Fire Inspector Flashcards
0
Q
A _____ is a rough drawing of a structure, facility, or site used to illustrate existing and special conditions.
A. Field sketch.
B. Plot plan.
C. Floor plan.
D. Elevation view.
A
A. Field sketch.
1
Q
The density of liquids in relation to water is known as _______.
A. Vapor density.
B. Specific gravity.
C. Miscible.
D. Solubility.
A
B. Specific gravity.
2
Q
Name the three general types of drawings used to show structure, facility, or site information.
A
- Plot plan
- Floor plan
- Elevation view
3
Q
Type of drawing used to indicate how buildings or structures are situated with respect to other structures and streets in the area.
A. Field sketch.
B. Plot plan.
C. Floor plan.
D. Elevation view.
A
B. Plot plan.
4
Q
Drawing used that shows the layout of individual floors, subfloors, and roofs.
A. Field sketch.
B. Plot plan.
C. Floor plan.
D. Elevation view.
A
C. Floor plan.
5
Q
Drawing that shows the side views of structures depicting the number of floors in structures and grades of surrounding ground.
A. Field sketch.
B. Plot plan.
C. Floor plan.
D. Elevation view.
A
D. Elevation view.
6
Q
The transfer of heat by the movement of air or liquid is called _____ .
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Passive agents.
A
B. Convection.
7
Q
The transfer of heat with in an object or to another object by direct contact; In other words, heat flow through and between solids.
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Passive agents.
A
A. Conduction.
8
Q
The transmission of energy as an electromagnetic wave (such as lightwaves, radio waves, or X-rays) without an intervening medium.
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Passive agents.
A
C. Radiation.
9
Q
Transmission of Heat:
Heat can be transferred from one body to another by three mechanisms. They are… the exception is:
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Passive agents.
A
D. Passive agents.
10
Q
_____ are materials that absorbs heat but do not participate actively in the combustion reaction. An example could be a well watered shrub; it will be slower to ignite then one that is dehydrated.
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Passive agents.
A
D. Passive agents.
11
Q
Fire doors rated for _____ hours are used to protect openings for two hour rated fire enclosures.
A. 1 hour
B. 1 1/2 hours
C. 2 hours
D. 2 1/2 hours
A
B. 1 1/2 hours
12
Q
Code may also require two _____ hour-rated fire doors to protect an opening in a 4 hour-rated wall.
A. 1 hour
B. 2 hour
C. 3 hour
D. 4 hour
A
C. 3 hour. (Two 3 hour-rated doors fire doors to protect an opening in a 4 hour-rated wall.)
13
Q
A ____ hour-rated door may be found being used as a smoke barrier and an opening to a corridor.
A. 1/3 hour.
B. 1/2 hour.
C. 1 hour.
D. 2 hour.
A
A. 1/3 hour. (rated fire door)
14
Q
If a fire involves gas escaping from a relief valve, the procedure that would be most correct is:
A. Protect exposures.
B. Do nothing, let it burn.
C. Cool down the tanks with a hose stream.
D. Turn off the valve.
A
C. Cool down the tanks with a hose stream.
15
Q
A fire continues to burn, heated gases rise to the ceiling. When a portion of the trap trapped gasses around the ceiling burst into flame, the flames spread across the ceiling until all the heated gases have ignited. This is called _____ .
A. Flameover / rollover.
B. Backdraft.
C. Flashover.
D. Smoke explosion.
A
A. Flameover / Rollover
16
Q
The term _____ describes a condition where the unburned fire gasses accumulated at the top of a compartment ignited and flames propagate through the hot-gas layer or across the ceiling. It is a fire gas ignition.
A. Rollover.
B. Backdraft.
C. Flashover.
D. Smoke explosion.
A
A. Rollover.
17
Q
_____ is when the temperature in a compartment results in the simultaneous ignition of all the combustible contents in the space. The rapid transition between the growth and the fully developed fire stages.
A. Flameover / rollover.
B. Backdraft.
C. Flashover.
D. Smoke explosion.
A
C. Flashover
18
Q
As a fire inspector, you come upon a building with a large cooling tower on the roof. There is evidence that conditions are serious enough to pose an immediate danger. The floors are sagging and cracked and immediate steps have been taken to protect the public. You should refer the matter to:
A. The head of the fire department.
B. The fire marshal.
C. The building department.
D. The head of the police department.
A
C. The Building department.
19
Q
There are three classifications of standpipe systems. _____ has Firefighter (2 1/2 inch connections)
A. Class 1.
B. Class 2.
C. Class 3.
D. Class 4.
A
Class 2: Trained Building Occupants (1 1/2 inch hose)
Class 3: Combination (have both 2 1/2 inch connections for firefighters and 1 1/2 inch connections and hose for occupants)
20
Q
A _____ roof covering is one that is effective against a moderate fire exposure, affords a moderate degree of fire protection to the roof deck, does not slip from position and does not present a flying brand hazard.
A. Class A.
B. Class B.
C. Class C.
D. Class D.
A
B. Class “B”.
21
Q
If an exit connects 4 or more stories, the separating construction must have at least a ____ hour fire resistance rating.
A. 1 hour
B. 2 hour
C. 3 hour
D. 4 hour
A
B. 2 hours
22
Q
The water supply for a Class I and Class III standpipe systems must provide a minimum flow rate _____ gpm for at least _____ minutes. A residual pressure of _____ psi at the mist hydraulically remote 2 1/2 inch outlet. A minimum of _____ psi is required for the most remote 1 1/2 inch outlet.
A. 500 gpm ; 30 minutes ; 100psi ; 65psi .
B. 500 gpm ; 60 minutes ; 100psi ; 65psi .
C. 1000 gpm ; 30 minutes ; 100psi ; 65psi .
D. 1000 gpm ; 60 minutes ; 100psi ; 65psi .
A
A. 500 gpm ; 30 minutes ; 100psi ; 65psi .
23
Q
In a horizontal standpipe system that supplies three or more Class I or III hose stations, a minimum flow rate of _____ gpm is required.
A. 250 GMP.
B. 500 GMP.
C. 750 GMP.
D. 1,000 GMP.
A
C. 750 GPM.
24
For Class II standpipe systems, _____ gpm must be provided for at least _____ minutes, with a residual pressure of at least _____ psi at the highest outlet.
A. 100 gpm / 30 minutes / 65 psi
B. 500 gpm / 30 minutes / 65 psi
C. 100 gpm / 30 minutes / 100 psi
D. 500 gpm / 30 minutes / 100 psi
A. 100 gpm / 30 minutes / 65 psi
25
_____ is defined as the maximum heat that can be produced if all of the combustible materials in a given area burn.
A. Structural load.
B. Fire load.
C. Flammable load.
D. Density load.
B. Fire load
26
The most reliable of all sprinkler systems is a _____.
A. Wet-pipe sprinkler system.
B. Dry-pipe sprinkler system.
C. Deluge sprinkler system.
D. Preaction sprinkler system.
A. Wet-pipe sprinkler system.
27
Fires involving energized electrical equipment where the electrical nonconductivity of the extinguishing agent is of first importance is called a _____ .
```
A. Class A.
B. Class B.
C. Class C.
D. Class D.
E. Class K.
```
C. Class C.
28
Class _____ fires - Involves ordinary, solid, combustible materials such as wood, cloth, paper, rubber, and many plastics.
```
A. Class A.
B. Class B.
C. Class C.
D. Class D.
E. Class K.
```
A. Class A.
29
Class _____ fires - Involves flammable and combustible liquids and gases such as gasoline, oil, lacquer, paint, mineral spirits, and alcohol.
```
A. Class A.
B. Class B.
C. Class C.
D. Class D.
E. Class K.
```
B. Class B.
30
Class _____ fires - Involves energized electrical equipment where the electrical nonconductivity of the extinguishing agent is of major importance; materials involved are either Class A (wiring insulation) or Class B (lubricants), and they can be extinguished once the equipment is de-energized.
```
A. Class A.
B. Class B.
C. Class C.
D. Class D.
E. Class K.
```
C. Class C.
31
Class _____ fires - Involves combustible metals such as aluminum, magnesium, potassium, sodium, titanium, and zirconium (particularly in their powdered forms); May require special extinguishing agents or techniques.
```
A. Class A.
B. Class B.
C. Class C.
D. Class D.
E. Class K.
```
D. Class D.
32
Class _____ fires - Involves oils and greases normally found in commercial cooking kitchens and food preparation facilities using deep fryers; through a process known as "saponification", extinguishing agents turn fats and oils into a soapy form extinguishes a fire.
```
A. Class A.
B. Class B.
C. Class C.
D. Class D.
E. Class K.
```
E. Class K.
33
Traditionally, the fire service has recognized four basic types of automatic sprinkler system. They are: 1._____, 2._____, 3._____, & 4._____
1. Wet pipe sprinkler system
2. Dry pipe sprinkler system
3. Deluge sprinkler system
4. Preaction sprinkler system
34
_____ sprinkler system - Continually charged with water under pressure that discharges immediately when one or more sprinklers are activated by heat from a fire.
A. Wet-pipe sprinkler system.
B. Dry-pipe sprinkler system.
C. Deluge sprinkler system.
D. Preaction sprinkler system.
A. Wet-pipe sprinkler system.
35
_____ Sprinkler system - Continually charged with air or nitrogen under pressure. When a sprinkler activates, the air is released allowing the dry-pipe water-flow control valve to operate and charge the system with water. These systems are used in areas where freezing temperatures are likely to occur.
A. Wet-pipe sprinkler system.
B. Dry-pipe sprinkler system.
C. Deluge sprinkler system.
D. Preaction sprinkler system.
B. Dry-pipe sprinkler system.
36
_____ Sprinkler system - Consists of open sprinklers attached to unpressurized dry pipes. The system is activated when a detection device in the protected area senses a fire and opens the water-flow control valve to the system. All sprinklers discharge water simultaneously.
A. Wet-pipe sprinkler system.
B. Dry-pipe sprinkler system.
C. Deluge sprinkler system.
D. Preaction sprinkler system.
C. Deluge sprinkler system.
37
____ Sprinkler system - Continually charged with air that may or may not be under pressure. The system only operates when both a sprinkler opens and a detection device in the same area activate the water-flow control valve.
A. Wet-pipe sprinkler system.
B. Dry-pipe sprinkler system.
C. Deluge sprinkler system.
D. Preaction sprinkler system.
D. Preaction sprinkler system.
38
When inspecting a compressed and liquified gas storage room, the electrical lights must be in a fixed position, encased in glass to prevent contact with gas and the switch to the lights is must be located _____ the storage room.
A. Inside.
B. Outside.
C. On a timer inside.
D. On a timer outside.
B. Outside.
39
_____ is defined as the ability of a structural assembly to maintain it's load bearing abilities under fire conditions. In the case of walls, partitions and ceilings, it also means the ability of the assembly to act as a barrier to the fire.
A. Fire protection.
B. Fire tolerance.
C. Fire resistance.
D. Flame spread rating.
C. Fire resistance.
40
At one time, only fire doors with ratings up to _____hours were permitted to have glass panels. Currently, doors with ratings up to _____hours can be equipped with glass panels.
A. 1 ; 3.
B. 1 1/2 ; 3.
C. 1 1/2 ; 4.
D. 2 ; 4.
B. 1 1/2 ; 3.
41
1. Fire doors with ratings of 1, 1-1/2, and 3 hours can have glass panels up to _____ square inches in area per door.
A. 25 square inches.
B. 50 square inches.
C. 75 square inches.
D. 100 square inches.
2. Fire doors with ratings of _____hour can have a total glass area consistent with their listing, but in individual piece cannot exceed 1,296 square inches. Fire doors with ratings of _____hour Can have fire-rated glass up to a maximum area to which they were test
A. 3/4 hour ; 1/3 hour.
B. 1/2 hour ; 3/4 hour.
C. 1/3 hour ; 1/2 hour.
D. 1/2 hour ; 1 hour.
1) D. 100 square inches.
| 2) A. 3/4 hour ; 1/3 hour.
42
A member of your crew approaches you during overhaul operations and reports that he located some charred documents in a wastebasket. The best action you could take would be to:
A. Put the wastebasket contents into a paper bag for evidence.
B. Place the documents between two pieces of glass.
C. The documents are burnt and useless for evidence.
D. Notify the chief.
B. Place the documents between two pieces of glass.
43
_____ agents leaves no residue and sometimes are referred to as "clean extinguishing agents".
A. Dry-chemical agents.
B. Foam agents.
C. NA-X agents.
D. Halogenated agents.
D. Halogenated agents.
44
_____ agent - Agent that leaves no residue when discharged.
A. Wet agent.
B. Dry agent.
C. Clean agent.
D. Foam agent.
C. Clean agent.
45
Fire is involved in free-burning and smoldering phases. The missing element of combustion in the smoldering phase of burning is _____ .
A. Fuel.
B. Heat.
C. Oxygen.
D. Chemical reaction.
C. Oxygen.
________________________________
However when referring to the "fire tetrahedron" - chemical reaction would be correct.
46
1. The "Fire Triangle" consists of:
| 2. The "Fire Tetrahedron" is a more accurate version, it consists of:
1. Oxygen, Fuel, & Heat
| 2. Oxygen, Fuel, Heat, & Self-sustained chemical reaction
47
Fire hazards for flammable liquids are measured in terms of _____ .
```
A. Flammability.
B. Flash points.
C. Flame points.
D. Boiling points.
E. Autoignition temperature.
```
B. Flash points.
48
_____ is the minimum temperature at which a liquid fuel releases sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture with the air near the liquid surface.
```
A. Flammability.
B. Flash point.
C. Flame point.
D. Boiling point.
E. Autoignition temperature.
```
B. Flash point.
49
The _____ is normally only slightly higher in temperature than the flashpoint.
```
A. Flammability.
B. Flash point.
C. Flame point.
D. Boiling point.
E. Autoignition temperature.
```
C. Flame point.
50
Regarding draft curtains - the distance between curtain boards should not exceed _____ times the ceiling height.
A. 2 times.
B. 4 times.
C. 6 times.
D. 8 times.
D. 8 times.
51
A _____ occupancy is any building, structure, or compartment (room) that is used for the gathering of 50 or more persons.
A. Assembly occupancy.
B. Business occupancy.
C. Residential occupancy.
D. Factory/industrial occupancy.
A. Assembly occupancy.
52
Assembly occupancies are divided into three classes: Class A, Class B, and Class C. Class A has occupant loads of _____ .
A. Over 1,000 people.
B. 301
A. Over 1,000 people. (Class A)
________________________________
B. 301
53
_____ Extinguishing systems are especially effective on fires involving cooking hazards. The nature of the chemical is such that it attacks by fuel removal, cooling, smothering, and flame inhibition.
```
A. Dry-chemical.
B. Wet-chemical.
C. Clean agent.
D. Carbon dioxide.
E. Foam fire.
```
B. Wet-chemical. (extinguishing systems).
54
After a tank has been installed in the ground for five years, how many more years is it expected to last:
A. 15
B. 20
C. 25
D. 30
B. 20 years more
| 25 total years a tank is expected to last in the ground
55
Most commonly, as a fire inspector, you will encounter flammable or combustible liquids stored in containers. The maximum allowable size for an approved safety can is:
(According to Fire Inspector text)
A. 1 quart.
B. 5 quarts.
C. 1 gallon.
D. 5 gallons.
D. 5 gallons. (According to Fire Inspector text)
56
A _____ type of fire extinguisher would be considered a self propelling extinguisher.
A. Water can.
B. Dry-chemical.
C. Carbon dioxide.
D. K agent.
C. Carbon dioxide.
57
A fire inspector encountering instances of structural abuse during fire inspection should refer the matter to the local building department for structural inspection. Evidence that conditions are serious enough to pose an immediate danger include:
A. Hole's in dry-wall.
B. Leaking roof.
C. Broken windows.
D. Sagging or cracked floors.
D. Sagging or cracked floors.
58
The highest degree of fire protection for means of egress from a building is:
A. Elevator.
B. Smokeproof towers.
C. Fireproof enclosures.
D. Fire-resistant enclosures.
B. Smokeproof towers.
59
An untrained operator using a 20B fire extinguisher can be expected to extinguish a fire of _____ square feet.
A. 10 square feet.
B. 15 square feet.
C. 20 square feet.
D. 25 square feet.
C. 20 square feet.
60
Fire extinguishers with a 20B rating must be located so that the maximum travel distance from the hazard to the extinguisher is not more than _____ feet.
A. 30 feet.
B. 50 feet.
C. 75 feet.
D. 100 feet.
B. 50 feet.
61
As a fire officer you return to a building that has been found in violation of many hazards. When you return you see the corrections that should have been made, you find that they have done nothing to make corrections. You should:
A. Issue a final notice with a date for another inspection.
B. Impose a $500 fine.
C. Notify the police department and have the building evacuated.
D. Notify the building department and have the building condemned.
A. Issue a final notice with a date for another inspection.
62
Containers that have air tight lids and are supported by legs so that the bottom is several inches off the floor are best used to safely store _____ .
A. Gasoline.
B. Propane.
C. Oily or greasy materials.
D. Volatile combustibles.
C. Oily or greasy materials.
63
You are conducting an inspection and you observe a large accumulation of dust. The best recommendation you can make to remove the dust is:
A. Sweeping it away.
B. Blowing it out open doors and window.
C. Vacuuming the dust.
D. Washing with detergent.
C. Vacuuming the dust.
64
Another serious hazard is presented during battery recharging. _____ is produced during this operation, which can ignite explosively.
A. Methane gas.
B. Hydrogen gas.
C. Pure oxogen.
D. MEK.
B. Hydrogen gas.
65
Lead-acid batteries contain two hazardous materials: Sulfuric acid which releases flammable hydrogen gas when charging and Metallic lead which:
A. Also releases hydrogen gas.
B. Is a toxic heavy metal.
C. Can explode.
D. Can leak strong acid.
B. Is a toxic heavy metal.
66
Many common conditions can generate static discharges. Some examples of these conditions include... the exception is:
1. Conductive fluids flowing through pipes.
2. Liquids breaking into drops and the drops hitting liquid or solid surfaces.
3. Air, gas, or steam flowing from an opening in a hose or pipe (especially true with cryogenic materials).
4. Polarized materials traveling through shoots or pneumatic transfer devices.
5. Slurry loading of materials including explosives, animal feed, or waste processing.
6. Belts in motion.
7. Moving vehicles.
1. "Conductive" fluids flowing through pipes. (FALSE - "Nonconductive")
67
An inspector must answer the 4 following questions concerning static electricity as a potential ignition source... the exception is:
A. Is there a source that generates a dangerous amount of static electricity?
B. Is there a conductor that will accumulate the charges generated and maintain a suitable difference of electrical potential between the materials involved?
C. Will there be a spark discharge of sufficient energy to create a hazardous situation?
D. Is there an tangible mixture present?
D. Is there an "tangible" mixture present? (FALSE - "ignitable")
68
"Types of building construction" divides construction types into five basic classifications,Types I through V. Each classification is further broken into subtypes by use of a three digit Arabic number code or several letters (for example Type I-443). What does the first Arabic digit refer to?
A. Fire resistance rating (in hours) of the exterior bearing walls.
B. Fire resistance rating (in hours) of structural frames or columns that support loads of more than one floor.
C. Fire resistance rating (in hours) of the Floors.
A. Fire resistance rating (in hours) of the exterior bearing walls. (1st)
________________________________
B. Fire resistance rating (in hours) of structural frames or columns that support loads of more than one floor. (2nd)
C. Fire resistance rating (in hours) of the Floors. (3rd)
69
_____ is the most commonly used method for evaluating surface-burning characteristics of materials.
A. Flame test.
B. Fire test.
C. The Steiner Tunnel Test.
C. The Steiner Tunnel Test.
70
The Steiner Tunnel Test produces a numerical evaluation of flammability of interior materials, which is known as the flame-spread rating. What are the three classifications:
****What is the max flame-spread rating allowed?***
1. Class A (0-25) required in vertical exits
2. Class B (26-75) required in corridors providing exit access
3. Class C (76- )
*** THE MAXIMUM FLAME-SPREAD RATING ALLOWED IS 200!!! ***
71
The "Steiner tunnel test" is used to test certain interior materials. The Steiner tunnel test of evaluates three things... the exception is:
A. Flame-spread rating.
B. Smoke developed
C. Fuel contributed.
D. Toxicity.
D. Toxicity.
It is important to remember that the Steiner tunnel test does not a valuate toxicity.
72
Fire doors designated to serve as exit enclosures, such as doors into stairwells, must be _____ hinged.
A. Side hinged.
B. Single hinged.
C. Double hinged.
D. Top hinged.
A. Side hinged.
73
When fire doors that serve as part of an exit are kept closed, they may be _____ but not _____.
A. Latched but not locked.
B. Locked but not latched.
C. Latched but not obstructed.
D. Obstructed but not locked.
A. Latched but not Locked.
74
Draft curtains, or curtain boards, are designed to limit the mushroom effect of _____ and _____.
A. Heat and smoke.
B. Smoke and toxins.
C. Air and smoke.
D. Heat and air.
A. Heat and Smoke.
75
The means of egress system consists of three basic elements: (3)
1. Exit access
2. Exit
3. Exit discharge
76
The _____ leads from an occupied portion of the building or structure to the exit. Examples include:
- *hallways
- Corridor leading to the exit open
- Aisle within an assembly occupancy that is designated to accommodate and conduct people to an exit
- Pathway leading from inside a space to an exit
- Unclosed ramp or stairs
- Occupied room or space
A. Exit access.
B. Exit.
C. Exit discharge.
D. Exit passageways.
A. Exit access.
77
The _____ is separated from the area of the building from which escape is to be made. It is a protected path consisting of _____ components constructed of approved fire-resistance-rated assemblies so that the occupants can proceed with a reasonable safety to the exit discharge. Examples: Exit passageways, Horizontal exits, Smokeproof enclosures.
