows a telecommunications center to transmit dispatch information, incident/patient status information, confidential messages that are not appropriate for verbal transmission over a radio, chemical information, and maps and charts to units at or in route to the scene. It is the most common advanced communication technology used by the fire and emergency service", is known as:
A. Mobile data terminal (MDT).
B. Mobile data computer (MDC).
C. Geographical information systems (GIS).
D. Global positioning system (GPS).
A. Mobile data terminal (MDT).
844
In the past 20 years, communications technology has made significant advancements. A new technology that benefits the fire and emergency services described as: "Has all the features of a MDT with the addition of a keyboard that allows two-way communication between the mobile units and the telecommunications center. Instead of status buttons, it allows complete messages to be transmitted and received in the vehicle. This procedure facilitates two-way communications that are not appropriate for transmission over a radio."
A. Mobile data terminal (MDT).
B. Mobile data computer (MDC).
C. Geographical information systems (GIS).
D. Global positioning system (GPS).
B. Mobile data computer (MDC).
845
In the past 20 years, communications technology has made significant advancements. A new technology that benefits the fire and emergency services described as: "Designed to provide a computer readable description of geographic features in a particular area. In suburban/urban areas, addresses and occupancy information on individual structures may be stored; this information may be useful to telecommunicators, responders, incident commanders, planning personal, and technical specialist assigned to an incident."
A. Mobile data terminal (MDT).
B. Mobile data computer (MDC).
C. Geographical information systems (GIS).
D. Global positioning system (GPS).
C. Geographical information systems (GIS).
846
In the past 20 years, communications technology has made significant advancements. A new technology that benefits the fire and emergency services described as: "Receiver decodes satellite signals to establish a location. Location data is transmitted to an automatic vehicle locator system at the telecommunications center. Each vehicle is equipped with a _____ receiver and radio transmitter. The position of the vehicle is then shown on a map of the jurisdiction using the system. Typically used in conjunction with other computerized dispatch systems. May also be used to track individual responders at incidents, making it easier to locate individuals who are lost or become unconscious."
A. Mobile data terminal (MDT).
B. Mobile data computer (MDC).
C. Geographical information systems (GIS).
D. Global positioning system (GPS).
D. Global positioning system (GPS).
847
To be an effective leader, a fire officer must be able to communicate with others. There are a number of common forms of communications. _____ is described as: "The communication that takes place between two people who have established a relationship, and it occurs on a daily basis in the lives of all people who live in groups."
A. Written.
B. Interpersonal.
C. Formal oral.
D. Personal.
B. Interpersonal.
848
The four most common "barriers to listening" are: Information overload ; Personal concerns ; Outside distractions ; and Prejudice. The following statements are used to overcome common barriers to listening. Which statement is a solution to the listening barrier - Prejudice?
A. Identify the essential elements of the message.
B. Focus on the speaker and the message rather than personal concerns or thoughts.
C. Take control of the environment and remove as many distractions as possible.
D. Focus on the message and not the messenger.
D. Focus on the message and not the messenger. (Prejudice)
________________________________
A. Identify the essential elements of the message. (Information overload)
B. Focus on the speaker and the message rather than personal concerns or thoughts. (Personal concerns)
C. Take control of the environment and remove as many distractions as possible. (Outside distractions)
849
The four most common "barriers to listening" are: Information overload ; Personal concerns ; Outside distractions ; and Prejudice. The following statements are used to overcome common barriers to listening. Which statement is a solution to the listening barrier - Personal concerns?
A. Identify the essential elements of the message.
B. Focus on the speaker and the message rather than personal concerns or thoughts.
C. Take control of the environment and remove as many distractions as possible.
D. Focus on the message and not the messenger.
B. Focus on the speaker and the message rather than personal concerns or thoughts. (Personal concerns)
________________________________
A. Identify the essential elements of the message. (Information overload)
C. Take control of the environment and remove as many distractions as possible. (Outside distractions)
D. Focus on the message and not the messenger. (Prejudice)
850
The four most common "barriers to listening" are: Information overload ; Personal concerns ; Outside distractions ; and Prejudice. The following statements are used to overcome common barriers to listening. Which statement is a solution to the listening barrier - Information overload?
A. Identify the essential elements of the message.
B. Focus on the speaker and the message rather than personal concerns or thoughts.
C. Take control of the environment and remove as many distractions as possible.
D. Focus on the message and not the messenger.
A. Identify the essential elements of the message. (Information overload)
________________________________
B. Focus on the speaker and the message rather than personal concerns or thoughts. (Personal concerns)
C. Take control of the environment and remove as many distractions as possible. (Outside distractions)
D. Focus on the message and not the messenger. (Prejudice)
851
The four most common "barriers to listening" are: Information overload ; Personal concerns ; Outside distractions ; and Prejudice. The following statements are used to overcome common barriers to listening. Which statement is a solution to the listening barrier - Outside distractions?
A. Identify the essential elements of the message.
B. Focus on the speaker and the message rather than personal concerns or thoughts.
C. Take control of the environment and remove as many distractions as possible.
D. Focus on the message and not the messenger.
C. Take control of the environment and remove as many distractions as possible. (Outside distractions)
________________________________
A. Identify the essential elements of the message. (Information overload)
B. Focus on the speaker and the message rather than personal concerns or thoughts. (Personal concerns)
C. Take control of the environment and remove as many distractions as possible. (Outside distractions)
D. Focus on the message and not the messenger. (Prejudice)
852
Of all the communication skills discussed in this manual, listening is probably the most important. Research indicates that most people remember only 50% of a message 24 hours after they hear it and only 25% after 48 hours. There are a number of barriers to listening. The barrier of "outside distractions" is described as:
A. Focus on the message and not the messenger.
B. Focus on the speaker and the message rather than personal concerns or thoughts.
C. Take control of the environment and remove as many distractions as possible.
D. Identify the essential elements of the message.
C. Take control of the environment and remove as many distractions as possible. (Outside distractions)
________________________________
A. Focus on the message and not the messenger. (Prejudice)
B. Focus on the speaker and the message rather than personal concerns or thoughts. (Personal concerns)
D. Identify the essential elements of the message. (Information overload)
853
Of all the communication skills discussed in this manual, listening is probably the most important. Research indicates that most people remember only _____ of a message 24 hours after they hear it.
A. 90%
B. 70%
C. 50%
D. 25%
C. 50% (after 24 hours)
854
Of all the communication skills discussed in this manual, listening is probably the most important. Research indicates that most people remember only _____ of a message 48 hours after they hear it.
A. 90%
B. 70%
C. 50%
D. 25%
D. 25% (after 48 hours)
855
Because listening constitutes approximately _____ of a person's average day, improving listening skills is essential to effective communication.
A. 42.1%
B. 31.9%
C. 15%
D. 11%
```
A. 42.1% (Listening)
________________________________
B. 31.9% (Speaking)
C. 15% (Reading)
D. 11% (Writing)
```
Note: The average percent of time spent listening by students in a class is 50-75%. ***
856
Besides memos and emails, reports constitute the bulk of writing produced by most company officers. Some reports are simply forms that are completed with specific information concerning an incident or event. Other reports are more like essays, written in narrative, paragraph form and greater thought and organization than form reports. Form reports require certain writing skills that may be taken for granted. Some of these skills are as follows... the exception is:
```
A. Legibility.
B. Subjectivity.
C. Accuracy.
D. Completeness.
E. Objectivity.
```
B. Subjectivity. (FALSE)
857
The needs, wants, and desires of people are not a constant or static laundry list. This variability is a reason why it is important to define who the customers are and monitor their changing attitudes. While the specific needs of external customers very, the basic needs are generally protection of their lives and property from the events of fires and other hazards and access to competent emergency medical care. Which of the following is an example of external customer?
A. Administrative staff.
B. Selectman.
C. Residents of the service area.
D. State representatives.
C. Residents of the service area. (External customer)
________________________________
A. Administrative staff. (Internal customer)
B. Selectman. (Stakeholder)
C. Residents of the service area. (External customer)
D. State representatives. (Stakeholder)
858
Records management is the systematic control of an organization's records that ensure quick access to information when it is needed for decision-making or to fulfill legal requirements. Data that are collected by company officers, chief officers, division and branch managers, and other members of the organizations are compiled in the Management Information System (MIS). Company officers should have an understanding of the steps that the MIS process takes. The _____ step is described as: "To ensure easy access to information, it must be grouped into logical topics, which may result in cross-filling or cross-referencing information into various categories."
```
A. Acquiring.
B. Analyzing.
C. Organizing.
D. Distributing.
E. Storing.
```
C. Organizing.
859
Data that are collected by company officers, chief officers, division and branch managers, and other members of the organizations are compiled in the Management Information System (MIS). Company officers should have an understanding of the steps that the MIS process takes. The _____ step is described as: "Collecting data from the many sources available."
```
A. Acquiring.
B. Analyzing.
C. Organizing.
D. Distributing.
E. Storing.
```
A. Acquiring.
860
Data that are collected by company officers, chief officers, division and branch managers, and other members of the organizations are compiled in the Management Information System (MIS). Company officers should have an understanding of the steps that the MIS process takes. The _____ step is described as: "Interpreting the raw data that comes from information collected on forms, in reports, on time sheets, etc."
```
A. Acquiring.
B. Analyzing.
C. Organizing.
D. Distributing.
E. Storing.
```
B. Analyzing.
861
Data that are collected by company officers, chief officers, division and branch managers, and other members of the organizations are compiled in the Management Information System (MIS). Company officers should have an understanding of the steps that the MIS process takes. The _____ step is described as: "Information and reports that have been collected, analyzed, and organized are now _____ . This can take the following two paths: 1. Take the reports to the branches of the organization that can benefit from the results of the analysis or 2. Take the reports to the archives for final storage."
```
A. Acquiring.
B. Analyzing.
C. Organizing.
D. Distributing.
E. Storing.
```
D. Distributing.
862
Data that are collected by company officers, chief officers, division and branch managers, and other members of the organizations are compiled in the Management Information System (MIS). Company officers should have an understanding of the steps that the MIS process takes. The _____ step is described as: "Records are generally retained for a specific time period, depending on the type of record and legal requirements. This may be located in two places: active files and archives."
```
A. Acquiring.
B. Analyzing.
C. Organizing.
D. Distributing.
E. Storing.
```
E. Storing.
863
In addition to the fire and emergency services organization, a local government is likely to include a variety of departments, each structured to provide specific services. The department that is "often involved in the selection and allocation of sites for fire stations and supportive building such as training centers and maintenance facilities" is:
```
A. Law enforcement.
B. Building department.
C. Water department.
D. Zoning commission.
E. Street or road department.
```
D. Zoning commission.
864
The department that "supports emergency service efforts through crowd and traffic control, with large-scale evacuations, by providing protection to emergency responders during civil unrest, and through fire investigation activities" is:
```
A. Law enforcement.
B. Building department.
C. Water department.
D. Zoning commission.
E. Street or road department.
```
A. Law enforcement.
865
The department that "frequently maintains files of building floor plans that indicate structural layout, locations of entrances and exits, fire suppression systems, and other features that can assist with the emergency response" is:
```
A. Law enforcement.
B. Building department.
C. Water department.
D. Zoning commission.
E. Street or road department.
```
B. Building department.
866
The department that "helps to ensure that hydrant locations, pressure, pumping storage capacities, and other factors supporting fire protection requirements. Often have responsibility for sewer and storm drain system with a community as well as the wastewater treatment facilities" is:
```
A. Law enforcement.
B. Building department.
C. Water department.
D. Zoning commission.
E. Street or road department.
```
C. Water department.
867
The department that "maintains streets, alleys, and roads in their jurisdictions; keep the emergency service organization informed of planned repairs that will result in road closures or detours and other traffic problems that might affect emergency response. Can be involved in installing automatic traffic signal control devices, and assisting with the cleanup and removal of hazmat incidents on public thoroughfares" is:
```
A. Law enforcement.
B. Building department.
C. Water department.
D. Zoning commission.
E. Street or road department.
```
E. Street or road department.
868
Dr. W Edwards Deming was the creator and spokesperson for the concept of Total Quality Management (TQM). Also known as Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI), TQM has been adopted by many private businesses and public organizations. It is based on four elements. _____ is described as: "This requires a process orientation, rather than a results orientation. TQM focuses on the process of how something gets done and not the individual who does it. Therefore, the purpose is to monitor the performance of the process to identify changes needed to improve quality."
A. Customer identification and feedback.
B. Tracking performance.
C. Consistent and continuous improvement.
D. Employee participation in all processes.
B. Tracking performance.
869
Dr. W Edwards Deming was the creator and spokesperson for the concept of Total Quality Management (TQM). Also known as Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI), TQM has been adopted by many private businesses and public organizations. It is based on four elements. _____ is described as: "Organizations must continually monitor the needs of their customers and modify, innovate, or abandon programs or services as necessary to meet customer needs."
A. Customer identification and feedback.
B. Tracking performance.
C. Consistent and continuous improvement.
D. Employee participation in all processes.
A. Customer identification and feedback.
870
Dr. W Edwards Deming was the creator and spokesperson for the concept of Total Quality Management (TQM). Also known as Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI), TQM has been adopted by many private businesses and public organizations. It is based on four elements. _____ is described as: "TQM is based on a continuous effort to improve the organization's process for producing and delivering programs, services, and products. Quality service is consistently helpful, accurate, timely, and complete."
A. Customer identification and feedback.
B. Tracking performance.
C. Consistent and continuous improvement.
D. Employee participation in all processes.
C. Consistent and continuous improvement.
871
Dr. W Edwards Deming was the creator and spokesperson for the concept of Total Quality Management (TQM). Also known as Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI), TQM has been adopted by many private businesses and public organizations. It is based on four elements. _____ is described as: "The most important element of a successful TQM program is changing traditional ideas about managing people. To make TQM work, it is essential for the management to value and respect all employees and their opinions, encourage employee contributions, and provide employee training and education."
A. Customer identification and feedback.
B. Tracking performance.
C. Consistent and continuous improvement.
D. Employee participation in all processes.
D. Employee participation in all processes.
872
It is important to define who the customers are and monitor their changing attitudes. A business that provides services to the organization be a/an:
A. Stakeholder.
B. Placeholder.
C. Internal customer.
D. External customer.
A. Stakeholder.
873
You are preparing to conduct a company training class. As you review the lesson plan, you realize some of the material may be outdated and does not accurately represent the current process or policy. Your best course of action would be to:
A. Present the material in the lesson plan.
B. Rewrite the lesson plan, with administrative approval, to meet the current situation.
C. Rewrite the lesson plan.
D. Present the material in the lesson plan, report the problem to the training division.
B. Rewrite the lesson plan, with administrative approval, to meet the current situation.
874
The height of the neutral plane lowers as a fire develops and the density of the gases increases. Interior attack teams must observe the level of the neutral plane carefully. A mid-level neutral plane could indicate that the compartment has not ventilated yet and that _____ is approaching.
A. Incipient stage.
B. Backdraft.
C. Flashover.
D. Smoldering.
```
C. Flashover. (Mid-level)
________________________________
A. Incipient stage. (High neutral plane)
B. Backdraft. (Low-level neutral plane)
C. Flashover. (Mid level neutral plane)
D. Smoldering. (N/A)
```
875
Involvement of burning hydrocarbons or polyurethane will have what effect on the fire. The most correct statement is which of the following:
A. Will contribute more intense heat to the fire.
B. Will contribute a greater volume of smoke to the fire.
C. Will contribute darker-colored smoke to the fire.
D. Will reduce the rate of growth of the fire.
C. Will contribute darker-colored smoke to the fire.
876
The height of the neutral plane lowers as a fire develops and the density of the gases increases. Interior attack teams must observe the level of the neutral plane carefully. A high neutral plane could indicate that the compartment has not ventilated yet and that _____ is approaching.
A. Incipient stage.
B. Backdraft.
C. Flashover.
D. Smoldering.
```
A. Incipient stage. (High neutral plane)
________________________________
B. Backdraft. (Low-level neutral plane)
C. Flashover. (Midlevel neutral plane)
D. Smoldering. (N/A)
```
877
The height of the neutral plane lowers as a fire develops and the density of the gases increases. Interior attack teams must observe the level of the neutral plane carefully. A low-level neutral plane could indicate that the compartment has not ventilated yet and that _____ is approaching.
A. Incipient stage.
B. Backdraft.
C. Flashover.
D. Smoldering.
```
B. Backdraft.
________________________________
A. Incipient stage. (High neutral plane)
B. Backdraft. (Low-level neutral plane)
C. Flashover. (Midlevel neutral plane)
D. Smoldering. (N/A)
```
878
Smoke is visible products of combustion. Color and density varies depending on the type of fuel amount of air feeding the fire. Light-colored smoke:
A. Indicates that parolysis (chemical change) is occurring in areas adjacent to the main body of fire and the fire is developing.
B. Generally indicates burning synthetic or petrochemical materials or a reduction in the air available to the fire.
C. Thick dense smoke indicates burning petroleum-based material such as plastic or rubber; a thin smoke can indicate burning natural fiber materials.
A. Indicates that parolysis (chemical change) is occurring in areas adjacent to the main body of fire and the fire is developing. (Light-colored smoke)
________________________________
B. Generally indicates burning synthetic or petrochemical materials or a reduction in the air available to the fire. (Dark-colored smoke)
C. Thick dense smoke indicates burning petroleum-based material such as plastic or rubber; a thin smoke can indicate burning natural fiber materials. (Smoke density)
879
Smoke is visible products of combustion. Color and density varies depending on the type of fuel amount of air feeding the fire. Dark-colored smoke:
A. Indicates that parolysis (chemical change) is occurring in areas adjacent to the main body of fire and the fire is developing.
B. Generally indicates burning synthetic or petrochemical materials or a reduction in the air available to the fire.
C. Thick dense smoke indicates burning petroleum-based material such as plastic or rubber; a thin smoke can indicate burning natural fiber materials.
B. Generally indicates burning synthetic or petrochemical materials or a reduction in the air available to the fire. (Dark-colored smoke)
________________________________
A. Indicates that parolysis (chemical change) is occurring in areas adjacent to the main body of fire and the fire is developing. (Light-colored smoke)
C. Thick dense smoke indicates burning petroleum-based material such as plastic or rubber; a thin smoke can indicate burning natural fiber materials. (Smoke density)
880
Smoke is visible products of combustion. Color and density varies depending on the type of fuel amount of air feeding the fire. Smoke density:
A. Indicates that parolysis (chemical change) is occurring in areas adjacent to the main body of fire and the fire is developing.
B. Generally indicates burning synthetic or petrochemical materials or a reduction in the air available to the fire.
C. Thick dense smoke indicates burning petroleum-based material such as plastic or rubber; a thin smoke can indicate burning natural fiber materials.
C. Thick dense smoke indicates burning petroleum-based material such as plastic or rubber; a thin smoke can indicate burning natural fiber materials. (Smoke density)
________________________________
A. Indicates that parolysis (chemical change) is occurring in areas adjacent to the main body of fire and the fire is developing. (Light-colored smoke)
B. Generally indicates burning synthetic or petrochemical materials or a reduction in the air available to the fire. (Dark-colored smoke)
881
The ability to correctly read smoke comes with experience based on knowledge of the color and density of smoke that is generated by particular types of fuels and the change that occurs when water is introduced. Dark smoke can indicate:
A. That available air is rapidly being consumed.
B. That the fire is still growing.
C. That water has been applied to the fire.
A. That available air is rapidly being consumed. (Dark smoke)
________________________________
B. That the fire is still growing. (Light smoke)
C. That water has been applied to the fire. (Very light smoke)
882
The ability to correctly read smoke comes with experience based on knowledge of the color and density of smoke that is generated by particular types of fuels and the change that occurs when water is introduced. Very light smoke or steam can indicate:
A. That available air is rapidly being consumed.
B. That the fire is still growing.
C. That water has been applied to the fire.
C. That water has been applied to the fire. (Very light smoke)
________________________________
A. That available air is rapidly being consumed. (Dark smoke)
B. That the fire is still growing. (Light smoke)
883
The ability to correctly read smoke comes with experience based on knowledge of the color and density of smoke that is generated by particular types of fuels and the change that occurs when water is introduced. Light smoke may indicate:
A. That available air is rapidly being consumed.
B. That the fire is still growing.
C. That water has been applied to the fire.
B. That the fire is still growing. (Light smoke)
________________________________
A. That available air is rapidly being consumed. (Dark smoke)
C. That water has been applied to the fire. (Very light smoke)
884
Flame color indicates the type of material that is burning, although the color may change, depending on the burning process. _____ generally indicates a reasonable air supply is reaching the fire.
A. Yellow flame.
B. Reddish-orange flame.
C. Light yellow to clear flame.
D. Blue flame.
A. Yellow flame.
885
Flame color indicates the type of material that is burning, although the color may change, depending on the burning process. _____ indicates that less air is reaching the fire and the fire is fuel driven.
A. Yellow flame.
B. Reddish-orange flame.
C. Light yellow to clear flame.
D. Blue flame.
B. Reddish-orange flame.
886
Flame color indicates the type of material that is burning, although the color may change, depending on the burning process. _____ indicates that materials exposed the main body of the fire are beginning to ignite through pyrolysis.
A. Yellow flame.
B. Reddish-orange flame.
C. Light yellow to clear flame.
D. Blue flame.
C. Light yellow to clear flame.
887
Flame color indicates the type of material that is burning, although the color may change, depending on the burning process. _____ indicates incomplete combustion near the neutral plane and the high presence of unburned materials at that level; can also indicate a fire that is fueled by natural gas.