A. Exit access.
B. Exit.
C. Exit discharge.
D. Exit passageways.
B. Exit.
78
_____ are designed to connect an interior exit stair to an exit door on the exterior of the structure; must be constructed of the same fire-resistance-rated material as the exit stairs. Can be used to shorten the travel distance to an exit.
A. Exit access.
B. Exit.
C. Exit discharge.
D. Exit passageways.
D. Exit passageways.
79
_____ Are commonly used in (but not limited to) high-rise buildings and hospitals as a means of passing through a fire-barrier wall that separates two fire compartments in a structure.
A. Exit passageways.
B. Horizontal exits.
C. Smokeproof enclosures.
D. Safe rooms.
B. Horizontal exits.
80
_____ are stairways or stair enclosures designed to limit the penetration of smoke, heat, and toxic gases into the stairway. They are the highest degree of fire protection of stair enclosures.
A. Smokeproof enclosures.
B. Smokeproof tunnels.
C. Fire-resistant enclosures
D. Fire-resistant towers.
A. Smokeproof enclosures.
aka Smokeproof towers.
81
The _____ exits between the termination of the exit and the public way.
A. Exit access.
B. Exit.
C. Exit discharge.
D. Exit passageways.
C. Exit discharge.
82
Two examples of ____ would be: 1. Exterior walkway along the side of a structure from the exit to a public way and 2. Privately owned drive or alley that connects the exit to a public way.
A. Exit access.
B. Exit.
C. Exit discharge.
D. Exit passageways.
C. Exit discharges.
83
A mechanically pumped fire extinguisher is used to extinguish fires in _____ materials.
A. Ordinary combustibles.
B. Liquids.
C. Electric.
D. Metal.
A. Ordinary combustibles.
84
A person who is trained in fire extinguisher use can be expected to extinguish a flammable liquid fire _____ square feet in area with a 10-B portable fire extinguisher.
A. 10 square feet.
B. 15 square feet.
C. 20 square feet.
D. 25 square feet.
D. 25 SQ FT.
85
In many jurisdictions, fire inspectors are considered to be public officers and therefore immune from certain kinds of liability. Immunity is not a guarantee, state or local statues, or both, may impose liability. Generally, fire inspectors are not held liable for _____ acts.
A. Discretionary acts (only).
B. Non-discretionary acts (only).
C. Both discretionary and non-discretionary acts.
D. Intentional acts.
A. Discretionary acts (only).
86
_____ is a precious metal that is a good conductor of electricity.
A. Gold.
B. Tin.
C. Aluminum.
D. Bronze.
A. Gold.
87
Fire partitions are typically _____ hour-rated structures, while fire barriers can be 1 to 4 hour-rated structures.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
A. 1 hour-rated
88
_____ may not extend continuously through a building. These walls are erected from a floor to the underside of the floor above or to the bottom of the fire-rated floor/ceiling assembly.
A. Fire partitions.
B. Fire barriers.
C. Fire blocks.
D. Parapets.
A. Fire partitions.
89
_____ are used for area separations, hazard protection, stairwells, camshafts. Their construction is identical to fire partitions except that partitions are allowed to terminate the bottom of a fire rated floor/ceiling assembly and _____ are required to terminate at the floor or roof deck.
A. Fire partitions.
B. Fire barriers.
C. Fire blocks.
D. Parapets.
B. Fire barriers.
90
The firewall should extend from the foundation of a structure through and above combustible roofs so that it will stop flame spread on the roof covering and to adjacent surfaces. This protection is accomplished by topping the firewall with _____ .
A. Fire partitions.
B. Fire barriers.
C. Fire blocks.
D. Parapets.
D. Parapets.
91
Building codes determine the parapet height above a combustible roof. The height varies from _____ to _____ inches.
A. 12 to 24 inches.
B. 18 to 36 inches.
C. 24 to 48 inches.
D. 36 to 54 inches.
B. 18 to 36 inches.
92
Because they are extremely unsafe and unreliable, external fire escape stairs may not be used as any part of a means of egress in new construction. Where still allowed on old buildings, these stairs may constitute only _____ of the required means of egress in exiting buildings.
A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
C. 50% (or one half)
93
The highest degree of protection for stairways in high-rise buildings is found in _____.
A. Fire resistant enclosures.
B. Smokeproof stairwells.
C. Smokeproof towers.
D. Fire resistant stairwells.
C. Smokeproof towers.
94
The three common types of portable fire extinguishers are... the exception is:
A. Stored-pressure extinguisher.
B. Cartridge-operated extinguisher.
C. Pump-operated extinguisher.
D. Gravity-assisted extinguisher.
D. Gravity-assisted extinguisher. (FALSE)
95
_____ Extinguisher - Contains an expelling gas and extinguishing agent in a single chamber. The pressure of the gas forces the agent out through a siphon tube into the chamber, valve, and nozzle assembly.
These extinguishers are normally found in office buildings, department stores, or even private residences where a high-use factor is not expected.
A. Stored-pressure extinguisher.
B. Cartridge-operated extinguisher.
C. Pump-operated extinguisher.
D. Gravity-assisted extinguisher.
A. Stored-pressure extinguisher.
96
Dry-chemical extinguishers typically use _____ as an expelling gas.
A. Compressed air.
B. Nitrogen.
C. Co2.
D. Oxygen.
B. Nitrogen.
97
_____ Extinguishers - Stores the expellant gas in a separate cartridge attached to the side of the agent cylinder or tank.
These extinguishers are found in industrial operations such as paint spraying or solvent manufacturing facilities where they may be used frequently.
A. Stored-pressure extinguisher.
B. Cartridge-operated extinguisher.
C. Pump-operated extinguisher.
D. Gravity-assisted extinguisher.
B. Cartridge-operated extinguisher.
98
_____ Extinguisher - Discharges its agent by the manual operation of a pump. This extinguisher is limited to the use of water as the extinguishing agent.
Typically not found outside fire department or fire brigades.
A. Stored-pressure extinguisher.
B. Cartridge-operated extinguisher.
C. Pump-operated extinguisher.
D. Gravity-assisted extinguisher.
C. Pump-operated extinguisher.
99
Sprinklers must have adequate room in which to operate if they are to be effective. Partitions or stock must not be arranged so that they can obstruct the distribution of water from sprinklers. A minimum clearance of at least _____ should be maintained under sprinklers.
A. 6 inches.
B. 12 inches.
C. 18 inches.
D. 24 inches.
C. 18 inches.
| 18-36inches
100
Inspectors should be aware of the consequences of stuck or partially closed valves. If a valve is partially closed, it would not be noticed during normal use of water, however, the _____ will prevent the fire department from obtaining sufficient water to combat a fire.
A. High friction loss.
B. Low friction loss.
C. Obstructions.
D. Kinks.
A. High friction loss.
101
Mrs. Henry owns a store and wants to have a display of turpentine placed on temporary shelves at the end of an aisle. She comes to you and wants to know how high she may stack the containers, and how many containers may be in each stack.
A. 3 feet high or two containers high.
B. 4 feet high or two containers high.
C. 3 feet high or three containers high.
D. 4 feet high or three containers high.
A. 3 feet high or two containers high.
102
The maximum travel distance to an extinguisher for Class A hazards is _____ .
A. 30 feet.
B. 50 feet.
C. 75 feet.
D. 100 feet.
C. 75 feet.
103
Placement of a Class D fire extinguisher should be no more than _____ from the Class D fire hazard.
A. 30 feet.
B. 50 feet.
C. 75 feet.
D. 100 feet.
C. 75 feet.
104
Class K fires are likely, the maximum travel distance from the hazard to the extinguisher is reduced to _____ .
A. 30 feet.
B. 50 feet.
C. 75 feet.
D. 100 feet.
A. 30 feet.
105
Fire inspectors are expected to know the basic techniques for extinguishing fires involving flammable and combustible liquids. Extinguishers with a 20B rating must be located so that the minimum travel distance from the hazard to the extinguisher is not more than _____ .
A. 30 feet.
B. 50 feet.
C. 75 feet.
D. 100 feet.
B. 50 feet.
106
In water distribution systems multiple housing developments should use at least a _____ inch main.
```
A. 6 inch.
B. 8 inch.
C. 12 inch.
D. 16 inch.
A.
```
B. 8 inch.
107
When do the majority of accidents that result in injury, fires, or damaged machinery occur?
A. During daily use operations.
B. During afternoon shifts operations.
C. During morning shift operations.
D. During maintenance and repair operations.
D. During maintenance and repair operations.
108
An inspector should choose one of 3 common methods for performing an inspection, they are... the exception is:
A. Start from the roof and work downward.
B. Start from the basement and work upward.
C. Follow an established manufacturing process within the structure from the raw materials to the finished product and include all storage areas.
D. Start from the outside and work to the inside.
D. Start from the outside and work to the inside. (FALSE)
109
The three most common sources of heat that result in the ignition of a fuel is... the exception is:
A. Chemical Heat energy
B. Electrical Heat energy
C. Mechanical Heat energy
D. Nuclear Heat energy.
D. Nuclear Heat energy. (FALSE)
110
Self-heating or spontaneous heating occurs when a material increases in temperature without the addition of external heat. This is an example of _____ heat energy.
A. Chemical Heat energy
B. Electrical Heat energy
C. Mechanical Heat energy
D. Nuclear Heat energy.
A. Chemical heat energy.
111
_____ density describes the density of gases in relation to air. Air has been assigned a _____ density of 1. This means that a gas with a _____ density greater than 1 will sink in air but a gas with a _____ density of less than 1 will rise.
A. Vapor density.
B. Specific gravity.
C. Miscibility.
D. Flammability.
A. Vapor density.
112
What is the difference between "flammable" and "inflammable".
A. Flammable materials has a lower flash point than inflammable materials.
B. Flammable materials has a higher flash point than inflammable materials.
C. Flammable materials have lower boiling points than inflammable materials.
D. Both Flammable and inflammable means the same thing, burns easily.
D. Both Flammable and inflammable means the same thing, burns easily.
113
Flammable liquids vs. combustible liquids according to FIC.
"Flammable" liquids have a flashpoint that is less than _____ degrees F; where "combustible" liquids have flashpoints that are greater than _____ degrees F.
A. 100 degrees F.
B. 120 degrees F.
C. 140 degrees F.
D. 160 degrees F.
A. 100 degrees F.
According to FIC
114
According to FIC.
1. _____ liquids have a flashpoint that is less than 100°F.
2. _____ liquids have a flashpoint that is greater than 100°F.
A. Flammable.
B. Combustible.
C. Volatile.
D. Non-volatile.
1) A. Flammable liquids. and
C. Volatile.
2) B. Combustible liquids. and
D. Non-volatile.
115
_____ is the weight of a substance compared to the weight of an equal volume of water at a given temperature.
```
A. Vapor pressure.
B. Specific gravity.
C. Solubility.
D. Miscibility.
_____ less than 1 indicates a substance lighter than water, greater than 1 indicates a substance heavier than water.
```
B. Specific gravity.
116
What is the difference between volatile liquids and flammable liquid?
A. There is no difference they mean the same thing; Liquids that have a flashpoint less than 100°F.
B. Volatile liquids have a flashpoint over 100°F; Flammable liquids have a flashpoint under 100°F.
C. Volatile liquids have a flashpoint under 100°F; Flammable liquids have a flashpoint over 100°F.
D. There is no difference they mean the same thing; Liquids that have a flashpoint more than 100°F.
A. There is no difference they mean the same thing; Liquids that have a flashpoint less than 100°F.
117
Liquids with low flashpoints such as gasoline and acetone are also known as _____ or _____ liquids.
A. Combustible or non-volatile.
B. Flammable or volatile.
C. Combustible or volatile.
D. Flammable or non-volatile.
B. Flammable or volatile (liquids).
~ Flashpoints less than 100°F~
118
_____ is when the temperature in a compartment results in the simultaneous ignition of all the combustible contents in the space.
A. Flashover
B. Rollover.
C. Backdraft.
D. Explosion.
A. Flashover.
119
The flow of electricity through a wiring system is like the flow of water through a water distribution system. The electrical term which is related to water pressure is _____ . A power surge is a brief spike in _____ .
A. Electricity.
B. Voltage.
C. Amperage.
D. Circuits.
B. Voltage.
120
Exit Doors:
Exit doors are required to open in the direction of travel toward the exit. The floor or landing on each side of the door must be level and at the same elevation on both sides of the doorframe. When panic hardware is required, occupants should be able to open the door latch by applying a force of not more than _____ pounds, and to open the door by applying a force of not more than _____ pounds.
A. 5 pounds / 10 ponds.
B. 10 pounds / 20 pounds.
C. 15 pounds / 30 pounds.
D. 20 pounds / 40 pounds.
C. 15 pounds / 30 pounds.
121
Ramps are preferable to stairs in certain occupancies, particularly in _____ and _____ .
A. Schools and institutions.
B. Schools and businesses.
C. Businesses and institutions.
D. Businesses and farms.
A. Schools and institutions.
122
Escalators and moving walks are _____ for a means of egress.
A. Required.
B. Not allowed.
C. Only allowed for up to 1/2.
D. Only allowed for 1/4.
B. Not allowed.
123
_____ exit signs are used in addition to standard ceiling-level exit signs, they are not a substitute.
A. Door level.
B. Floor level.
C. Wall.
D. Elevator.
B. Floor-level.
124
No numerical ratings are given to Class D extinguishers, the types of tests conducted very depending upon the metals for which the extinguisher is intended. The _____ details the specific metals on which the extinguisher should be used.
A. Directions.
B. Color.
C. Faceplate.
D. Package.
C. Faceplate.
125
Cold flow occurs when a sprinkler is repeatably heated near its operating temperature. Cold flow problems can be eliminated by:
1) Using a fusible-link sprinkler with a higher temperature rating.
2) Using frangible bulb sprinklers.
3) Removing the sprinkler heads.
```
A. #1 and #2 are true.
B. #2 and #3 are true.
C. #1 and #3 are true.
D. All three are true.
B.
```
A. #1 and #2 are true.
126
A permanent record of all detector tests should be maintained for a minimum of _____ .
A. 1 year.
B. 3 years.
C. 5 years.
D. 10 years.
C. 5 years.
127
For liquids, the _____ refers to the temperature at which a liquid fuel will continue to burn with an outside ignition source.
A. Flash point.
B. Fire point.
C. Autoignition temperature.
D. Boiling point.
B. Fire point.
128
In new buildings, each of the model code organizations require that doors serving as component of a means of egress be at least _____ inches wide but not more than _____ inches wide to provide a minimum of _____ inches of clear unobstructed width.
A. 36 - 48 - 32.
B. 32 - 46 - 30.
C. 36 - 46 - 32.
D. 32 - 48 - 30.
A. 36 - 48 - 32.
________________________________At least 36 inches wide.
Not more than 48 inches wide.
A 32 inches of clear unobstructed space.
129
Weak sprinklers are indicated by a creeping or sliding apart of a fusible link. Another indication of a weak sprinkler is:
A. Leakage around the sprinkler orifice.
B. Rust around the sprinkler orifice.
C. Cold to the touch around the sprinkler orifice.
D. Cold to the touch around the sprinkler orifice.
A. Leakage around the sprinkler orifice.
130
The clearance between the bottom of the extinguisher and the floor should never be less than _____ inches.
A. 4 inches.
B. 5 inches.
C. 5 feet.
D. 3 1/2 feet.
A. 4 inches.
131
Extinguishers with a gross weight not exceeding 40 pounds should be installed so that the top of the extinguisher is not more than _____ feet above the floor.
A. 4 inches.
B. 5 inches.
C. 5 feet.
D. 3 1/2 feet.
C. 5 feet.
132
Extinguishers with a gross weight greater than 40 pounds, except wheeled types, should be installed so that the top of the extinguisher is not more than _____ feet above the floor.
A. 4 inches.
B. 5 inches.
C. 5 feet.
D. 3 1/2 feet.
D. 3 1/2 feet.
133
When the inspector visits a warehouse facility, the most critical thing for the inspector to check is the _____ .
A. Exit accesses.
B. Fire alarm system.
C. Automatic sprinkler system.
D. HVAC systems.
C. Automatic sprinkler system.
134
There are number of things that inspectors should look for when inspecting hood systems and their associated fire protection equipment. If the system actuator is controlled by a fusible link device, the fusible link should be replaced every _____ .
A. 3 months.
B. 6 months.
C. Year.
D. 3 years.
C. Year. (once every year)
135
_____ may consist of gravel with a thin layer of asphalt over-the-top. These surfaces may not support the weight of fully loaded apparatus,
and could affect the operation of Arial apparatus that need to set stabilizers and deploy an aerial device.
A. Private driveways or parking-lots.
B. Interstate highways.
C. Major city streets.
D. Business parking-lots.
A. Private driveways or parking-lots.
136
Two of the most important functions of doors, in terms of life safety is as follows... the exception is:
A. serve as a component of a means of egress.
B. act as a barrier to smoke and fire.
C. provide adequate security and locking mechanisms.
C. provide adequate security and locking mechanisms. (FALSE)
137
Both automatic sprinkler systems and standpipe systems are dependent on adequate water supplies to be effective. An adequate supply of water is one that is sufficient in both _____ and _____ .
A. Volume and pressure.
B. Supply and flow.
C. Flow and pressure.
D. Volume and supply.
A. Volume and pressure.
138
A gravity tank of the proper size also makes a reliable primary water supply. In order to give the minimum required pressure, the bottom of the tank should be at least _____ above the highest sprinkler in the building.
A. 15 feet.
B. 25 feet.
C. 35 feet.
D. 45 feet.
C. 35 feet.
139
The first step in performing the main drain test is to: (5 steps)
A. Observe and record the pressure on the gauge at the system riser.
B. Have a building representative fully open the main drain.
C. Observe and record the pressure drop.
D. Have the building representative close the 2 inch main drain slowly.
E. Observe and record the final static pressure. If it is not the same as the initial static pressure, it is likely that pressure was trapped in the system.
A. Observe and record the pressure on the gauge at the system riser. (Step 1)
________________________________
B. Have a building representative fully open the main drain. (Step 2)
C. Observe and record the pressure drop. (Step 3)
D. Have the building representative close the 2 inch main drain slowly. (Step 4)
E. Observe and record the final static pressure. If it is not the same as the initial static pressure, it is likely that pressure was trapped in the system. (Step 5)
140
The _____ are probably the most important consideration in the selection of fire extinguishers.
A. Ease-of-use.
B. Mobility.
C. Hazards.
D. Level of training.
C. Hazards.
141
When the inspection is complete, the fire inspector should discuss the results with the person in charge of the property. Violations are discussed in (1)_____ term. Written documentation such as a follow-up letter describes the (2)_____ details of the inspection.
A. Casual ; specific.
B. General ; specific.
C. Specific ; casual.
D. Specific ; general.
B. (1)General ; (2)specific.
142
_____ occurs most frequently were sufficient air is not present and insulation prevents dissipation of heat, heat that is produced by a low grade chemical breakdown process.
A. Chemical heat energy.
B. Spontaneous heating.
C. Electric heat energy.
D. Mechanical heat energy.
B. Spontaneous heating.
aka Self-heating.
143
_____ refers to the heat generated through a conductor such as a wire or appliance. _____ is increased if the wire is not large enough in diameter for the amount of current or there's a poor connection between conductors. Fires are caused when a simple extension cord is overloaded with too many appliances.
A. Sparking.
B. Arcing.
C. Overcurrent or overload.
D. Resistance heating.
D. Resistance heating.
144
There are several means of dissipating static charges. _____ involves connecting two objects that conduct electricity with something that is also a conductor.
A. Bonding.
B. Grounding.
C. Faulting.
D. Clamping.
A. Bonding.
145
There are several means of dissipating static charges. _____ involves connecting an object that conducts electricity to the ground with something that is a conductor.
A. Bonding.
B. Grounding.
C. Faulting.
D. Clamping.
B. Grounding.
146
_____ are the most common type of central heating appliances in use today.
```
A. Gravity furnaces.
B. Warm-air furnaces.
C. Forced-air furnaces.
D. Floor furnaces.
E. Wall furnaces.
```
B. Warm-air furnaces.
Note: All other answers choices listed are different types of Warm-air furnaces.
147
There are four classes of furnaces/ovens: Class ____ - operates at approximately atmospheric pressure and has the potential for explosion or fire hazard when flammable volatiles or combustible materials are processed or heated.
A. Class A.
B. Class B.
C. Class C.
D. Class D.
A. Class A.
148
There are four classes of furnaces/ovens: Class ____ - operates at approximately atmospheric pressure where no flammable volatiles or combustible materials are being heated.
A. Class A.
B. Class B.
C. Class C.
D. Class D.
B. Class B.
****(most asked furnace/oven class answer on practice exams)****
149
There are four classes of furnaces/ovens: Class ____ - has a potential hazard due to flammable material being used or a special atmosphere is present; can use any type of heating system and includes a special atmosphere supply system; includes integral quench furnaces and molten salt bath furnaces.
A. Class A.
B. Class B.
C. Class C.
D. Class D.
C. Class C.
150
There are 4 classes of furnaces/ovens: Class ____ - operates at temperatures from above ambient to over 5000°F; also operates at pressures normally below atmospheric using any type of heating system; can include the use of special processing atmospheres.
A. Class A.
B. Class B.
C. Class C.
D. Class D.
D. Class D.
151
For a building or a portion of a building that contains two or more distinct occupancies (Multiple occupancies in one building), The occupancy load is determined by:
A. Calculating the occupant load for each of the occupancies separately and then multiply them together.
B. Calculating the occupant load for each of the occupancies separately and then adding them together.
C. Calculating the occupant load for each of the occupancies separately and then using the larger occupancy number.
D. Calculating the occupant load for each of the occupancies separately and then using the smaller occupancy number.
B. Calculating the occupant load for each of the occupancies separately and then adding them together.
152
For a building or a portion of a building that has more than one use (multi-use occupancy), the occupant load is determined by:
A. Calculating the occupant load for each of the occupancies separately and then multiply them together.
B. Calculating the occupant load for each of the occupancies separately and then adding them together.
C. Calculating the occupant load for each of the occupancies separately and then using the larger occupancy number.
D. Calculating the occupant load for each of the occupancies separately and then using the smaller occupancy number.
C. Calculating the occupant load for each of the occupancies separately and then using the larger occupancy number.
(The use that allows for the largest number of persons to occupy the building.)
153
To determine the "Exit Capacity", it is necessary to calculate the capacity for each of the three means of egress elements: exit access, exit, and exit discharge. The element that has the (1)_____ capacity will determine the total capacity for the entire means of egress. For example: a corridor capacity is 210 persons, a stairway has a capacity of 147 persons, and alley has a capacity of 720 person. What is the exit capacity of this exit? (2)
A. Smallest ; 147 persons.
B. Largest ; 720 persons.
C. Largest total sum ; 1,077 persons.
D. Smallest corridor ; 210 persons.
A. Smallest ; 147 persons.
154
Water discharge from a sprinkler head is activated by a heat responsive element. Some of the most commonly used release mechanisms are... the exception is:
A. Fusible links.
B. Glass (frangible) bulbs.
C. Chemical pellets.
D. Electronic heat valves.
D. Electronic heat valves. (FALSE)
155
Fire extinguishers for use on Class B fires are classified with numeric ratings from 1-B through 640-B. Using a 10-B portable fire extinguisher, and "untrained" operator should be expected to extinguish a fire of (1)_____ sq. ft. A "trained" operator should be able to extinguish a fire of (2)_____ sq. ft.
A. 10 ; 15.
B. 10 ; 20.
C. 10 ; 25.
D. 10 ; 30.
C. 10 ; 25.
156
Dry powder extinguishing agents are designed to extinguish Class D fires in combustible metals such as aluminum, magnesium, sodium, and potassium. There is no single agent that's effective on all combustible metals. NA-X is a Class D extinguishing agent that is not suitable on _____ .
A. Sodium fires.
B. Potassium fires.
C. Magnesium fires.
D. Sodium-potassium fires.
C. Magnesium fires.
157
A "rate-of-rise heat detector" operates on the principle that fires rapidly increase the temperature in a given area. These detectors respond at substantially lower temperatures than fixed-temperature detectors. Typically "rate-of-rise heat detectors" are designed to send a signal when the rise in temperature exceeds ____ to ____ per minute because temperature changes of this magnitude are not expected under normal, non-fire circumstances.
A. 10 to 15°F.
B. 12 to 15°F.
C. 10 to 20°F.
D. 12 to 22°F.
B. 12 to 15°F.
158
The most commonly used type of "rate-of-rise heat detector" is:
A. Pneumatic rate-of-rise line heat detectors.
B. Pneumatic rate-of-rise spot heat detectors.
C. Rate-compensation heat detector.
D. Electronic spot-type heat detector.
B. Pneumatic rate-of-rise spot detectors. (most common type)
159
Fire inspectors must have a systematic approach of to performing the inspection. You must establish a system of touring the building that assures all portions of the building are examined. It is common for the inspector to begin with an _____ examination of the structure.
A. Interior.
B. Exterior.
C. Ariel.
D. Electronic.
B. Exterior.
160
A classic example of a situation that could lead to _____ is oil soaked rags that are rolled into a ball thrown into a corner. If ventilation is not adequate to let the heat drift off, eventually the heat will become sufficient to cause ignition of the rags.
A. Chemical heating.
B. Spontaneous ignition.
C. Self-heating.
D. Resistance heating.
B. Spontaneous ignition.
Note: Can be a result of Self-heating/Spontaneous-heating which are both examples of Chemical heat energy.
161
Which occupancy classification is one in which the amount of ordinary combustible materials or flammable liquids presents is such that a fire of small size may be expected. Examples include classrooms, churches, and assembly hall. Would be classified as:
A. Light (low) hazard occupancy.
B. Ordinary (moderate) hazard occupancy
C. Extra (high) hazard occupancy
A. Light (low) hazard occupancy.
162
The following are the five most common causes of electrical hazard fires... the exception is:
A. Worn electrical equipment.
B. Improper use of electrical equipment.
C. Defective or improper electrical installations.
D. Live electrical equipment that becomes contaminated by fluid (water).
E. Power surges.
F. Static electricity.
D. Live electrical equipment that becomes contaminated by fluid (water). (FALSE)
163
_____ is a hazardous process operation that inherently provide two of the three sides of the fire triangle, an ignition source and oxogen in the air.
A. Flammable finishing operations.
B. Quenching operations.
C. Welding and thermal cutting operations.
D. Dry cleaning operations.
C. Welding and thermal cutting operations.
164
Welding and thermal cutting uses a combination of oxygen and fuel gas to produce a flame to melt or join metallic materials. The most common fuel gas used for this purpose is:
A. Propane.
B. Methane.
C. Butane.
D. Acetylene.
D. Acetylene.
165
When a demolition project is underway, the contractor should schedule the demolition systematically to keep the fixed fire protection systems operational as long as possible. The last piece of fire equipment to be removed from a building should be the:
A. Standpipe system.
B. FDC.
C. Pull stations.
D. Fire doors.
A. Standpipe system.
166
Regardless of the type of _____ , the key to successfully handling any emergency situation that may arise is having and executing an effective emergency plan. The complexity of the emergency plan will depend on the type of _____ .
A. Fire.
B. Occupancy.
C. Hazard.
D. Emergency.
B. Occupancy. (Terrible worded question but "type of occupancy" is the answer)
167
All water supplies to sprinkler systems must be checked during an inspection. The best way to verify that a gravity tank is full is to:
A. Check pressure gauges.
B. Check site gauges.
C. Climb to the top of the tank and look into it.
D. Open a discharge valve and monitor water flow.
C. Climb to the top of the tank and look into it.
168
When planning a trip test on a dry pipe sprinkler system, the inspector should be aware that this process can take from 2 to 4 hours to complete. The FIRST step is observe and record the pressure gauge. The Second step in performing the trip test is: Have a building representative fully open the _____ . Slowly close the drain valve.
A. Check valve.
B. Main drain.
C. Pressure valve.
D. Sprinkler head.
B. Main drain.
169
Each sprinkler system riser has a _____ . The primary purpose of the _____ is to simply drain water from the system for maintenance purposes.
A. Check valve.
B. Main drain.
C. Pressure valve.
D. Sprinkler head.
B. Main drain.
170
How frequently should the main drain test should be conducted?
A. Monthly.
B. Quarterly.
C. Semiannually.
D. Annually.
B. Quarterly.
171
This type of portable fire extinguisher characteristically discharges with a loud noise that may startle an untrained operator:
```
A. Water.
B. Carbon dioxide (CO2).
C. Foam.
D. Dry Chemical.
E. Wet Chemical.
F. Clean agent.
```
B. Carbon dioxide (CO2).
172
There are 2 main types of fixed dry-chemical extinguishing system:
1) Total flooding - Discharges agent onto a specific surface such as the cooking area in a restaurant kitchen; the most common type.
2) Local application - Introduces a thick concentration of agent into a closed area such as a spray-paint booth.
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
D. #1 & #2 are false. (Opposite)
173
Follow-up inspections are made to ensure that the recommendations made in the inspection report has been followed. When performing follow-up inspections it is:
A. Not necessary to inspect the entire occupancy again. Only inspect the problem areas included in the inspection report to verify that the hazards have been corrected.
B. Necessary to inspect the entire occupancy again.
C. Important to show up unannounced.
D. Necessary to bring police incase noncompliance results in arrest or removal of the occupants.
A. Not necessary to inspect the entire occupancy again. Only inspect the problem areas included in the inspection report to verify that the hazards have been corrected.
174
Because the occupants in a particular building tend to change over time, the most reliable method of cataloging inspection records is by:
A. Phone number.
B. Street address.
C. Email.
D. Name and SSN.
B. Street address.
175
Mechanical heat is generated by two ways:
1) Heat of friction - The movement of two surfaces against each other. This movement results in the generation of heat and or sparks.
2) Heat of compression - Generated when a gas is compressed. Diesel engines use this principle to ignite fuel vapor without a spark plug.
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
176
There are four basic types of fire retardant coatings used on wood: Which is described as: "Expands upon exposure to heat to create a thick, puffy coating that insulates the surface beneath the woods."
A. Intumescent paints.
B. Mastics.
C. Gas-forming paints.
D. Cementitous and mineral-fiber coatings.
2. _____ - Form a thick, noncombustible membrane over the surface of the wood.
3. _____ -
4. _____ - Coating that in the past have been used primarily on steel structure members. In recent times, they have seen limited use on wood-based materials.
A. Intumescent paints.
177
Where combustible materials, such as paper clippings, shavings wood, or textile fibers, are on the floor, an area with a radius of at least _____ must be cleared. Where impractical to produce this radius, the materials must be covered with approved fire- resistant guards or curtains.
A. 12 feet.
B. 25 feet.
C. 35 feet.
D. 50 feet.
C. 35 feet.
178
What is the formula used for determining the occupant load of a structure, room, or area:
A. Occupant load = Net Floor Area (divided by) Area Per Person.
B. Occupant load = Net Floor Area (multiply by) Area Per Person.
C. Occupant load = Net Floor Area (subtract by) Area Per Person.
D. Occupant load = Net Floor Area (add by) Area Per Person.
A. Occupant load = Net Floor Area (divided by) Area Per Person.
179
The public area of this facility is a room that measures 100' x 150'. Given a floor area per occupant of 100 gross; what is the legal occupant load for this business?
A. 100 persons.
B. 150 persons.
C. 350 persons.
D. 400 persons.
```
B. 150 persons.
________________________________
Occupant load = Net floor area / Area per person (factor)
So: Next floor area = 100x150 = 15000
Occupant load = 15000 / 100
Occupant load = 150 persons :)
```
180
Hospitals and nursing homes require special evacuation procedures a total evacuation is not warranted every time; the extent of the evacuation is determined by the severity of the emergency. Evacuation plans proceed in progressive steps or phases. How many different phases are there?
A. 2 phases.
B. 3 phases.
C. 4 phases.
D. 5 phases.
C. 4 Phases.
181
Hospitals and nursing homes require special evacuation procedures a total evacuation is not warranted every time; the extent of the evacuation is determined by the severity of the emergency. Evacuation plans proceed in four progressive steps or phases. Phase 1 activities is described as:
A. Involve evacuating a single room. A common procedure used in many facilities involves following a system that uses the acronym REACT or RACE.
B. Involved evacuating an entire zone of a building. Close all room and smoke-barrier doors first.
C. Involve evacuating an entire floor and zones on the floor above the incident floor. Evacuate the fire floor first. Once this is done, evacuate the necessary zones on the floor above the incident. Move occupants down stairwells or elevators.
D. Require that the entire building be evacuated; work best when preincident plans are in place and practiced on a regular basis.
A. Involve evacuating a single room. A common procedure used in many facilities involves following a system that uses the acronym REACT or RACE. (Phase 1)
```
REACT:
Remove those in immediate danger
Ensure that the room door is closed
Activate the fire alarm
Call the fire department
Try to extinguish or control fire
```
```
RACE:
Remove (patients)
Alert (call 911)
Confine (close off the area of origin)
Extinguish (if able to do so)
```
182
Hospitals and nursing homes require special evacuation procedures a total evacuation is not warranted every time; the extent of the evacuation is determined by the severity of the emergency. Evacuation plans proceed in four progressive steps or phases. Phase 2 activities is described as:
A. Involve evacuating a single room. A common procedure used in many facilities involves following a system that uses the acronym REACT or RACE.
B. Involved evacuating an entire zone of a building. Close all room and smoke-barrier doors first.
C. Involve evacuating an entire floor and zones on the floor above the incident floor. Evacuate the fire floor first. Once this is done, evacuate the necessary zones on the floor above the incident. Move occupants down stairwells or elevators.
D. Require that the entire building be evacuated; work best when preincident plans are in place and practiced on a regular basis.
B. Involved evacuating an entire zone of a building. Close all room and smoke-barrier doors first. (Phase 2 activities)
________________________________
A. Involve evacuating a single room. A common procedure used in many facilities involves following a system that uses the acronym REACT or RACE. (Phase 1)
C. Involve evacuating an entire floor and zones on the floor above the incident floor. Evacuate the fire floor first. Once this is done, evacuate the necessary zones on the floor above the incident. Move occupants down stairwells or elevators. (Phase 3)
D. Require that the entire building be evacuated; work best when preincident plans are in place and practiced on a regular basis. (Phase 4)
183
Hospitals and nursing homes require special evacuation procedures a total evacuation is not warranted every time; the extent of the evacuation is determined by the severity of the emergency. Evacuation plans proceed in four progressive steps or phases. Phase 3 activities is described as:
A. Involve evacuating a single room. A common procedure used in many facilities involves following a system that uses the acronym REACT or RACE.
B. Involved evacuating an entire zone of a building. Close all room and smoke-barrier doors first.
C. Involve evacuating an entire floor and zones on the floor above the incident floor. Evacuate the fire floor first. Once this is done, evacuate the necessary zones on the floor above the incident. Move occupants down stairwells or elevators.
D. Require that the entire building be evacuated; work best when preincident plans are in place and practiced on a regular basis.
C. Involve evacuating an entire floor and zones on the floor above the incident floor. Evacuate the fire floor first. Once this is done, evacuate the necessary zones on the floor above the incident. Move occupants down stairwells or elevators. (Phase 3 activities)
184
Hospitals and nursing homes require special evacuation procedures a total evacuation is not warranted every time; the extent of the evacuation is determined by the severity of the emergency. Evacuation plans proceed in four progressive steps or phases. Phase 4 activities is described as:
A. Involve evacuating a single room. A common procedure used in many facilities involves following a system that uses the acronym REACT or RACE.
B. Involved evacuating an entire zone of a building. Close all room and smoke-barrier doors first.
C. Involve evacuating an entire floor and zones on the floor above the incident floor. Evacuate the fire floor first. Once this is done, evacuate the necessary zones on the floor above the incident. Move occupants down stairwells or elevators.
D. Require that the entire building be evacuated; work best when preincident plans are in place and practiced on a regular basis.
-Evacuate the fire floor first, followed by all floors above the incident.
- Evacuate the floors below the fire when the fire floor and floors above it are clear.
-Transport patients to other buildings or sites.
D. Require that the entire building be evacuated; work best when preincident plans are in place and practiced on a regular basis. (Phase 4 activities)
Actions for fire incidents:
- Evacuate the fire floor first, followed by all floors above the incident.
- Evacuate the floors below the fire when the fire floor and floors above it are clear.
- Transport patients to other buildings or sites.
185
According to the practice exams, manufacturing areas with combustible products in a noncombustible building is an example of a _____ fire load/hazard.
A. Low fire hazard.
B. Moderate fire hazard.
C. High fire hazard.
C. High fire hazard.
aka Severe / Extra / High Fire Hazard
186
According to the practice exams, a cotton and waste storage (bailed), and well arranged noncombustible building is an example of _____ fire load/hazard?
A. Low fire hazard.
B. Moderate fire hazard.
D. Sever fire hazard.
B. Moderate fire hazard.
aka Moderate / Ordinary Fire Load/Hazard
187
According to the practice exams, a noncombustible institutional building with combustible occupancy has a _____ fire load.
A. Low fire hazard.
B. Moderate fire hazard.
D. Sever fire hazard.
B. Moderate fire hazard.
aka Moderate / Ordinary Fire Load/Hazard
188
According to the practice exam, an automotive repair shop has a _____ fire load.
A. Low fire hazard.
B. Moderate fire hazard.
D. High fire hazard.
D. High fire hazard.
aka Extra / High / Severe Fire Load/Hazard
189
In lumberyards, the height of stacks in an open yard storage should not exceed _____ feet.
A. 10 feet.
B. 15 feet.
C. 20 feet.
D. 25 feet.
C. 20 feet.
190
Recycling facilities usually contain materials in large bundles, that may be stored inside a building or outside in the yard. Materials stored inside should be stacked no closer than _____ feet to the ceiling in unsprinklered buildings.
A. 2 feet.
B. 4 feet.
C. 6 feet.
D. 8 feet.
A. 2 feet. (or at least 18 inches in building with sprinklers)
191
Freeboard is the distance from the liquid surface to the top of the tank when the tank is fully loaded. The freeboard should never be less than _____ inches.
A. 4 inches.
B. 6 inches.
C. 8 inches.
D. 12 inches.
B. 6 inches.
192
Every sprinkler system must have an automatic water supply of adequate volume, pressure, and reliability. A gravity tank of the proper size makes a reliable primary water supply. In order to give the minimum required pressure, the bottom of the tank should be at least _____ above the highest sprinkler in the building.
A. 20 feet.
B. 35 feet.
C. 40 feet.
D. 65 feet.
B. 35 feet.
193
Water mist systems are designed to be operated at considerably higher pressure than standard sprinkler systems. Three basic pressure ranges and which these systems may be designed to operate are low, intermediate, and high. Intermediate-pressure systems operate at ____ to ____ psi.
A. 175 to 300 psi.
B. 175 to 400 psi.
C. 175 to 500 psi.
D. 175 to 600 psi.
C. 175 to 500 psi.
Note: the low pressure systems works at under 175 psi, and the high pressure system works at over 500 psi.
194
_____ monitor levels of CO2 and CO for fire detection purposes. It uses either semiconductors or catalytic elements to sense a particular gas or gases and trigger an alarm.
They are not used as frequently as other types of detectors but can be found in such places such as refineries, chemical plants, and areas of electronic assembly.
A. Flame detectors.
B. Fire-gas detectors.
C. Combination detectors.
D. Smoke detectors.
B. Fire-gas detectors.
195
As a result of experience and water system analysis, fire protection engineers have established _____ psi as the minimum required residual pressure when computing the available water for area flow test results. This residual pressure is considered enough to overcome friction loss in a short 6 inch branch, and the hydrant itself, and in the intake hose, as well as allowing a safety factor to compensate for gauge error.
A. 5 psi.
B. 10 psi.
C. 15 psi.
D. 20 psi.
D. 20 psi.
196
Fire development in a compartment may be described in terms of 4 stages. Which stage of fire development is described as "when an incipient fire continues to burn, a plume of hot gases and flames rises from the fire and mixes with the cooler air in the room (convection). In this stage "Mushrooming" can be seen and the fire begins to influence the environment within the compartment.
A. Incipient stage.
B. Growth stage.
C. Fully developed stage.
D. Decay stage.
B. Growth stage.
197
Fire development in a compartment may be described in terms of 4 stages. During which stage dose "the fire exhibits a variety of traits that indicate changes in the environment. Among these are thermal layering, isolated flames, rollover, and flashover."
A. Incipient stage.
B. Growth stage.
C. Fully developed stage.
D. Decay stage.
B. Growth stage.
198
Fire development in a compartment may be described in terms of 4 stages. Which stage is described as "all combustible materials in the compartment are burning. During this stage the burning fuels in the compartment are releasing the maximum amount of heat possible for the available fuel and ventilation."
A. Incipient stage.
B. Growth stage.
C. Fully developed stage.
D. Decay stage.
C. Fully developed stage.
199
Fire development in a compartment may be described in terms of 4 stages. Which stage is described as "when the fuel is consumed or the oxygen concentration falls to the point were flaming combustion can no longer be supported." Potential smoke explosion and Backdraft conditions exist in the stage.
A. Incipient stage.
B. Growth stage.
C. Fully developed stage.
D. Decay stage.
D. Decay stage.
aka hot-smoldering phase
200
Fire development in a compartment may be described in terms of 4 stages. During which stage does the "Potential for smoke explosion and Backdraft conditions exist".
A. Incipient stage.
B. Growth stage.
C. Fully developed stage.
D. Decay stage.
D. Decay stage.
aka hot-smoldering phase
201
_____ is the ignition of accumulated flammable products of combustion, a form of fire gas ignition. Unlike ghosting or rollover, this involves an ignition of a mixture of flammable combustion products and air that is within its flammable range. Occurs in the decay stage of fire development in a compartment fire.
A. Backdraft.
B. Smoke explosion.
C. Flame over.
D. Flash over.
B. Smoke explosion.
202
NFPA 101 and NFPA 5000, building inspection and safety code describe an educational occupancy as a structure that is used by _____ or more persons through the 12th grade that meets for _____ or more hours a day or more than _____ hours a week.
A. 3 ; 2 ; 6
B. 6 ; 4 ; 12
C. 8 ; 5 ; 18
D. 8 ; 4 ; 15
B. 6 ; 4 ; 12
6 or more persons
4 or more hours a day or
12 or more hours a week.
203
In multistory buildings, exit stairs are critical components of the means of egress. Stairways must be at least _____ inches wide unless the total occupant load of all floors served by the stairway is less than _____ people, in which case, stairways must be at least _____ inches wide.
A. 44 ; 100 ; 42
B. 48 ; 100 ; 44
C. 44 ; 50 ; 38
C. 44 ; 50 ; 36
C. 44 ; 50 ; 36
44 inches wide unless
50 people or less, in which case
36 inches wide
204
The horizontal shaft pump is the most common type of fire pump found in fixed suppression systems. This pump has its shaft in a horizontal plane, with the pump on one end of the shaft and the driver on the other. The most common gallonage reading for horizontal shaft pumps in use today are those in the _____ range.
A. 1000
D. 500
205
The source of power that operates the fire pump is called the driver. A(n) _____ motor is the most common method for driving a fire pump.
A. Gasoline.
D. Diesel fuel.
C. Natural gas.
D. Electric.
D. Electric motor.
206
This type of proportioner is one of the most reliable methods of foam portioning. _____ has a foam concentrate line connected to each fire pump discharge outlet or to the system riser. A foam concentrate pump (separate from the main pump) supplies the concentrate line from the fixed storage tank. This pump provides pressure equal to the pressure at which the fire pump is supplying water to the riser. Because the foam concentrate in water being supplied the same pressure and the sizes of the discharges are proportional, the foam proportioned correctly.