A. Yellow flame.
B. Reddish-orange flame.
C. Light yellow to clear flame.
D. Blue flame.
D. Blue flame.
888
Structural fire condition indicators are smoke, air track, heat, and flame color. _____ is defined as "Movement of fresh air toward the base of a fire and movement of smoke and heated air out of a compartment; understanding this phenomenon can help in the ventilation of fires. Indicators include: velocity and direction; pulsations; & noise."
A. Smoke.
B. Air track.
C. Heat.
D. Flame color.
B. Air track. (can indicate backdraft conditions).
889
Structural fire condition indicators are smoke, air track, heat, and flame color. _____ is defined as "Form of energy transferred from one body to another as a result of temperature differences; assists in an accurate assessment of the conditions within a burning structure."
A. Smoke.
B. Air track.
C. Heat.
D. Flame color.
C. Heat.
890
Structural fire condition indicators are smoke, air track, heat, and flame color. _____ is defined as "Visible products of combustion. Indicators include: color and density; volume and location; height of the neutral plane."
A. Smoke.
B. Air track.
C. Heat.
D. Flame color.
A. Smoke.
891
Height of the neutral plane (separation between the under-pressure [lighter air] and overpressure [heavier air] regions of a compartment): Also known as "thermal balance".
1) The neutral plane lowers as a fire develops and density of fire gases (smoke) increases.
2) Interior attack teams must observe the level of the neutral plane very carefully and prepare to withdrawal when there is a rapid change in conditions causing the neutral plane to rise.
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
```
A. #1 is true.
________________________________
#2) Interior attack teams must observe the level of the neutral plane very carefully and prepare to withdrawal when there is a rapid change in conditions causing the neutral plane to "rise". (FALSE - "lower")
```
892
Based on the initial assessment of the incident scene, company officers must make decisions based on acceptable risk. This concept is clearly stated in a decision-making model developed by the Phoenix Fire Department. The essence of the model is as follows... the exception is:
A. Each emergency response is begun with the assumption that responders can protect lives and property.
B. Responders will risk their lives a lot, if necessary, to save savable lives.
C. Responders will risk their lives a lot, and in a calculated manner, to save savable property.
D. Responders will NOT risk their lives at all to save lives and property that have already been lost.
C. Responders will risk their lives "a lot", and in a calculated manner, to save savable property. (FALSE - "a little")
893
The _____ simplified is as follows:
• Risk a lot to save a lot.
• Risk a little to save it.
• Risk nothing to save nothing.
A. AZ Decision-making model.
B. Boston decision-making model.
C. Phoenix decision-making model.
D. Decision-making model.
C. Phoenix decision-making model.
894
The group structure of an emergency response unit is not significantly different from the structure of any other formal or informal group. Which of the five essential characteristics of a group is one of the greatest influences on the success of the group?
```
A. Common binding interest.
B. Vital group image.
C. Sense of continuity.
D. Shared set of values.
E. Different roles within the group.
```
B. Vital group image.
895
The group structure of an emergency response unit is not significantly different from the structure of any other formal or informal group. Which of the five essential characteristics of a group is characterized by "For a group to exist, the members must be drawn together by some common interest that is important to them on some level. However the interests of individuals change, causing their participation in various groups to change as well."
```
A. Common binding interest.
B. Vital group image.
C. Sense of continuity.
D. Shared set of values.
E. Different roles within the group.
```
A. Common binding interest.
896
The group structure of an emergency response unit is not significantly different from the structure of any other formal or informal group. Which of the five essential characteristics of a group is considered very important to group integrity. By disturbing the members _____ the group can be fragmented, and the members may begin to think and act more independently. The members may become very individualistic and somewhat territorial.
```
A. Common binding interest.
B. Vital group image.
C. Sense of continuity.
D. Shared set of values.
E. Different roles within the group.
```
C. Sense of continuity.
897
The group structure of an emergency response unit is not significantly different from the structure of any other formal or informal group. Which of the five essential characteristics of a group is characterized by being: part of the cohesive structure in most groups. Groups are sometimes a composite of individual perception of reality, responsibility, and integrity. The _____ of the organization usually are reflected in the attitudes and actions of individuals and groups within the organization.
```
A. Common binding interest.
B. Vital group image.
C. Sense of continuity.
D. Shared set of values.
E. Different roles within the group.
```
D. Shared set of values. (Common values)
898
The group structure of an emergency response unit is not significantly different from the structure of any other formal or informal group. Which of the five essential characteristics of a group is: In addition to being essential to the cohesion of the group, the _____ is one of the greatest influences on the success of the group.
```
A. Common binding interest.
B. Vital group image.
C. Sense of continuity.
D. Shared set of values.
E. Different roles within the group.
```
B. Vital group image.
899
The group structure of an emergency response unit is not significantly different from the structure of any other formal or informal group. Which of the five essential characteristics of a group is: Within each group, different individuals act in different capacities with different expectations (such as Chiefs, Company officers, & line/staff personal) Informal groups, the leader is usually either assigned or elected. In formal groups, a natural or indigenous leader emerges regardless of whether any formal selection process is used.
```
A. Common binding interest.
B. Vital group image.
C. Sense of continuity.
D. Shared set of values.
E. Different roles within the group.
```
E. Different roles within the group.
900
Making changes in an emergency responders personal behavior or changing the organizations culture will require conscious effort on the part of the administration and members of the organization. Changing the attitude and behavior of fire and emergency responders is the duty of the company officer. Especially in the area of safety, company officers have a responsibility to take action. Of the following actions, the one that is first and foremost is:
A. The company officer must be a role model by providing personnel with an example of correct safe behavior.
B. Company officer must support and enforce all safety related decisions made by the administration.
C. The company officer must discipline every fire and emergency responder who fails to operate safely.
D. The company officer must insist that subordinates adhere to the organization's safety policies and procedures.
A. The company officer must be a role model by providing personnel with an example of correct safe behavior. (First)
________________________________
D. The company officer must insist that subordinates adhere to the organization's safety policies and procedures. (Second)
B. Company officer must support and enforce all safety related decisions made by the administration. (Finally)
901
The rationale model, and the bounded rationality model can both be used in group decision. The most TRUE statement regarding participatory management style is:
A. Group members agree individually in private about the actions that are required to solve the problem.
B. Group members agree individually in private about the problem facing the organization.
C. The cycle continues to repeat itself unless it is corrected through accurate communication.
D. This form of empowerment has the added benefit of increasing personal commitment to the process and provide members with a feeling of self-worth.
D. This form of empowerment has the added benefit of increasing personal commitment to the process and provide members with a feeling of self-worth. (Participatory management style)
________________________________
The others are examples of the "Abilene Paradox".
902
To generally accepted decision-making making models are taught in business management courses: in the _____ , the leader gathers information and makes the decisions based on the best possible alternative to the situation. This type of decision model is usually applied to the exceptional (nonprogrammed) decisions that have the potential for high-risk or uncertain outcomes.
A. Rational model.
B. Bounded rationality model.
C. Participatory management style.
D. Abilene paradox.
A. Rational model.
| (aka Classical model)
903
To generally accepted decision-making making models are taught in business management courses: The _____ allows the leader to select the decision that will satisfy the minimal requirements of the situation. This type of decision model is usually applied to generic (programmed) decisions that have certain outcomes.
A. Rational model.
B. Bounded rationality model.
C. Participatory management style.
D. Abilene paradox.
B. Bounded rationality model.
904
Both decision-making models can be applied when making an individual or group decision. The use of a group in the decision-making process is basic to the _____ that is part of democratic management. As the name implies, members of the unit are involved or participate in the process. This form of empowerment has the added benefit of increasing personal commitment to the process and provide members with a feeling of self-worth.
A. Rational model.
B. Bounded rationality model.
C. Participatory management style.
D. Abilene paradox.
C. Participatory management style.
905
The _____ explains why members of the group may go along with a decision even when they believe it to be a bad one rather than dissent against the group. Because the individual members of the group do not want to appear out of step or are afraid that their opinion is flawed, they will not voice their concern or opposition to the group's decision.
A. Rational model.
B. Bounded rationality model.
C. Participatory management style.
D. Abilene paradox.
D. Abilene paradox.
| (aka Inability to manage agreement)
906
Symptoms of the Abilene Paradox, also known as the "inability to manage agreement", are as follows... the exception is:
A. Group members agree individually in public about the problem facing the organization and about the actions that are required to solve the problem.
B. However, group members fail to accurately communicate their private desires and beliefs to one another.
C. The group makes decisions that are counterproductive and may be unethical.
D. The cycle continues to repeat itself unless it is corrected through accurate communication.
A. Group members agree individually "in public" about the problem facing the organization and about the actions that are required to solve the problem. (FALSE - "in private")
907
Apparatus and vehicle accidents are also responsible for many fatalities and injuries while personnel are in route to the incident. The most effective means to prevent accidents is:
A. Policies regarding the use of warning devices and maximum response speeds.
B. To change the culture that creates an extreme sense of urgency in responders, which could cause them to drive unsafely.
C. Implement an improved driver training program.
D. Replace apparatus with state of the art technology and safety systems.
B. To change the culture that creates an extreme sense of urgency in responders, which could cause them to drive unsafely.
908
As supervisors, they have the following roles and responsibilities that they must perform to ensure that retaliation, harassment, or hostility does not exist in the workplace. The following statements are TRUE regarding the supervisors roles and responsibilities... the exception is:
A. Create, maintain, and accept nothing less than a positive and supportive work environment.
B. Treat all employees with dignity and respect.
C. Communicate promotional and developmental opportunities to subordinates.
D. Firefighters serve as role models for behavior that promotes appropriate behavior that leads to productive and hospitable work environments.
D. "Firefighters" serve as role models for behavior that promotes appropriate behavior that leads to productive and hospitable work environments. (FALSE - "Company officers/supervisor")
909
You are asked to revise your organizations safety policies and procedures. The organization's safety policies and procedures should be based on _____ .
A. OSHA.
B. NFPA.
C. Massachusetts Safety Standards.
D. USFA.
B. NFPA.
910
The NIMS-IMS model is based on a _____ ratio of one supervisor to three to seven subordinates or functions with an optimum of five.
A. Chain of command.
B. Span of control.
C. Unity of command.
D. Division of labor.
B. Span of control.
911
Firefighter reports to you, the captain, that there is a problem with the station boiler. In order to resolve the problem, you authorized the installation of a new boiler. This would be an example of what decision-making authority?
A. Centralized.
B. Decentralized.
C. Chain of command.
D. Delegation of authority.
B. Decentralized.
912
Authority refers to the legal ability of an individual to make and implement decisions for which the individual is held accountable. _____ authority is when decisions are made by one person at the top of the structure. It works well and very small organizations such as an individual fire company, but in large organizations the leader's span of control may be extended unless decision making authority is delegated.
A. Centralized.
B. Decentralized.
C. Chain of command.
D. Delegation of authority.
A. Centralized.
913
Authority refers to the legal ability of an individual to make and implement decisions for which the individual is held accountable. _____ authority is when decisions are allowed to be made at a lower level (basically delegation of authority), with the effects of the decisions reported through the structure. For this to work effectively, the Fire Chief or CEO must ensure that all members understand the direction, values, and goals of the organization.
A. Centralized.
B. Decentralized.
C. Chain of command.
D. Delegation of authority.
B. Decentralized.
914
Regardless of the level where decision-making authority is located, accountability for decisions is almost always _____ . As a general rule, no one in a fire and emergency services organization has absolute authority to avoid accounting to a higher authority. Even the Fire Chief or CEO is accountable to the local governing body and ultimately to the public.
A. Centralized.
B. Decentralized.
C. Chain of command.
D. Delegation of authority.
A. Centralized.
915
Even though authority is granted at different levels to accomplish specific tasks, _____ authority has limits. When decisions are made at lower levels in the organization, upper management personnel are free to concentrate on more important matters.
A. Centralized.
B. Decentralized.
C. Chain of command.
D. Delegation of authority.
B. Decentralized.
916
Ideally, decision-making authority should be delegated to the _____ organizational level possible. However, with decentralization of authority the possibility of a duplication of effort exists.
A. Highest.
B. Lowest.
C. Lowest supervisor.
D. Highest supervisor.
B. Lowest.
917
Important considerations in _____ is to ensure that the assigned employee is capable of doing the job; and to make the objective clear to the individual being given assignment.
A. Centralized.
B. Decentralized.
C. Chain of command.
D. Delegation of authority.
D. Delegation of authority.
918
One of the most effective teaching models is the one provided in IFSTA Fire and Emergency Services Instructor Manual, the four-step method of instruction. Company officers can use the process for effective company level training. Most learning takes place during the _____ step, making this step critically important.
A. Step 1: Preparation.
B. Step 2: Presentation.
C. Step 3: Application.
D. Step 4: Evaluation.
C. Application.
919
One of the most effective teaching models is the one provided in IFSTA Fire and Emergency Services Instructor Manual, the four-step method of instruction. Company officers can use the process for effective company level training. Which step establishes lesson relevancy to the job by introducing the topic, gaining the students attention, and starting the learning objectives.
A. Step 1: Preparation.
B. Step 2: Presentation.
C. Step 3: Application.
D. Step 4: Evaluation.
A. Step 1: Preparation.
920
One of the most effective teaching models is the one provided in IFSTA Fire and Emergency Services Instructor Manual, the four-step method of instruction. Company officers can use the process for effective company level training. Which step presents the information to be taught using an orderly, sequential outline; in a teaching method that is appropriate to the learning styles of the students in the topic being taught. Lectures, illustrated lectures, discussions, demonstrations, and learning activities such as role-playings can be used in this step.
A. Step 1: Preparation.
B. Step 2: Presentation.
C. Step 3: Application.
D. Step 4: Evaluation.
B. Step 2: Presentation.
921
One of the most effective teaching models is the one provided in IFSTA Fire and Emergency Services Instructor Manual, the four-step method of instruction. Company officers can use the process for effective company level training. Which step provides opportunities for learning through activities, exercises, discussions, workgroups, skill practices, practical training evolutions, and similar learning activities. This steps purpose is to reinforce the students learning.
A. Step 1: Preparation.
B. Step 2: Presentation.
C. Step 3: Application.
D. Step 4: Evaluation.
C. Step 3: Application.
Note: Most learning takes place during the Application step, making it critically/most important.***
922
One of the most effective teaching models is the one provided in IFSTA Fire and Emergency Services Instructor Manual, the four-step method of instruction. Company officers can use the process for effective company level training. Which step has students demonstrate how much they have learned through a written, oral, or practical examination or test. The purpose is to determine whether students achieved the lesson objectives or course outcomes. Determine how well students have performed skills or evolutions and provide them feedback to assist them in improving those skills.
A. Step 1: Preparation.
B. Step 2: Presentation.
C. Step 3: Application.
D. Step 4: Evaluation.
D. Step 4: Evaluation.
923
You have responded to a refrigerant leak in a wall-in cooler located on the first floor of a building. The type of ventilation best suited to this situation is:
A. Vertical ventilation.
B. Positive-pressure ventilation.
C. Horizontal ventilation.
D. Negative-pressure ventilation.
D. Negative-pressure ventilation.
| Not in book p.468 ; does say PPV is for confined space...
924
The Basic Leadership Style is one of the most familiar and groups leaders into three categories that are recognizable to most members of the fire and emergency services. _____ style is appropriate for both day-to-day and special emergency operations such as hazardous materials or technical rescue incidents.
A. Autocratic.
B. Charismatic.
C. Democratic.
D. Laissez-faire.
C. Democratic.
925
The Basic Leadership Style is one of the most familiar and groups leaders into three categories that are recognizable to most members of the fire and emergency services. _____ style is appropriate for emergency operations but lacks effectiveness in daily operations. Examples include giving emergency scene orders and commands.
A. Autocratic.
B. Charismatic.
C. Democratic.
D. Laissez-faire.
A. Autocratic.
926
The Basic Leadership Style is one of the most familiar and groups leaders into three categories that are recognizable to most members of the fire and emergency services. _____ style is appropriate for routine station or community tasks but never should be used at emergency incidents.
A. Autocratic.
B. Charismatic.
C. Democratic.
D. Laissez-faire.
D. Laissez-faire.
927
The following Basic Leadership Style categories can be effectively used based on the situation to which they applied: _____ is described as: "The leader tells subordinates what to do and how to do it with little or no input from them. If this is the dominant leadership style used, it may result in significant challenges from subordinates."
A. Autocratic.
B. Charismatic.
C. Democratic.
D. Laissez-faire.
A. Autocratic.
928
The following Basic Leadership Style categories can be effectively used based on the situation to which they applied: _____ is described as: "The leader includes employees in the decision-making process and allows them to work with the least amount of supervision necessary."
A. Autocratic.
B. Charismatic.
C. Democratic.
D. Laissez-faire.
C. Democratic.
929
The following Basic Leadership Style categories can be effectively used based on the situation to which they applied: _____ is described as: "The leader leaves employees to make all the decisions and dose not supervise them at all. If it is the dominant leadership style, it can result in a loss of respect from followers and has the potential for a challenge from a strong informal leader."
A. Autocratic.
B. Charismatic.
C. Democratic.
D. Laissez-faire.
D. Laissez-faire.
930
Speech communication research would suggest that the verbal message provides a listener with _____ of the message.
A. 7%
B. 38%
C. 55%
D. 93%
```
A. 7% (verbal)
________________________________
B. 38% (Vocal tones and inflections)
C. 55% (Kinesics - body motion)
D. 93% (55-93% of communication transmits non-verbally)
```
931
In both nonemergency and emergency situations, company officers may issue many orders and directives. The following statement is TRUE regarding orders and directives.
A. Orders and directives are not mandatory during non-emergencies situations.
B. Orders and directives are mandatory during emergency situations.
C. Orders are mandatory and directives are not mandatory during emergency situations.
D. Orders are not mandatory and directives are mandatory during emergency situations.
B. Orders and directives are mandatory during emergency situations.
932
_____ are based upon the authority delegated to the fire officer to implement organizational policies and procedures. Compliance is mandatory because it is based upon a policy or procedure.
A. Orders.
B. Directives.
C. Requests.
D. Statements.
A. Orders.
933
_____ are not based on a policy or procedure; it is more in the nature of a request. They are not mandatory except during emergency situations.
A. Orders.
B. Directives.
C. Requests.
D. Statements.
B. Directives.
934
A _____ is a detailed plan of action. It details in writing steps to follow in conducting organizational policy for some specific, reoccurring problem or situation. They are better developed at the company level because these individuals will be responsible for following and implementing _____s to meet certain policies.
A. Policy.
B. Policy analysis.
C. Unwritten polices.
D. Procedure.
D. Procedure.
935
A _____ is a guide to decision-making within an organization. They originate with top management in the organization and are disseminated to lower levels for implementation. They not only aid in decision-making, but they also define boundaries and standards that the administration expects company officers and members to use.
A. Policy.
B. Policy analysis.
C. Unwritten polices.
D. Procedure.
A. Policy.
936
A _____ determines whether current policies are effective and enforceable. It also determines whether resulting problems are caused by the lack of policies. It usually takes place when an organization is experiencing some type of internal difficulty.
A. Policy.
B. Policy analysis.
C. Unwritten polices.
D. Procedure.
B. Policy analysis.
937
_____ are a result of tradition within the organization. Such policies are implied in the routine activities of the organization. Implied policies develop where no clear policy exists. This situation is especially true in organizations where policies are not written or when written policies are out of date. _____ can come to have as much force as though they were written and can be used to settle grievances.
A. Policy.
B. Policy analysis.
C. Unwritten polices.
D. Procedure.
C. Unwritten polices.
aka Organizational norms or Past practices.
938
The five-step planning model can be represented as a circular path or as a flowchart. The results of the evaluation may indicate the need for some changes in the activities. The following statement is TRUE regarding the five-step planning process.
A. The first step in the planning model is to determine the effectiveness of the activities in meeting the goals or outcomes.
B. When changes identified, a new analysis is used to begin the process again.
C. Perform selected activity or supervise crew members in the activity that will mitigate the problem, is not part of the planning model.
D. Choose the appropriate response to the problem, which does not require choosing the goals, outcomes, and objectives required to meet.
B. When changes identified, a new analysis is used to begin the process again. (TRUE)
939
The five-step planning model can be represented as a circular path or as a flowchart. The step identified as "Identify" is:
A. Select a problem that requires a response.
B. Choose the appropriate response to the problem, which requires choosing the goals, outcomes, and objectives required to meet them.
C. Determine the steps required to meet the goals, outcomes, and objectives previously selected.
D. Perform the selected activity or supervise crew members in the activity that will mitigate the problem.
E. Determine the effectiveness of activities in meeting the goals or outcomes.
A. Select a problem that requires a response. (Step 1: Identify)
________________________________
B. Choose the appropriate response to the problem, which requires choosing the goals, outcomes, and objectives required to meet them. (Step 2: Select)
C. Determine the steps required to meet the goals, outcomes, and objectives previously selected. (Step 3: Design)
D. Perform the selected activity or supervise crew members in the activity that will mitigate the problem. (Step 4: Implement)
E. Determine the effectiveness of activities in meeting the goals or outcomes. (Step 5: Evaluate)
940
The five-step planning model can be represented as a circular path or as a flowchart. The step identified as "Implement" is:
A. Select a problem that requires a response.
B. Choose the appropriate response to the problem, which requires choosing the goals, outcomes, and objectives required to meet them.
C. Determine the steps required to meet the goals, outcomes, and objectives previously selected.
D. Perform the selected activity or supervise crew members in the activity that will mitigate the problem.
E. Determine the effectiveness of activities in meeting the goals or outcomes.
D. Perform the selected activity or supervise crew members in the activity that will mitigate the problem. (Step 4: Implement)
________________________________
A. Select a problem that requires a response. (Step 1: Identify)
B. Choose the appropriate response to the problem, which requires choosing the goals, outcomes, and objectives required to meet them. (Step 2: Select)
C. Determine the steps required to meet the goals, outcomes, and objectives previously selected. (Step 3: Design)
D. Perform the selected activity or supervise crew members in the activity that will mitigate the problem. (Step 4: Implement)
E. Determine the effectiveness of activities in meeting the goals or outcomes. (Step 5: Evaluate)
941
The five-step planning model can be represented as a circular path or as a flowchart. The step identified as "Design" is:
A. Select a problem that requires a response.
B. Choose the appropriate response to the problem, which requires choosing the goals, outcomes, and objectives required to meet them.
C. Determine the steps required to meet the goals, outcomes, and objectives previously selected.
D. Perform the selected activity or supervise crew members in the activity that will mitigate the problem.
E. Determine the effectiveness of activities in meeting the goals or outcomes.
C. Determine the steps required to meet the goals, outcomes, and objectives previously selected. (Step 3: Design)
________________________________
A. Select a problem that requires a response. (Step 1: Identify)
B. Choose the appropriate response to the problem, which requires choosing the goals, outcomes, and objectives required to meet them. (Step 2: Select)
C. Determine the steps required to meet the goals, outcomes, and objectives previously selected. (Step 3: Design)
D. Perform the selected activity or supervise crew members in the activity that will mitigate the problem. (Step 4: Implement)
E. Determine the effectiveness of activities in meeting the goals or outcomes. (Step 5: Evaluate)
942
The five-step planning model can be represented as a circular path or as a flowchart. The step identified as "Evaluate" is:
A. Select a problem that requires a response.
B. Choose the appropriate response to the problem, which requires choosing the goals, outcomes, and objectives required to meet them.
C. Determine the steps required to meet the goals, outcomes, and objectives previously selected.
D. Perform the selected activity or supervise crew members in the activity that will mitigate the problem.
E. Determine the effectiveness of activities in meeting the goals or outcomes.
E. Determine the effectiveness of activities in meeting the goals or outcomes. (Step 5: Evaluate)
________________________________
A. Select a problem that requires a response. (Step 1: Identify)
B. Choose the appropriate response to the problem, which requires choosing the goals, outcomes, and objectives required to meet them. (Step 2: Select)
C. Determine the steps required to meet the goals, outcomes, and objectives previously selected. (Step 3: Design)
D. Perform the selected activity or supervise crew members in the activity that will mitigate the problem. (Step 4: Implement)
E. Determine the effectiveness of activities in meeting the goals or outcomes. (Step 5: Evaluate)
943
The five-step planning model can be represented as a circular path or as a flowchart. The step identified as "Select" is:
A. Select a problem that requires a response.
B. Choose the appropriate response to the problem, which requires choosing the goals, outcomes, and objectives required to meet them.
C. Determine the steps required to meet the goals, outcomes, and objectives previously selected.
D. Perform the selected activity or supervise crew members in the activity that will mitigate the problem.
E. Determine the effectiveness of activities in meeting the goals or outcomes.
B. Choose the appropriate response to the problem, which requires choosing the goals, outcomes, and objectives required to meet them. (Step 2: Select)
________________________________
A. Select a problem that requires a response. (Step 1: Identify)
B. Choose the appropriate response to the problem, which requires choosing the goals, outcomes, and objectives required to meet them. (Step 2: Select)
C. Determine the steps required to meet the goals, outcomes, and objectives previously selected. (Step 3: Design)
D. Perform the selected activity or supervise crew members in the activity that will mitigate the problem. (Step 4: Implement)
E. Determine the effectiveness of activities in meeting the goals or outcomes. (Step 5: Evaluate)
944
Company officers should understand the concept of personal space. In North American culture "intimate space" is:
A. 0 - 18 inches.
B. 18 inches - 4 feet.
C. 4 feet - 10 feet.
D. More than 10 feet.
```
A. 0 - 18 inches. (Intimate space)
________________________________
B. 18 inches - 4 feet. (Personal space)
C. 4 feet - 10 feet. (Social space)
D. More than 10 feet. (Public space)
```
945
Company officers should understand the concept of personal space. In North American culture "personal space" is:
A. 0 - 18 inches.
B. 18 inches - 4 feet.
C. 4 feet - 10 feet.
D. More than 10 feet.
```
B. 18 inches - 4 feet. (Personal space)
________________________________
A. 0 - 18 inches. (Intimate space)
B. 18 inches - 4 feet. (Personal space)
C. 4 feet - 10 feet. (Social space)
D. More than 10 feet. (Public space)
```
946
Company officers should understand the concept of personal space. In North American culture "social space" is:
A. 0 - 18 inches.
B. 18 inches - 4 feet.
C. 4 feet - 10 feet.
D. More than 10 feet.
```
C. 4 feet - 10 feet. (Social space)
________________________________
A. 0 - 18 inches. (Intimate space)
B. 18 inches - 4 feet. (Personal space)
C. 4 feet - 10 feet. (Social space)
D. More than 10 feet. (Public space)
```
947
Company officers should understand the concept of personal space. In North American culture "public space" is:
A. 0 - 18 inches.
B. 18 inches - 4 feet.
C. 4 feet - 10 feet.
D. More than 10 feet.
```
D. More than 10 feet. (Public space)
________________________________
A. 0 - 18 inches. (Intimate space)
B. 18 inches - 4 feet. (Personal space)
C. 4 feet - 10 feet. (Social space)
D. More than 10 feet. (Public space)
```
948
The IBC designates fire construction types in their code. The description for _____ "Requires 3-hour fire-resistance rating of the structural frame and load-bearing walls; floors must have a 2-hour fire-resistance rating; and roofs must have a 1 1/2 hour fire-resistance rating."
```
A. Type IV B.
B. Type III B.
C. Type II B.
D. Type I B.
E. Type I A.
F. Type II A.
G. Type III A.
H. Type IV A.
```
E. Type I A.
949
The IBC designates fire construction types in their code. The description for _____ "Requires 2-hour fire-resistance rating of the structural frame and load-bearing walls; floors must have a 2-hour fire-resistance rating; and roofs must have a 1-hour fire-resistance rating."
```
A. Type IV B.
B. Type III B.
C. Type II B.
D. Type I B.
E. Type I A.
F. Type II A.
G. Type III A.
H. Type IV A.
```
D. Type I B.
950
Automatic roof and wall vents release heat and smoke to the outside through vents that work automatically and are placed at the highest point of the roof or wall to limit the spread of fire within a building. Today, most operate through the use of _____ .
A. Smoke detectors.
B. Fire alarm control panels.
C. Fusible links.
D. Flame detectors.
C. Fusible links. (connected to spring-loaded or counterweighted cover assemblies)
951
Rescue is the term that Layman used to identify the life-safety aspect of emergency incident priorities. The following statement is TRUE regarding rescue:
A. In fire incidents, search and rescue teams must use a tagline for their protection and that of those being rescued.
B. In fire incidents, search and rescue teams must take charge hoseline with them for their protection and that of those being rescued, not for fire attack purposes.
C. In fire incidents, searching rescue teams must take charge hoselines with them to extinguish any fire encountered in their search.
D. In fire incidents, search and rescue teams cannot wait for a tagline or charge coastlines before they search for trapped occupants.
B. In fire incidents, search and rescue teams must take charge hoseline with them for their protection and that of those being rescued, not for fire attack purposes. (TRUE)
952
There are a number of structural fire consideration indicators based on the appearance of smoke, air-track, heat, and flame visible to the fire-arriving officer. A high-neutral plane:
A. May indicate that the fire is in the early stages of development.
B. Could indicate that the compartment has not ventilated yet and that flashover is approaching. C. Many indicate that the fire is reaching backdraft conditions.
D. Generally indicates burning petroleum-based material such as plastic or rubber.
A. May indicate that the fire is in the early stages of development.
953
A company officer's subordinates expect the officer to be a supervisor. Following statement is TRUE regarding role expectations.
A. Officers and subordinates alike are not guided by what others expect of them in performing their duties.
B. It is important for company officers to realize that the ability to positively influence a group is dependent upon being it's informal leader.
C. The officer does not need to know how to fit into the informal group.
D. The most detrimental thing a company officer can do is remain at a distance from the informal group.
D. The most detrimental thing a company officer can do is remain at a distance from the informal group. (TRUE)
954
The following statement is TRUE regarding post-incident analysis.
A. The PIA should only be written for large incidents.
B. The PIA should always be followed up with a post-incident critique.
C. An objective of a PIA is to identify effective procedures (strengths) and identify areas needing improvement (weaknesses).
D. The PIA is intended to place blame or fault with the participants.
C. An objective of a PIA is to identify effective procedures (strengths) and identify areas needing improvement (weaknesses). (TRUE)
955
The term "post-incident analysis" is sometimes confused with the term "post-incident critique". Even the NFPA 1021 standard infers that the analysis is both the written record and the activity that makes up the critique. The analysis is intended to focus on the activities of the participants, the elements of the emergency, and the decisions made that were intended to control the incident. The PIA objectives are as follows... the exception is:
A. Provide an opportunity for participants to objectively review operations in a constructive manner.
B. Identify effective procedures (strengths) for future emergency operations.
C. Identify areas needing improvement (weaknesses) and recommend changes to improve effectiveness.
D. Intended to place blame or find fault with the participants.
D. Intended to place blame or find fault with the participants. (FALSE)
956
When an accident occurs, an investigation is conducted to determine the root cause of the accident. Workplace accidents are investigated to identify the following... which of the following answer choices is the "root cause"?
A. Facts that could have a legal effect on an accident case.
B. The behavior or condition that caused the accident.
C. Additional training needs.
D. Previously unrecognized hazards.
E. Apparatus/equipment defects or design flaws.
F. Improvements needed in safety policies and procedures.
G. Trends.
B. The behavior or condition that caused the accident. (Root cause)
957
As part of the investigation of injuries, illnesses, and exposures, the officer writes a report outlining the problems and the investigation process. The following statement is TRUE regarding injury, illness, and exposure reports.
A. The report should never include recommended solutions.
B. The report should always include a single (best) recommended solution.
C. The report should include one or more recommended solutions.
D. The report should include a subjective opinion of the injury, illness, or exposure.
C. The report should include one or more recommended solutions. (TRUE)
________________________________
A. The report "should never include" recommended solutions. (FALSE - "should include")
B. The report should "always" include a single (best) recommended solution. (FALSE - "sometimes")
D. The report should "include a subjective opinion" of the injury, illness, or exposure. (FALSE - "be objective")
958
Exposure reports must be maintained a record-keeping system. These records must be maintained for _____ years. These records are confidential and may only be released to the member or a designated representative.
A. 10 years following the exposure.
B. 20 years following the exposure.
C. 20 years following termination or retirement of the employee.
D. 30 years following termination or retirement of the employee.
D. 30 years following termination or retirement of the employee.
959
Counseling is a formal process that involves activities that assist participants in identifying and resolving personal, behavioral, or career problems that are adversely affecting performance. The first step in counseling is:
A. Ask employee to agree to the new level of performance.
B. Describe performance levels and a positive manner. State the required behavior and expectations.
C. State in detail exactly what action is expected or required in order to provide clear direction for the employee.
D. Observe the employee to determine whether performance improves or schedule a follow-up meeting to discuss progress.
B. Describe performance levels and a positive manner. State the required behavior and expectations. (Step 1)
________________________________
A. Ask employee to agree to the new level of performance. (Step 3)
C. State in detail exactly what action is expected or required in order to provide clear direction for the employee. (Step 2)
D. Observe the employee to determine whether performance improves or schedule a follow-up meeting to discuss progress. (Step 4)
960
Counseling is a formal process that involves activities that assist participants in identifying and resolving personal, behavioral, or career problems that are adversely affecting performance. Counseling should occur in private, and a record should be kept of the session. Which step in the "four-step method of counseling" used in the fire and emergency services states: "Describe levels in a positive manner. Specifically state the required behavior and expectations. Explain how and why current behavior is not acceptable. Specify how behaviors can be improved by using specific examples."
A. Step 1: Describe the current performance.
B. Step 2: Describe the desired performance.
C. Step 3: Gain a commitment for change.
D. Step 4: Follow up the commitment.
A. Step 1: Describe the current performance.
961
Counseling is a formal process that involves activities that assist participants in identifying and resolving personal, behavioral, or career problems that are adversely affecting performance. Counseling should occur in private, and a record should be kept of the session. Which step in the "four-step method of counseling" used in the fire and emergency services states: "State in detail exactly what action is expected or required in order to provide clear direction for the employee."
A. Step 1: Describe the current performance.
B. Step 2: Describe the desired performance.
C. Step 3: Gain a commitment for change.
D. Step 4: Follow up the commitment.
B. Step 2: Describe the desired performance.
962
Counseling is a formal process that involves activities that assist participants in identifying and resolving personal, behavioral, or career problems that are adversely affecting performance. Counseling should occur in private, and a record should be kept of the session. Which step in the "four-step method of counseling" used in the fire and emergency services states: "Ask the employee to agree to the new level of performance. In some cases, this commitment could be considered a contract and become part of the employee's formal personal record."
A. Step 1: Describe the current performance.
B. Step 2: Describe the desired performance.
C. Step 3: Gain a commitment for change.
D. Step 4: Follow up the commitment.
C. Step 3: Gain a commitment for change.
963
Counseling should occur in private, and a record should be kept of the session. Which step in the "four-step method of counseling" used in the fire and emergency services states: "Observe the employee following the counseling session to determine whether performance improves or schedule a follow-up meeting to discuss progress. If change dose not occur, subsequent counseling sessions may be required. If unacceptable behavior continues after subsequent counseling, refer the situation to the next level of administration, based on the organization counseling policy and the labor/management agreement."
A. Step 1: Describe the current performance.
B. Step 2: Describe the desired performance.
C. Step 3: Gain a commitment for change.
D. Step 4: Follow up the commitment.
D. Step 4: Follow up the commitment.
964
Mentoring programs enhance management skills, improve productivity, and encourage diversity. Experienced supervisors can mentor in the following ways... the exception is:
A. Provide role models for future leaders.
B. Provide guidance in career choices.
C. Assist in gaining specialized training.
D. Provide outside resources.
E. Make challenging work assignments.
F. Monitor the achievements of subordinates and punishing under achievements.
F. Monitor the achievements of subordinates "and punishing under achievements". (FALSE)
965
The company officer can create job interest within a unit in a number of ways. Some effective methods including empowering employees, providing rewards and incentives, coaching, counseling and mentoring members of the unit, and celebrating accomplishments. ______ is known as "Informal process of giving motivational direction, positive reinforcement, and constructive feedback to employees in order to maintain and improve their performances and ensure successful performances."
```
A. Empowering employees.
B. Rewards and Incentives.
C. Coaching.
D. Counseling.
E. Mentoring.
F. Celebrating accomplishments.
```
C. Coaching.
966
The company officer can create job interest within a unit in a number of ways. Some effective methods including empowering employees, providing rewards and incentives, coaching, counseling and mentoring members of the unit, and celebrating accomplishments. ______ is known as "Formal process that invites activities that assist participants in identifying and resolving personal, behavioral, or career problems that are adversely affecting performance."
```
A. Empowering employees.
B. Rewards and Incentives.
C. Coaching.
D. Counseling.
E. Mentoring.
F. Celebrating accomplishments.
```
D. Counseling.
967
The company officer can create job interest within a unit in a number of ways. Some effective methods including empowering employees, providing rewards and incentives, coaching, counseling and mentoring members of the unit, and celebrating accomplishments. ______ is known as "Process used to prepare capable individuals for advancement within the organization through the direction of a positive role model."
```
A. Empowering employees.
B. Rewards and Incentives.
C. Coaching.
D. Counseling.
E. Mentoring.
F. Celebrating accomplishments.
```
E. Mentoring.
968
The company officer can create job interest within a unit in a number of ways. Some effective methods including empowering employees, providing rewards and incentives, coaching, counseling and mentoring members of the unit, and celebrating accomplishments. ______ is known as "a form of delegation that allows subordinates to take responsibility for their actions and decisions. It helps to build self-esteem and motivation within the employee. It is based on the concept of giving decision-making power to employees instead of having the supervisor retain it."
```
A. Empowering employees.
B. Rewards and Incentives.
C. Coaching.
D. Counseling.
E. Mentoring.
F. Celebrating accomplishments.
```
A. Empowering employees.
969
The company officer can create job interest within a unit in a number of ways. Some effective methods including empowering employees, providing rewards and incentives, coaching, counseling and mentoring members of the unit, and celebrating accomplishments. ______ is known as "Are earned through effort or participation and are critical as motivational techniques for departments."
```
A. Empowering employees.
B. Rewards and Incentives.
C. Coaching.
D. Counseling.
E. Mentoring.
F. Celebrating accomplishments.
```
B. Rewards and Incentives.
970
The company officer can create job interest within a unit in a number of ways. Some effective methods including empowering employees, providing rewards and incentives, coaching, counseling and mentoring members of the unit, and celebrating accomplishments. ______ is known as "As soon as possible, after objectives are met, announce the completion of the project to the rest of the organization and congratulate participants on the results. This signals the completion of a project and shows members of the unit that their contributions are important. However, be careful not to over use because they will lose their value."
```
A. Empowering employees.
B. Rewards and Incentives.
C. Coaching.
D. Counseling.
E. Mentoring.
F. Celebrating accomplishments.
```
F. Celebrating accomplishments.
971
It is important to define who the customers are and monitor their changing attitudes. An example of an internal customer is:
A. Members of the political body.
B. Employees.
C. Members of the general population.
D. Business owners.
B. Employees. (Internal customers)
________________________________
A. Members of the political body. (Stakeholders)
C. Members of the general population. (External customers)
D. Business owners. (External customers or Stakeholders)
972
For the effective and efficient operation of any fire and emergency services organization and use of resources through standardized systems, written policies and procedures are essential. A procedure is described as:
A. Details in writing the steps to follow in conducting organizational policy for some specific, reoccurring problem or solution.
B. Implied in the routine activities of the organization.
C. Determines whether current policies are effective and enforceable.
D. Not only aid in decision-making, but they also define the boundaries and standards that the administration expects company officers and members to use.
A. Details in writing the steps to follow in conducting organizational policy for some specific, reoccurring problem or solution. (Procedure)
________________________________
B. Implied in the routine activities of the organization. (Unwritten policies, Organizational norms, or Past practices)
C. Determines whether current policies are effective and enforceable. (Policy analysis)
D. Not only aid in decision-making, but they also define the boundaries and standards that the administration expects company officers and members to use. (Policies)
973
For the effective and efficient operation of any fire and emergency services organization and use of resources through standardized systems, written policies and procedures are essential. A policy analysis is described as:
A. Details in writing the steps to follow in conducting organizational policy for some specific, reoccurring problem or solution.
B. Implied in the routine activities of the organization.
C. Determines whether current policies are effective and enforceable.
D. Not only aid in decision-making, but they also define the boundaries and standards that the administration expects company officers and members to use.
C. Determines whether current policies are effective and enforceable. (Policy analysis)
________________________________
A. Details in writing the steps to follow in conducting organizational policy for some specific, reoccurring problem or solution. (Procedure)
B. Implied in the routine activities of the organization. (Unwritten policies, Organizational norms, or Past practices)
D. Not only aid in decision-making, but they also define the boundaries and standards that the administration expects company officers and members to use. (Policies)
974
For the effective and efficient operation of any fire and emergency services organization and use of resources through standardized systems, written policies and procedures are essential. Unwritten policies are described as:
A. Details in writing the steps to follow in conducting organizational policy for some specific, reoccurring problem or solution.
B. Implied in the routine activities of the organization.
C. Determines whether current policies are effective and enforceable.
D. Not only aid in decision-making, but they also define the boundaries and standards that the administration expects company officers and members to use.
B. Implied in the routine activities of the organization. (Unwritten policies, Organizational norms, or Past practices)
________________________________
A. Details in writing the steps to follow in conducting organizational policy for some specific, reoccurring problem or solution. (Procedure)
C. Determines whether current policies are effective and enforceable. (Policy analysis)
D. Not only aid in decision-making, but they also define the boundaries and standards that the administration expects company officers and members to use. (Policies)
975
For the effective and efficient operation of any fire and emergency services organization and use of resources through standardized systems, written policies and procedures are essential. A policy is described as:
A. Details in writing the steps to follow in conducting organizational policy for some specific, reoccurring problem or solution.
B. Implied in the routine activities of the organization.
C. Determines whether current policies are effective and enforceable.
D. Not only aid in decision-making, but they also define the boundaries and standards that the administration expects company officers and members to use.
D. Not only aid in decision-making, but they also define the boundaries and standards that the administration expects company officers and members to use. (Policies)
________________________________
A. Details in writing the steps to follow in conducting organizational policy for some specific, reoccurring problem or solution. (Procedure)
B. Implied in the routine activities of the organization. (Unwritten policies, Organizational norms, or Past practices)
C. Determines whether current policies are effective and enforceable. (Policy analysis)
976
Authority refers to the legal ability of an individual to make and implement decisions for which the individual is held accountable. _____ is described as: "Has limits, however, authority is granted at different levels to accomplish specific tasks".