A. Balanced pressure proportioner.
B. Around-the-pump proportioner.
C. Pressure proportioning tank system.
D. Coupled water motor-pump proportioner
A. Balanced pressure proportioner.
207
This type of proportioner is the most common type of built-in proportioners installed in mobile fire apparatus. _____ has a small return line (bypass) from the discharge side of a fire pump back to the intake side of the pump; and in-line educator is positioned on the bypass line. * Its advantage is when there is low water pressure or when the monitor is not available for a separate foam concentrate pump.*
A. Balanced pressure proportioner.
B. Around-the-pump proportioner.
C. Pressure proportioning tank system.
D. Coupled water motor-pump proportioner.
B. Around-the-pump proportioner.
208
_____ consists of one or two foam concentrate tanks that connect to both the water supply and foam solution lines of the overall system; designed so that a small amount of water from the supply source is pumped into the concentrate tank(s). This water volumetrically displaces the concentrate forcing it into the foam solution line where it is mixed with discharge water. The system allows for automatic proportioning over a wide range of flows and pressures and does not depend on external power source. However, the system is limited by the size of the concentrate tank.
A. Balanced pressure proportioner.
B. Around-the-pump proportioner.
C. Pressure proportioning tank system.
D. Coupled water motor-pump proportioner.
C. Pressure proportioning tank system.
209
_____ consists of two positive displacement rotary-gear pumps that are mounted on a common shaft; one pump is for water and the other is for the foam concentrate. The water pump is proportionally larger than the foam pump. As water flows through the larger pump, it causes the smaller pump to turn and draft foam concentrate from the foam tank. Because the pumps are sized in proportion to each other, the correct water/foam solution is made. This type of proportioner is used in fixed system applications. It is limited to only two sizes, and both are designed for 6% proportioning rates.
A. Balanced pressure proportioner.
B. Around-the-pump proportioner.
C. Pressure proportioning tank system.
D. Coupled water motor-pump proportioner.
D. Coupled water motor-pump proportioner.
210
The following are rate-of-rise heat detectors... the exception is:
```
A. Pneumatic rate-of-rise "spot"
B. Pneumatic rate-of-rise "line"
C.Pneumatic rate-of-rise "loop"
D. Rate-compensation
E. Electronic spot-type
```
C.Pneumatic rate-of-rise "loop". (FALSE)
211
Rate-of-Rise Heat Detectors:
_____ are the most common type of rate-of-rise heat detectors. It is self-contained in one unit that monitors a specific location. Alarm wiring extends from the detector back to the FACP.
A. Pneumatic rate-of-rise "spot".
B. Pneumatic rate-of-rise "line".
C. Rate-compensation.
D. Electronic spot-type.
A. Pneumatic rate-of-rise "spot".
212
Rate-of-Rise Heat Detectors:
_____ heat detectors can monitor large areas of a building. They consist of a system of metal pneumatic tubing arranged over a wide area of coverage. When area being served by the tubing experiences a temperature increase, the air pressure increases and the heat detection device operates.
A. Pneumatic rate-of-rise "spot".
B. Pneumatic rate-of-rise "line".
C. Rate-compensation.
D. Electronic spot-type.
B. Pneumatic rate-of-rise "line".
213
Rate-of-Rise Heat Detectors:
_____ heat detector is designed for use in areas that are subject to regular temperature changes, but it rates that are lower than those of fire conditions. It contains an outer bimetallic sleeve with a moderate expansion rate. This outer sleeve contains two bowed struts that have a slower expansion rate than the sleeve. If the rate of temperature rise is fairly slow such as 5 to 6°F per minute, the sleeve expands at a slow rate that maintains tension on the inner strips. This tension prevents unnecessary system activations.
A. Pneumatic rate-of-rise "spot".
B. Pneumatic rate-of-rise "line".
C. Rate-compensation.
D. Electronic spot-type.
C. Rate-compensation.
214
Rate-of-Rise Heat Detectors:
_____ heat detectors consist of one or more thermistors that produce a marked change in electrical resistance when exposed to heat. Greater changes in temperature result in larger amounts of current flowing and activation of the alarm system.
A. Pneumatic rate-of-rise "spot".
B. Pneumatic rate-of-rise "line".
C. Rate-compensation.
D. Electronic spot-type.
D. Electronic spot-type.
215
Alarm-Signaling Systems:
_____ are only used in communities that are served by a municipal firebox alarm systems. This is a system within an occupancy that is attached directly to the municipal firebox alarm system. When an alarm is activated in the protected occupancy, it is transmitted directly over the same communication lines as the alarms from the street boxes. This results in an alarm signal being received directly at the fire department dispatch center.
```
A. Auxiliary fire-alarm system.
B. Proprietary fire-alarm systems.
C. Central station fire-alarm systems.
D. Remote receiving fire-alarm systems.
E. Protected premises (local) alarm system.
```
A. Auxiliary fire-alarm system.
| ****practice test question****
216
Alarm-Signaling Systems:
Two general types of auxiliary fire-alarm systems: Local energy system and Shut system:
1) Local energy system alarm systems have their own source of power and does not depend on the supply source that powers the entire municipal fire alarm system.
2) Shunt system is electrically connected to an integral part of the municipal fire-alarm system and depends on the municipal system's source of electric power. When a power failure occurs, an alarm indication (false alarm) is sent to the fire department communication center. Only manual pull stations and water-flow detection devices are allowed to be used on this type of system.
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
217
Alarm-Signaling Systems:
A _____ is used to protect large commercial and industrial buildings, high-rise structures, and groups of commonly owned facilities such as college campus or industrial complex in a single location. Each building or area has its own system that is wired into a common receiving point in the facility. The receiving point must be in a separate structure or part of the structure that is removed from any hazardous operations.
```
A. Auxiliary fire-alarm system.
B. Proprietary fire-alarm systems.
C. Central station fire-alarm systems.
D. Remote receiving fire-alarm systems.
E. Protected premises (local) alarm system.
```
B. Proprietary system.
218
Alarm Signaling Systems:
_____ are similar to a proprietary system except that receiving point for alarms is located outside the protected premises and is monitored by a contracted service. The contracted service is typically a company that sells its services to many customers. When an alarm is activated an employee receives that information and contacts the fire department and representatives of the occupancy.
```
A. Auxiliary fire-alarm system.
B. Proprietary fire-alarm systems.
C. Central station fire-alarm systems.
D. Remote receiving fire-alarm systems.
E. Protected premises (local) alarm system.
```
C. Central station fire-alarm systems.
219
Alarm Signaling Systems:
_____ are common in localities that are not served by central station systems. Instead of being connected to the fire department telecommunication center through a municipal fire alarm box system, the _____ are connected by other means, usually a least telephone line.
```
A. Auxiliary fire-alarm system.
B. Proprietary fire-alarm systems.
C. Central station fire-alarm systems.
D. Remote receiving fire-alarm systems.
E. Protected premises (local) alarm system.
```
D. Remote receiving fire-alarm systems.
220
Alarm-Signaling Systems:
_____ are designed to transmit both visible and an audible alarm only within the immediate premises. There are no provisions for off-site reporting. The alarm's purpose is to alert the buildings occupants and to ensure their life safety.
```
A. Auxiliary fire-alarm system.
B. Proprietary fire-alarm systems.
C. Central station fire-alarm systems.
D. Remote receiving fire-alarm systems.
E. Protected premises (local) alarm system.
```
E. Protected premises (local) alarm system.
221
Alarm-Signaling Systems:
There are three basic types of Protected premises (local) alarm systems currently in use: Noncoded Local Alarm ; Zoned / Annunciated Alarm ; and Addressable Alarm System. The Addressable Alarm System is defined as:
A. Are the simplest type of local alarm. Signaling devices usually operate continuously until the FACP is reset. It is not capable of identifying what detector device triggered the alarm, therefore the building personnel or fire department must walk around the entire facility and visually check.
B. Should print out or visibly indicate the building, floor, fire zone, or other area that coincides with the location of an operating alarm detection device at the FACP or annunciation panel.
C. Is the most effective protected premises (local) alarm system. This system has each alarm detection device connected to a specific visible indicator on the FACP / annunciator panel. This allows building personnel or firefighters responding to the alarm to pinpoint the specific device that has been activated.
C. Is the most effective protected premises (local) alarm system. This system has each alarm detection device connected to a specific visible indicator on the FACP / annunciator panel. This allows building personnel or firefighters responding to the alarm to pinpoint the specific device that has been activated. (Addressable Alarm System)
________________________________
A. Are the simplest type of local alarm. Signaling devices usually operate continuously until the FACP is reset. It is not capable of identifying what detector device triggered the alarm, therefore the building personnel or fire department must walk around the entire facility and visually check. (Noncoded Local Alarm)
B. Should print out or visibly indicate the building, floor, fire zone, or other area that coincides with the location of an operating alarm detection device at the FACP or annunciation panel. (Zoned / Annunciated Alarm)
222
In most cases, occupancies should be inspected during normal business or operating hours. While it may be possible to inspect many of the necessary building features of a nightclub during nonoperating, daytime hours, there will be a number of factors that can only be properly addressed during evening operations. One example of these factors is:
A. Building occupancy changes.
B. Proper illumination and operation of exits.
C. Exit capacity.
D. Fire detection and alarm systems.
B. Proper illumination and operation of exits.
****(Practice exam question x3)****
223
Fire inspectors must have a systematic approach to performing the inspection. An inspector should choose one of the following common methods for performing an inspection... the exception is:
A. Start from the roof and work downward.
B. Start from the basement and work upward.
C. Follow an established manufacturing process within the structure from the raw materials to the finished product and include all storage areas.
D. Start from the middle and work outward.
D. Start from the middle and work outward. (FALSE)
224
Draft curtains, also called curtain boards, are designed to limit the mushrooming effect of heat and smoke as it rises in large areas of buildings that are not otherwise subdivided by partitions or walls. Generally, curtain boards should not extend below _____ feet from the floor.
A. 10 feet.
B. 12 feet.
C. 15 feet.
D. 20 feet.
A. 10 feet.
225
Most fire dampers have a fire-resistive rating of at least _____ .
A. 1 hour.
B. 1 1/2 hours.
C. 2 hours.
D. 2 1/2 hours.
B. 1 1/2 hours.
226
Cooking is another very common cause of fires. Cooking equipment must have a clearance of at least _____ to any combustible material, unless it is specially designed for a lesser clearance.
A. 8 inches.
B. 12 inches.
C. 16 inches.
D. 18 inches.
D. 18 inches.
227
Solid-fuel cooking equipment is becoming very common in many restaurants. Solid-fuel burning system that have a firebox greater than 5 cubic ft shall be protected by fixed water system with attached hose providing at least _____ psi.
A. 20 psi.
B. 40 psi.
C. 60 psi.
D. 80 psi.
B. 40 psi.
228
Exit "stairs" are a critical component of the means of egress and multistory buildings. When the total occupant load of all floors served by the stairway is less than 50 people, the stairway must be at least _____ wide. In occupant loads more than 50 people, stairways must be at least _____ inches wide.
A. 36 ; 44
B. 36 ; 48
C. 32 ; 44
D. 32 ; 48
A. 36 ; 44
```
36 inches (less than 50 people)
44 inches (more than 50 people)
```
229
Example 1: Occupant Load Calculation for Single-Use Occupancy -
An inspector must calculate the occupant load of a building that was formally a warehouse and has recently been turned into a nightclub. The area of the facility measures 100' x 150'. As a nightclub, it will contain unconcentrated tables and chairs around a large dance floor. What is the legal occupant load for this building?
A. 1000 persons.
B. 500 persons.
C. 750 persons.
D. 1200 persons.
A. 1000 persons.
-----------------------------------------
(100' x 150') = 1500 ft.²
-Allow 15 ft.² per person
Occupant Load = (1500 ft.² / 15 ft.²) = 1000 persons
(Just memorize question / answer of all 4 examples - examples are word for word in practice exams)
230
Example 2: Occupant Load Calculation for Single-Use Occupancy -
An inspector has been given architectural plans for a new building being constructed. The building will be used as a single-story parking garage, 100' x 75'. What is the legal occupant load for the structure?
A. 30 persons.
B. 37 persons.
C. 46 persons.
D. 50 persons.
B. 37 persons.
-----------------------------------------
(100' x 75') = 7500 ft.²
-Allow 200 ft.² area per person
Occupant Load = (7500 ft.² / 200 ft.²) = 37 persons
(Memorize question/answer as it appears Word for Word in practice exams)
231
Example 3: Occupant Load Calculation for Multiuse Occupancy-
Inspectors are signed to determine the occupant load on a new youth oriented entertainment facility being constructed. The building's main room is 100' x 250'. Depending on the day of operation, this room is used as either a Dancehall or an exercise area (skating rink). What is the legal occupant load for this building?
A. 3,571 persons.
B. 4,543 persons.
C. 2,346 persons.
D. 3,474 persons.
A. 3,571 persons.
-----------------------------------------
(100' x 250') = 2500 ft.²
-Allow 7 ft.² floor area per person for dance hall
-Allow 50 ft.² Floor area per person for exercise area/skating rink.
•Occupant Load (when used as dance hall) = (2500 ft.² / 7 ft.²) = 3,571 persons
•Occupant Load (when used as exercise or skating) = (2500 ft.² / 50 ft.²) = 500 persons
•The occupancy load is based on the maximum number of people that will use the facility at one time, therefore:
•Occupant Load = 3,571 persons **
(Only need to memorize question and answer. Examples appear Word for Word on exam.)
232
Example 4: Occupant Load Calculation for Multiple Occupancies in One Structure -
An inspector has been given plan for a new single-story mercantile store. The inspector must determine the occupant load for the structure. The sales floor portion of the building is 100' x 125' and contains general displays for the merchandise. A storage area is located at the rear of the building for storage of additional stock and shipping and receiving activities. It is 75' x 75'. What is the legal occupant load for this building?
A. 18 persons.
B. 416 persons.
C. 434 persons.
D. 456 persons.
C. 434 persons.
-----------------------------------------
Sales area (100'x125') = 12,500 ft.²
Storage area (75'x75') = 5625 ft.²
-Allow 30 ft.² per person for sales area, allow 300 ft.² per person for storage area.
•Occupant Load for Sales Area = (12,500 ft.² / 30 ft.²) = 416 persons
•Occupant Load for Storage Area = (5625 ft.² / 300 ft.²) = 18 persons
•Total Occupant Load for whole building = 416 persons (sales) + 18 persons (storage) = 434 person
•** Occupant Load = 434 Persons***
(Only need to memorize questions and the final Occupant Load answers. Examples appear Word for Word on practice exams.)
233
There are four phases in evacuating a hospital. Which of the following phases is FALSE:
A. Phase 1 activities involve evacuating a single room.
B. Phase 2 activities involve evacuating an entire zone.
C. Phase 3 activities involve evacuating an entire floor.
D. Phase 4 activities require a evacuating the entire corridor.
D. Phase 4 activities require a evacuating the entire "corridor". (FALSE - "building")
234
Sprinkler coverage in residential systems is not as extensive as in standard systems. In single-family dwellings, sprinklers can be omitted from many areas, including bathrooms not over 55 ft.²; Small closets not more than _____ and having a short wall that does not exceed 3 feet; Garages; Porches; carports; uninhabited Attics; and entrance hallways.
A. 12 ft.².
B. 20 ft.².
C. 24 ft.².
D. 32 ft.².
C. 24 ft.².
235
1. The height of the building and class of service determine the size of the standpipe riser. For Class I & Class III service, the minimum riser is ____ inch pipe. But for buildings over 100 feet a riser of 6 inch pipe is required.
A. 2 inch.
B. 3 inch.
C. 4 inch.
D. 6 inch.
C. 4 inch.
236
Current practice is to locate Standpipes so that any part of the floor is within _____ of the Standpipe hose connection. This distance allows any fire to be reached with _____ of hose, and _____ of stream.
A. 100 feet ; 50 feet ; 50 feet.
B. 130 feet ; 100 feet ; 30 feet.
C. 150 feet ; 100 feet ; 50 feet.
D. 180 feet ; 150 feet ; 30 feet.
B. 130 feet ; 100 feet ; 30 feet.
237
_____ can be used to illustrate existing conditions and any serious problems or fire-code violations that are found at the time of inspection. They can be used in conjunction with sketches and drawings to provide an accurate portrayal of the scene. It is particularly helpful when documenting violations that may result in a citation or legal action.
A. Reports.
B. Witnesses.
C. Photographs.
D. Police.
C. Photographs.
238
Oil soaked rags that are rolled into a ball and thrown into a corner could be an example of _____ heating.
A. Resistance.
B. Compression.
C. Spontaneous.
D. Nuclear.
C. Spontaneous.
239
For exposure protection, it is recommended that lumberyards store their least combustible materials near the perimeter of the yard to act as a barrier between the yard adjacent properties or buildings. Unsprinklered buildings containing hazardous manufacturing operations should have at least _____ feet of clear space to the nearest lumber stack, shed, or warehouse.
A. 20 feet.
B. 25 feet.
C. 50 feet.
D. 75 feet.
C. 50 feet.
240
Electrical heating can occur in a variety of ways. A type of electrical heating occurs when the current flow is interrupted. Interruption occurs when there is a loose connection is known as:
A. Heat from aching.
B. Heat from resistance.
C. Heat from overloading.
D. Heat from sparking.
A. Heat from arcing.
241
There are two types of fire stops: Fire stop devices and Fire stop systems. Fire stop devices are:
A. Used for penetrations involving wiring or cable.
B. Used to stop the vertical flow of fire in platform wood frame construction.
C. Used for fireproof enclosures.
D. Used for partition walls.
A. Used for penetrations involving wiring or cable.
242
All quenching tanks should have drained to protect from overflow, particularly tanks that are _____ gallons or more. Also any tank over _____ gallons must have a bottom drain that opens automatically or manually in the event of a fire.
A. 150 gallons ; 500 gallons
B. 250 gallons ; 500 gallons.
C. 250 gallons ; 550 gallons.
D. 300 gallons ; 600 gallons.
A. 150 gallons ; 500 gallons
243
The floor or roof above a dry cleaning room shall have a fire-resistance rating of not less than _____ .
A. 1 hour.
B. 2 hours.
C. 2 1/2 hours.
D. 4 hours.
A. 1 hour.
244
Chargers for electric battery-operated units should be kept at least _____ from combustible materials. Charging areas should not be accessible to the public; and charging areas should be vented to prevent an accumulation of hydrogen gas.
A. 5 feet.
B. 10 feet.
C. 12 feet.
D. 15 feet.
A. 5 feet.
245
Horizontal exits are commonly used in high-rise and institutional-type buildings. These types of exits require a separating wall or partition having at least a _____ fire-resistance rating, with a _____ rated door fire door assembly rating. Horizontal exits may be substituted for other exits if they do not compose more than _____% of the total exit capacity of the building.
A. 2 hour ; 2 hour ; 50%
B. 2 hour ; 1 1/2 hour ; 50%
C. 4 hour ; 3 1/2 hour ; 50%
D. 4 hour ; 3 hour ; 50%
B. 2 hour ; 1 1/2 hour ; 50%
246
Generally, illuminated exit signs are required in most occupancies. Exit signs must be positioned so that no point in the exit access is more than _____ feet from the nearest visible sign. Letters on the exit signs must be at least _____ inches high and the principal strokes of the letter at least _____ inch wide.
A. 100 feet ; 6 inches ; 2 inches.
B. 100 feet ; 6 inches ; 3/4 inch.
C. 50 feet ; 4 inches ; 2 inches.
D. 50 feet ; 4 inches ; 3/4 inch .
B. 100 feet ; 6 inches ; 3/4 inch.
247
CLASS D - DRY POWDER AGENTS:
_____ - Sodium carbonate-based agent with additives to enhance its flow; designed specifically for use on sodium, potassium, and sodium-potassium alloy fires (NOT suitable on magnesium fires). Agent forms and encasing crust or cake on the burning material extinguishing the fire.
A. LITH-X.
B. MET-L-X.
C. NA-X.
D. Potassium bicarbonate.
C. NA-X.
248
CLASS D - DRY POWDER AGENTS:
_____ - Sodium chloride (salt) based agent intended for use on magnesium, sodium, and potassium fires; contains additives to enhance flowing and prevent caking in the extinguisher. It extinguishes metal fires by forming a crust on the burning metal. It is nonabrasive and has no known toxic effects.
A. LITH-X.
B. MET-L-X.
C. NA-X.
D. Potassium bicarbonate.
B. MET-L-X.
249
CLASS D - DRY POWDER AGENTS:
_____ - Graphite-based agent that extinguishes fires by conducting heat away from the fuel after a layer of powder has been applied to the fuel; can be used on several combustible metals. Developed to control lithium fires but can also be used to extinguish magnesium, zirconium, and sodium fires. Unlike other dry powders, it does not form a crust on the burning metal.
A. LITH-X.
B. MET-L-X.
C. NA-X.
D. Potassium bicarbonate.
A. LITH-X.
250
Only water, carbon dioxide, and carbon monoxide are released from all materials that burn. The other gases released are dependent on the specific chemical makeup of the fuel. Which of the following combinations list detectors performance from fastest to slowest?
A. Heat - Smoke - Fire gas.
B. Fire gas - Heat - Smoke.
C. Smoke - Heat - Fire gas.
D. Smoke - Fire gas - Heat.
D. 1.Smoke -> 2.Fire Gas -> 3.Heat
251
Smokeproof enclosures must have a _____ fire-rating in buildings that are four stories or taller.
A. 2 hour.
B. 2 1/2 hour.
C. 3 hour.
D. 4 hour.
A. 2 hour.
252
Some residential sprinklers can be spaced to protect an area as large as 20×20 feet. However, with the sprinkler spacing, the minimum discharge with one sprinkler operating is increased to _____ gpm. With two sprinklers operating _____ gallons per minute per sprinkler.
A. 42 GPM ; 32 GPM
B. 42.5 GPM ; 32.5 GPM
C. 32 GPM ; 22 GPM
D. 32.5 GPM ; 22.5 GPM
D. 32.5 GPM ; 22.5 GPM
253
The two main types of modern fire hydrants are dry-barrel hydrants and wet-barrel hydrants. Regardless of the design or type, the hydrant outlets are considered to be standard if there is at least one large (1)_____ inches outlet for pumper supply (often referred to as "pumper outlet nozzle" or "steamer connection"; and two hose outlet nozzles for (2)_____ inch couplings.