```
A. Delegation of authority.
B. Functional supervision.
C. Decentralized authority.
D. Centralized authority.
E. Division-of-labor.
```
C. Decentralized authority.
977
Authority refers to the legal ability of an individual to make and implement decisions for which the individual is held accountable. _____ is described as: "Decisions are made by one person at the top of the structure. Works well in very small organizations such as an individual fire company."
```
A. Delegation of authority.
B. Functional supervision.
C. Decentralized authority.
D. Centralized authority.
E. Division-of-labor.
```
D. Centralized authority.
978
Authority refers to the legal ability of an individual to make and implement decisions for which the individual is held accountable. _____ is described as: "When personnel are assigned by their supervisor to perform duties that fall under the authority of another supervisor, the subordinates are allowed to report to the second supervisor on matters relating to that function (while they are performing those duties)."
```
A. Delegation of authority.
B. Functional supervision.
C. Decentralized authority.
D. Centralized authority.
E. Division-of-labor.
```
B. Functional supervision.
979
Authority refers to the legal ability of an individual to make and implement decisions for which the individual is held accountable. _____ is described as: "When a company officer assigns a capable lower level employee to complete a task that has a clear objective".
```
A. Delegation of authority.
B. Functional supervision.
C. Decentralized authority.
D. Centralized authority.
E. Division-of-labor.
```
A. Delegation of authority.
980
Authority refers to the legal ability of an individual to make and implement decisions for which the individual is held accountable. _____ is described as: "Consists of dividing large jobs into smaller tasks that are then assigned to specific individuals. This is important in assigning responsibility, preventing duplication of effort, and making specific clear-cut assignments in order to accomplish the work."
```
A. Delegation of authority.
B. Functional supervision.
C. Decentralized authority.
D. Centralized authority.
E. Division-of-labor.
```
E. Division-of-labor.
981
When a unit is assigned from Staging to an operating Division/Group (DG), the unit will be told what DG they will be reporting to and the name of the DG Supervisor. The DG Supervisor will be informed of which resources have been assigned to him by the _____ .
A. Accountability officer.
B. Incident commander.
C. Staging area manager.
D. Unit officer.
B. Incident commander.
982
There are three levels of command in the ICS. _____ level responsibilities include the following: The overall direction and goals of the incident ; Determination of the appropriate strategy ; Establishment of overall incident objectives ; Setting of priorities ; Development of an Incident Action Plan ; Obtainment and assignment of resources ; Planning ; Prediction of outcomes ; and Assignment of specific objectives to tactical level management units.
```
A. Strategic.
B. Tactical.
C. Task.
D. Divisions.
E. Groups.
```
A. Strategic level.
983
There are three levels of command in the ICS. The _____ level involves overall command of the incident. The IC is responsible for this level of the command structure. The IAP should cover all strategic responsibilities, tactical objectives, and support activities needed during the entire operational period.
```
A. Strategic.
B. Tactical.
C. Task.
D. Divisions.
E. Groups.
```
A. Strategic.
984
_____ level supervisors direct operational activities toward specific objectives. _____ level supervisors supervise grouped resources and are responsible for specific geographic areas or functions. A _____ level assignment comes with authority to make decisions and assignments within the boundaries of the overall plan and safety conditions.
```
A. Strategic.
B. Tactical.
C. Task.
D. Divisions.
E. Groups.
```
B. Tactical.
985
The _____ level refers to those activities normally accomplished by individual units or specific personnel. The _____ level is where the work is actually done. _____ level activities are routinely supervised by company officers. The accumulated achievements of the _____ level activities should accomplish tactical objectives.
```
A. Strategic.
B. Tactical.
C. Task.
D. Divisions.
E. Groups.
```
C. Task.
986
_____ represents "geographic" operations; tactical level management components that assemble units and/or resources for a common purpose.
```
A. Strategic.
B. Tactical.
C. Task.
D. Divisions.
E. Groups.
```
D. Divisions.
987
_____ represents "functional" operations; tactical level management components that assemble units and/or resources for a common purpose.
```
A. Strategic.
B. Tactical.
C. Task.
D. Divisions.
E. Groups.
```
E. Groups.
988
As a supervisor, the company officer is much like a parent figure to the members of the unit. The company officer performs the following functions... the exception is:
A. Provides leadership.
B. Acts as a role model.
C. Provides fire and life-safety education.
D. Negotiates conflicts.
E. Gives advice.
F. Provides representation for members to the administration.
G. Applies counseling or coaching when necessary.
C. Provides fire and life-safety education. (FALSE - public service not company/unit)
989
Research indicates that the public has greater contact with members of local government than with any other government level. The company officer and members of a unit are the first direct contact the public will have with the fire and emergency services of a local government. The company officer may interact with the public by providing services such as... the exception is:
A. Issuing burning permits.
B. Investigating suspicious fires.
C. Inspecting facilities.
D. Gives advice.
E. Providing public fire and life-safety education.
E. Providing emergency care to victims of hazardous incidents.
D. Gives advice. (FALSE - company/unit not public)
990
The transition to company officer includes challenges, expectations, and potentially the search for successful solutions. For the officer who is promoted or selected from within the organization, the challenge will be to make the change from unit member to unit leader. The relationship between peers and friends will shift to a relationship between supervisor and subordinates. Consider the following statements about work relationships:
1) Station life is relationship-oriented.
2) Emergency operations are task-oriented.
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
991
Making the transition to company officer creates a variety of personal challenges for the new fire officer. If this transition is not manage properly, it can result in antagonism, jealousy, and the loss of friendships. To overcome these personal challenges, the new officer must perform the following actions... the exception to these seven actions is:
A. Show loyalty to the organization.
B. Learn about, be interested in, and be dedicated to the position.
C. Guard conversations. Never say anything on or off the job, that would bring dishonor onto a person, a position, or the organization.
D. Lead by example.
E. Support all types of education and training.
F. Accept criticism gracefully and accept praise, honors, and advancement modestly.
G. Discipline in public; praise in private.
G. "Discipline" in public; "praise" in private. (FALSE - PRAISE in public; DISCIPLINE in private.)
992
As first-level supervisors for a group of employees, Level I fire officers must be able to perform the following duties involving human resources management... the exception is:
A. Assign tasks.
B. Prepare projects and divisional budget.
C. Evaluate personnel performance.
D. Provide company level training.
E. Provide effective supervision for both emergency and nonemergency activities.
F. Administer policies and procedures efficiently and equitably.
G. Recommend actions when situations exceeded their authority or ability.
H. Act as a project manager in certain situations.
I. Provide professional development opportunities for members.
J. Initiate or assist with personnel transfers, personal benefits, changes in those benefits, awards and accommodations, disciplinary actions, and labor/management issues.
B. Prepare projects and divisional budget. (FALSE - Level II)
________________________________
In addition to the Level I duties, the Level II fire officer must also perform the following:
• Evaluate personal performances and ensure that employees perform to the best of their abilities.
•Prepare projects and divisional budget.
993
The basic principle behind Theory _____ management believes that:
• The average worker does not inherently dislike work - in fact, workers feel work can be as natural as play or rest.
• The workers will perform adequately with self-direction and self-control without coercion.
• Workers will support organizational objectives if they associate those objectives with their personal goals.
• The average worker learns not only to accept responsibility, in fact, also learns to seek responsibility.
• Only a small part of the workers intelligence, ingenuity, and imagination is ever harnessed, but with proper leadership, workers will excel.
A. "W"
B. "X"
C. "Y"
D. "Z"
C. "Y"
994
The basic principle behind Theory _____ management believes that:
• The average worker is inherently lazy, dislikes work, and will avoid it whenever possible.
• Because of their inherent dislike of work, most workers must be coerced into performing adequately by threats of punishment.
• The average worker prefers to be closely supervised and shuns responsibility because of a general lack of ambition.
A. "W"
B. "X"
C. "Y"
D. "Z"
B. "X"
995
The basic concepts of Theory _____ management includes the following:
• Leadership style that focuses on people.
• Employees remaining with the company for life.
• Close relationship between work and social life.
• Workers' goal to produce economic success nurtures togetherness.
• Participative approach to decision-making.
A. "W"
B. "X"
C. "Y"
D. "Z"
D. "Z"
996
A company officer must be able to recognize the difference between a leader and a manager. Sarah White has articulated one version of the difference in an article in a professional pharmacist's journal. The following statements are TRUE... the exception is:
1. Managers administer; leaders innovate.
2. Managers ask how and when; leaders ask what and why.
3. Managers focus on systems; leaders focus on people.
4. Managers ensure that things are done right; leaders ensure that the right things are done.
5. Managers maintain; leaders develop.
6. Managers rely on control; leaders inspire trust.
7. Managers have a short-term perspective; leaders have a long-term perspective.
8. Managers accept the status quo; leaders challenge the status quo.
9. Managers have an eye on the bottom line; leaders have an eye on the horizon.
10. Managers are the classic good soldier; leaders are their own people.
11. Managers are originals; leaders are copies.
11. Managers are originals; leaders are copies. (FALSE - opposite)
997
According to Webster, power is the "possession of control, authority, or influence over others". According to psychologists John French and Bertram Raven, there are five types of power. The following are types of power... the exception is:
```
A. Reward power.
B. Coercive power.
C. Official power.
D. Legitimate power.
E. Identification power.
F. Expert power.
```
C. Official power. (FALSE)
998
_____ is based on one's perception of another's ability to grant rewards. Perceived power increases in direct relation to the amount of rewards an employee sees a leader or supervisor controlling. Results depend on the strength of subordinates' desires for these rewards and their perceptions of the leader's ability to provide them.
```
A. Reward power.
B. Coercive power.
C. Expert power.
D. Legitimate power.
E. Identification power.
```
A. Reward power.
999
Following are examples of which type of power?
• Getting a raise or bonus.
• Being promoted to a more responsible job.
• Getting an expanded operating budget.
• Gaining trust or respect.
• Gaining additional authority.
• Stopping by someone's workplace to say "good morning".
```
A. Reward power.
B. Coercive power.
C. Expert power.
D. Legitimate power.
E. Identification power.
```
A. Reward power.
1000
_____ is based on subordinates' perceptions of the leader's authority to punish.
```
A. Reward power.
B. Coercive power.
C. Expert power.
D. Legitimate power.
E. Identification power.
```
B. Coercive power.
1001
The following are examples of which type of power?
• Verbal or written reprimand for substandard work performance.
• Suspension without pay.
• Withholding a promised or expected reward such as a raise or promotion.
• Termination.
```
A. Reward power.
B. Coercive power.
C. Expert power.
D. Legitimate power.
E. Identification power.
```
B. Coercive power.
1002
This type of power will not be required if the officer is respected and trusted to make the right decisions and is supportive of subordinates.
```
A. Reward power.
B. Coercive power.
C. Expert power.
D. Legitimate power.
E. Identification power.
```
B. Coercive power.
1003
_____ is derived from someone's desire to identify with and emulate another.
```
A. Reward power.
B. Coercive power.
C. Expert power.
D. Legitimate power.
E. Identification power.
```
E. Identification power.
1004
Another form of _____ is "referent power" or "personal power", which is one's perception that they have power because of a relationship with someone who doesn't have power.
```
A. Reward power.
B. Coercive power.
C. Expert power.
D. Legitimate power.
E. Identification power.
```
E. Identification power.
1005
_____ is based on one person's perception that another's knowledge can help in the first person endeavors. Knowledge is power, and those who have knowledge also have power. In any given situation, the one with the most knowledge often has the most power, even if that person does not have the most authority.
```
A. Reward power.
B. Coercive power.
C. Expert power.
D. Legitimate power.
E. Identification power.
```
C. Expert power.
aka knowledge power.
1006
Another form of this power is "information power". This power is based on the perception that a person or group controls information that is needed to perform a duty or activity.
```
A. Reward power.
B. Coercive power.
C. Expert power.
D. Legitimate power.
E. Identification power.
```
C. Expert power.
aka Knowledge power
1007
_____ is derived because of the organizational structure of the department/organization. The agency (department/organization) vests this power in company officers in order to conduct the functions assigned to their units. Those who rely on this power alone are not likely to be successful.
```
A. Reward power.
B. Coercive power.
C. Expert power.
D. Legitimate power.
E. Identification power.
```
D. Legitimate power.
1008
Which type of power is also referred to as "organizational authority" or "position power"?
```
A. Reward power.
B. Coercive power.
C. Expert power.
D. Legitimate power.
E. Identification power.
```
D. Legitimate power.
1009
Subordinates will accept the _____ based on the perception that the officer has been deemed worthy of the position. _____ is derived from one of the following three sources:
• Shared values.
• Acceptance of social structure.
• Sanction of an agency, department, or organization.
```
A. Reward power.
B. Coercive power.
C. Expert power.
D. Legitimate power.
E. Identification power.
```
D. Legitimate power.
1010
Most Level I Fire Officers have the responsibility for supervising fire-company-level personnel or small groups of around four people. As a first-level supervisor, a company officer has the following basic challenges that are common to most supervisory positions... the exception is:
```
A. Establishing priorities.
B. Creating job interest within a unit.
C. Anticipating problems.
D. Training unit members.
E. Creating an effective team.
F. Establishing and communicating goals and objectives.
```
D. Training unit members. (FALSE - Level II)
1011
A company officer guides the group on a journey from disjointed individuals to a cohesive team. According to research by B.W. Tuckman, that journey can be illustrated with a basic four-stage development model. Consider these two statements:
1) Storming is defined as "The group establishes its own set of norms and values that each member accepts and adheres to."
2) Performing is defined as "The supervisor works to maintain team spirit as the group moves towards accomplishing its objectives."
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
B. #2 is true.
________________________________
1) "Storming" is defined as "The group establishes its own set of norms and values that each member accepts and adheres to." - (FALSE - "Norming")
1012
A company officer guides the group on a journey from disjointed individuals to a cohesive team. According to research by B.W. Tuckman, the developmental stage of "Forming" is known as:
A. Employees are uncertain of their roles in the group in this initial stage. As relationships within the group grow, trust and respect develop, and the members begin to see themselves as part of the group.
B. Conflict may result at this stage as members jockey for informal leadership or attempt to insert their own individual influence over the group.
C. The group establishes its own set of norms and values that each member accepts adheres to; members become closer and more cohesive.
D. The supervisor works to maintain team spirit as the group moves toward accomplishing its objectives; At this point, the group is a true team with leadership shared by all members.
E. The planned (and sometimes unplanned) termination of the group task. Acknowledgment of the groups accomplishments and participation of individual members. It is an opportunity to debrief the group members and determine if any changes in the process should be made. Bring the process to a formal conclusion, participants can feel satisfied by the results that have been achieved.
A. Employees are uncertain of their roles in the group in this initial stage. As relationships within the group grow, trust and respect develop, and the members begin to see themselves as part of the group. (Forming)
________________________________
B. Conflict may result at this stage as members jockey for informal leadership or attempt to insert their own individual influence over the group. (Storming)
C. The group establishes its own set of norms and values that each member accepts adheres to; members become closer and more cohesive. (Norming)
D. The supervisor works to maintain team spirit as the group moves toward accomplishing its objectives; At this point, the group is a true team with leadership shared by all members. (Performing)
E. The planned (and sometimes unplanned) termination of the group task. Acknowledgment of the groups accomplishments and participation of individual members. Bringing the process to a formal conclusion, participants can feel satisfied by the results that have been achieved. (Adjourning)
1013
A company officer guides the group on a journey from disjointed individuals to a cohesive team. According to research by B.W. Tuckman, the developmental stage of "Storming" is known as:
A. Employees are uncertain of their roles in the group in this initial stage. As relationships within the group grow, trust and respect develop, and the members begin to see themselves as part of the group.
B. Conflict may result at this stage as members jockey for informal leadership or attempt to insert their own individual influence over the group.
C. The group establishes its own set of norms and values that each member accepts adheres to; members become closer and more cohesive.
D. The supervisor works to maintain team spirit as the group moves toward accomplishing its objectives; At this point, the group is a true team with leadership shared by all members.
E. The planned (and sometimes unplanned) termination of the group task. Acknowledgment of the groups accomplishments and participation of individual members. It is an opportunity to debrief the group members and determine if any changes in the process should be made. Bring the process to a formal conclusion, participants can feel satisfied by the results that have been achieved.
B. Conflict may result at this stage as members jockey for informal leadership or attempt to insert their own individual influence over the group. (Storming)
________________________________
A. Employees are uncertain of their roles in the group in this initial stage. As relationships within the group grow, trust and respect develop, and the members begin to see themselves as part of the group. (Forming)
C. The group establishes its own set of norms and values that each member accepts adheres to; members become closer and more cohesive. (Norming)
D. The supervisor works to maintain team spirit as the group moves toward accomplishing its objectives; At this point, the group is a true team with leadership shared by all members. (Performing)
E. The planned (and sometimes unplanned) termination of the group task. Acknowledgment of the groups accomplishments and participation of individual members. Bringing the process to a formal conclusion, participants can feel satisfied by the results that have been achieved. (Adjourning)
1014
A company officer guides the group on a journey from disjointed individuals to a cohesive team. According to research by B.W. Tuckman, the developmental stage of "Norming" is known as:
A. Employees are uncertain of their roles in the group in this initial stage. As relationships within the group grow, trust and respect develop, and the members begin to see themselves as part of the group.
B. Conflict may result at this stage as members jockey for informal leadership or attempt to insert their own individual influence over the group.
C. The group establishes its own set of norms and values that each member accepts adheres to; members become closer and more cohesive.
D. The supervisor works to maintain team spirit as the group moves toward accomplishing its objectives; At this point, the group is a true team with leadership shared by all members.
E. The planned (and sometimes unplanned) termination of the group task. Acknowledgment of the groups accomplishments and participation of individual members. It is an opportunity to debrief the group members and determine if any changes in the process should be made. Bring the process to a formal conclusion, participants can feel satisfied by the results that have been achieved.
C. The group establishes its own set of norms and values that each member accepts adheres to; members become closer and more cohesive. (Norming)
________________________________
A. Employees are uncertain of their roles in the group in this initial stage. As relationships within the group grow, trust and respect develop, and the members begin to see themselves as part of the group. (Forming)
B. Conflict may result at this stage as members jockey for informal leadership or attempt to insert their own individual influence over the group. (Storming)
D. The supervisor works to maintain team spirit as the group moves toward accomplishing its objectives; At this point, the group is a true team with leadership shared by all members. (Performing)
E. The planned (and sometimes unplanned) termination of the group task. Acknowledgment of the groups accomplishments and participation of individual members. Bringing the process to a formal conclusion, participants can feel satisfied by the results that have been achieved. (Adjourning)
1015
A company officer guides the group on a journey from disjointed individuals to a cohesive team. According to research by B.W. Tuckman, the developmental stage of "Performing" is known as:
A. Employees are uncertain of their roles in the group in this initial stage. As relationships within the group grow, trust and respect develop, and the members begin to see themselves as part of the group.
B. Conflict may result at this stage as members jockey for informal leadership or attempt to insert their own individual influence over the group.
C. The group establishes its own set of norms and values that each member accepts adheres to; members become closer and more cohesive.
D. The supervisor works to maintain team spirit as the group moves toward accomplishing its objectives; At this point, the group is a true team with leadership shared by all members.
E. The planned (and sometimes unplanned) termination of the group task. Acknowledgment of the groups accomplishments and participation of individual members. It is an opportunity to debrief the group members and determine if any changes in the process should be made. Bring the process to a formal conclusion, participants can feel satisfied by the results that have been achieved.
D. The supervisor works to maintain team spirit as the group moves toward accomplishing its objectives; At this point, the group is a true team with leadership shared by all members. (Performing)
________________________________
A. Employees are uncertain of their roles in the group in this initial stage. As relationships within the group grow, trust and respect develop, and the members begin to see themselves as part of the group. (Forming)
B. Conflict may result at this stage as members jockey for informal leadership or attempt to insert their own individual influence over the group. (Storming)
C. The group establishes its own set of norms and values that each member accepts adheres to; members become closer and more cohesive. (Norming)
E. The planned (and sometimes unplanned) termination of the group task. Acknowledgment of the groups accomplishments and participation of individual members. Bringing the process to a formal conclusion, participants can feel satisfied by the results that have been achieved. (Adjourning)
1016
A company officer guides the group on a journey from disjointed individuals to a cohesive team. According to research by B.W. Tuckman, the developmental stage of "Adjourning" is known as:
A. Employees are uncertain of their roles in the group in this initial stage. As relationships within the group grow, trust and respect develop, and the members begin to see themselves as part of the group.
B. Conflict may result at this stage as members jockey for informal leadership or attempt to insert their own individual influence over the group.
C. The group establishes its own set of norms and values that each member accepts adheres to; members become closer and more cohesive.
D. The supervisor works to maintain team spirit as the group moves toward accomplishing its objectives; At this point, the group is a true team with leadership shared by all members.
E. The planned (and sometimes unplanned) termination of the group task. Acknowledgment of the groups accomplishments and participation of individual members. It is an opportunity to debrief the group members and determine if any changes in the process should be made. Bring the process to a formal conclusion, participants can feel satisfied by the results that have been achieved.
E. The planned (and sometimes unplanned) termination of the group task. Acknowledgment of the groups accomplishments and participation of individual members. Bringing the process to a formal conclusion, participants can feel satisfied by the results that have been achieved. (Adjourning)
________________________________
A. Employees are uncertain of their roles in the group in this initial stage. As relationships within the group grow, trust and respect develop, and the members begin to see themselves as part of the group. (Forming)
B. Conflict may result at this stage as members jockey for informal leadership or attempt to insert their own individual influence over the group. (Storming)
C. The group establishes its own set of norms and values that each member accepts adheres to; members become closer and more cohesive. (Norming)
D. The supervisor works to maintain team spirit as the group moves toward accomplishing its objectives; At this point, the group is a true team with leadership shared by all members. (Performing)
1017
All supervisors have specific major responsibilities to an organization regardless of its type. By accomplishing each of these responsibilities, the company officer can ensure an efficient and stable unit. The following are responsibilities of the supervisor... the exception is:
A. Encourage employee participation in the decision-making process.
B. Set a clear and positive example for subordinates.
C. Develop an environment of cooperation and teamwork.
D. Ensure activities are directed toward organizational goals.
E. Define expectations.
F. Receive assignments and complete a task or objective efficiently and effectively.
G. Promote and maintain health and safety policies within the workplace.
H. Develop and maintain the company as an integral part of the organization.
I. Promote skills development, skills maintenance, and skills improvement in employees.
J. Maintain discipline and ensure that policies and procedures are adhered to at all times.
K. Establish the perimeters of behavior.
L. Promote the pursuit of educational and professional opportunities.
M. Promote credentialing and certification as opportunities to enhance an individual's professionalism.
N. Maintain files and records and prepare reports.
A. Encourage employee participation in the decision-making process. (FALSE)
1018
Logic and ethics are terms that find their origin in the ancient Greek civilization of the 6th-century B.C. They were considered by the philosophers of the time to be essential to a strong human character. Definitions were as follows:
1) Logic: Ability to reason and present a strong argument in favor of or against a position. It was also the ability to recognize fallacies in the arguments of others and thereby be able to refute or correct the opposing position.
2) Ethics: Analysis of the principles of human conduct in order to be able to determine between right and wrong.
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
1019
_____ is the ability to use rational thinking and reasoning to determine the correct answer to a problem. It is also the ability to develop an argument in favor of a position while at the same time being able to see the fallacies or falsehoods surrounding an opposing view.
A. Logic.
B. Ethics.
C. Pathos.
D. Arguing.
A. Logic.
1020
_____ is the analysis of the principles of human conduct in order to be able to determine between right and wrong.
A. Logic.
B. Ethics.
C. Pathos.
D. Arguing.
B. Ethics.
1021
_____ is the ability to have empathy or sympathy of another person and make arguments based on emotional appeals.
A. Logic.
B. Ethics.
C. Pathos.
D. Arguing.
C. Pathos.
1022
_____ is a process that arrives at a general conclusion based on a foundation of specific examples or data. This approach depends on supporting evidence that consists of statistics, facts, and examples to arrive at the conclusion.
A. Inductive reasoning.
B. Deductive reasoning.
C. Casual reasoning.
D. Analytical reasoning.
A. Inductive reasoning.
1023
_____ is the process of reaching a specific conclusion based on a general statement or principle. It is usually developed in the form of a syllogism (a three-part statement that consists of a major premise, minor premise, and conclusion). This type of reasoning depends on the acceptance that the major and minor premises are true. If they are true, then the conclusion must be true.
A. Inductive reasoning.
B. Deductive reasoning.
C. Casual reasoning.
D. Analytical reasoning.
B. Deductive reasoning.
1024
_____ is a process that is based on the relationship between two or more events in such a way that it is obvious one cause the other to occur. Decisions or arguments based on this type of reasoning may be structured in one of two ways: Either from a known cause to a predicted result or from a known result backward to a suspected cause.
A. Inductive reasoning.
B. Deductive reasoning.
C. Casual reasoning.
D. Analytical reasoning.
C. Casual reasoning.
aka "Cause-and-effect" reasoning.
1025
_____ is based on a comparison between two similar cases. It infers that what is true in the first case will also be true in the second case. This type of reasoning is usually found in the persuasive type of argument or speech.
A. Inductive reasoning.
B. Deductive reasoning.
C. Casual reasoning.
D. Analytical reasoning.
D. Analytical reasoning.
1026
A "fallacy" is a false or fallacious reasoning that occurs when someone attempts to persuade others without sufficient supporting evidence or by using irrelevant or inappropriate arguments. Communication professionals have documented over 50 types of fallacies. A "Causal" fallacy is known as:
A. Makes a faulty connection between the cause and effect. Just because one event follows another chronologically does not mean that the first caused the second to occur.
B. Tries to make the statement that "everyone" is doing something or believes something so that makes it the correct point of view or activity.
C. Makes a weak, easily refuted statement to take attention away from the main point, thus creating a distraction from the main point.
D. Makes an argument or conclusion that is based on insufficient or nonexistent evidence; can also result in stereotyping.
E. Occurs when someone uses irrelevant facts to distract the listener from the main issue; is the staple of many politicians who are asked a specific question and then avoid answering it by raising other issues.
F. Concludes something that simply does not follow the main premise of the argument.
G. Consists of a series of worsening consequences that are assumed will result from the initial decision or action.
A. Makes a faulty connection between the cause and effect. Just because one event follows another chronologically does not mean that the first caused the second to occur. (Casual)
________________________________
B. Tries to make the statement that "everyone" is doing something or believes something so that makes it the correct point of view or activity. (Bandwagon)
C. Makes a weak, easily refuted statement to take attention away from the main point, thus creating a distraction from the main point. (Straw man)
D. Makes an argument or conclusion that is based on insufficient or nonexistent evidence; can also result in stereotyping. (Hasty generalization)
E. Occurs when someone uses irrelevant facts to distract the listener from the main issue; is the staple of many politicians who are asked a specific question and then avoid answering it by raising other issues. (Red herring)
F. Concludes something that simply does not follow the main premise of the argument. (Non sequitur)
G. Consists of a series of worsening consequences that are assumed will result from the initial decision or action. (Slippery slope)
1027
A "fallacy" is a false or fallacious reasoning that occurs when someone attempts to persuade others without sufficient supporting evidence or by using irrelevant or inappropriate arguments. Communication professionals have documented over 50 types of fallacies. A "Bandwagon" fallacy is known as:
A. Makes a faulty connection between the cause and effect. Just because one event follows another chronologically does not mean that the first caused the second to occur.
B. Tries to make the statement that "everyone" is doing something or believes something so that makes it the correct point of view or activity.
C. Makes a weak, easily refuted statement to take attention away from the main point, thus creating a distraction from the main point.
D. Makes an argument or conclusion that is based on insufficient or nonexistent evidence; can also result in stereotyping.
E. Occurs when someone uses irrelevant facts to distract the listener from the main issue; is the staple of many politicians who are asked a specific question and then avoid answering it by raising other issues.
F. Concludes something that simply does not follow the main premise of the argument.
G. Consists of a series of worsening consequences that are assumed will result from the initial decision or action.
B. Tries to make the statement that "everyone" is doing something or believes something so that makes it the correct point of view or activity. (Bandwagon)
________________________________
A. Makes a faulty connection between the cause and effect. Just because one event follows another chronologically does not mean that the first caused the second to occur. (Casual)
C. Makes a weak, easily refuted statement to take attention away from the main point, thus creating a distraction from the main point. (Straw man)
D. Makes an argument or conclusion that is based on insufficient or nonexistent evidence; can also result in stereotyping. (Hasty generalization)
E. Occurs when someone uses irrelevant facts to distract the listener from the main issue; is the staple of many politicians who are asked a specific question and then avoid answering it by raising other issues. (Red herring)
F. Concludes something that simply does not follow the main premise of the argument. (Non sequitur)
G. Consists of a series of worsening consequences that are assumed will result from the initial decision or action. (Slippery slope)
1028
A "fallacy" is a false or fallacious reasoning that occurs when someone attempts to persuade others without sufficient supporting evidence or by using irrelevant or inappropriate arguments. Communication professionals have documented over 50 types of fallacies. A "Straw man" fallacy is known as:
A. Makes a faulty connection between the cause and effect. Just because one event follows another chronologically does not mean that the first caused the second to occur.
B. Tries to make the statement that "everyone" is doing something or believes something so that makes it the correct point of view or activity.
C. Makes a weak, easily refuted statement to take attention away from the main point, thus creating a distraction from the main point.
D. Makes an argument or conclusion that is based on insufficient or nonexistent evidence; can also result in stereotyping.
E. Occurs when someone uses irrelevant facts to distract the listener from the main issue; is the staple of many politicians who are asked a specific question and then avoid answering it by raising other issues.
F. Concludes something that simply does not follow the main premise of the argument.
G. Consists of a series of worsening consequences that are assumed will result from the initial decision or action.
C. Makes a weak, easily refuted statement to take attention away from the main point, thus creating a distraction from the main point. (Straw man)
________________________________
A. Makes a faulty connection between the cause and effect. Just because one event follows another chronologically does not mean that the first caused the second to occur. (Casual)
B. Tries to make the statement that "everyone" is doing something or believes something so that makes it the correct point of view or activity. (Bandwagon)
D. Makes an argument or conclusion that is based on insufficient or nonexistent evidence; can also result in stereotyping. (Hasty generalization)
E. Occurs when someone uses irrelevant facts to distract the listener from the main issue; is the staple of many politicians who are asked a specific question and then avoid answering it by raising other issues. (Red herring)
F. Concludes something that simply does not follow the main premise of the argument. (Non sequitur)
G. Consists of a series of worsening consequences that are assumed will result from the initial decision or action. (Slippery slope)
1029
A "fallacy" is a false or fallacious reasoning that occurs when someone attempts to persuade others without sufficient supporting evidence or by using irrelevant or inappropriate arguments. Communication professionals have documented over 50 types of fallacies. A "Hasty generalization" fallacy is known as:
A. Makes a faulty connection between the cause and effect. Just because one event follows another chronologically does not mean that the first caused the second to occur.
B. Tries to make the statement that "everyone" is doing something or believes something so that makes it the correct point of view or activity.
C. Makes a weak, easily refuted statement to take attention away from the main point, thus creating a distraction from the main point.
D. Makes an argument or conclusion that is based on insufficient or nonexistent evidence; can also result in stereotyping.
E. Occurs when someone uses irrelevant facts to distract the listener from the main issue; is the staple of many politicians who are asked a specific question and then avoid answering it by raising other issues.
F. Concludes something that simply does not follow the main premise of the argument.
G. Consists of a series of worsening consequences that are assumed will result from the initial decision or action.
D. Makes an argument or conclusion that is based on insufficient or nonexistent evidence; can also result in stereotyping. (Hasty generalization)
________________________________
A. Makes a faulty connection between the cause and effect. Just because one event follows another chronologically does not mean that the first caused the second to occur. (Casual)
B. Tries to make the statement that "everyone" is doing something or believes something so that makes it the correct point of view or activity. (Bandwagon)
C. Makes a weak, easily refuted statement to take attention away from the main point, thus creating a distraction from the main point. (Straw man)
E. Occurs when someone uses irrelevant facts to distract the listener from the main issue; is the staple of many politicians who are asked a specific question and then avoid answering it by raising other issues. (Red herring)
F. Concludes something that simply does not follow the main premise of the argument. (Non sequitur)
G. Consists of a series of worsening consequences that are assumed will result from the initial decision or action. (Slippery slope)
1030
A "fallacy" is a false or fallacious reasoning that occurs when someone attempts to persuade others without sufficient supporting evidence or by using irrelevant or inappropriate arguments. Communication professionals have documented over 50 types of fallacies. A "Red herring" fallacy is known as:
A. Makes a faulty connection between the cause and effect. Just because one event follows another chronologically does not mean that the first caused the second to occur.
B. Tries to make the statement that "everyone" is doing something or believes something so that makes it the correct point of view or activity.
C. Makes a weak, easily refuted statement to take attention away from the main point, thus creating a distraction from the main point.
D. Makes an argument or conclusion that is based on insufficient or nonexistent evidence; can also result in stereotyping.
E. Occurs when someone uses irrelevant facts to distract the listener from the main issue; is the staple of many politicians who are asked a specific question and then avoid answering it by raising other issues.
F. Concludes something that simply does not follow the main premise of the argument.
G. Consists of a series of worsening consequences that are assumed will result from the initial decision or action.
E. Occurs when someone uses irrelevant facts to distract the listener from the main issue; is the staple of many politicians who are asked a specific question and then avoid answering it by raising other issues. (Red herring)
________________________________
A. Makes a faulty connection between the cause and effect. Just because one event follows another chronologically does not mean that the first caused the second to occur. (Casual)
B. Tries to make the statement that "everyone" is doing something or believes something so that makes it the correct point of view or activity. (Bandwagon)
C. Makes a weak, easily refuted statement to take attention away from the main point, thus creating a distraction from the main point. (Straw man)
D. Makes an argument or conclusion that is based on insufficient or nonexistent evidence; can also result in stereotyping. (Hasty generalization)
F. Concludes something that simply does not follow the main premise of the argument. (Non sequitur)
G. Consists of a series of worsening consequences that are assumed will result from the initial decision or action. (Slippery slope)
1031
A "fallacy" is a false or fallacious reasoning that occurs when someone attempts to persuade others without sufficient supporting evidence or by using irrelevant or inappropriate arguments. Communication professionals have documented over 50 types of fallacies. A "Non sequitur" fallacy is known as:
A. Makes a faulty connection between the cause and effect. Just because one event follows another chronologically does not mean that the first caused the second to occur.
B. Tries to make the statement that "everyone" is doing something or believes something so that makes it the correct point of view or activity.
C. Makes a weak, easily refuted statement to take attention away from the main point, thus creating a distraction from the main point.
D. Makes an argument or conclusion that is based on insufficient or nonexistent evidence; can also result in stereotyping.
E. Occurs when someone uses irrelevant facts to distract the listener from the main issue; is the staple of many politicians who are asked a specific question and then avoid answering it by raising other issues.
F. Concludes something that simply does not follow the main premise of the argument.
G. Consists of a series of worsening consequences that are assumed will result from the initial decision or action.
F. Concludes something that simply does not follow the main premise of the argument. (Non sequitur)
________________________________
A. Makes a faulty connection between the cause and effect. Just because one event follows another chronologically does not mean that the first caused the second to occur. (Casual)
B. Tries to make the statement that "everyone" is doing something or believes something so that makes it the correct point of view or activity. (Bandwagon)
C. Makes a weak, easily refuted statement to take attention away from the main point, thus creating a distraction from the main point. (Straw man)
D. Makes an argument or conclusion that is based on insufficient or nonexistent evidence; can also result in stereotyping. (Hasty generalization)
E. Occurs when someone uses irrelevant facts to distract the listener from the main issue; is the staple of many politicians who are asked a specific question and then avoid answering it by raising other issues. (Red herring)
G. Consists of a series of worsening consequences that are assumed will result from the initial decision or action. (Slippery slope)
1032
A "fallacy" is a false or fallacious reasoning that occurs when someone attempts to persuade others without sufficient supporting evidence or by using irrelevant or inappropriate arguments. Communication professionals have documented over 50 types of fallacies. A "Slippery slope" fallacy is known as:
A. Makes a faulty connection between the cause and effect. Just because one event follows another chronologically does not mean that the first caused the second to occur.
B. Tries to make the statement that "everyone" is doing something or believes something so that makes it the correct point of view or activity.
C. Makes a weak, easily refuted statement to take attention away from the main point, thus creating a distraction from the main point.
D. Makes an argument or conclusion that is based on insufficient or nonexistent evidence; can also result in stereotyping.
E. Occurs when someone uses irrelevant facts to distract the listener from the main issue; is the staple of many politicians who are asked a specific question and then avoid answering it by raising other issues.
F. Concludes something that simply does not follow the main premise of the argument.
G. Consists of a series of worsening consequences that are assumed will result from the initial decision or action.
G. Consists of a series of worsening consequences that are assumed will result from the initial decision or action. (Slippery slope)
________________________________
A. Makes a faulty connection between the cause and effect. Just because one event follows another chronologically does not mean that the first caused the second to occur. (Casual)
B. Tries to make the statement that "everyone" is doing something or believes something so that makes it the correct point of view or activity. (Bandwagon)
C. Makes a weak, easily refuted statement to take attention away from the main point, thus creating a distraction from the main point. (Straw man)
D. Makes an argument or conclusion that is based on insufficient or nonexistent evidence; can also result in stereotyping. (Hasty generalization)
E. Occurs when someone uses irrelevant facts to distract the listener from the main issue; is the staple of many politicians who are asked a specific question and then avoid answering it by raising other issues. (Red herring)
F. Concludes something that simply does not follow the main premise of the argument. (Non sequitur)
1033
A "Causal" fallacy makes a faulty connection between the cause and effect. Just because one event follows another chronologically does not mean that the first caused the second to occur. An example of a casual fallacy would be:
A. "The Soviet Union collapsed after instituting state atheism. Therefore, we must avoid atheism for the same reasons."
B. "Everyone is going to the party, so you should let me go too."
C. A proponent of a new library uses the statement: "There are those who don't care if children read."
D. "My uncle Fred is lazy; therefore, all men named Fred are lazy."
E. "You may claim that the death penalty is an ineffective deterrent against crime - but what about victims of crime? How do you think surviving family members feel when they see the man who murdered their son kept in prison at their expense?"
F. "The city council should not build a new fire station because the city cannot afford to keep the swimming pools open during the summer."
G. "You can never give anyone a break. If you do, they will continuously take advantage of you and finally they will walk all over you."
A. "The Soviet Union collapsed after instituting state atheism. Therefore, we must avoid atheism for the same reasons." (Casual)
________________________________
B. "Everyone is going to the party, so you should let me go too." (Bandwagon)
C. A proponent of a new library uses the statement: "There are those who don't care if children read." (Straw man)
D. "My uncle Fred is lazy; therefore, all men named Fred are lazy." (Hasty generalization)
E. "You may claim that the death penalty is an ineffective deterrent against crime - but what about victims of crime? How do you think surviving family members feel when they see the man who murdered their son kept in prison at their expense?" (Red herring)
F. "The city council should not build a new fire station because the city cannot afford to keep the swimming pools open during the summer." (Non sequitur)
G. "You can never give anyone a break. If you do, they will continuously take advantage of you and finally they will walk all over you." (Slippery slope)
1034
A "Bandwagon" fallacy tries to make the statement that "everyone" is doing something or believes something so that makes it the correct point of view or activity. An example of a bandwagon fallacy would be:
A. "The Soviet Union collapsed after instituting state atheism. Therefore, we must avoid atheism for the same reasons."
B. "Everyone is going to the party, so you should let me go too."
C. A proponent of a new library uses the statement: "There are those who don't care if children read."
D. "My uncle Fred is lazy; therefore, all men named Fred are lazy."
E. "You may claim that the death penalty is an ineffective deterrent against crime - but what about victims of crime? How do you think surviving family members feel when they see the man who murdered their son kept in prison at their expense?"
F. "The city council should not build a new fire station because the city cannot afford to keep the swimming pools open during the summer."
G. "You can never give anyone a break. If you do, they will continuously take advantage of you and finally they will walk all over you."
B. "Everyone is going to the party, so you should let me go too." (Bandwagon)
________________________________
A. "The Soviet Union collapsed after instituting state atheism. Therefore, we must avoid atheism for the same reasons." (Casual)
C. A proponent of a new library uses the statement: "There are those who don't care if children read." (Straw man)
D. "My uncle Fred is lazy; therefore, all men named Fred are lazy." (Hasty generalization)
E. "You may claim that the death penalty is an ineffective deterrent against crime - but what about victims of crime? How do you think surviving family members feel when they see the man who murdered their son kept in prison at their expense?" (Red herring)
F. "The city council should not build a new fire station because the city cannot afford to keep the swimming pools open during the summer." (Non sequitur)
G. "You can never give anyone a break. If you do, they will continuously take advantage of you and finally they will walk all over you." (Slippery slope)
1035
A "Straw man" fallacy makes a weak, easily refuted statement to take attention away from the main point, thus creating a distraction from the main point. An example of a straw man fallacy would be:
A. "The Soviet Union collapsed after instituting state atheism. Therefore, we must avoid atheism for the same reasons."
B. "Everyone is going to the party, so you should let me go too."
C. A proponent of a new library uses the statement: "There are those who don't care if children read."
D. "My uncle Fred is lazy; therefore, all men named Fred are lazy."
E. "You may claim that the death penalty is an ineffective deterrent against crime - but what about victims of crime? How do you think surviving family members feel when they see the man who murdered their son kept in prison at their expense?"
F. "The city council should not build a new fire station because the city cannot afford to keep the swimming pools open during the summer."
G. "You can never give anyone a break. If you do, they will continuously take advantage of you and finally they will walk all over you."
C. A proponent of a new library uses the statement: "There are those who don't care if children read." (Straw man)
________________________________
A. "The Soviet Union collapsed after instituting state atheism. Therefore, we must avoid atheism for the same reasons." (Casual)
B. "Everyone is going to the party, so you should let me go too." (Bandwagon)
D. "My uncle Fred is lazy; therefore, all men named Fred are lazy." (Hasty generalization)
E. "You may claim that the death penalty is an ineffective deterrent against crime - but what about victims of crime? How do you think surviving family members feel when they see the man who murdered their son kept in prison at their expense?" (Red herring)
F. "The city council should not build a new fire station because the city cannot afford to keep the swimming pools open during the summer." (Non sequitur)
G. "You can never give anyone a break. If you do, they will continuously take advantage of you and finally they will walk all over you." (Slippery slope)
1036
A "Hasty generalization" fallacy makes an argument or conclusion that is based on insufficient or nonexistent evidence; can also result in stereotyping. An example of a hasty generalization fallacy would be:
A. "The Soviet Union collapsed after instituting state atheism. Therefore, we must avoid atheism for the same reasons."
B. "Everyone is going to the party, so you should let me go too."
C. A proponent of a new library uses the statement: "There are those who don't care if children read."
D. "My uncle Fred is lazy; therefore, all men named Fred are lazy."
E. "You may claim that the death penalty is an ineffective deterrent against crime - but what about victims of crime? How do you think surviving family members feel when they see the man who murdered their son kept in prison at their expense?"