A. 4 or 4.5 inch ; 2 1/2 inch.
B. 4 or 5 inch ; 2 1/2 inch.
C. 4 or 4.5 inch ; 3 inch.
D. 4 or 5 inch ; 3 inch.
A. 4 or 4.5 inch ; 2 1/2 inch.
254
Fire extinguishers for use on Claspie fires are classified with numerical ratings from 1-B through 640-B. The number indicates the approximate area, in square feet of fire involving a 2-inch layer of n-heptane in an 8-inch deep pan that can be extinguished. For example, a "trained" operator using a 10-B portable fire extinguisher can be expected expected to extinguish fire of _____sq. ft. An "untrained" operator using a 10-B portable fire extinguisher can be expected to extinguish fire of _____ sq. ft.
A. 25 ft.² ; 15 ft.²
B. 20 ft.² ; 10 ft.²
C. 25 ft.² ; 10 ft.²
D. 30 ft.² ; 15 ft.²
C. 25 ft.² ; 10 ft.²
* 25 sq ft (trained operator)
* 10 sq ft (untrained operator)
255
The wet-chemical agent is typically a solution that is composed of water and either potassium carbonate or potassium acetate. A wet-chemical system is best suited for application in:
A. Commercial cooking hoods, plumes, ducts, and associating
cooking appliances.
B. Flammable liquid storage rooms, dip tanks, paint spray booth.
C. Computer rooms, data storage areas, telecommunications facilities.
D. Flammable liquids processing or storage facilities, aircraft hangers, rolled paper or fabric storage facilities.
A. Commercial cooking hoods, plumes, ducts, and associating
cooking appliances. (Wet-chemical)
________________________________
B. Flammable liquid storage rooms, dip tanks, paint spray booth. (Dry-chemical)
C. Computer rooms, data storage areas, telecommunications facilities. (Clean-agent)
D. Flammable liquids processing or storage facilities, aircraft hangers, rolled paper or fabric storage facilities. (Foam)
256
When fire breaks out in any confined area, it drastically changes the chemical gas content of that atmosphere. Only 3 gases are released from "ALL" materials that burn, they are 1._____, 2._____, and 3._____. Whether other gases are released depends on the specific chemical makeup of the fuel.
A. Carbon monoxide, Sulfuric gas vapors, and Oxogen.
B. Water, Oxogen, and Carbon dioxide.
C. Carbon dioxide, Carbon monoxide, and Oxogen.
D. Water, Carbon dioxide, and Carbon monoxide.
D. Water, Carbon dioxide, and Carbon monoxide.
• Water (H2O), Carbon dioxide (CO2), and Carbon monoxide (CO)
257
The three general types of drawings used to show structure, facility, or site information are... the exception is:
A. Plot Plan.
B. Floor Plan.
C. Elevation view/drawing.
D. Ariel view.
D. Ariel view. (FALSE)
258
Fire exit drills should be conducted in all types of occupancy. The responsibility for planning and executing fire drills lies with the:
A. Head of the fire department.
B. Fire marshal.
C. Occupancy's loss control or safety staff and management.
D. Occupancy's owner.
C. Occupancy's loss control or safety staff and management.
259
The _____ is frequently defined as the rapid oxidation of combustible materials accompanied by the release of energy in the form of heat and light.
A. Combustion process.
B. Ignition process.
C. Flammability process.
D. Combustibility process.
A. Combustion process.
260
Places of assembly include, but are not limited to, all buildings or portions of buildings used for the gathering together of more than _____ persons for such purposes as deliberations, worship, entertainment, dining, amusement, or waiting transportation.
A. 25 persons.
B. 50 persons.
C. 75 persons.
D. 100 persons.
B. 50 persons.
261
Exits include: the exception is:
A. Horizontal exit.
B. Interior stairs.
C. Exterior stairs.
D. Elevators.
D. Elevators. (exit access)
262
Horizontal exits are becoming popular in high rise and institutional type buildings:
1. These types of exits require a separating wall or partition having at least a _____ hour fire resistance rating. 2. Horizontal exit door assembly installed in the fire barrier would require a _____ hour fire rated door, and they must swing in the direction of exit travel. 3. Horizontal exits may be substituted for other exits if they do not compose more than _____% of the total exit capacity of the building.
A. 4 hour ; 3 hour ; 50%
B. 2 1/2 hour ; 2 hour ; 50%
C. 2 hour ; 1 1/2 hour ; 50%
D. 1 hour ; 1/2 hour ; 50%
C. 2 hour ; 1 1/2 hour ; 50%
263
_____ are designed to connect an interior exit stair to an exit door on the exterior of the structure; they must be constructed of the same fire-resistance-rated material as the exit stairs. Simply, it is similar to an exit stair enclosure except that it is constructed in a horizontal plane. In buildings with extremely large areas such a shopping malls, large factories, or industrial complexes, the _____ can be used to shorten the travel distance to an exit. Must be wide enough to accommodate the total capacity of all exits that discharge through.
A. Exits.
B. Exit passageways.
C. Exit discharge.
D. Exit escape.
B. Exit passageways.
264
An assembly area of concentrated use without fixed seating, such as an auditorium would have a maximum floor area allowance of _____ sq. ft. per person.
A. 5.
B. 10.
C. 15.
D. 20.
C. 15 ft.² per person.
265
In business areas, the occupant load is _____ ft.² per person.
A. 15.
B. 30.
C. 50.
D. 100.
D. 100 ft.² per person.
266
Heat energy generally comes from five sources... the exception is:
```
A. Chemical heat energy.
B. Mechanical heat energy.
C. Electrical heat energy.
D. Light heat energy.
E. Nuclear heat energy.
F. Radioactive heat energy.
```
F. Radioactive heat energy. (FALSE)
267
One _____ is the amount of heat required to raise 1 pound of water 1°F.
A. BTU.
B. Degree C.
C. Calorie.
D. Joule.
A. British thermal unit (BTU).
268
Atmospheric air contains _____% oxygen.
A. 18%
B. 19%
C. 20%
D. 21%
D. 21% oxygen
269
1. The density of liquids in relation to water is known as specific gravity. Liquids with a specific gravity of less than 1 (such as gasoline) are _____ than water. Liquids with a specific gravity greater than 1 are _____ than water.
A. Heavier (sink) ; lighter (float)
B. Lighter (float) ; heavier (sink)
C. Heavier (float) ; lighter (sink)
D. Lighter (sink) ; heavier (float)
B. Lighter (float) ; heavier (sink)
270
The following materials are excellent conductors... the exception is:
A. Steel
B. Aluminum
C. Glass
D. Copper
C. Glass
271
Maintaining a relative humidity of _____% to _____% greatly reduces the static electricity problems associated with manufacturing of paper, cloth, and fiber.
A. 30 - 40%
B. 40 - 50%
C. 50 - 60%
D. 60 -70%
D. 60 -70%
272
_____ are used for Class B and C fires. They operate on the principle of inert gas that will not support combustion. It is self-propelled, because it is stored under it's own pressure, it is ready for release at any time.
A. Water extinguishers.
B. Carbon dioxide extinguishers.
C. Halogenated agent extinguishers.
D. Wet-chemical extinguishers.
B. Carbon dioxide extinguishers.
273
_____ extinguish the fire by a complicated, chemically dynamic process which inhibits the combustion reaction.
A. Water extinguishers.
B. Carbon dioxide extinguishers.
C. Halogenated agent extinguishers.
D. Wet-chemical extinguishers.
C. Halogenated agent extinguishers.
274
1. NFPA 10 recommends that extinguisher inspections be performed _____ . 2. However fire extinguishers should be "thoroughly" inspected at least _____ .
A. Weekly ; monthly
B. Monthly ; semiannually
C. Monthly ; annually
D. Weekly ; semiannually
C. Monthly ; annually (yearly)
275
Storage pressure extinguishers that require a 12 year hydrostatic test must be emptied every _____ years for complete maintance.
A. 3 years.
B. 5 years.
C. 6 years.
D. 12 years.
C. 6 years.
276
Class II standpipe systems are generally limited to _____ feet in height. Buildings in excess of _____ feet are zoned so this requirement can be satisfied.
A. 150 feet.
B. 250 feet.
C. 275 feet.
D. 300 feet.
C. 275 feet.
277
Dry standpipe systems should be hydrostatic we tested every _____ .
A. Month.
B. Year.
C. 3 years.
D. 5 years.
D. 5 years.
278
The exit access is that portion of a means of egress that leads to an exit. Compartments that commonly serve as exit access are... the exception is:
A. Stairs
B. Hallways
C. Corridors
D. Aisles
A. Stairs (Enclosed stairs = exit)
279
The means of egress system consists of 3 basic elements: exit access, exit, and exit discharge. Answer the following 9 examples:
1. Unclosed stairs or ramp = _____
2. Stairway that is enclosed by smoke proof enclosure = _____
3. Occupied room or space = _____
4. Doors at ground level that lead directly to the outside = _____
5. Exit passageways, horizontal exits = _____
6. Corridor, aisle, pathway, or hallway = _____
7. Drive or alley that connects to a public way = _____
8. Exit passageway to the outside = _____
9. Exterior walkway along the side of a structure leading to a public way = _____
1. Exit access
2. Exit
3. Exit access
4. Exit
5. Exit
6. Exit access
7. Exit discharge
8. Exit
9. Exit discharge
280
Portable fire extinguisher is viewed by some as the _____ against incipient fires of limited size.
A. First line of offense.
B. Last line of offense.
C. Fist line of defense.
D. Last line of defense.
C. First line of defense.
281
_____ agent leave no residue and are sometimes referred to as a "clean agent". The concentration of agent needed to extinguish fire under normal circumstances is between 3% and 7%.
A. Carbon dioxide.
B. Halogen.
C. Dry chemical.
D. Foam.
B. Halogenated agent.
282
A _____ alarm system is used in an occupancy when the potential for panic it's high, such as in a hospital. The system responds by first alerting emergency personnel, then alerting the general occupancy.
A. Duel action.
B. Presignal.
C. Pre action.
D. Duel signal.
B. Presignal alarm.
283
The maximum lengths for valve spacing should be (1)_____ feet in high-value districts and (2)_____ feet in other areas as recommended by commercial risk services.
Or as the practice exam states:
On water mains the maximum lengths for valve spacing should be (1)_____ feet in high-value districts. The maximum lengths for valve spacing in suburban areas is (2)_____ feet.
A. 500 ; 1000
B. 500 ; 800
C. 800 ; 1000
D. 400 ; 800
B. 500 ; 800
284
The water line on which sprinklers are directly installed is called:
A. Main lines.
B. Risers.
C. Distributors.
D. Branch lines.
D. Branch lines.
285
Pressure tanks are a source of water supply for sprinkler systems. This type of tank is filled 2/3 full of water and has an air pressure of at least:
A. 50 psi
B. 75 psi
C. 100 psi
D. 150 psi
B. 75psi
286
A _____ sprinkler system contains piping with closed sprinklers. Air is maintained under pressure within the system piping. Water is held back by a deluge valve, which is tripped when fire detection devices activate. If a sprinkler or pipe is broken, no water will flow. If a detector malfunctions water will enter the system but none will be discharged unless a sprinkler actuates.
A. Wet-pipe.
B. Dry-pipe.
C. Deluge.
D. Preaction.
D. Preaction.
287
Carbon dioxide systems exist as either high-pressure systems or low-pressure systems. 1. In high-pressure systems the carbon dioxide is stored at a pressure of _____ psi. 2. The low-pressure system is designed to protect much larger hazards. The liquefied carbon dioxide in the system is stored in large, refrigerated tanks at _____ psi and at 0°F.
A. 1500 ; 300
B. 1000 ; 50
C. 800 ; 300
D. 800 ; 50
A. 850 psi (high pressure) ; 300 psi (low pressure)
288
Halogenated agents are principally effective on Class B and Class C fires. They are not effective on most _____ .
A. Hydrocarbons.
B. Reactive metals.
C. Electrical equipment.
D. Plastics.
B. Reactive metals.
289
The water distribution system consists of three main feeders.
1. Primary feeders - Large pipes, known as arterial names, with a relatively widespread spacing. Can be very large, beginning at 16 inches and extending to 72 inches in diameter or greater. Fire hydrants are rarely attached directly to these mains.
2. Secondary feeders - Intermediate pipes that interconnect with the primary feeder lines to create a grid. They are 12 to 14 inches in diameter.
3. Distributors - Smallest water mains, 6 to 8 inches in diameter, that serve individual fire hydrants and commercial and residential customers. May form an intermittent grid between secondary feeders or may be dead-end lines with the hydrant or supplied property at the end of the line.
A. #1 & #2 are true.
B. #1 & #3 are true.
C. #2 & #3 are true.
D. All three are true.
D. All three are true.
290
When water is converted into steam at _____°F, it expands approximately _____ times and can cool a much larger area.
A. 212°F ; 2,700
B. 100°F ; 1,700
C. 100°F ; 2,700
D. 212°F ; 1,700
D. 212°F ; 1,700 times
291
Normal oxygen content in the air is _____%, nitrogen makes up _____% of air.
A. 21% ; 78%
B. 21% ; 79%
C. 19% ; 78%
D. 19% ; 79%
A. 21% ; 78%
292
Fire stop devices and systems must be constructed of materials that do not readily breakdown when exposed to heat or flame. Acceptable materials include… the exception is:
A. Wood.
B. Sheet metal.
C. Gypsum board.
D. Sand.
A. Wood. (FALSE)
293
There are three primary methods of storing materials within a warehouse… The exception is:
A. Palletized storage
B. Rack storage
C. Bulk storage
D. Solid piling
C. Bulk storage (FALSE)
294
Pallet storage, Rack storage, and Solid piling are types of storage found in.
A. Lumberyards.
B. Warehouses.
C. Recycling facilities.
D. Pallet storage facilities.
B. Warehouses. (and High pile storage)
295
The are three primary Warehouse & High-Piled Storage methods. _____ - Consists of materials that are stored on _____, most of which are made of wood, although the use of the metal or plastic is finding increased use. Plastic _____, while more resilient and longer-lasting and wooden ones, contribute up to three times the fuel load compared to that of wooden ones.
A. Pallet storage.
B. Rack storage.
C. Solid piling.
D. Bulk storage.
A. Pallet storage.
296
The are three primary Warehouse & High-Piled Storage methods. _____ - Consists of a structural framework onto which pallets or other materials are placed. The height of these various depending on the inside ceiling height of the building and equipment available to load and retrieve items from them. Heights exceeding 25 feet are not uncommon, Special automated systems may exceed 100 feet in height.
A. Pallet storage.
B. Rack storage.
C. Solid piling.
D. Bulk storage.
B. Rack storage.
297
The are three primary Warehouse & High-Piled Storage methods. _____ - Involves stacking boxes, bags, bales, or the products themselves directly on top of each other, which may be done by hand or forklift. When compared to the other two methods of storage, this type gives a fire the least chance to develop because it limits the airspace between the fuel units.
A. Pallet storage.
B. Rack storage.
C. Solid piling.
D. Bulk storage.
C. Solid piling.
298
Fuel is the material or substance being oxidized or burned in the combustion process. In scientific terms, the fuel in a combustion reaction is known as the reducing agent.
1) Organic fuels such as hydrogen or magnesium do not contain carbon.
2) Inorganic fuels contain carbon; most common fuels.
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
D. #1 & #2 are false. (Opposite)
299
Fuel gases and vapors are created from solid fuels by _____, it is the chemical decomposition of a substance through the action of heat.
A. Combustion.
B. Pyrolysis.
C. Constipation.
D. Heating.
B. Pyrolysis.
300
Heat is a form of energy, and energy exists in two states: _____ is the energy possessed by a moving object, heat is a type of this energy.
A. Potential energy.
B. Kinetic energy.
C. Heat energy.
D. Mechanical energy.
B. Kinetic energy.
301
There are two forms of ignition:
1) Piloted ignition occurs when a mixture of fuel and oxygen encounters an external heat source with sufficient heat energy to start the combustion reaction. (Most common)
2) Autoignition occurs without any external flame or spark to ignite the fuel gases or vapors. The fuel surface is chemically heated to the point at which the combustion reaction occurs.
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
302
Three of the more common products of combustion that can be hazardous to occupants and firefighters are... the exception is:
A. Carbon monoxide (CO).
B. Hydrogen cyanide (HCN).
C. Carbon dioxide (CO2).
D. Oxogen (O2).
D. Oxogen (O2). (FALSE)
303
Apartment buildings that are greater than _____ may be considered as high-rise structures and may require greater fire and life safety protection.
A. 6 stories.
B. 7 stories.
C. 8 stories.
D. 10 stories.
B. 7 stories.
304
The strength of wood varies significantly with species, grade, and direction of load with respect to grain - wood is stronger in the direction parallel to the grain. The allowable compressive strength parallel to the grain varies from ____ to ____ for commercially available grades and species of framing lumber.
A. 125 psi
B. 325 psi
305
Dimension lumber has a nominal thickness of 2 to 4 inches. It is available in length from 8 to 16 feet in 2 foot increments; in addition, members for use as rafters can be supplied in lengths up to _____ .
A. 22 feet.
B. 24 feet.
C. 28 feet.
D. 32 feet.
B. 24 feet.
306
Wood Structures:
1) In Heavy Timber design, the columns are not less than 8x8 inches and beams are not less than 6x10 inches.
2) In Post and Beam design, the posts are usually 4x4 inches or 6x6 inches. The posts are usually spaced at 4 to 12 feet apart.
3) Light Wood - frame construction makes use of 4 inch nominal pieces of lumber measuring 2x4 or 2x8 inches.
A. #1 & #2 are true.
B. #1 & #3 are true.
C. #2 & #3 are true.
D. All three are true.
A. #1 & #2 are true.
________________________________
3) Light Wood - frame construction makes use of "4 inch" nominal pieces of lumber measuring 2x4 or 2x8 inches. (FALSE - "2 inch")
307
_____ are constructed with sufficient fire resistant and structural stability to act as an absolute barrier to fire under conditions of a total burnout on either side. Can be constructed with fire-resistance ratings of 2 or more hours; the highest rating required by building codes is 4 hours.
```
A. Party walls.
B. Fire walls.
C. Enclosure walls.
D. Curtain walls.
E. Movable partition walls.
```
B. Fire walls.
308
Walls: 2 types of Fire Walls:
1) Freestanding fire walls must be designed to resist a lateral load of at least 5 pounds per square foot. Typically found in wood-frame or masonry construction.
2) Tied fire walls are erected at a column line in a building of steel-frame or concrete-frame construction. The structural framework must have sufficient strength to resist the lateral pull of the collapse of framework on either side.
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
309
Fire walls must extend beyond walls and roofs to prevent the radiant heat of flames from igniting adjacent surfaces. This extension is accomplished by continuing the firewall through the roof in the form of a _____ .
A. Roof wall.
B. Parapet.
C. Extended fire wall.
D. Fire resistance roof barrier.
B. Parapet.
310
Building codes determine that the parapet height above combustible roofs must be _____ .
A. 6 - 12 inches.
B. 12 - 24 inches.
C. 18 - 36 inches.
D. 20 - 40 inches.
C. 18 - 36 inches.
311
_____ lay on a lot line between two buildings and is common to both buildings. Common in old masonry construction, row-house or town-house construction. They are almost always loadbearing walls, and frequently function as fire walls that extended through a building from the basement through the roof and are capped with a parapet.
```
A. Party walls.
B. Fire walls.
C. Enclosure walls.
D. Curtain walls.
E. Movable partition walls.
```
A. Party walls.
312
Fire Partitions and Fire Barriers are interior walls used to subdivide a floor or area of a building but do NOT qualify as _____ .
```
A. Party walls.
B. Fire walls.
C. Enclosure walls.
D. Curtain walls.
E. Movable partition walls.
```
B. Fire walls.
313
_____ are used to encompass vertical openings such as stairwells, elevator shafts, and pipe chases that extend from floor to floor in a building. The purpose is to block the vertical spread of fire through a building, and in the case of stairwells, protect the means of egress. Must be fire barriers and are usually non-load bearing.
```
A. Party walls.
B. Fire walls.
C. Enclosure walls.
D. Curtain walls.
E. Movable partition walls.
```
C. Enclosure walls. (aka Shaft Walls)
314
_____ are non-load-bearing walls attached to the structural frame of a building, typically found in steel-framed skyscrapers. These walls may leave a gaps between the edge of the floor and the wall; this opening maybe several inches wide and provide a path for fire spread. Suitable fire stopping material must be provided to maintain the continuously of the floor as a fire-resistant barrier.
```
A. Party walls.
B. Fire walls.
C. Enclosure walls.
D. Curtain walls.
E. Movable partition walls.
```
D. Curtain walls. (aka Cladding Walls)
315
_____ make it possible to subdivide the interior of a building to suit different needs. For example a large hotel banquet room can be temporarily subdivided to accommodate different sized function. They are never loadbearing and are usually mounted on an overhead track; they may be either power or hand-operated. Typically not fire-resistant.
```
A. Party walls.
B. Fire walls.
C. Enclosure walls.
D. Curtain walls.
E. Movable partition walls.
```
E. Movable partition walls.
316
______ are produced from "cold rolled" steel and available in several cross-sections; a fairly recent development and construction to support flooring.
A. Open web trusses.
B. Bar joists.
C. Steel beams.
D. Light gauge steel joists.
D. Light gauge steel joists.
317
_____ are not enclosed with fire-rated construction, they may serve as a path for fire and smoke spread. Allowed in buildings when they connect only two adjacent floors above the basement level. Sometimes referred to as access or convenience stairs and can be used as part of an exit system in two-story buildings.