F. "The city council should not build a new fire station because the city cannot afford to keep the swimming pools open during the summer."
G. "You can never give anyone a break. If you do, they will continuously take advantage of you and finally they will walk all over you."
D. "My uncle Fred is lazy; therefore, all men named Fred are lazy." (Hasty generalization)
________________________________
A. "The Soviet Union collapsed after instituting state atheism. Therefore, we must avoid atheism for the same reasons." (Casual)
B. "Everyone is going to the party, so you should let me go too." (Bandwagon)
C. A proponent of a new library uses the statement: "There are those who don't care if children read." (Straw man)
E. "You may claim that the death penalty is an ineffective deterrent against crime - but what about victims of crime? How do you think surviving family members feel when they see the man who murdered their son kept in prison at their expense?" (Red herring)
F. "The city council should not build a new fire station because the city cannot afford to keep the swimming pools open during the summer." (Non sequitur)
G. "You can never give anyone a break. If you do, they will continuously take advantage of you and finally they will walk all over you." (Slippery slope)
1037
A "Red herring" fallacy occurs when someone uses irrelevant facts to distract the listener from the main issue; is the staple of many politicians who are asked a specific question and then avoid answering it by raising other issues. An example of a red herring fallacy would be:
A. "The Soviet Union collapsed after instituting state atheism. Therefore, we must avoid atheism for the same reasons."
B. "Everyone is going to the party, so you should let me go too."
C. A proponent of a new library uses the statement: "There are those who don't care if children read."
D. "My uncle Fred is lazy; therefore, all men named Fred are lazy."
E. "You may claim that the death penalty is an ineffective deterrent against crime - but what about victims of crime? How do you think surviving family members feel when they see the man who murdered their son kept in prison at their expense?"
F. "The city council should not build a new fire station because the city cannot afford to keep the swimming pools open during the summer."
G. "You can never give anyone a break. If you do, they will continuously take advantage of you and finally they will walk all over you."
E. "You may claim that the death penalty is an ineffective deterrent against crime - but what about victims of crime? How do you think surviving family members feel when they see the man who murdered their son kept in prison at their expense?" (Red herring)
________________________________
A. "The Soviet Union collapsed after instituting state atheism. Therefore, we must avoid atheism for the same reasons." (Casual)
B. "Everyone is going to the party, so you should let me go too." (Bandwagon)
C. A proponent of a new library uses the statement: "There are those who don't care if children read." (Straw man)
D. "My uncle Fred is lazy; therefore, all men named Fred are lazy." (Hasty generalization)
F. "The city council should not build a new fire station because the city cannot afford to keep the swimming pools open during the summer." (Non sequitur)
G. "You can never give anyone a break. If you do, they will continuously take advantage of you and finally they will walk all over you." (Slippery slope)
1038
A "Non sequitur" fallacy concludes something that simply does not follow the main premise of the argument. An example of a non sequitur fallacy would be:
A. "The Soviet Union collapsed after instituting state atheism. Therefore, we must avoid atheism for the same reasons."
B. "Everyone is going to the party, so you should let me go too."
C. A proponent of a new library uses the statement: "There are those who don't care if children read."
D. "My uncle Fred is lazy; therefore, all men named Fred are lazy."
E. "You may claim that the death penalty is an ineffective deterrent against crime - but what about victims of crime? How do you think surviving family members feel when they see the man who murdered their son kept in prison at their expense?"
F. "The city council should not build a new fire station because the city cannot afford to keep the swimming pools open during the summer."
G. "You can never give anyone a break. If you do, they will continuously take advantage of you and finally they will walk all over you."
F. "The city council should not build a new fire station because the city cannot afford to keep the swimming pools open during the summer." (Non sequitur)
________________________________
A. "The Soviet Union collapsed after instituting state atheism. Therefore, we must avoid atheism for the same reasons." (Casual)
B. "Everyone is going to the party, so you should let me go too." (Bandwagon)
C. A proponent of a new library uses the statement: "There are those who don't care if children read." (Straw man)
D. "My uncle Fred is lazy; therefore, all men named Fred are lazy." (Hasty generalization)
E. "You may claim that the death penalty is an ineffective deterrent against crime - but what about victims of crime? How do you think surviving family members feel when they see the man who murdered their son kept in prison at their expense?" (Red herring)
G. "You can never give anyone a break. If you do, they will continuously take advantage of you and finally they will walk all over you." (Slippery slope)
1039
A "Slippery slope" fallacy consists of a series of worsening consequences that are assumed will result from the initial decision or action. An example of a slippery slope fallacy would be:
A. "The Soviet Union collapsed after instituting state atheism. Therefore, we must avoid atheism for the same reasons."
B. "Everyone is going to the party, so you should let me go too."
C. A proponent of a new library uses the statement: "There are those who don't care if children read."
D. "My uncle Fred is lazy; therefore, all men named Fred are lazy."
E. "You may claim that the death penalty is an ineffective deterrent against crime - but what about victims of crime? How do you think surviving family members feel when they see the man who murdered their son kept in prison at their expense?"
F. "The city council should not build a new fire station because the city cannot afford to keep the swimming pools open during the summer."
G. "You can never give anyone a break. If you do, they will continuously take advantage of you and finally they will walk all over you."
G. "You can never give anyone a break. If you do, they will continuously take advantage of you and finally they will walk all over you." (Slippery slope)
________________________________
A. "The Soviet Union collapsed after instituting state atheism. Therefore, we must avoid atheism for the same reasons." (Casual)
B. "Everyone is going to the party, so you should let me go too." (Bandwagon)
C. A proponent of a new library uses the statement: "There are those who don't care if children read." (Straw man)
D. "My uncle Fred is lazy; therefore, all men named Fred are lazy." (Hasty generalization)
E. "You may claim that the death penalty is an ineffective deterrent against crime - but what about victims of crime? How do you think surviving family members feel when they see the man who murdered their son kept in prison at their expense?" (Red herring)
F. "The city council should not build a new fire station because the city cannot afford to keep the swimming pools open during the summer." (Non sequitur)
1040
Ethics and ethical behavior are learned traits. They are transmitted to an individual from many sources. The primary source is the family, which instills personal values and morals. Other sources are organized religions, educational institutions, society and peers. The values instilled by these sources remain with individual for life unless the person consciously alters them. Examples of ethical values include... the exception is:
```
A. Honesty.
B. Fairness.
C. Mortality.
D. Consistency.
E. Integrity.
F. Impartiality.
G. Loyalty.
H. Dedication.
I. Responsibility.
J. Accountability.
K. Perseverance.
L. Frugality.
M. Faithfulness.
N. Heroism.
O. Patriotism.
```
D. Consistency. (FALSE)
1041
Making decisions can be difficult because of the barriers that exist within the individual. Some of these barriers are psychological while others are generated by the organizational culture. Which of the following is a psychological barrier?
```
A. Lack of data.
B. Distrust.
C. Lack of resources.
D. Lack of commitment.
E. Lack of accurate analysis.
F. Lack of management/ membership support.
G. Lack of capacity.
```
B. Distrust. (Psychological or Internal barrier)
________________________________
The others listed are Organizational or External barriers.
1042
Laws come from many different sources. In general, the major sources of laws in the Western world are... the exception is:
A. State Constitutional law.
B. Administrative Law.
C. Federal Constitutional law.
D. Federal law.
D. Federal law.
1043
A critical issue in negligence liability is the care with which the company officer's responsibilities are discharged. Sources of information that may help to establish the standard of care include... the exception is:
A. Gravity of harm posed by the condition.
B. Professional texts and manuals.
C. Agency directives and policies.
D. Opinions of expert witnesses.
E. Directives of a superior agency.
F. Guidelines and policies of other agencies.
G. Guidelines and standards developed by professional organizations.
H. Professional journals.
I. Research publications.
A. Gravity of harm posed by the condition.
1044
The communication process exists in many forms of communication accomplishes the tasks of exchanging information. Regardless of the form used, the communication process is comprised of five essential elements. An exception is:
```
A. The sender.
B. From where the message is transmitted.
C. The actual message.
D. The receiver.
E. The medium or channel.
F. Feedback to the sender.
```
B. From where the message is transmitted.
1045
The company officer should work to overcome psychological barriers such as prejudice by accepting others as they are and not as people think they should be. Prejudice based on preconceived concepts of dress, voice, or attitude can be major barriers to hearing what a speaker has to say. Which of the following is a description "personal concerns" as a barrier to listening?
A. Focus on the message not the messenger.
B. Take controlled environment and remove as many distractions as possible.
C. Focus on the speaker and the message rather than personal concerns or thoughts.
D. Identify the essential elements of the message.
C. Focus on the speaker and the message rather than personal concerns or thoughts. (Personal concerns)
________________________________
A. Focus on the message not the messenger. (Prejudice)
B. Take controlled environment and remove as many distractions as possible. (Outside distractions)
D. Identify the essential elements of the message. (Information overload)
1046
A speaker effectively conveys the informative message to an audience by using certain principles. Mastering these principles improves the delivery of any informative speech, but the topic must be well supported with evidence. The informative speech principle _____ is described as: "Link one division with the next and make the flow of ideas smooth."
A. Use the redundancy.
B. Use clear transitions to move the listener through the topic.
C. Use visual aids.
D. Use even flow to deliver the information.
B. Use clear transitions to move the listener through the topic.
1047
Another public speaking opportunity with which company officers sometimes have to cope is speaking with the media. The company officer must be prepared for this possibility and represent the department well as a spokesperson. The following guidelines are TRUE regarding company officers who are assigned to give interviews... the exception is:
A. Avoid getting into answering questions beyond the officers area of knowledge or expertise.
B. Make sure to avoid providing a good background of an apparatus or incident scene when being interviewed on camera.
C. Do not answer "what if" questions.
D. Do not volunteer information, especially if it is speculative.
B. Make sure to avoid providing a good background of an apparatus or incident scene when being interviewed on camera. (FALSE)
1048
A memo or an email has one purpose to accomplish a task. Therefore, it needs to be short into the point. The majority of memos or emails can be written to give the certain information. The piece of information known as _____ is described as: "Tell the date and time action is expected to take place. It may also name a deadline for the action."
```
A. Who.
B. What.
C. When.
D. Where.
E. Why.
F. How.
```
C. When.
1049
A memo or an email has one purpose to accomplish a task. Therefore, it needs to be short into the point. The majority of memos or emails can be written to give the certain information. The piece of information known as _____ is described as: "Assign responsibility for the task or action. This item is sometimes implied in the address line that states "To"."
```
A. Who.
B. What.
C. When.
D. Where.
E. Why.
F. How.
```
A. Who.
1050
A memo or an email has one purpose to accomplish a task. Therefore, it needs to be short into the point. The majority of memos or emails can be written to give the certain information. The piece of information known as _____ is described as: "Tell the task or action that is expected or has been accomplished."
```
A. Who.
B. What.
C. When.
D. Where.
E. Why.
F. How.
```
B. What.
1051
A memo or an email has one purpose to accomplish a task. Therefore, it needs to be short into the point. The majority of memos or emails can be written to give the certain information. The piece of information known as _____ is described as: "Tell the location of the task or action. This item may not always be necessary."
```
A. Who.
B. What.
C. When.
D. Where.
E. Why.
F. How.
```
D. Where.
1052
A memo or an email has one purpose to accomplish a task. Therefore, it needs to be short into the point. The majority of memos or emails can be written to give the certain information. The piece of information known as _____ is described as: "Explain the reason for the action."
```
A. Who.
B. What.
C. When.
D. Where.
E. Why.
F. How.
```
E. Why.
1053
A memo or an email has one purpose to accomplish a task. Therefore, it needs to be short into the point. The majority of memos or emails can be written to give the certain information. The piece of information known as _____ is described as: "Detail the steps to be followed in implementing the task or action. This item may or may not be necessary, depending on the topic of the memo."
```
A. Who.
B. What.
C. When.
D. Where.
E. Why.
F. How.
```
F. How.
1054
_____ are terms for to the traditional organizational concept that separate fire department personnel into two distinct groups: those who deliver emergency services, and those who support the efforts of the line personnel.
A. Line and staff.
B. Scalar.
C. Traditional staff.
D. Program.
A. Line and staff.
1055
Line and staff are terms that refer to a concept of traditional origin. This concept separates a fire department into two distinct sections:
1) Line - those who fight fires.
2) Staff - those who support the emergency operations.
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
1056
A type of breach of the unity of the command principle, commonly known as a/an _____ , occurs when a subordinate sidesteps the immediate supervisor and takes a problem directly to an officer higher in the chain of command.
A. Sidestep.
B. End run.
C. Overreach.
D. By-pass.
B. End run.
1057
Span of control is the number of subordinates that one individual can effectively supervise. Examples of the span of control principle is... the exception is:
A. A company officer supervises the members of one engine company (between two and five subordinates, depending on local policy).
B. A strike team leader supervises five company officers in charge of the engines in a strike team.
C. A division supervisor commands five strike teams and/or task forces etc.
D. A task force leader supervises five company officers in charge of the companies in a task force.
C. A division supervisor commands five strike teams and/or task forces etc. (False?)
1058
The one workplace where the organization has the greatest influence is in the organization's facilities. Proper maintenance is one of the best methods of providing a safe workplace. Safe procedures must be established for the following actions... the exception is:
A. Using warning signs for wet surfaces.
B. Using sharp instruments in the kitchen.
C. Maintaining lawns and grounds.
D. Cleaning apparatus.
E. Using power and hand tools.
F. Climbing stairs or using slides or slide poles.
G. Cleaning upper story windows.
H. Replacing filters in heating, venting, and air conditioning (HVAC) units.
I. Parking apparatus in the facility.
J. Lifting heavy objects.
K. Repairing tools.
C. Maintaining lawns and grounds. (FALSE)
1059
The division-of-labor principal consists of dividing large jobs into smaller tasks that are then assigned to specific individuals. The following statements are TRUE regarding division-of-labor... the exception is:
A. Organizations commonly place emergency work tasks into similar groups such as engine, truck, and rescue companies and assign personnel and equipment to handle these tasks.
B. Assignments exist in the arrangement of districts or battalions within the organization's response area.
C. Emergency services organizations typically assign teams of responders to each company.
D. Tasks can simply be assigned at random because firefighters are well-trained in every aspect of their job.
D. Tasks can simply be assigned at random because firefighters are well-trained in every aspect of their job. (FALSE)
1060
Every new company officer will be faced with some of the following challenges and expectations. It will take time to develop new relationships and establish new unit spirit. To overcome these challenges and expectations, a new company officer will have to consider the following solutions... the exception is:
A. Set high unattainable standards.
B. Praise accomplishments.
C. Show respect for others.
D. Remain humble.
E. Communicate effectively.
F. Apply appropriate supervisory techniques.
G. Manage effectively.
H. Project a command presence.
I. Develop an appropriate leadership style.
J. Be loyal to the company, organization, and community.
K. Be a positive and ethical role model at all times.
L. Live by personal and professional code of ethics.
M. Value diversity in people and situations.
N. Listen to others.
O. Commit to education and training.
A. Set high "unattainable" standards. (FALSE - "yet attainable")
1061
The behavioral theory of leadership was developed in the 1940s and includes several styles and theories. The Contingency leadership theory is described as:
A. Includes charismatic, transformational, transactional, and symbolic theories.
B. Believes that no single best style exists.
C. Bases theory on the average worker disliking work.
D. Includes autocratic, democratic, and laissez-faire categories.
E. Includes job-centered and employee-centered models.
F. Bases theory on the average worker believing work is natural.
G. Basses theory on involved workers performing without supervision.
B. Believes that no single best style exists. (Contingency leadership theory)
________________________________
A. Includes charismatic, transformational, transactional, and symbolic theories. (Contemporary leadership styles)
B. Believes that no single best style exists. (Contingency leadership theory)
C. Bases theory on the average worker disliking work. (Theory X)
D. Includes autocratic, democratic, and laissez-faire categories. (Basic leadership style)
E. Includes job-centered and employee-centered models. (Two-dimensional leadership styles)
F. Bases theory on the average worker believing work is natural. (Theory Y)
G. Basses theory on involved workers performing without supervision. (Theory Z)
1062
The behavioral theory of leadership was developed in the 1940s and includes several styles and theories. The Two-dimensional leadership styles is described as:
A. Includes charismatic, transformational, transactional, and symbolic theories.
B. Believes that no single best style exists.
C. Bases theory on the average worker disliking work.
D. Includes autocratic, democratic, and laissez-faire categories.
E. Includes job-centered and employee-centered models.
F. Bases theory on the average worker believing work is natural.
G. Basses theory on involved workers performing without supervision.
E. Includes job-centered and employee-centered models. (Two-dimensional leadership styles)
________________________________
A. Includes charismatic, transformational, transactional, and symbolic theories. (Contemporary leadership styles)
B. Believes that no single best style exists. (Contingency leadership theory)
C. Bases theory on the average worker disliking work. (Theory X)
D. Includes autocratic, democratic, and laissez-faire categories. (Basic leadership style)
E. Includes job-centered and employee-centered models. (Two-dimensional leadership styles)
F. Bases theory on the average worker believing work is natural. (Theory Y)
G. Basses theory on involved workers performing without supervision. (Theory Z)
1063
The behavioral theory of leadership was developed in the 1940s and includes several styles and theories. The Basic leadership style is described as:
A. Includes charismatic, transformational, transactional, and symbolic theories.
B. Believes that no single best style exists.
C. Bases theory on the average worker disliking work.
D. Includes autocratic, democratic, and laissez-faire categories.
E. Includes job-centered and employee-centered models.
F. Bases theory on the average worker believing work is natural.
G. Basses theory on involved workers performing without supervision.
D. Includes autocratic, democratic, and laissez-faire categories. (Basic leadership style)
________________________________
A. Includes charismatic, transformational, transactional, and symbolic theories. (Contemporary leadership styles)
B. Believes that no single best style exists. (Contingency leadership theory)
C. Bases theory on the average worker disliking work. (Theory X)
D. Includes autocratic, democratic, and laissez-faire categories. (Basic leadership style)
E. Includes job-centered and employee-centered models. (Two-dimensional leadership styles)
F. Bases theory on the average worker believing work is natural. (Theory Y)
G. Basses theory on involved workers performing without supervision. (Theory Z)
1064
The behavioral theory of leadership was developed in the 1940s and includes several styles and theories. The Contemporary leadership styles is described as:
A. Includes charismatic, transformational, transactional, and symbolic theories.
B. Believes that no single best style exists.
C. Bases theory on the average worker disliking work.
D. Includes autocratic, democratic, and laissez-faire categories.
E. Includes job-centered and employee-centered models.
F. Bases theory on the average worker believing work is natural.
G. Basses theory on involved workers performing without supervision.
A. Includes charismatic, transformational, transactional, and symbolic theories. (Contemporary leadership styles)
________________________________
B. Believes that no single best style exists. (Contingency leadership theory)
C. Bases theory on the average worker disliking work. (Theory X)
D. Includes autocratic, democratic, and laissez-faire categories. (Basic leadership style)
E. Includes job-centered and employee-centered models. (Two-dimensional leadership styles)
F. Bases theory on the average worker believing work is natural. (Theory Y)
G. Basses theory on involved workers performing without supervision. (Theory Z)
1065
Counseling is a formal process that involves activities that assist participants in identifying and resolving personal, behavioral, career problems that are adversely affecting performance. The four-step method of counseling can be used in the fire and emergency services. What is the second step in this four-step method?
A. Describe the desired performance.
B. Follow up the commitment.
C. Describe the current performance.
D. Gain a commitment for change.
A. Describe the desired performance. (2nd step)
________________________________
B. Follow up the commitment. (Step 4)
C. Describe the current performance. (Step 1)
D. Gain a commitment for change. (Step 3)
1066
A fallacy is a false or fallacious reasoning that occurs when someone attempts to persuade others without sufficient supporting evidence or by using irrelevant or inappropriate arguments. _____ would be described as: "Makes an argument or conclusion that is based on insufficient or nonexistent evidence; can also result in stereotyping."
A. Casual.
B. Straw man.
C. Hasty generalization.
D. Non sequitur.
C. Hasty generalization.
1067
When the culture of an organization or society rewards unethical conduct, it is easy to understand how individuals can engage in these types of activities. Common justifications for unethical conduct include the following... the exception is:
A. Pretending that the action is legal or ethical.
B. Believing that the action is okay because no-one will ever find out about it.
C. Believing that the action is acceptable because everyone else is doing it.
D. Believing that the method justifies the result even if the methods are unethical.
E. Believing that the action is really in the best interest of the organization or individual.
F. Believing that the organization will support action if it is ever discovered.
D. Believing that the end "method" justifies the means "result" even if the methods are unethical. (FALSE - opposite)
________________________________
Should read: Believing that the end (result) justifies the means (method) even if the methods are unethical.
1068
To test the ethical foundation of a decision (either personal or professional), it may be beneficial for the individual to follow a simple four-step process. In 1943, Rotary international adopted as part of their by-laws (deleted in a 1980 revision) a four-way test for ethical decision-making. To determine if a decision is ethical answer the following four questions... the exception is:
A. Is it the truth?
B. Is the decision based on ethical values held by the organization and the community?
C. Will it build goodwill and better relationships?
D. Will it be beneficial to all concerned?
E. Is it fair to all concerned?
B. Is the decision based on ethical values held by the organization and the community? (FALSE)
1069
In some instances, elements of one speech type maybe introduced into another type to increase interest, provide variety, or emphasize a point. The following are three accepted types of formal speeches... the exception is:
A. Persuasive.
B. Advisory.
C. Entertainment.
D. Informative.
B. Advisory. (FALSE)
1070
In some instances, elements of one speech type maybe introduced into another type to increase interest, provide variety, or emphasize a point. A Persuasive speech:
A. Use a strong argument based on reliable data in order to create a change in belief, behavior, or attitude.
B. Give the audience definitions, descriptions, explanations, or information that teach a topic.
C. Uses humorous stories or anecdotes.
A. Use a strong argument based on reliable data in order to create a change in belief, behavior, or attitude. (Persuasive)
________________________________
B. Give the audience definitions, descriptions, explanations, or information that teach a topic. (Informative)
C. Uses humorous stories or anecdotes. (Entertainment)
1071
In some instances, elements of one speech type maybe introduced into another type to increase interest, provide variety, or emphasize a point. An Informative speech:
A. Use a strong argument based on reliable data in order to create a change in belief, behavior, or attitude.
B. Give the audience definitions, descriptions, explanations, or information that teach a topic.
C. Uses humorous stories or anecdotes.
B. Give the audience definitions, descriptions, explanations, or information that teach a topic. (Informative)
________________________________
A. Use a strong argument based on reliable data in order to create a change in belief, behavior, or attitude. (Persuasive)
B. Give the audience definitions, descriptions, explanations, or information that teach a topic. (Informative)
C. Uses humorous stories or anecdotes. (Entertainment)
1072
In some instances, elements of one speech type maybe introduced into another type to increase interest, provide variety, or emphasize a point. An Entertainment speech:
A. Use a strong argument based on reliable data in order to create a change in belief, behavior, or attitude.
B. Give the audience definitions, descriptions, explanations, or information that teach a topic.
C. Uses humorous stories or anecdotes.
C. Uses humorous stories or anecdotes. (Entertainment)
________________________________
A. Use a strong argument based on reliable data in order to create a change in belief, behavior, or attitude. (Persuasive)
B. Give the audience definitions, descriptions, explanations, or information that teach a topic. (Informative)
C. Uses humorous stories or anecdotes. (Entertainment)
1073
The reader should be aware of the differences between training, education, and certification. Education is defined as:
A. Results of tests or assessments that are given to personnel to determine their abilities to apply knowledge and skills in various situations.
B. Instruction that emphasizes job-specific learning objectives and traditional skills-based teaching.
C. Instruction that emphasizes knowledge-based learning objectives that are not tied to a specific job.
D. Instruction emphasizes knowledge-based learning objectives that are tied to a specific job.
C. Instruction that emphasizes knowledge-based learning objectives that are "not" tied to a specific job. (Education)
________________________________
A. Results of tests or assessments that are given to personnel to determine their abilities to apply knowledge and skills in various situations. (Certification)
B. Instruction that emphasizes job-specific learning objectives and traditional skills-based teaching. (Training)
C. Instruction that emphasizes knowledge-based learning objectives that are "not" tied to a specific job. (Education)
D. Instruction emphasizes knowledge-based learning objectives that are tied to a specific job. (N/A)
1074
The reader should be aware of the differences between training, education, and certification. Training is defined as:
A. Results of tests or assessments that are given to personnel to determine their abilities to apply knowledge and skills in various situations.
B. Instruction that emphasizes job-specific learning objectives and traditional skills-based teaching.
C. Instruction that emphasizes knowledge-based learning objectives that are not tied to a specific job.
D. Instruction emphasizes knowledge-based learning objectives that are tied to a specific job.
B. Instruction that emphasizes job-specific learning objectives and traditional skills-based teaching. (Training)
________________________________
A. Results of tests or assessments that are given to personnel to determine their abilities to apply knowledge and skills in various situations. (Certification)
B. Instruction that emphasizes job-specific learning objectives and traditional skills-based teaching. (Training)
C. Instruction that emphasizes knowledge-based learning objectives that are "not" tied to a specific job. (Education)
D. Instruction emphasizes knowledge-based learning objectives that are tied to a specific job. (N/A)
1075
The reader should be aware of the differences between training, education, and certification. Certification is defined as:
A. Results of tests or assessments that are given to personnel to determine their abilities to apply knowledge and skills in various situations.
B. Instruction that emphasizes job-specific learning objectives and traditional skills-based teaching.
C. Instruction that emphasizes knowledge-based learning objectives that are not tied to a specific job.
D. Instruction emphasizes knowledge-based learning objectives that are tied to a specific job.
A. Results of tests or assessments that are given to personnel to determine their abilities to apply knowledge and skills in various situations. (Certification)
________________________________
B. Instruction that emphasizes job-specific learning objectives and traditional skills-based teaching. (Training)
C. Instruction that emphasizes knowledge-based learning objectives that are "not" tied to a specific job. (Education)
D. Instruction emphasizes knowledge-based learning objectives that are tied to a specific job. (N/A)
1076
The NFPA standard that applies to fire officer qualifications is NFPA 1021. It places fire officers in four categories or level based on their assigned duties. Which describes a Level I fire officer:
A. First-line supervisor (supervisor).
B. Mid-level supervisor (Supervisory/managerial).
C. First-line manager (managerial/administrative).
D. Department manager or chief of department (administrative).
A. First-line supervisor (supervisor). (Level I)
________________________________
B. Mid-level supervisor (Supervisory/managerial). (Level II)
C. First-line manager (managerial/administrative). (Level III)
D. Department manager or chief of department (administrative). (Level IV)
1077
The NFPA standard that applies to fire officer qualifications is NFPA 1021. It places fire officers in four categories or level based on their assigned duties. Which describes a Level II fire officer:
A. First-line supervisor (supervisor).
B. Mid-level supervisor (Supervisory/managerial).
C. First-line manager (managerial/administrative).
D. Department manager or chief of department (administrative).
B. Mid-level supervisor (Supervisory/managerial). (Level II)
________________________________
A. First-line supervisor (supervisor). (Level I)
B. Mid-level supervisor (Supervisory/managerial). (Level II)
C. First-line manager (managerial/administrative). (Level III)
D. Department manager or chief of department (administrative). (Level IV)
1078
The NFPA standard that applies to fire officer qualifications is NFPA 1021. It places fire officers in four categories or level based on their assigned duties. Which describes a Level III fire officer:
A. First-line supervisor (supervisor).
B. Mid-level supervisor (Supervisory/managerial).
C. First-line manager (managerial/administrative).
D. Department manager or chief of department (administrative).
C. First-line manager (managerial/administrative). (Level III)
________________________________
A. First-line supervisor (supervisor). (Level I)
B. Mid-level supervisor (Supervisory/managerial). (Level II)
C. First-line manager (managerial/administrative). (Level III)
D. Department manager or chief of department (administrative). (Level IV)
1079
The NFPA standard that applies to fire officer qualifications is NFPA 1021. It places fire officers in four categories or level based on their assigned duties. Which describes a Level IV fire officer:
A. First-line supervisor (supervisor).
B. Mid-level supervisor (Supervisory/managerial).
C. First-line manager (managerial/administrative).
D. Department manager or chief of department (administrative).
D. Department manager or chief of department (administrative). (Level IV)
________________________________
A. First-line supervisor (supervisor). (Level I)
B. Mid-level supervisor (Supervisory/managerial). (Level II)
C. First-line manager (managerial/administrative). (Level III)
D. Department manager or chief of department (administrative). (Level IV)
1080
The International Association of Fire Chiefs (IAFC) also divides fire officer ranks into four levels in their Professional Development Model. These definitions vary slightly from the NFPA model; the reader should be aware of these variations in designations. The IAFC model defines Level I as:
A. Supervising fire officer (all company officers).
B. Managing fire officer (Battalion, District, and assistant chiefs).
C. Administrative fire officer (Administrative chiefs in charge of divisions or bureaus within the department).
D. Executive fire officer (chief of the department).
A. Supervising fire officer (all company officers). (Level I)
________________________________
B. Managing fire officer (Battalion, District, and assistant chiefs). (Level II)
C. Administrative fire officer (Administrative chiefs in charge of divisions or bureaus within the department). (Level III)
D. Executive fire officer (chief of the department). (Level IV)
1081
The International Association of Fire Chiefs (IAFC) also divides fire officer ranks into four levels in their Professional Development Model. These definitions vary slightly from the NFPA model; the reader should be aware of these variations in designations. The IAFC model defines Level II as:
A. Supervising fire officer (all company officers).
B. Managing fire officer (Battalion, District, and assistant chiefs).
C. Administrative fire officer (Administrative chiefs in charge of divisions or bureaus within the department).
D. Executive fire officer (chief of the department).
B. Managing fire officer (Battalion, District, and assistant chiefs). (Level II)
________________________________
A. Supervising fire officer (all company officers). (Level I)
B. Managing fire officer (Battalion, District, and assistant chiefs). (Level II)
C. Administrative fire officer (Administrative chiefs in charge of divisions or bureaus within the department). (Level III)
D. Executive fire officer (chief of the department). (Level IV)
1082
The International Association of Fire Chiefs (IAFC) also divides fire officer ranks into four levels in their Professional Development Model. These definitions vary slightly from the NFPA model; the reader should be aware of these variations in designations. The IAFC model defines Level III as:
A. Supervising fire officer (all company officers).
B. Managing fire officer (Battalion, District, and assistant chiefs).
C. Administrative fire officer (Administrative chiefs in charge of divisions or bureaus within the department).
D. Executive fire officer (chief of the department).
C. Administrative fire officer (Administrative chiefs in charge of divisions or bureaus within the department). (Level III)
________________________________
A. Supervising fire officer (all company officers). (Level I)
B. Managing fire officer (Battalion, District, and assistant chiefs). (Level II)
C. Administrative fire officer (Administrative chiefs in charge of divisions or bureaus within the department). (Level III)
D. Executive fire officer (chief of the department). (Level IV)
1083
The International Association of Fire Chiefs (IAFC) also divides fire officer ranks into four levels in their Professional Development Model. These definitions vary slightly from the NFPA model; the reader should be aware of these variations in designations. The IAFC model defines Level IV as:
A. Supervising fire officer (all company officers).
B. Managing fire officer (Battalion, District, and assistant chiefs).
C. Administrative fire officer (Administrative chiefs in charge of divisions or bureaus within the department).
D. Executive fire officer (chief of the department).
D. Executive fire officer (chief of the department). (Level IV)
________________________________
A. Supervising fire officer (all company officers). (Level I)
B. Managing fire officer (Battalion, District, and assistant chiefs). (Level II)
C. Administrative fire officer (Administrative chiefs in charge of divisions or bureaus within the department). (Level III)
D. Executive fire officer (chief of the department). (Level IV)
1084
During the late 1990s, Jim Collins research leadership in successful companies. He created a hierarchy of leadership based on the traits of various leaders and the successes of their organizations. A Level 3 leader is described as:
A. Highly capable individual: person who makes productive contributions to through talent, knowledge, skills, and good working habits.
B. Contributing team leader: person who contributes individual capabilities to the achievement of the group objectives and works effectively with others in a group setting.
C. Competent manager: person who organizes people and resources toward the effective and efficient pursuit of predetermined objectives.
D. Effective leader: person who catalyzes commitment to and vigorous pursuit of clear and compelling vision, stimulating higher performance standards.
E. Executive: person who builds enduring greatness through a paradoxical blend of personal humility and professional willpower.
C. Competent manager: person who organizes people and resources toward the effective and efficient pursuit of predetermined objectives. (Level 3)
________________________________
A. Highly capable individual: person who makes productive contributions to through talent, knowledge, skills, and good working habits. (Level 1)
B. Contributing team leader: person who contributes individual capabilities to the achievement of the group objectives and works effectively with others in a group setting. (Level 2)
D. Effective leader: person who catalyzes commitment to and vigorous pursuit of clear and compelling vision, stimulating higher performance standards. (Level 4)
E. Executive: person who builds enduring greatness through a paradoxical blend of personal humility and professional willpower. (Level 5)
1085
During the late 1990s, Jim Collins research leadership in successful companies. He created a hierarchy of leadership based on the traits of various leaders and the successes of their organizations. A Level 5 leader is described as:
A. Highly capable individual: person who makes productive contributions to through talent, knowledge, skills, and good working habits.
B. Contributing team leader: person who contributes individual capabilities to the achievement of the group objectives and works effectively with others in a group setting.
C. Competent manager: person who organizes people and resources toward the effective and efficient pursuit of predetermined objectives.
D. Effective leader: person who catalyzes commitment to and vigorous pursuit of clear and compelling vision, stimulating higher performance standards.
E. Executive: person who builds enduring greatness through a paradoxical blend of personal humility and professional willpower.
E. Executive: person who builds enduring greatness through a paradoxical blend of personal humility and professional willpower. (Level 5)
________________________________
A. Highly capable individual: person who makes productive contributions to through talent, knowledge, skills, and good working habits. (Level 1)
B. Contributing team leader: person who contributes individual capabilities to the achievement of the group objectives and works effectively with others in a group setting. (Level 2)
C. Competent manager: person who organizes people and resources toward the effective and efficient pursuit of predetermined objectives. (Level 3)
D. Effective leader: person who catalyzes commitment to and vigorous pursuit of clear and compelling vision, stimulating higher performance standards. (Level 4)
1086
During the late 1990s, Jim Collins research leadership in successful companies. He created a hierarchy of leadership based on the traits of various leaders and the successes of their organizations. A Level 2 leader is described as:
A. Highly capable individual: person who makes productive contributions to through talent, knowledge, skills, and good working habits.
B. Contributing team leader: person who contributes individual capabilities to the achievement of the group objectives and works effectively with others in a group setting.
C. Competent manager: person who organizes people and resources toward the effective and efficient pursuit of predetermined objectives.
D. Effective leader: person who catalyzes commitment to and vigorous pursuit of clear and compelling vision, stimulating higher performance standards.
E. Executive: person who builds enduring greatness through a paradoxical blend of personal humility and professional willpower.
B. Contributing team leader: person who contributes individual capabilities to the achievement of the group objectives and works effectively with others in a group setting. (Level 2)
________________________________
A. Highly capable individual: person who makes productive contributions to through talent, knowledge, skills, and good working habits. (Level 1)
C. Competent manager: person who organizes people and resources toward the effective and efficient pursuit of predetermined objectives. (Level 3)
D. Effective leader: person who catalyzes commitment to and vigorous pursuit of clear and compelling vision, stimulating higher performance standards. (Level 4)
E. Executive: person who builds enduring greatness through a paradoxical blend of personal humility and professional willpower. (Level 5)
1087
During the late 1990s, Jim Collins research leadership in successful companies. He created a hierarchy of leadership based on the traits of various leaders and the successes of their organizations. A Level 4 leader is described as:
A. Highly capable individual: person who makes productive contributions to through talent, knowledge, skills, and good working habits.
B. Contributing team leader: person who contributes individual capabilities to the achievement of the group objectives and works effectively with others in a group setting.
C. Competent manager: person who organizes people and resources toward the effective and efficient pursuit of predetermined objectives.
D. Effective leader: person who catalyzes commitment to and vigorous pursuit of clear and compelling vision, stimulating higher performance standards.
E. Executive: person who builds enduring greatness through a paradoxical blend of personal humility and professional willpower.
D. Effective leader: person who catalyzes commitment to and vigorous pursuit of clear and compelling vision, stimulating higher performance standards. (Level 4)
________________________________
A. Highly capable individual: person who makes productive contributions to through talent, knowledge, skills, and good working habits. (Level 1)
B. Contributing team leader: person who contributes individual capabilities to the achievement of the group objectives and works effectively with others in a group setting. (Level 2)
C. Competent manager: person who organizes people and resources toward the effective and efficient pursuit of predetermined objectives. (Level 3)
E. Executive: person who builds enduring greatness through a paradoxical blend of personal humility and professional willpower. (Level 5)
1088
During the late 1990s, Jim Collins research leadership in successful companies. He created a hierarchy of leadership based on the traits of various leaders and the successes of their organizations. A Level 1 leader is described as:
A. Highly capable individual: person who makes productive contributions to through talent, knowledge, skills, and good working habits.
B. Contributing team leader: person who contributes individual capabilities to the achievement of the group objectives and works effectively with others in a group setting.
C. Competent manager: person who organizes people and resources toward the effective and efficient pursuit of predetermined objectives.
D. Effective leader: person who catalyzes commitment to and vigorous pursuit of clear and compelling vision, stimulating higher performance standards.
E. Executive: person who builds enduring greatness through a paradoxical blend of personal humility and professional willpower.
A. Highly capable individual: person who makes productive contributions to through talent, knowledge, skills, and good working habits. (Level 1)
________________________________
B. Contributing team leader: person who contributes individual capabilities to the achievement of the group objectives and works effectively with others in a group setting. (Level 2)
C. Competent manager: person who organizes people and resources toward the effective and efficient pursuit of predetermined objectives. (Level 3)
D. Effective leader: person who catalyzes commitment to and vigorous pursuit of clear and compelling vision, stimulating higher performance standards. (Level 4)
E. Executive: person who builds enduring greatness through a paradoxical blend of personal humility and professional willpower. (Level 5)
1089
There are four general types of reasoning. Deductive reasoning is described as:
A. It infers that what is true in the first case will also be true in the second case.
B. Process of reaching a specific conclusion based on a general statement or principal.
C. Process that is based on the relationship between two or more events in such a way that it is obvious one caused the other to occur.
D. Process arrives at a general conclusion based on a foundation of specific examples or data.
B. Process of reaching a specific conclusion based on a general statement or principal. (Deductive reasoning)
________________________________
A. It infers that what is true in the first case will also be true in the second case. (Analytical reasoning)
C. Process that is based on the relationship between two or more events in such a way that it is obvious one caused the other to occur. (Casual reasoning)
D. Process arrives at a general conclusion based on a foundation of specific examples or data. (Inductive reasoning)
1090
Company officers may have the opportunity to present public speeches on many occasions. Each occasion requires a different approach. The following are the different approaches to be used... the exception is:
A. Report presentations.
B. Public information speeches.
C. Entertainment.
D. Public relations speeches.
C. Entertainment. (FALSE)
1091
The company officer should apply the following guidelines when planning a practical evolution and establishing the desired learning objectives for experienced personnel during company drills... the exception is:
A. Do not give each participant the opportunity to have input and influence the final learning outcome based on the established learning objective.
B. Do not assign too many participants to specific tasks.
C. Assign a safety officer to monitor all training activities.
D. Provide a summary of what has been learned and what can be carried into the operational environment and actual emergency settings.
A. "Do not" give each participant the opportunity to have input and influence the final learning outcome based on the established learning objective. (FALSE)
1092
The company officer may not always be able to resolve a conflict or may even be a participant in the conflict. In these instances another approach would be required. The alternative to this situation is the internal conflict or dispute resolution process. Some benefits of this process can be as follows: _____ is described as "Conflict remains within the organization. Participants are spared from unflattering publicity."
```
A. Relationships are maintained.
B. External publicity is avoided.
C. Costly litigation is avoided.
D. Organizations and participants control the process.
E. Participants control the resolution.
```
B. External publicity is avoided.
1093
The company officer may not always be able to resolve a conflict or may even be a participant in the conflict. In these instances another approach would be required. The alternative to this situation is the internal conflict or dispute resolution process. Some benefits of this process can be as follows: _____ is described as "Outcome of the conflict is determined by the membership and not by an external group."
```
A. Relationships are maintained.
B. External publicity is avoided.
C. Costly litigation is avoided.
D. Organizations and participants control the process.
E. Participants control the resolution.
```
E. Participants control the resolution.
1094
The company officer may not always be able to resolve a conflict or may even be a participant in the conflict. In these instances another approach would be required. The alternative to this situation is the internal conflict or dispute resolution process. Some benefits of this process can be as follows: _____ is described as "Process occurs outside the judicial system and depends on mutual agreement for enactment of the resolution."
```
A. Relationships are maintained.
B. External publicity is avoided.
C. Costly litigation is avoided.
D. Organizations and participants control the process.
E. Participants control the resolution.
```
C. Costly litigation is avoided.
1095
The company officer may not always be able to resolve a conflict or may even be a participant in the conflict. In these instances another approach would be required. The alternative to this situation is the internal conflict or dispute resolution process. Some benefits of this process can be as follows: _____ is described as "Participants and the organization control the selection of the type of mediation, topic of the mediation, and resolution of the mediation."
```
A. Relationships are maintained.
B. External publicity is avoided.
C. Costly litigation is avoided.
D. Organizations and participants control the process.
E. Participants control the resolution.
```
D. Organizations and participants control the process.
1096
The company officer may not always be able to resolve a conflict or may even be a participant in the conflict. In these instances another approach would be required. The alternative to this situation is the internal conflict or dispute resolution process. Some benefits of this process can be as follows: _____ is described as "Results are consensus based and tend to be long lasting."