```
A. Protected stairs.
B. Exterior stairs.
C. Fire escapes.
D. Smokeproof stair enclosures.
E. Unprotected stairs.
```
E. Unprotected stairs.
318
DOORS: Operational Types:
_____ - Rotates around a vertical access by means of hinges secured to the side jambs of the doorway framing, or operates on pivot posts supported at the top and bottom. Generally are required as exit doors. Can be either single or double leaf, also can be either single acting or double acting.
```
A. Swinging doors.
B. Sliding doors.
C. Folding doors.
D. Vertical doors.
E. Revolving doors.
```
A. Swinging doors.
319
DOORS: Operational Types:
_____ - Is suspended from an overhead track and may use steel or nylon rollers. Floor guides or tracks are usually provided to prevent the door from swinging laterally. Its main advantage is that it eliminates a door swing that might interfere with the use of interior space.
```
A. Swinging doors.
B. Sliding doors.
C. Folding doors.
D. Vertical doors.
E. Revolving doors.
```
B. Sliding doors.
320
DOORS: Operational Types:
_____ - Is hung from an overhead track with rollers or glides; can be either bifolding or multifolding. May be found in places of assembly to divide large conference areas into smaller rooms.
```
A. Swinging doors.
B. Sliding doors.
C. Folding doors.
D. Vertical doors.
E. Revolving doors.
```
C. Folding doors.
321
DOORS: Operational Types:
_____ - Can be a simple single leaf that is raised in vertical guides along the edge of the doorway, or can consist of two or more horizontal planes. Is usually provided with some type of counter balance mechanism; Can be raised manually, mechanically via chain hoist, or power operated. Often found in industrial occupancies for applications such as loading dock doors, garage doors, freight elevator doors, and fire doors protecting openings that are not part of the required means of egress.
```
A. Swinging doors.
B. Sliding doors.
C. Folding doors.
D. Vertical doors.
E. Revolving doors.
```
D. Vertical doors.
322
DOORS: Operational Types:
_____ - Is constructed with three or four sections or wings that rotate in a circular frame. Is designed to minimize the flow of air through a door opening to reduce building heating or cooling losses. The wings must have a collapsing mechanism to provide an unobstructed opening (most newer models use a book-fold position) during emergencies.
```
A. Swinging doors.
B. Sliding doors.
C. Folding doors.
D. Vertical doors.
E. Revolving doors.
```
E. Revolving doors.
323
Fire is controlled and extinguished by limiting or interrupting one or more of the central elements in the combustion process. An example of _____ are fires involving pesticides or flammable liquid spills that may create greater environmental harm if they are extinguished with water, creating substantial contaminated runoff. The best solution maybe to allow the fire to burn, minimizing groundwater pollution.
A. Temperature reduction.
B. Oxygen exclusion.
C. Fuel removal.
D. Chemical chain reaction inhibition.
C. Fuel removal.
324
There are number of different materials used in building construction. _____ is formed into permanent shapes in the manufacturing process and is not subject to softening when reheated.
A. Steel.
B. Aluminum.
C. Thermoplastics.
D. Thermosetting plastic.
D. Thermosetting plastic.
325
The means of egress system consists of three basic elements: exit access, exit, and exit discharge. In order to fulfill their intended function during an emergency, each of the three elements must be free from obstructions at all times. An example of an exit access is:
A. Doors at ground level that lead directly to the outside of the building.
B. Exit passageway to the outside.
C. Unenclosed ramp or stairs.
D. Privately owned driveway or alley that connects the exit to a public way.
C. Unenclosed ramp or stairs.
326
Ramps became common elements in many occupancies in the US with the adoption of the Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) in 1990. Each model code addresses the requirements for ramps in a similar manner. New ramps must be at least _____ wide with a maximum slope of 1 to 12 (1 foot rise for every 12 feet of horizontal distance).
A. 36 inches.
B. 42 inches.
C. 44 inches.
D. 48 inches.
C. 44 inches.
327
Inspection personnel and building officials must be familiar with the requirements for the minimum number of exits in the buildings they inspect. In most cases, all of the codes require that there be three exits from any balcony, mezzanine, story, or portion thereof that has an occupant load of:
A. Less than 100.
B. 100 to 500.
C. 500 to 1000.
D. 1000 to 1500.
```
C. 500 to 1000. (3 exits required)
________________________________
•500 or less = 2 exits required
•500 to 1000 = 3 exits required
•1000 or more = 4 or more exits
```
328
Each of the model codes establishes the maximum allowable travel distance to the nearest exit and limits the length of dead-end corridors. A dead-end corridor is a condition that exists when a corridor has no outlet to a means of egress and is more than _____ in length.
A. 20 feet.
B. 18 feet.
C. 16 feet.
D. 14 feet.
A. 20 feet.
329
The water distribution system consists of a network of pipes, storage tanks, control valves, and hydrants throughout the community or service area that carry the water under pressure to the point of use. A water distribution system consists of three types of water mains loosely referred to as primary feeders, secondary feeders, and distributors. Secondary feeders are intermediate pipes that interconnect with the primary feeder lines to create a grid. They are _____ in diameter. Each secondary feeder can be isolated by control valves.
A. 16 inches or greater.
B. 12 to 14 inches.
C. 9 to 11 inches.
D. 6 to 8 inches.
```
B. 12 to 14 inches. (Secondary feeders)
________________________________
A. 16 inches or greater. (Primary feeders)
C. 9 to 11 inches. (N/A)
D. 6 to 8 inches. (Distributors)
```
330
Control valves are located throughout the water distribution system. Control valves space is usually planned so that if it is necessary to close a valve, a minimum length of the water distribution system will be out of service. The maximum length for valve spacing should be _____ in high-value districts as recommended by commercial risk services, Inc., a subsidiary of the insurance services office.
A. 1000 feet.
B. 800 feet.
C. 500 feet.
D. 300 feet.
C. 500 feet.
________________________________
•500 feet and high-value districts and 800 feet in other areas.
331
Traditionally, the fire service has recognized for basic types of automatic sprinkler systems as defined in NFPA 13. Advances in sprinkler system design and technology, as well as ever-increasing types of hazards, have led to the addition of six more types of systems. A _____ is a system that is designed to operate repeatedly in response to a detection device. The system turns on and off based on the demand indicated by the detection device.
A. Anti-freeze sprinkler system.
B. Circulating closed-loop sprinkler system.
C. Combined dry pipe and pre-action sprinkler system.
D. Gridded sprinkler system.
E. Looped sprinkler system.
F. Multicycle sprinkler system.
F. Multicycle sprinkler system.
332
Traditionally, the fire service has recognized for basic types of automatic sprinkler systems as defined in NFPA 13. Advances in sprinkler system design and technology, as well as ever-increasing types of hazards, have led to the addition of six more types of systems. A/an _____ is a wet-pipe system that is continually charged with a "_____" solution. When the system is activated, the solution is discharged, activating the water-flow valve and allowing water to flow to the open sprinkler(s). This system requires additional maintenance; the solution must be changed once a year.
A. Anti-freeze sprinkler system.
B. Circulating closed-loop sprinkler system.
C. Combined dry pipe and pre-action sprinkler system.
D. Gridded sprinkler system.
E. Looped sprinkler system.
F. Multicycle sprinkler system.
A. Anti-freeze sprinkler system.
333
Traditionally, the fire service has recognized for basic types of automatic sprinkler systems as defined in NFPA 13. Advances in sprinkler system design and technology, as well as ever-increasing types of hazards, have led to the addition of six more types of systems. A _____ is a wet-pipe system that uses the sprinkler system to circulate water for non-fire protection building services such as heating or cooling. It is a closed system in which water is not removed from the system unless the sprinklers are activated.
A. Anti-freeze sprinkler system.
B. Circulating closed-loop sprinkler system.
C. Combined dry pipe and pre-action sprinkler system.
D. Gridded sprinkler system.
E. Looped sprinkler system.
F. Multicycle sprinkler system.
B. Circulating closed-loop sprinkler system.
334
Traditionally, the fire service has recognized for basic types of automatic sprinkler systems as defined in NFPA 13. Advances in sprinkler system design and technology, as well as ever-increasing types of hazards, have led to the addition of six more types of systems. A _____ is a system that is continually charged with air under pressure combined with a detection system that controls the operation of the water-flow control valve. The detection system activates the water flow control valve, the release of the pressurized air in the system, and the faculty fire alarm. When the system is charged with water, activation of the individual sprinklers will discharge water. This system is rare and only installed on large wharves where large stockpiles of materials are found.
A. Anti-freeze sprinkler system.
B. Circulating closed-loop sprinkler system.
C. Combined dry pipe and pre-action sprinkler system.
D. Gridded sprinkler system.
E. Looped sprinkler system.
F. Multicycle sprinkler system.
C. Combined dry pipe and pre-action sprinkler system.
335
Traditionally, the fire service has recognized for basic types of automatic sprinkler systems as defined in NFPA 13. Advances in sprinkler system design and technology, as well as ever-increasing types of hazards, have led to the addition of six more types of systems. A _____ is a system of parallel cross mains connected together by multiple branch lines. Any activated sprinklers will receive water from both mains. This type of system has the advantage of water flow to the sprinklers from multiple directions.
A. Anti-freeze sprinkler system.
B. Circulating closed-loop sprinkler system.
C. Combined dry pipe and pre-action sprinkler system.
D. Gridded sprinkler system.
E. Looped sprinkler system.
F. Multicycle sprinkler system.
D. Gridded sprinkler system.
336
Traditionally, the fire service has recognized for basic types of automatic sprinkler systems as defined in NFPA 13. Advances in sprinkler system design and technology, as well as ever-increasing types of hazards, have led to the addition of six more types of systems. A _____ is a system of interconnected cross mains that provide multiple routes for water to reach any point in the system. The branch lines are NOT interconnected. This system is a common design because of the advantage of water flow from multiple directions.
A. Anti-freeze sprinkler system.
B. Circulating closed-loop sprinkler system.
C. Combined dry pipe and pre-action sprinkler system.
D. Gridded sprinkler system.
E. Looped sprinkler system.
F. Multicycle sprinkler system.
E. Looped sprinkler system.
337
The sprinkler is the actual discharge device that applies water (or foam) to a fire or other hazard. Sprinklers are basically small fog-type nozzles that emit water in the form of small droplets over a given area. NFPA 13 lists 12 types of sprinklers. The sprinkler described as: "Designed for use in general types of occupancies; replaced the older style or conventional sprinklers; may be designed for use as upright (SSU) or pendant (SSP); take longer to activate than RES, QREC, QRES, or ESFR sprinklers" is known as:
```
A. Standard spray (SS).
B. Quick response early suppression (QRES).
C. Residential (RES).
D. Early-suppression fast-response (ESFR).
E. Extended coverage (EC).
F. Large drop.
G. Old style or conventional.
H. Open.
I. Quick-response extended coverage (QREC).
J. Special.
K. Specific application control mode.
L. Nozzle.
```
A. Standard spray (SS). *
338
The sprinkler is the actual discharge device that applies water (or foam) to a fire or other hazard. Sprinklers are basically small fog-type nozzles that emit water in the form of small droplets over a given area. NFPA 13 lists 12 types of sprinklers. The sprinkler described as: "Designed to cover and area 20 feet x 20 feet" is known as:
```
A. Standard spray (SS).
B. Quick response early suppression (QRES).
C. Residential (RES).
D. Early-suppression fast-response (ESFR).
E. Extended coverage (EC).
F. Large drop.
G. Old style or conventional.
H. Open.
I. Quick-response extended coverage (QREC).
J. Special.
K. Specific application control mode.
L. Nozzle.
```
E. Extended coverage (EC).
339
The sprinkler is the actual discharge device that applies water (or foam) to a fire or other hazard. Sprinklers are basically small fog-type nozzles that emit water in the form of small droplets over a given area. NFPA 13 lists 12 types of sprinklers. The sprinkler described as: "Designed and listed to produce large water droplets; intended for specific high-challenge hazards" is known as:
```
A. Standard spray (SS).
B. Quick response early suppression (QRES).
C. Residential (RES).
D. Early-suppression fast-response (ESFR).
E. Extended coverage (EC).
F. Large drop.
G. Old style or conventional.
H. Open.
I. Quick-response extended coverage (QREC).
J. Special.
K. Specific application control mode.
L. Nozzle.
```
F. Large drop.
340
The sprinkler is the actual discharge device that applies water (or foam) to a fire or other hazard. Sprinklers are basically small fog-type nozzles that emit water in the form of small droplets over a given area. NFPA 13 lists 12 types of sprinklers. The sprinkler described as: "Designed with an open orifice and no thermal or heat-responsive element or plug" is known as:
```
A. Standard spray (SS).
B. Quick response early suppression (QRES).
C. Residential (RES).
D. Early-suppression fast-response (ESFR).
E. Extended coverage (EC).
F. Large drop.
G. Old style or conventional.
H. Open.
I. Quick-response extended coverage (QREC).
J. Special.
K. Specific application control mode.
L. Nozzle.
```
H. Open.
341
The sprinkler is the actual discharge device that applies water (or foam) to a fire or other hazard. Sprinklers are basically small fog-type nozzles that emit water in the form of small droplets over a given area. NFPA 13 lists 12 types of sprinklers. The sprinkler described as: "Designed to suppress fires in high-challenge hazards such as warehouses; developed as a result of the research into residential-type sprinklers that must react rapidly to protect life in the room of origin" is known as:
```
A. Standard spray (SS).
B. Quick response early suppression (QRES).
C. Residential (RES).
D. Early-suppression fast-response (ESFR).
E. Extended coverage (EC).
F. Large drop.
G. Old style or conventional.
H. Open.
I. Quick-response extended coverage (QREC).
J. Special.
K. Specific application control mode.
L. Nozzle.
```
D. Early-suppression fast-response (ESFR).
342
The sprinkler is the actual discharge device that applies water (or foam) to a fire or other hazard. Sprinklers are basically small fog-type nozzles that emit water in the form of small droplets over a given area. NFPA 13 lists 12 types of sprinklers. The sprinkler described as: "Designed to provide increased life safety in hotels, motels, and similar residential occupancies; similar to residential sprinklers but intended for use in accordance with NFPA 13D" is known as:
```
A. Standard spray (SS).
B. Quick response early suppression (QRES).
C. Residential (RES).
D. Early-suppression fast-response (ESFR).
E. Extended coverage (EC).
F. Large drop.
G. Old style or conventional.
H. Open.
I. Quick-response extended coverage (QREC).
J. Special.
K. Specific application control mode.
L. Nozzle.
```
B. Quick response early suppression (QRES).
343
The sprinkler is the actual discharge device that applies water (or foam) to a fire or other hazard. Sprinklers are basically small fog-type nozzles that emit water in the form of small droplets over a given area. NFPA 13 lists 12 types of sprinklers. The sprinkler described as: "Designed to provide increased life safety in hotels, motels, and similar residential occupancies; have a larger area of coverage than QRES sprinklers" is known as:
```
A. Standard spray (SS).
B. Quick response early suppression (QRES).
C. Residential (RES).
D. Early-suppression fast-response (ESFR).
E. Extended coverage (EC).
F. Large drop.
G. Old style or conventional.
H. Open.
I. Quick-response extended coverage (QREC).
J. Special.
K. Specific application control mode.
L. Nozzle.
```
I. Quick-response extended coverage (QREC).
344
The sprinkler is the actual discharge device that applies water (or foam) to a fire or other hazard. Sprinklers are basically small fog-type nozzles that emit water in the form of small droplets over a given area. NFPA 13 lists 12 types of sprinklers. The sprinkler described as: "Designed and listed to protect special hazards" is known as:
```
A. Standard spray (SS).
B. Quick response early suppression (QRES).
C. Residential (RES).
D. Early-suppression fast-response (ESFR).
E. Extended coverage (EC).
F. Large drop.
G. Old style or conventional.
H. Open.
I. Quick-response extended coverage (QREC).
J. Special.
K. Specific application control mode.
L. Nozzle.
```
J. Special.
345
The sprinkler is the actual discharge device that applies water (or foam) to a fire or other hazard. Sprinklers are basically small fog-type nozzles that emit water in the form of small droplets over a given area. NFPA 13 lists 12 types of sprinklers. The sprinkler described as: "Designed for use in storage areas under minimum operating pressure for a specific number of sprinklers" is known as:
```
A. Standard spray (SS).
B. Quick response early suppression (QRES).
C. Residential (RES).
D. Early-suppression fast-response (ESFR).
E. Extended coverage (EC).
F. Large drop.
G. Old style or conventional.
H. Open.
I. Quick-response extended coverage (QREC).
J. Special.
K. Specific application control mode.
L. Nozzle.
```
K. Specific application control mode.
346
The sprinkler is the actual discharge device that applies water (or foam) to a fire or other hazard. Sprinklers are basically small fog-type nozzles that emit water in the form of small droplets over a given area. NFPA 13 lists 12 types of sprinklers. The sprinkler described as: "Designed for use in situations that require a special water discharge pattern, directional spray, or any other unusual discharge characteristics; similar to the type used in water spray fixed systems" is known as:
```
A. Standard spray (SS).
B. Quick response early suppression (QRES).
C. Residential (RES).
D. Early-suppression fast-response (ESFR).
E. Extended coverage (EC).
F. Large drop.
G. Old style or conventional.
H. Open.
I. Quick-response extended coverage (QREC).
J. Special.
K. Specific application control mode.
L. Nozzle.
```
L. Nozzle.
347
Fire is controlled and extinguished by limiting or interrupting one or more of the central elements in the combustion process. An example of _____ are fires involving pesticides or flammable liquid spills that may create greater environmental harm if they are extinguished with water, creating substantial contaminated runoff. The best solution maybe to allow the fire to burn, minimizing groundwater pollution.
A. Temperature reduction.
B. Oxygen exclusion.
C. Fuel removal.
D. Chemical chain reaction inhibition.
C. Fuel removal.
348
There are number of different materials used in building construction. _____ is formed into permanent shapes in the manufacturing process and is not subject to softening when reheated.
A. Steel.
B. Aluminum.
C. Thermoplastics.
D. Thermosetting plastic.
D. Thermosetting plastic.
349
The means of egress system consists of three basic elements: exit access, exit, and exit discharge. In order to fulfill their intended function during an emergency, each of the three elements must be free from obstructions at all times. An example of an exit access is:
A. Doors at ground level that lead directly to the outside of the building.
B. Exit passageway to the outside.
C. Unenclosed ramp or stairs.
D. Privately owned driveway or alley that connects the exit to a public way.
C. Unenclosed ramp or stairs.
350
Ramps became common elements in many occupancies in the US with the adoption of the Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) in 1990. Each model code addresses the requirements for ramps in a similar manner. New ramps must be at least _____ wide with a maximum slope of 1 to 12 (1 foot rise for every 12 feet of horizontal distance).
A. 36 inches.
B. 42 inches.
C. 44 inches.
D. 48 inches.
C. 44 inches.
351
Inspection personnel and building officials must be familiar with the requirements for the minimum number of exits in the buildings they inspect. In most cases, all of the codes require that there be three exits from any balcony, mezzanine, story, or portion thereof that has an occupant load of:
A. Less than 100.
B. 100 to 500.
C. 500 to 1000.
D. 1000 to 1500.
```
C. 500 to 1000. (3 exits required)
________________________________
•500 or less = 2 exits required
•500 to 1000 = 3 exits required
•1000 or more = 4 or more exits
```
352
Each of the model codes establishes the maximum allowable travel distance to the nearest exit and limits the length of dead-end corridors. A dead-end corridor is a condition that exists when a corridor has no outlet to a means of egress and is more than _____ in length.
A. 20 feet.
B. 18 feet.
C. 16 feet.
D. 14 feet.
A. 20 feet.
353
The water distribution system consists of a network of pipes, storage tanks, control valves, and hydrants throughout the community or service area that carry the water under pressure to the point of use. A water distribution system consists of three types of water mains loosely referred to as primary feeders, secondary feeders, and distributors. Secondary feeders are intermediate pipes that interconnect with the primary feeder lines to create a grid. They are _____ in diameter. Each secondary feeder can be isolated by control valves.
A. 16 inches or greater.
B. 12 to 14 inches.
C. 9 to 11 inches.
D. 6 to 8 inches.
```
B. 12 to 14 inches. (Secondary feeders)
________________________________
A. 16 inches or greater. (Primary feeders)
C. 9 to 11 inches. (N/A)
D. 6 to 8 inches. (Distributors)
```
354
Control valves are located throughout the water distribution system. Control valves space is usually planned so that if it is necessary to close a valve, a minimum length of the water distribution system will be out of service. The maximum length for valve spacing should be _____ in high-value districts as recommended by commercial risk services, Inc., a subsidiary of the insurance services office.
A. 1000 feet.
B. 800 feet.
C. 500 feet.
D. 300 feet.
C. 500 feet.
________________________________
•500 feet and high-value districts and 800 feet in other areas.
355
Traditionally, the fire service has recognized for basic types of automatic sprinkler systems as defined in NFPA 13. Advances in sprinkler system design and technology, as well as ever-increasing types of hazards, have led to the addition of six more types of systems. A _____ is a system that is designed to operate repeatedly in response to a detection device. The system turns on and off based on the demand indicated by the detection device.
A. Anti-freeze sprinkler system.
B. Circulating closed-loop sprinkler system.
C. Combined dry pipe and pre-action sprinkler system.
D. Gridded sprinkler system.
E. Looped sprinkler system.
F. Multicycle sprinkler system.
F. Multicycle sprinkler system.
356
Traditionally, the fire service has recognized for basic types of automatic sprinkler systems as defined in NFPA 13. Advances in sprinkler system design and technology, as well as ever-increasing types of hazards, have led to the addition of six more types of systems. A/an _____ is a wet-pipe system that is continually charged with a "_____" solution. When the system is activated, the solution is discharged, activating the water-flow valve and allowing water to flow to the open sprinkler(s). This system requires additional maintenance; the solution must be changed once a year.
A. Anti-freeze sprinkler system.
B. Circulating closed-loop sprinkler system.
C. Combined dry pipe and pre-action sprinkler system.
D. Gridded sprinkler system.
E. Looped sprinkler system.
F. Multicycle sprinkler system.
A. Anti-freeze sprinkler system.
357
Traditionally, the fire service has recognized for basic types of automatic sprinkler systems as defined in NFPA 13. Advances in sprinkler system design and technology, as well as ever-increasing types of hazards, have led to the addition of six more types of systems. A _____ is a wet-pipe system that uses the sprinkler system to circulate water for non-fire protection building services such as heating or cooling. It is a closed system in which water is not removed from the system unless the sprinklers are activated.
A. Anti-freeze sprinkler system.
B. Circulating closed-loop sprinkler system.
C. Combined dry pipe and pre-action sprinkler system.
D. Gridded sprinkler system.
E. Looped sprinkler system.
F. Multicycle sprinkler system.
B. Circulating closed-loop sprinkler system.
358
Traditionally, the fire service has recognized for basic types of automatic sprinkler systems as defined in NFPA 13. Advances in sprinkler system design and technology, as well as ever-increasing types of hazards, have led to the addition of six more types of systems. A _____ is a system that is continually charged with air under pressure combined with a detection system that controls the operation of the water-flow control valve. The detection system activates the water flow control valve, the release of the pressurized air in the system, and the faculty fire alarm. When the system is charged with water, activation of the individual sprinklers will discharge water. This system is rare and only installed on large wharves where large stockpiles of materials are found.
A. Anti-freeze sprinkler system.
B. Circulating closed-loop sprinkler system.
C. Combined dry pipe and pre-action sprinkler system.
D. Gridded sprinkler system.
E. Looped sprinkler system.
F. Multicycle sprinkler system.
C. Combined dry pipe and pre-action sprinkler system.
359
Traditionally, the fire service has recognized for basic types of automatic sprinkler systems as defined in NFPA 13. Advances in sprinkler system design and technology, as well as ever-increasing types of hazards, have led to the addition of six more types of systems. A _____ is a system of parallel cross mains connected together by multiple branch lines. Any activated sprinklers will receive water from both mains. This type of system has the advantage of water flow to the sprinklers from multiple directions.
A. Anti-freeze sprinkler system.
B. Circulating closed-loop sprinkler system.
C. Combined dry pipe and pre-action sprinkler system.
D. Gridded sprinkler system.
E. Looped sprinkler system.
F. Multicycle sprinkler system.
D. Gridded sprinkler system.
360
Traditionally, the fire service has recognized for basic types of automatic sprinkler systems as defined in NFPA 13. Advances in sprinkler system design and technology, as well as ever-increasing types of hazards, have led to the addition of six more types of systems. A _____ is a system of interconnected cross mains that provide multiple routes for water to reach any point in the system. The branch lines are NOT interconnected. This system is a common design because of the advantage of water flow from multiple directions.
A. Anti-freeze sprinkler system.
B. Circulating closed-loop sprinkler system.
C. Combined dry pipe and pre-action sprinkler system.
D. Gridded sprinkler system.
E. Looped sprinkler system.
F. Multicycle sprinkler system.
E. Looped sprinkler system.
361
The sprinkler is the actual discharge device that applies water (or foam) to a fire or other hazard. Sprinklers are basically small fog-type nozzles that emit water in the form of small droplets over a given area. NFPA 13 lists 12 types of sprinklers. The sprinkler described as: "Designed for use in general types of occupancies; replaced the older style or conventional sprinklers; may be designed for use as upright (SSU) or pendant (SSP); take longer to activate than RES, QREC, QRES, or ESFR sprinklers" is known as:
```
A. Standard spray (SS).
B. Quick response early suppression (QRES).
C. Residential (RES).
D. Early-suppression fast-response (ESFR).
E. Extended coverage (EC).
F. Large drop.
G. Old style or conventional.
H. Open.
I. Quick-response extended coverage (QREC).
J. Special.
K. Specific application control mode.
L. Nozzle.
```
A. Standard spray (SS). *
362
The sprinkler is the actual discharge device that applies water (or foam) to a fire or other hazard. Sprinklers are basically small fog-type nozzles that emit water in the form of small droplets over a given area. NFPA 13 lists 12 types of sprinklers. The sprinkler described as: "Designed to cover and area 20 feet x 20 feet" is known as:
```
A. Standard spray (SS).
B. Quick response early suppression (QRES).
C. Residential (RES).
D. Early-suppression fast-response (ESFR).
E. Extended coverage (EC).
F. Large drop.
G. Old style or conventional.
H. Open.
I. Quick-response extended coverage (QREC).
J. Special.
K. Specific application control mode.
L. Nozzle.
```
E. Extended coverage (EC).
363
The sprinkler is the actual discharge device that applies water (or foam) to a fire or other hazard. Sprinklers are basically small fog-type nozzles that emit water in the form of small droplets over a given area. NFPA 13 lists 12 types of sprinklers. The sprinkler described as: "Designed and listed to produce large water droplets; intended for specific high-challenge hazards" is known as:
```
A. Standard spray (SS).
B. Quick response early suppression (QRES).
C. Residential (RES).
D. Early-suppression fast-response (ESFR).
E. Extended coverage (EC).
F. Large drop.
G. Old style or conventional.
H. Open.
I. Quick-response extended coverage (QREC).
J. Special.
K. Specific application control mode.
L. Nozzle.
```
F. Large drop.
364
The sprinkler is the actual discharge device that applies water (or foam) to a fire or other hazard. Sprinklers are basically small fog-type nozzles that emit water in the form of small droplets over a given area. NFPA 13 lists 12 types of sprinklers. The sprinkler described as: "Designed with an open orifice and no thermal or heat-responsive element or plug" is known as:
```
A. Standard spray (SS).
B. Quick response early suppression (QRES).
C. Residential (RES).
D. Early-suppression fast-response (ESFR).
E. Extended coverage (EC).
F. Large drop.
G. Old style or conventional.
H. Open.
I. Quick-response extended coverage (QREC).
J. Special.
K. Specific application control mode.
L. Nozzle.
```
H. Open.
365
The sprinkler is the actual discharge device that applies water (or foam) to a fire or other hazard. Sprinklers are basically small fog-type nozzles that emit water in the form of small droplets over a given area. NFPA 13 lists 12 types of sprinklers. The sprinkler described as: "Designed to suppress fires in high-challenge hazards such as warehouses; developed as a result of the research into residential-type sprinklers that must react rapidly to protect life in the room of origin" is known as:
```
A. Standard spray (SS).
B. Quick response early suppression (QRES).
C. Residential (RES).
D. Early-suppression fast-response (ESFR).
E. Extended coverage (EC).
F. Large drop.
G. Old style or conventional.
H. Open.
I. Quick-response extended coverage (QREC).
J. Special.
K. Specific application control mode.
L. Nozzle.
```
D. Early-suppression fast-response (ESFR).
366
The sprinkler is the actual discharge device that applies water (or foam) to a fire or other hazard. Sprinklers are basically small fog-type nozzles that emit water in the form of small droplets over a given area. NFPA 13 lists 12 types of sprinklers. The sprinkler described as: "Designed to provide increased life safety in hotels, motels, and similar residential occupancies; similar to residential sprinklers but intended for use in accordance with NFPA 13D" is known as:
```
A. Standard spray (SS).
B. Quick response early suppression (QRES).
C. Residential (RES).
D. Early-suppression fast-response (ESFR).
E. Extended coverage (EC).
F. Large drop.
G. Old style or conventional.
H. Open.
I. Quick-response extended coverage (QREC).
J. Special.
K. Specific application control mode.
L. Nozzle.
```
B. Quick response early suppression (QRES).
367
The sprinkler is the actual discharge device that applies water (or foam) to a fire or other hazard. Sprinklers are basically small fog-type nozzles that emit water in the form of small droplets over a given area. NFPA 13 lists 12 types of sprinklers. The sprinkler described as: "Designed to provide increased life safety in hotels, motels, and similar residential occupancies; have a larger area of coverage than QRES sprinklers" is known as:
```
A. Standard spray (SS).
B. Quick response early suppression (QRES).
C. Residential (RES).
D. Early-suppression fast-response (ESFR).
E. Extended coverage (EC).
F. Large drop.
G. Old style or conventional.
H. Open.
I. Quick-response extended coverage (QREC).
J. Special.
K. Specific application control mode.
L. Nozzle.
```
I. Quick-response extended coverage (QREC).
368
The sprinkler is the actual discharge device that applies water (or foam) to a fire or other hazard. Sprinklers are basically small fog-type nozzles that emit water in the form of small droplets over a given area. NFPA 13 lists 12 types of sprinklers. The sprinkler described as: "Designed and listed to protect special hazards" is known as:
```
A. Standard spray (SS).
B. Quick response early suppression (QRES).
C. Residential (RES).
D. Early-suppression fast-response (ESFR).
E. Extended coverage (EC).
F. Large drop.
G. Old style or conventional.
H. Open.
I. Quick-response extended coverage (QREC).
J. Special.
K. Specific application control mode.
L. Nozzle.
```
J. Special.
369
The sprinkler is the actual discharge device that applies water (or foam) to a fire or other hazard. Sprinklers are basically small fog-type nozzles that emit water in the form of small droplets over a given area. NFPA 13 lists 12 types of sprinklers. The sprinkler described as: "Designed for use in storage areas under minimum operating pressure for a specific number of sprinklers" is known as:
```
A. Standard spray (SS).
B. Quick response early suppression (QRES).
C. Residential (RES).
D. Early-suppression fast-response (ESFR).
E. Extended coverage (EC).
F. Large drop.
G. Old style or conventional.
H. Open.
I. Quick-response extended coverage (QREC).
J. Special.
K. Specific application control mode.
L. Nozzle.
```
K. Specific application control mode.
370
The sprinkler is the actual discharge device that applies water (or foam) to a fire or other hazard. Sprinklers are basically small fog-type nozzles that emit water in the form of small droplets over a given area. NFPA 13 lists 12 types of sprinklers. The sprinkler described as: "Designed for use in situations that require a special water discharge pattern, directional spray, or any other unusual discharge characteristics; similar to the type used in water spray fixed systems" is known as:
```
A. Standard spray (SS).
B. Quick response early suppression (QRES).
C. Residential (RES).
D. Early-suppression fast-response (ESFR).
E. Extended coverage (EC).
F. Large drop.
G. Old style or conventional.
H. Open.
I. Quick-response extended coverage (QREC).
J. Special.
K. Specific application control mode.
L. Nozzle.
```
L. Nozzle.
371
The amount of water required for standpipe systems depend on the size and number of fire streams that are needed and the probable length of time the standpipe will be used. In a horizontal standpipe system that supplies three or more Class I or III hose stations, a minimum flow rate of _____ is required.
A. 100 GPM.
B. 500 GPM.
C. 750 GPM.
D. 950 GPM.
C. 750 GPM.
372
Where the discharge pressure at standpipe hose outlets exceeds 100 psi, NFPA 14 requires a pressure regulating device to limit the pressure to 100 psi, unless otherwise approved by the fire department. Pressure-restricting devices consist of a simple restricting orifice inserted into the waterway. They are limited to systems with 1 1/2 inch hose discharge and _____ maximum pressure. This device is not a preferred type because it does not control or reduce the water pressure in the system.
A. 200 psi.
B. 175 psi.
C. 150 psi.
D. 125 psi.
B. 175 psi.
373
Where the discharge pressure at standpipe hose outlets exceeds 100 psi, NFPA 14 requires a pressure regulating device to limit the pressure to 100 psi, unless otherwise approved by the fire department. _____ consist of a simple restricting orifice inserted into the waterway. They are limited to systems with 1 1/2 inch hose discharge and 175 psi maximum pressure. This device is not a preferred type because it does not control or reduce the water pressure in the system.
A. Pressure-restricting devices.
B. Pressure-control devices.
C. Pressure-reducing devices.
A. Pressure-restricting devices.
374
Where the discharge pressure at standpipe hose outlets exceeds 100 psi, NFPA 14 requires a pressure regulating device to limit the pressure to 100 psi, unless otherwise approved by the fire department. _____ preferred for managing excessive pressure and consider to be the most reliable method of pressure control because they use a pitot tube and gauge to read the pressure and automatically reduce the flow through the discharge. Some of the devices are field adjustable, and others are preset at the factory.
A. Pressure-restricting devices.
B. Pressure-control devices.
C. Pressure-reducing devices.
B. Pressure-control devices.
375
Where the discharge pressure at standpipe hose outlets exceeds 100 psi, NFPA 14 requires a pressure regulating device to limit the pressure to 100 psi, unless otherwise approved by the fire department. _____ preferred for managing excessive pressure; use a spring mechanism that compensates for variations in pressure. These mechanisms balance the available pressure within the system with the pressure required for hoseline used.
A. Pressure-restricting devices.
B. Pressure-control devices.
C. Pressure-reducing devices.
C. Pressure-reducing devices.
376
The most serious problem involving CO2 systems, especially total flooding systems, is personnel safety. Total flooding systems are designed to deliver at least a _____ concentration of CO2 into in a closed area, which means that once activated, CO2 will compose at least _____ of the atmosphere. Concentrations this high are lethal to humans.
A. 14%.
B. 24%.
C. 34%.
D. 44%.
C. 34%.
377
In the working environment of commercial kitchens, fire is always present. Employees in such areas are charged with the responsibility to maintain appropriate cooking temperatures to ensure safety. In areas where Class K fires are likely, the maximum travel distance from the hazard to the extinguisher is:
A. 20 feet.
B. 30 feet.
C. 50 feet.
D. 75 feet.
B. 30 feet.
378
Static electricity refers the presence of a non-flowing electrical charge that may develop on almost any surface. Static electricity is hazardous if a charge is present on the surface of a nonconductive material and does not immediately dissipate. A common condition that can generate a static discharge is:
A. Pulverized materials traveling through chutes or pneumatic transfer devices.
B. The generation of static electricity can be prevented.
C. Defective or improper electrical installations.
D. Large appliances or equipment cycling on and off.
A. Pulverized materials traveling through chutes or pneumatic transfer devices.
379
All personnel perform inspections must be familiar with HVAC equipment/systems. To effectively inspect the systems from a fire safety standpoint, inspectors must be able to recognize the various types and operating conditions of a variety of these systems. A _____ is described as: "Automatic controls are provided to turn off the device when the temperature within the ductwork or plenum reaches 250°F. Fire problems with _____ are principally due to inadequate clearances, lack of proper limit controls, heat exchanger burnouts, improper installations, or improper maintenance procedures".
A. Fire-tube boilers.
B. Water-tube boilers.
C. Unit heaters.
D. Warm air furnaces.
D. Warm air furnaces.
380
Quenching is the immersion of a metal part in a quench medium and is divided into batch operations and continuous operations. For "heated" quenching operations, temperatures range from 200 to 400°F. The normal flashpoint of various mediums for heated quenching is 500°F. A quenching oil should never be allowed to be within _____ of its flashpoint.
A. 25°F.
B. 50°F.
C. 75°F.
D. 100°F.
B. 50°F.
381
Quenching is the immersion of a metal part in a quench medium and is divided into batch operations and continuous operations. For "unheated" quenching Is using temperatures from 100° to 200°F. The quenching medium used for unheated quenching normally has a flash point of _____ .
A. 250°F.
B. 300°F.
C. 350°F.
D. 400°F.
B. 300°F.
382
Standpipe and hose systems are designed to provide a means for rapidly deploying firehoses and operating fire streams on all levels of multistory structures and at remote points in large area structures and facilities. In addition to the three classes of Standpipe and hose systems, there are five additional types of standpipe system listed in NFPA 14. _____ is described as: "Contains water in the system, the water supply control valve is open, and pressure is maintained in the system at all times. When the hose valve is opened, water is immediately available".
```
A. Automatic-wet.
B. Automatic-dry.
C. Semiautomatic-dry.
D. Manual-dry.
E. Manual-wet.
```
A. Automatic-wet.
383
In addition to the three classes of Standpipe and hose systems, there are five additional types of standpipe system listed in NFPA 14. _____ is described as: "Contains air under pressure. Water is admitted to the system by the operation of a valve controlled by an electrical switch or other device located at each hose station. Water is not available at the hose station until the water supply control valve is opened by the control device."
```
A. Automatic-wet.
B. Automatic-dry.
C. Semiautomatic-dry.
D. Manual-dry.
E. Manual-wet.
```
B. Automatic-dry.
384
In addition to the three classes of Standpipe and hose systems, there are five additional types of standpipe system listed in NFPA 14. _____ is described as: "Contains unpressurized air in the system and and admits water to the system automatically through the use of a dry-pipe valve when a hose valve is opened."
```
A. Automatic-wet.
B. Automatic-dry.
C. Semiautomatic-dry.
D. Manual-dry.
E. Manual-wet.
```
C. Semiautomatic-dry.
385
In addition to the three classes of Standpipe and hose systems, there are five additional types of standpipe system listed in NFPA 14. _____ is described as: "Contains unpressurized air in pipes and has no permanent water supply; water must be supplied totally from the FDC."
```
A. Automatic-wet.
B. Automatic-dry.
C. Semiautomatic-dry.
D. Manual-dry.
E. Manual-wet.
```
D. Manual-dry.
386
In addition to the three classes of Standpipe and hose systems, there are five additional types of standpipe system listed in NFPA 14. _____ is described as: "Maintains water from a domestic fill connection in the piping for the purpose of detecting leaks on the system. However, no permanently connected water source is attached to the system, and water must be provided by the fire department through the FDC."
```
A. Automatic-wet.
B. Automatic-dry.
C. Semiautomatic-dry.
D. Manual-dry.
E. Manual-wet.
```
E. Manual-wet.
387
Fire is controlled and extinguished by limiting or interrupting one or more of the central elements in the combustion process. An example of _____ are fires involving pesticides or flammable liquid spills that may create greater environmental harm if they are extinguished with water, creating substantial contaminated runoff. The best solution maybe to allow the fire to burn, minimizing groundwater pollution.
A. Temperature reduction.
B. Oxygen exclusion.
C. Fuel removal.
D. Chemical chain reaction inhibition.
C. Fuel removal.
388
There are number of different materials used in building construction. _____ is formed into permanent shapes in the manufacturing process and is not subject to softening when reheated.
A. Steel.
B. Aluminum.
C. Thermoplastics.
D. Thermosetting plastic.
D. Thermosetting plastic.
389
The means of egress system consists of three basic elements: exit access, exit, and exit discharge. In order to fulfill their intended function during an emergency, each of the three elements must be free from obstructions at all times. An example of an exit access is:
A. Doors at ground level that lead directly to the outside of the building.
B. Exit passageway to the outside.
C. Unenclosed ramp or stairs.
D. Privately owned driveway or alley that connects the exit to a public way.
C. Unenclosed ramp or stairs.
390
Ramps became common elements in many occupancies in the US with the adoption of the Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) in 1990. Each model code addresses the requirements for ramps in a similar manner. New ramps must be at least _____ wide with a maximum slope of 1 to 12 (1 foot rise for every 12 feet of horizontal distance).
A. 36 inches.
B. 42 inches.
C. 44 inches.
D. 48 inches.
C. 44 inches.
391
Inspection personnel and building officials must be familiar with the requirements for the minimum number of exits in the buildings they inspect. In most cases, all of the codes require that there be three exits from any balcony, mezzanine, story, or portion thereof that has an occupant load of:
A. Less than 100.
B. 100 to 500.
C. 500 to 1000.
D. 1000 to 1500.
```
C. 500 to 1000. (3 exits required)
________________________________
•500 or less = 2 exits required
•500 to 1000 = 3 exits required
•1000 or more = 4 or more exits
```
392
Each of the model codes establishes the maximum allowable travel distance to the nearest exit and limits the length of dead-end corridors. A dead-end corridor is a condition that exists when a corridor has no outlet to a means of egress and is more than _____ in length.
A. 20 feet.
B. 18 feet.
C. 16 feet.
D. 14 feet.
A. 20 feet.
393
The water distribution system consists of a network of pipes, storage tanks, control valves, and hydrants throughout the community or service area that carry the water under pressure to the point of use. A water distribution system consists of three types of water mains loosely referred to as primary feeders, secondary feeders, and distributors. Secondary feeders are intermediate pipes that interconnect with the primary feeder lines to create a grid. They are _____ in diameter. Each secondary feeder can be isolated by control valves.
A. 16 inches or greater.
B. 12 to 14 inches.
C. 9 to 11 inches.
D. 6 to 8 inches.
```
B. 12 to 14 inches. (Secondary feeders)
________________________________
A. 16 inches or greater. (Primary feeders)
C. 9 to 11 inches. (N/A)
D. 6 to 8 inches. (Distributors)
```
394
Control valves are located throughout the water distribution system. Control valves space is usually planned so that if it is necessary to close a valve, a minimum length of the water distribution system will be out of service. The maximum length for valve spacing should be _____ in high-value districts as recommended by commercial risk services, Inc., a subsidiary of the insurance services office.
A. 1000 feet.
B. 800 feet.
C. 500 feet.
D. 300 feet.
C. 500 feet.
________________________________
•500 feet and high-value districts and 800 feet in other areas.
395
Traditionally, the fire service has recognized for basic types of automatic sprinkler systems as defined in NFPA 13. Advances in sprinkler system design and technology, as well as ever-increasing types of hazards, have led to the addition of six more types of systems. A _____ is a system that is designed to operate repeatedly in response to a detection device. The system turns on and off based on the demand indicated by the detection device.
A. Anti-freeze sprinkler system.
B. Circulating closed-loop sprinkler system.
C. Combined dry pipe and pre-action sprinkler system.
D. Gridded sprinkler system.
E. Looped sprinkler system.
F. Multicycle sprinkler system.
F. Multicycle sprinkler system.
396
Traditionally, the fire service has recognized for basic types of automatic sprinkler systems as defined in NFPA 13. Advances in sprinkler system design and technology, as well as ever-increasing types of hazards, have led to the addition of six more types of systems. A/an _____ is a wet-pipe system that is continually charged with a "_____" solution. When the system is activated, the solution is discharged, activating the water-flow valve and allowing water to flow to the open sprinkler(s). This system requires additional maintenance; the solution must be changed once a year.