```
A. Relationships are maintained.
B. External publicity is avoided.
C. Costly litigation is avoided.
D. Organizations and participants control the process.
E. Participants control the resolution.
```
A. Relationships are maintained.
1097
Customers who comprise the community or service area that the fire and emergency services organizations protects may be as diverse as the total population of the world. Culture classifications that are used to define diversity include the following... the exception is:
```
A. Age.
B. Gender.
C. Sexual orientation.
D. Family size.
E. Ethnicity.
F. Race.
G. Religion.
H. Politics.
I. Socioeconomic level.
J. Education.
```
D. Family size. (FALSE)
________________________________
*This is used in Cultural classifications to define diversity but not to be confused with Demographics which dose include Family size.***
1098
Understanding the composition of the community requires a basic knowledge of demographics: results of a statistically based study of the population. The population is categorized into groups based on physical, social, or economic characteristics such as the following... the exception is:
```
A. Age.
B. Sex.
C. Marital status.
D. Politics.
E. Family size.
F. Education.
G. Geographic location.
H. Occupation.
```
D. Politics. (FALSE)
________________________________
**Politics are used in Cultural classifications used to define diversity but not in Demographics.**
1099
Although the PIO is most visible to the news media and public in times of crisis, this duty is actually only a small part of the responsibilities of the position. An ongoing duty involves ensuring that the community is continually aware of the organization and its nonemergency activities. Some potential publicity includes the following... the exception is:
A. Announcing personnel. promotions.
B. Closing and existing fire station.
C. Attending charitable activities.
D. Explaining expansion of services.
E. Speaking at recruit academy graduation ceremonies.
F. Displaying new apparatus or equipment.
G. Recognizing personal achievements by members of the organization.
H. Recognizing the completion of specialized training.
I. Giving special recognition to those who retire.
J. Announcing changes in operational techniques.
K. Forming joint partnerships with other public agencies or private organizations.
L. Demonstrating seasonal safety issues to the public such as holiday safety, candle safety, etc.
M. Attending neighborhood meetings and events such as opening day at a little league baseball season.
B. "Closing" and existing fire station. (FALSE - "Opening")
1100
To ensure the emergency personnel are able to recognize similarities and adapt to differences, it is important for them to know as much as possible about the potential incident scene before an incident occurs. Preincident planning actually consists of four separate functions... the exception is:
```
A. Conducting the preincident survey.
B. Developing preincident plans.
C. Developing positive relationships with building owners/occupants.
D. Reviewing preincident plans.
E. Managing preincident data.
```
D. Reviewing preincident plans. (FALSE)
1101
The first priority of the facility survey is to identify life safety concerns. Life safety information is collected in two basic areas: protection and evacuation of occupants and protection of the firefighters. Information about occupant protection includes the following... the exception is:
A. Location and the size of the exits and entrances.
B. Location of escalators and elevators.
C. Unsupported partitions or walls.
D. Location of windows suitable for rescue access.
E. Special evacuation consideration for disabled occupants, very old or very young occupants, and large numbers of occupants.
F. Locations of areas of safe refuge.
G. Flammable and toxic interior finishes or processes.
C. Unsupported partitions or walls. (FALSE)
1102
While making a preincident survey, firefighters gather information about occupant life safety and also record information about hazards in the building that will threaten their own safety. Some of the fire hazards to be aware of are... the exception is:
```
A. Toxic chemicals.
B. Explosives.
C. Location and size of exits.
D. Reactive metals.
E. Flammable and combustible liquids.
F. Biological hazards.
G. Radioactive materials.
H. Manufacturing processes that are inherently dangerous.
```
C. Location and size of exits. (FALSE - occupant protection not fire hazard)
1103
Fire ground orders have a different nature and regular orders. Due to the dangers involved, company officers must be able to issue fire ground orders in a clear, concise and complete manner.
1) Fire ground communications involves face-to-face communications.
2) Fire ground communications involves radio communications.
3) Fire ground communications involves both face-to-face and radio communications.
A. #1 & #2 are true.
B. #1 & #3 are true.
C. #2 & #3 are true.
D. All three are true.
D. All three are true.
1104
The number of frequencies needed on any given incident depends on the number of resources involved and size of the incident command functions needed for the incident. At large incidents there may be as many as five major uses for radio communications. All of the following are major uses for radio communications at a large incident that exception is:
```
A. Dispatch.
B. Command.
C. Tactical operations.
D. Support operations.
E. Air-to-ground communications.
F. Air-to-air communications.
G. Medical services.
```
A. Dispatch. (FALSE)
1105
The company officer must incorporate good communications procedures into every day operations until these skills become second nature. There are five "C's" of communication that every company officer must master... the exception is:
```
A. Conciseness.
B. Clarity.
C. Confidence.
D. Criteria.
E. Control.
F. Capability.
```
D. Criteria. (FALSE)
1106
Common terminology for organizational functional elements, position titles, facilities, and resources is essential for any command system. NIMS uses these organizational titles, resources, and leadership titles that must be understood by all fire and emergency responders. "Division" would be described as follows:
A. Organizational level having responsibility for a major functional area.
B. Organizational level having functional/geographic responsibility for major segments of incident operations.
C. Organizational level having responsibility for operations within a defined geographic area.
D. Organizational level within the section that fulfills specific support functions.
C. Organizational level having responsibility for operations within a defined geographic area; Organizationally between branch and single resources, task force, or strike team. (Division)
________________________________
A. Organizational level having responsibility for a major functional area. (Section)
B. Organizational level having functional/geographic responsibility for major segments of incident operations. (Branch)
D. Organizational level within the section that fulfills specific support functions. (Group)
1107
An essential element of the NIMS – ICS is personal accountability, which provides the efficient use of resources and the safety of all those involved in an incident. The and NIMS-ICS provides a means of tracking the personnel resources assigned to a given incident. The element "Unity of command" is described as:
A. Requires all responders, regardless of affiliation, to check in to receive their assignments.
B. Dictates that each responder only has one supervisor.
C. Gives supervisors a manageable number of subordinates.
D. Identifies resources with active assignments in an operation section.
B. Dictates that each responder only has one supervisor.
________________________________
A. Requires all responders, regardless of affiliation, to check in to receive their assignments. (Check-in)
C. Gives supervisors a manageable number of subordinates. (Span of control)
D. Identifies resources with active assignments in an operation section. (Assignment list)
1108
The objective of incident scene management should always reflect the overall incident objectives. Therefore, the objectives of incident scene management are... the exception is:
A. Life safety.
B. Fire extinguishment.
C. Incident stabilization.
D. Property conservation.
B. Fire extinguishment. (FALSE - falls under Incident stabilization)
1109
Lloyd Layman and others have written extensively about the size-up process. Layman describes a five-step process for analyzing any emergency situation. The steps he describes include... the exception is:
```
A. Facts.
B. Mitigation.
C. Probabilities.
D. Own situation.
E. Decision.
F. Plan of operation.
```
B. Mitigation. (FALSE)
1110
The size-up process actually begins before the incident is reported and continues throughout the incident. Certain questions should be answered at different phases of the incident. Once dispatched to an incident, the size-up process activity continues. Which of the following questions would be considered while responding to the incident?
A. Are the occupants likely to need help getting out of the building?
B. Will response time be slowed because rain, snow, or ice has made the roads slick and dangerous.
C. Is there sufficient help on scene and in route to handle the situation?
D. Will ventilation crews be at additional risk because of wet or icy roofs or high winds?
A. Are the occupants likely to need help getting out of the building? (While responding)
________________________________
B. Will response time be slowed because rain, snow, or ice has made the roads slick and dangerous. (Before an alarm)
C. Is there sufficient help on scene and in route to handle the situation? (On arrival)
D. Will ventilation crews be at additional risk because of wet or icy roofs or high winds? (Before an alarm)
1111
The first arriving officer has three operational command activities available: Nothing showing, Fast attack, and Command.
1) When a problem generating the response is not obvious to the first arriving unit, the company officer should assume command of the incident and announced that nothing is showing.
2) When the company officers direct involvement is necessary for the unit to take immediate action to save a life or stabilize the situation, the officer should take command and announced that the unit is initiating a fast attack.
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
1112
Many medical emergencies are time critical, requiring that a specific level of care be provided as quickly as possible. Some considerations about apparatus and ambulance placement and positioning during medical incidents include the following... the exception is:
A. Place apparatus and ambulances as close to the incident as possible.
B. Do not place or position apparatus so that it blocks the entry to or exit from the emergency site.
C. Do not position apparatus so close to victims or emergency responders that it exposes them to vehicle exhaust, vibration, or noise.
D. Use all available emergency lights when parking apparatus on a roadway or shoulder. Mark both the front and rear of the apparatus with traffic cones to warn motorist of the presence of apparatus and personnel.
D. "Use all available emergency lights" when parking apparatus on a roadway or shoulder. Mark both the front and rear of the apparatus with traffic cones to warn motorist of the presence of apparatus and personnel. (FALSE - "Use amber flashers")
1113
Company officers must be able to make a preliminary determination of the cause of any fire, explosion, hazardous material spill, or other emergency to which they respond. There are a number of basic incident scene procedures that the company officer must complete regarding cause determination... the exception is:
A. Determine the cause of the incident.
B. Know how to prepare and complete reports.
C. Ensure scene security.
D. How to conduct on scene interviews.
A. Determine the cause of the incident. (FALSE)
1114
NFPA defines fire cause as the circumstances, conditions, or agencies that bring together fuel, ignition source, and oxidizer resulting in a fire or combustion explosion. NFPA 921 defines "incendiary" as:
A. Classification used when the specific cause of the fire cannot be determined.
B. Fires that do not involve a deliberate human act to ignite or spread into an area where fire is not normally found.
C. Fires such as those caused by lightning storms, or floods where human intervention has not been involved in the ignition process.
D. Fire set deliberately under circumstances in which the responsible party knows a fire should not be ignited.
D. Fire set deliberately under circumstances in which the responsible party knows a fire should not be ignited. (Incendiary)
________________________________
A. Classification used when the specific cause of the fire cannot be determined. (Undetermined)
B. Fires that do not involve a deliberate human act to ignite or spread into an area where fire is not normally found. (Accidental)
C. Fires such as those caused by lightning storms, or floods where human intervention has not been involved in the ignition process. (Natural)
1115
NFPA defines fire cause as the circumstances, conditions, or agencies that bring together fuel, ignition source, and oxidizer resulting in a fire or combustion explosion. NFPA 921 defines "accidental" as:
A. Classification used when the specific cause of the fire cannot be determined.
B. Fires that do not involve a deliberate human act to ignite or spread into an area where fire is not normally found.
C. Fires such as those caused by lightning storms, or floods where human intervention has not been involved in the ignition process.
D. Fire set deliberately under circumstances in which the responsible party knows a fire should not be ignited.
B. Fires that do not involve a deliberate human act to ignite or spread into an area where fire is not normally found. (Accidental)
________________________________
A. Classification used when the specific cause of the fire cannot be determined. (Undetermined)
C. Fires such as those caused by lightning storms, or floods where human intervention has not been involved in the ignition process. (Natural)
D. Fire set deliberately under circumstances in which the responsible party knows a fire should not be ignited. (Incendiary)
1116
NFPA defines fire cause as the circumstances, conditions, or agencies that bring together fuel, ignition source, and oxidizer resulting in a fire or combustion explosion. NFPA 921 defines "natural" as:
A. Classification used when the specific cause of the fire cannot be determined.
B. Fires that do not involve a deliberate human act to ignite or spread into an area where fire is not normally found.
C. Fires such as those caused by lightning storms, or floods where human intervention has not been involved in the ignition process.
D. Fire set deliberately under circumstances in which the responsible party knows a fire should not be ignited.
C. Fires such as those caused by lightning storms, or floods where human intervention has not been involved in the ignition process. (Natural)
________________________________
A. Classification used when the specific cause of the fire cannot be determined. (Undetermined)
B. Fires that do not involve a deliberate human act to ignite or spread into an area where fire is not normally found. (Accidental)
D. Fire set deliberately under circumstances in which the responsible party knows a fire should not be ignited. (Incendiary)
1117
NFPA defines fire cause as the circumstances, conditions, or agencies that bring together fuel, ignition source, and oxidizer resulting in a fire or combustion explosion. NFPA 921 defines "undetermined" as:
A. Classification used when the specific cause of the fire cannot be determined.
B. Fires that do not involve a deliberate human act to ignite or spread into an area where fire is not normally found.
C. Fires such as those caused by lightning storms, or floods where human intervention has not been involved in the ignition process.
D. Fire set deliberately under circumstances in which the responsible party knows a fire should not be ignited.
A. Classification used when the specific cause of the fire cannot be determined. (Undetermined)
________________________________
B. Fires that do not involve a deliberate human act to ignite or spread into an area where fire is not normally found. (Accidental)
C. Fires such as those caused by lightning storms, or floods where human intervention has not been involved in the ignition process. (Natural)
D. Fire set deliberately under circumstances in which the responsible party knows a fire should not be ignited. (Incendiary
1118
The post incident analysis is a written document that is compiled by the incident commander. The PIA should be written for all incidents, whether small or large. The PIA objectives are... the exception is:
A. The PIA is intended to place blame or find fault with the participants.
B. Identify effective procedures (strengths) for future emergency operations.
C. Provide an opportunity for participants to objectively review operations in a constructive manner.
D. Identify areas needing improvement (weaknesses) and recommend changes to improve effectiveness.
A. The PIA is intended to place blame or find fault with the participants. (FALSE)
1119
With all the information compiled into one report, company officer must then look for the strengths and weaknesses in the response. The company officer can develop a checklist of questions to help focus on each aspect of the incident. The question "Did the activity assign an incident safety officer?" Would be listed under which of the following areas?
A. Dispatch.
B. Subsequent resource assignments.
C. Health and safety.
D. Initial attack.
C. Health and safety.
1120
The company officer is responsible for the safety of all personal assigned to the unit or under the command of the officer at an emergency incident. The officer uses the risk management model to determine the appropriate responses to the health, safety, and wellness risks faced by the unit. Consider the following statements:
1) Risk frequency referred to by OSHA as incident rate, addresses the likelihood of occurrence.
2) Risk severity addresses the degree of seriousness of the incident and can be measured in a variety of ways.
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
1121
As defined, accidents are unplanned, uncontrolled events resulting from unsafe acts and/or unsafe occupational conditions. In conducting an investigation, supervising company officers collect basic information about the participants, event or incident. Which of the following information would be included under the category of "Apparatus/equipment information"?
A. Location and emergency response type.
B. Distinguishing characteristics.
C. Age and gender.
D. Names of witnesses and their accounting of the situation.
B. Distinguishing characteristics.
1122
After all data have been compiled following an accident, the information must be analyzed. A careful analysis of an accident report can have some very positive effects on workplace safety in the future. In conducting an analysis of an accident report, company officers should attempt to find answers to a number of basic questions. All of the following are some of these questions... the exception is:
```
A. What was the root cause?
B. Who was involved?
C. What was involved?
D. What happened?
E. What were the circumstances?
```
D. What happened? (FALSE)
1123
Research into the relationship of formal and informal groups has brought to light two important facts:
1) Informal groups form within all formal groups.
2) The formal group may have a greater influence on the productivity and success of the group than any other factor.
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
A. #1 is true.
1124
As managers and supervisors, company officers must periodically evaluate the personnel who work for them. Consider the following statements regarding personnel evaluations.
1) Company officers should remember that the personnel evaluation process can be one of the most objective activities that they can perform.
2) Company officers should remember that the personnel evaluation process must be approached as subjectively as possible, and with as much information as they can gather and document.
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
1125
```
The transition to company officer includes challenges, expectations, and potentially the search for successful solutions. For the officer who is promoted or selected from within the organization, the challenge will be to make the change from unit number to unit leader. The relationship between peers and friends will shift to a relationship between supervisor and subordinate. Consider the following statements about work relationships;
#1) Station life is "relationship-oriented".
#2) Emergency operations are "task-oriented".
```
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 and #2 are true.
D. #1 and #2 are false.
C. #1 and #2 are true.
1126
Most Level 1 Fire Officers have the responsibility for supervising fire-company-level personnel or small groups of around four people. As a first-level supervisor, a company officer has the following basic challenges that are common to most supervisory positions... the exception is:
A. Establishing priorities.
B. Creating job interest within a unit.
C. Anticipating problems.
D. Training unit members.
E. Establishing and communicating goals and objectives.
F. Involving employees in the process of establishing goals and objectives.
G. Creating an effective team.
D. Training unit members. (FALSE)
1127
_____ leadership has a moderate concern for production and a moderate concern for people. Production under a _____ style may sporadically exceed the amount of concern for production because the worker can show initiative, but this will not be the usual situation.
A. Middle-of-the-road.
B. Dual issue.
C. Single issue.
D. Bureaucratic.
A. Middle-of-the-road.
1128
There are five key dimensions which determine the quality of an individual's leadership ability. An effective leader is one who can... the exception is:
A. Build others trust in the leader.
B. Structure competitive rather than cooperative relationships.
C. Stimulate and promote goal oriented thinking and behavior.
D. Resolve conflicts by confronting issues together rather than by avoiding or forcing a particular solution.
B. Structure "competitive" rather than "cooperative" relationships. (FALSE - Structure COOPERATIVE rather than COMPETITIVE relationships.)
1129
Workers who fail to control the factors leading to an incident because of mental, physiological, or physical reasons will be involved in accidents more often than other workers. The human factor "Improper attitude" is described as:
A. Insufficient knowledge, misunderstandings, indecision, inexperience, poor training, or failure to recognize potential hazards.
B. Willful disregard, recklessness, irresponsibility, laziness, disloyalty, uncooperativeness, fearfulness, oversensitivity, egotism, jealousy, impatience, obsession, phobia, absentmindedness, intolerance, or mental unsuitability in general.
C. Problems of hearing, sight, weight, height, illness, allergies, slow reactions, disabilities, intoxication, or physical limitations in general.
D. The likelihood of an occurrence.
B. Willful disregard, recklessness, irresponsibility, laziness, disloyalty, uncooperativeness, fearfulness, oversensitivity, egotism, jealousy, impatience, obsession, phobia, absentmindedness, intolerance, or mental unsuitability in general. (Improper attitude)
________________________________
A. Insufficient knowledge, misunderstandings, indecision, inexperience, poor training, or failure to recognize potential hazards. (Lack of knowledge or skill)
C. Problems of hearing, sight, weight, height, illness, allergies, slow reactions, disabilities, intoxication, or physical limitations in general. (Physically unsuited)
1130
In the fire service, one of the most widely used techniques for presenting new information is the four step method of instruction. The steps involved in this method are... the exception is:
```
A. Preparation.
B. Presentation.
C. Repetition.
D. Application.
E. Evaluation.
```
C. Repetition. (FALSE)
1131
Line and staff are terms that refer to a concept of traditional origin. Under the staff direct implication method, staff personnel are used to route their advice through upper and middle department management. The technical data provided by staff positions is then put into directives and sent directly through the chain of command. This method…
A. Works well for policy matters.
B. Works well for procedural matters.
C. Works well for both policy matters and procedural matters.
D. Does not work well for either policy matters or procedural matters.
A. Works well for policy matters. (True)
| Works well for policies, however does not work well for procedural policies
1132
```
Learning efficiency is increased when the small steps involved can be taught/learned starting with the simplest and progressing to the more complex.
#1) Production order involves moving from the known to the unknown, from the basic to the more advanced, and is the best way to teach or reinforce a skill.
#2) Instruction order is the order in which they must be done regardless of relative complexity.
```
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 and #2 are true.
D. #1 and #2 are false.
D. #1 and #2 are false.
1133
In everyday conversation, the terms hazard and risk are often used interchangeably. Technically, however, hazards and risks describe two different things.
1) The term risk usually refers to the source of a hazard.
2) a hazard is the likelihood of suffering harm from a risk.
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
________________________________
Written correctly states:
1) The term HAZARD usually refers to the source of a RISK.
2) a RISK is the likelihood of suffering harm from a HAZARD.
1134
Practical training evolutions (sometimes called company drills) are essential for providing safe and efficient fire and emergency services to the public. Evolutions may be either simple or complex. An example of a complex training evolution is:
A. Lifting and setting ground ladders.
B. Taking and recording patients' vital signs.
C. Hazardous materials incidents.
D. Driving and parking fire apparatus.
C. Hazardous materials incidents.
1135
The generally accepted basic classification of plans is based on the frequency with which they are used. Therefore, two broad categories can be established: standing plans and single use plans. Consider the following statement regarding operational/administrative plans, and strategic plans:
1) Operational plans focus on what will be accomplished as opposed to strategic plans that focus on how the organization will do.
2) Administrative plans are concerned with those factors that are within the control of the organization, subjective and fact based, while strategic plans are objective.
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
________________________________
Written correctly state:
1) Operational plans focus on HOW objectives will be accomplished as opposed to strategic plans that focus on WHAT the organization will do.
2) Administrative plans are concerned with those factors that are within the control of the organization, OBJECTIVE and fact based, while strategic plans are SUBJECTIVE.
1136
Understanding the composition of the community requires a basic knowledge of demographics: results of a statistically-based study of the population. The population is categorized into groups based on physical, social, or economical characteristics such as... the exception is:
```
A. Age.
B. Politics.
C. Marital status.
D. Occupation.
E. Family size.
F. Education.
G. Geographic location.
H. Sex.
```
B. Politics. (FALSE - not a demographic rather a Cultural classification used to define diversity)
1137
With all the information compiled into one post incident analysis report, the company officer must then look for the strengths and weaknesses in the response. The question of "Was the ICS properly implemented?" would be part of which category?
A. Initial attack.
B. Subsequent resource assignments.
C. Health and safety.
D. Post fire activity.
A. Initial attack.