A. Anti-freeze sprinkler system.
B. Circulating closed-loop sprinkler system.
C. Combined dry pipe and pre-action sprinkler system.
D. Gridded sprinkler system.
E. Looped sprinkler system.
F. Multicycle sprinkler system.
A. Anti-freeze sprinkler system.
397
Traditionally, the fire service has recognized for basic types of automatic sprinkler systems as defined in NFPA 13. Advances in sprinkler system design and technology, as well as ever-increasing types of hazards, have led to the addition of six more types of systems. A _____ is a wet-pipe system that uses the sprinkler system to circulate water for non-fire protection building services such as heating or cooling. It is a closed system in which water is not removed from the system unless the sprinklers are activated.
A. Anti-freeze sprinkler system.
B. Circulating closed-loop sprinkler system.
C. Combined dry pipe and pre-action sprinkler system.
D. Gridded sprinkler system.
E. Looped sprinkler system.
F. Multicycle sprinkler system.
B. Circulating closed-loop sprinkler system.
398
Traditionally, the fire service has recognized for basic types of automatic sprinkler systems as defined in NFPA 13. Advances in sprinkler system design and technology, as well as ever-increasing types of hazards, have led to the addition of six more types of systems. A _____ is a system that is continually charged with air under pressure combined with a detection system that controls the operation of the water-flow control valve. The detection system activates the water flow control valve, the release of the pressurized air in the system, and the faculty fire alarm. When the system is charged with water, activation of the individual sprinklers will discharge water. This system is rare and only installed on large wharves where large stockpiles of materials are found.
A. Anti-freeze sprinkler system.
B. Circulating closed-loop sprinkler system.
C. Combined dry pipe and pre-action sprinkler system.
D. Gridded sprinkler system.
E. Looped sprinkler system.
F. Multicycle sprinkler system.
C. Combined dry pipe and pre-action sprinkler system.
399
Traditionally, the fire service has recognized for basic types of automatic sprinkler systems as defined in NFPA 13. Advances in sprinkler system design and technology, as well as ever-increasing types of hazards, have led to the addition of six more types of systems. A _____ is a system of parallel cross mains connected together by multiple branch lines. Any activated sprinklers will receive water from both mains. This type of system has the advantage of water flow to the sprinklers from multiple directions.
A. Anti-freeze sprinkler system.
B. Circulating closed-loop sprinkler system.
C. Combined dry pipe and pre-action sprinkler system.
D. Gridded sprinkler system.
E. Looped sprinkler system.
F. Multicycle sprinkler system.
D. Gridded sprinkler system.
400
Traditionally, the fire service has recognized for basic types of automatic sprinkler systems as defined in NFPA 13. Advances in sprinkler system design and technology, as well as ever-increasing types of hazards, have led to the addition of six more types of systems. A _____ is a system of interconnected cross mains that provide multiple routes for water to reach any point in the system. The branch lines are NOT interconnected. This system is a common design because of the advantage of water flow from multiple directions.
A. Anti-freeze sprinkler system.
B. Circulating closed-loop sprinkler system.
C. Combined dry pipe and pre-action sprinkler system.
D. Gridded sprinkler system.
E. Looped sprinkler system.
F. Multicycle sprinkler system.
E. Looped sprinkler system.
401
The sprinkler is the actual discharge device that applies water (or foam) to a fire or other hazard. Sprinklers are basically small fog-type nozzles that emit water in the form of small droplets over a given area. NFPA 13 lists 12 types of sprinklers. The sprinkler described as: "Designed for use in general types of occupancies; replaced the older style or conventional sprinklers; may be designed for use as upright (SSU) or pendant (SSP); take longer to activate than RES, QREC, QRES, or ESFR sprinklers" is known as:
```
A. Standard spray (SS).
B. Quick response early suppression (QRES).
C. Residential (RES).
D. Early-suppression fast-response (ESFR).
E. Extended coverage (EC).
F. Large drop.
G. Old style or conventional.
H. Open.
I. Quick-response extended coverage (QREC).
J. Special.
K. Specific application control mode.
L. Nozzle.
```
A. Standard spray (SS). *
402
The sprinkler is the actual discharge device that applies water (or foam) to a fire or other hazard. Sprinklers are basically small fog-type nozzles that emit water in the form of small droplets over a given area. NFPA 13 lists 12 types of sprinklers. The sprinkler described as: "Designed to cover and area 20 feet x 20 feet" is known as:
```
A. Standard spray (SS).
B. Quick response early suppression (QRES).
C. Residential (RES).
D. Early-suppression fast-response (ESFR).
E. Extended coverage (EC).
F. Large drop.
G. Old style or conventional.
H. Open.
I. Quick-response extended coverage (QREC).
J. Special.
K. Specific application control mode.
L. Nozzle.
```
E. Extended coverage (EC).
403
The sprinkler is the actual discharge device that applies water (or foam) to a fire or other hazard. Sprinklers are basically small fog-type nozzles that emit water in the form of small droplets over a given area. NFPA 13 lists 12 types of sprinklers. The sprinkler described as: "Designed and listed to produce large water droplets; intended for specific high-challenge hazards" is known as:
```
A. Standard spray (SS).
B. Quick response early suppression (QRES).
C. Residential (RES).
D. Early-suppression fast-response (ESFR).
E. Extended coverage (EC).
F. Large drop.
G. Old style or conventional.
H. Open.
I. Quick-response extended coverage (QREC).
J. Special.
K. Specific application control mode.
L. Nozzle.
```
F. Large drop.
404
The sprinkler is the actual discharge device that applies water (or foam) to a fire or other hazard. Sprinklers are basically small fog-type nozzles that emit water in the form of small droplets over a given area. NFPA 13 lists 12 types of sprinklers. The sprinkler described as: "Designed with an open orifice and no thermal or heat-responsive element or plug" is known as:
```
A. Standard spray (SS).
B. Quick response early suppression (QRES).
C. Residential (RES).
D. Early-suppression fast-response (ESFR).
E. Extended coverage (EC).
F. Large drop.
G. Old style or conventional.
H. Open.
I. Quick-response extended coverage (QREC).
J. Special.
K. Specific application control mode.
L. Nozzle.
```
H. Open.
405
The sprinkler is the actual discharge device that applies water (or foam) to a fire or other hazard. Sprinklers are basically small fog-type nozzles that emit water in the form of small droplets over a given area. NFPA 13 lists 12 types of sprinklers. The sprinkler described as: "Designed to suppress fires in high-challenge hazards such as warehouses; developed as a result of the research into residential-type sprinklers that must react rapidly to protect life in the room of origin" is known as:
```
A. Standard spray (SS).
B. Quick response early suppression (QRES).
C. Residential (RES).
D. Early-suppression fast-response (ESFR).
E. Extended coverage (EC).
F. Large drop.
G. Old style or conventional.
H. Open.
I. Quick-response extended coverage (QREC).
J. Special.
K. Specific application control mode.
L. Nozzle.
```
D. Early-suppression fast-response (ESFR).
406
The sprinkler is the actual discharge device that applies water (or foam) to a fire or other hazard. Sprinklers are basically small fog-type nozzles that emit water in the form of small droplets over a given area. NFPA 13 lists 12 types of sprinklers. The sprinkler described as: "Designed to provide increased life safety in hotels, motels, and similar residential occupancies; similar to residential sprinklers but intended for use in accordance with NFPA 13D" is known as:
```
A. Standard spray (SS).
B. Quick response early suppression (QRES).
C. Residential (RES).
D. Early-suppression fast-response (ESFR).
E. Extended coverage (EC).
F. Large drop.
G. Old style or conventional.
H. Open.
I. Quick-response extended coverage (QREC).
J. Special.
K. Specific application control mode.
L. Nozzle.
```
B. Quick response early suppression (QRES).
407
The sprinkler is the actual discharge device that applies water (or foam) to a fire or other hazard. Sprinklers are basically small fog-type nozzles that emit water in the form of small droplets over a given area. NFPA 13 lists 12 types of sprinklers. The sprinkler described as: "Designed to provide increased life safety in hotels, motels, and similar residential occupancies; have a larger area of coverage than QRES sprinklers" is known as:
```
A. Standard spray (SS).
B. Quick response early suppression (QRES).
C. Residential (RES).
D. Early-suppression fast-response (ESFR).
E. Extended coverage (EC).
F. Large drop.
G. Old style or conventional.
H. Open.
I. Quick-response extended coverage (QREC).
J. Special.
K. Specific application control mode.
L. Nozzle.
```
I. Quick-response extended coverage (QREC).
408
The sprinkler is the actual discharge device that applies water (or foam) to a fire or other hazard. Sprinklers are basically small fog-type nozzles that emit water in the form of small droplets over a given area. NFPA 13 lists 12 types of sprinklers. The sprinkler described as: "Designed and listed to protect special hazards" is known as:
```
A. Standard spray (SS).
B. Quick response early suppression (QRES).
C. Residential (RES).
D. Early-suppression fast-response (ESFR).
E. Extended coverage (EC).
F. Large drop.
G. Old style or conventional.
H. Open.
I. Quick-response extended coverage (QREC).
J. Special.
K. Specific application control mode.
L. Nozzle.
```
J. Special.
409
The sprinkler is the actual discharge device that applies water (or foam) to a fire or other hazard. Sprinklers are basically small fog-type nozzles that emit water in the form of small droplets over a given area. NFPA 13 lists 12 types of sprinklers. The sprinkler described as: "Designed for use in storage areas under minimum operating pressure for a specific number of sprinklers" is known as:
```
A. Standard spray (SS).
B. Quick response early suppression (QRES).
C. Residential (RES).
D. Early-suppression fast-response (ESFR).
E. Extended coverage (EC).
F. Large drop.
G. Old style or conventional.
H. Open.
I. Quick-response extended coverage (QREC).
J. Special.
K. Specific application control mode.
L. Nozzle.
```
K. Specific application control mode.
410
The sprinkler is the actual discharge device that applies water (or foam) to a fire or other hazard. Sprinklers are basically small fog-type nozzles that emit water in the form of small droplets over a given area. NFPA 13 lists 12 types of sprinklers. The sprinkler described as: "Designed for use in situations that require a special water discharge pattern, directional spray, or any other unusual discharge characteristics; similar to the type used in water spray fixed systems" is known as:
```
A. Standard spray (SS).
B. Quick response early suppression (QRES).
C. Residential (RES).
D. Early-suppression fast-response (ESFR).
E. Extended coverage (EC).
F. Large drop.
G. Old style or conventional.
H. Open.
I. Quick-response extended coverage (QREC).
J. Special.
K. Specific application control mode.
L. Nozzle.
```
L. Nozzle.
411
The amount of water required for standpipe systems depend on the size and number of fire streams that are needed and the probable length of time the standpipe will be used. In a horizontal standpipe system that supplies three or more Class I or III hose stations, a minimum flow rate of _____ is required.
A. 100 GPM.
B. 500 GPM.
C. 750 GPM.
D. 950 GPM.
C. 750 GPM.
412
Where the discharge pressure at standpipe hose outlets exceeds 100 psi, NFPA 14 requires a pressure regulating device to limit the pressure to 100 psi, unless otherwise approved by the fire department. Pressure-restricting devices consist of a simple restricting orifice inserted into the waterway. They are limited to systems with 1 1/2 inch hose discharge and _____ maximum pressure. This device is not a preferred type because it does not control or reduce the water pressure in the system.
A. 200 psi.
B. 175 psi.
C. 150 psi.
D. 125 psi.
B. 175 psi.
413
Where the discharge pressure at standpipe hose outlets exceeds 100 psi, NFPA 14 requires a pressure regulating device to limit the pressure to 100 psi, unless otherwise approved by the fire department. _____ consist of a simple restricting orifice inserted into the waterway. They are limited to systems with 1 1/2 inch hose discharge and 175 psi maximum pressure. This device is not a preferred type because it does not control or reduce the water pressure in the system.
A. Pressure-restricting devices.
B. Pressure-control devices.
C. Pressure-reducing devices.
A. Pressure-restricting devices.
414
Where the discharge pressure at standpipe hose outlets exceeds 100 psi, NFPA 14 requires a pressure regulating device to limit the pressure to 100 psi, unless otherwise approved by the fire department. _____ preferred for managing excessive pressure and consider to be the most reliable method of pressure control because they use a pitot tube and gauge to read the pressure and automatically reduce the flow through the discharge. Some of the devices are field adjustable, and others are preset at the factory.
A. Pressure-restricting devices.
B. Pressure-control devices.
C. Pressure-reducing devices.
B. Pressure-control devices.
415
Where the discharge pressure at standpipe hose outlets exceeds 100 psi, NFPA 14 requires a pressure regulating device to limit the pressure to 100 psi, unless otherwise approved by the fire department. _____ preferred for managing excessive pressure; use a spring mechanism that compensates for variations in pressure. These mechanisms balance the available pressure within the system with the pressure required for hoseline used.
A. Pressure-restricting devices.
B. Pressure-control devices.
C. Pressure-reducing devices.
C. Pressure-reducing devices.
416
The most serious problem involving CO2 systems, especially total flooding systems, is personnel safety. Total flooding systems are designed to deliver at least a _____ concentration of CO2 into in a closed area, which means that once activated, CO2 will compose at least _____ of the atmosphere. Concentrations this high are lethal to humans.
A. 14%.
B. 24%.
C. 34%.
D. 44%.
C. 34%.
417
In the working environment of commercial kitchens, fire is always present. Employees in such areas are charged with the responsibility to maintain appropriate cooking temperatures to ensure safety. In areas where Class K fires are likely, the maximum travel distance from the hazard to the extinguisher is:
A. 20 feet.
B. 30 feet.
C. 50 feet.
D. 75 feet.
B. 30 feet.
418
Static electricity refers the presence of a non-flowing electrical charge that may develop on almost any surface. Static electricity is hazardous if a charge is present on the surface of a nonconductive material and does not immediately dissipate. A common condition that can generate a static discharge is:
A. Pulverized materials traveling through chutes or pneumatic transfer devices.
B. The generation of static electricity can be prevented.
C. Defective or improper electrical installations.
D. Large appliances or equipment cycling on and off.
A. Pulverized materials traveling through chutes or pneumatic transfer devices.
419
All personnel perform inspections must be familiar with HVAC equipment/systems. To effectively inspect the systems from a fire safety standpoint, inspectors must be able to recognize the various types and operating conditions of a variety of these systems. A _____ is described as: "Automatic controls are provided to turn off the device when the temperature within the ductwork or plenum reaches 250°F. Fire problems with _____ are principally due to inadequate clearances, lack of proper limit controls, heat exchanger burnouts, improper installations, or improper maintenance procedures".
A. Fire-tube boilers.
B. Water-tube boilers.
C. Unit heaters.
D. Warm air furnaces.
D. Warm air furnaces.
420
Quenching is the immersion of a metal part in a quench medium and is divided into batch operations and continuous operations. For "heated" quenching operations, temperatures range from 200 to 400°F. The normal flashpoint of various mediums for heated quenching is 500°F. A quenching oil should never be allowed to be within _____ of its flashpoint.
A. 25°F.
B. 50°F.
C. 75°F.
D. 100°F.
B. 50°F.
421
Quenching is the immersion of a metal part in a quench medium and is divided into batch operations and continuous operations. For "unheated" quenching Is using temperatures from 100° to 200°F. The quenching medium used for unheated quenching normally has a flash point of _____ .
A. 250°F.
B. 300°F.
C. 350°F.
D. 400°F.
B. 300°F.
422
Standpipe and hose systems are designed to provide a means for rapidly deploying firehoses and operating fire streams on all levels of multistory structures and at remote points in large area structures and facilities. In addition to the three classes of Standpipe and hose systems, there are five additional types of standpipe system listed in NFPA 14. _____ is described as: "Contains water in the system, the water supply control valve is open, and pressure is maintained in the system at all times. When the hose valve is opened, water is immediately available".
```
A. Automatic-wet.
B. Automatic-dry.
C. Semiautomatic-dry.
D. Manual-dry.
E. Manual-wet.
```
A. Automatic-wet.
423
In addition to the three classes of Standpipe and hose systems, there are five additional types of standpipe system listed in NFPA 14. _____ is described as: "Contains air under pressure. Water is admitted to the system by the operation of a valve controlled by an electrical switch or other device located at each hose station. Water is not available at the hose station until the water supply control valve is opened by the control device."
```
A. Automatic-wet.
B. Automatic-dry.
C. Semiautomatic-dry.
D. Manual-dry.
E. Manual-wet.
```
B. Automatic-dry.
424
In addition to the three classes of Standpipe and hose systems, there are five additional types of standpipe system listed in NFPA 14. _____ is described as: "Contains unpressurized air in the system and and admits water to the system automatically through the use of a dry-pipe valve when a hose valve is opened."
```
A. Automatic-wet.
B. Automatic-dry.
C. Semiautomatic-dry.
D. Manual-dry.
E. Manual-wet.
```
C. Semiautomatic-dry.
425
In addition to the three classes of Standpipe and hose systems, there are five additional types of standpipe system listed in NFPA 14. _____ is described as: "Contains unpressurized air in pipes and has no permanent water supply; water must be supplied totally from the FDC."
```
A. Automatic-wet.
B. Automatic-dry.
C. Semiautomatic-dry.
D. Manual-dry.
E. Manual-wet.
```
D. Manual-dry.
426
In addition to the three classes of Standpipe and hose systems, there are five additional types of standpipe system listed in NFPA 14. _____ is described as: "Maintains water from a domestic fill connection in the piping for the purpose of detecting leaks on the system. However, no permanently connected water source is attached to the system, and water must be provided by the fire department through the FDC."
```
A. Automatic-wet.
B. Automatic-dry.
C. Semiautomatic-dry.
D. Manual-dry.
E. Manual-wet.
```
E. Manual-wet.
427
For many years, firefighters were taught that certain components were needed for a fire to occur. It did not always provide a complete picture of fire behavior. It has been replaced by the fire tetrahedron, which more accurately explains flaming combustion. It is composed of the following _____ elements.
A. Two.
B. Three.
C. Four.
D. Five.
```
C. Four.
________________________________
• Reducing agent (fuel)
• Oxidizing agent
• Heat
• Chemical chain reaction (self-sustained)
```
428
Type I construction is composed of only noncombustible or limited combustible materials and provides the highest level of safety. Type I construction can be expected to remain structurally stable during a fire for the duration of the fire resistance of the members. The structural frame of a Type 1-A building would have a fire resistance rating of:
A. 1 hour.
B. 2 hours.
C. 3 hours.
D. 4 hours.
C. 3 hours.
429
Type I construction is composed of only noncombustible or limited combustible materials and provides the highest level of safety. Type I construction can be expected to remain structurally stable during a fire for the duration of the fire resistance of the members. The structural frame of a Type 1-B building would have a fire resistance rating of:
A. 1 hour.
B. 2 hours.
C. 3 hours.
D. 4 hours.
B. 2 hours.
430
Wood floor supports can be weakened and ultimately destroyed in the course of a fire, which could lead to floor collapse. From a fire-protection standpoint, the most substantial wood floors are those found in heavy timber construction. The floor decking in Type IV construction is a minimum of _____ thick plank with a _____ finished flooring.
A. 2 inch, 1 inch.
B. 3 inch, 1 inch.
C. 4 inch, 2 inch.
D. 5 inch, 3 inch.
B. 3 inch, 1 inch.
431
Letter designations have historically been used to describe the fire door. These letter designations are no longer used, but they are included here because they may be encountered in a historical perspective or in existing buildings. The letter designation of openings in exterior walls subject to severe fire exposure from the outside of a building is:
```
A. A.
B. B.
C. C.
D. D.
E. E.
```
D. D.
432
Letter designations have historically been used to describe the fire door. These letter designations are no longer used, but they are included here because they may be encountered in a historical perspective or in existing buildings. The letter designation of openings in firewalls and walls that divide a structure into separate fire areas.
```
A. A.
B. B.
C. C.
D. D.
E. E.
```
A. A.
433
Letter designations have historically been used to describe the fire door. These letter designations are no longer used, but they are included here because they may be encountered in a historical perspective or in existing buildings. The letter designation of openings in vertical shafts such a stairwells and openings in 2-hour rated partitions.
```
A. A.
B. B.
C. C.
D. D.
E. E.
```
B. B.
434
Letter designations have historically been used to describe the fire door. These letter designations are no longer used, but they are included here because they may be encountered in a historical perspective or in existing buildings. The letter designation of openings between rooms and corridors having a fire resistance of 1-hour or less.
```
A. A.
B. B.
C. C.
D. D.
E. E.
```
C. C.
435
Letter designations have historically been used to describe the fire door. These letter designations are no longer used, but they are included here because they may be encountered in a historical perspective or in existing buildings. The letter designation of openings in exterior walls subject to severe fire exposure from the outside of a building.
```
A. A.
B. B.
C. C.
D. D.
E. E.
```
D. D.
436
Letter designations have historically been used to describe the fire door. These letter designations are no longer used, but they are included here because they may be encountered in a historical perspective or in existing buildings. The letter designation of openings in exterior walls subject to moderate or light exposure from outside.
```
A. A.
B. B.
C. C.
D. D.
E. E.
```
E. E.
437
Two of the most important life safety functions of doors are to (1) act as barriers to the movement of fire, smoke, and other toxic gases and (2) serve as components of a means of egress system. Panic hardware may be required based upon occupancy classifications and occupant load. If panic hardware is required, occupants should be able to cause the latch to release by applying a force of not more than _____ .
A. 10 pounds.
B. 15 pounds.
C. 25 pounds.
D. 30 pounds.
B. 15 pounds.
________________________________
And set the door in motion by applying a force of not more than 30 pounds.
438
When more than one exit is required it would be meaningless to have everyone try to exit through two doors closely placed on one side of the room. When two exits are required, and the diagonal measurement of the room is 100 feet, the two exits must be no more than _____ apart.
A. 20 feet.
B. 40 feet.
C. 50 feet.
D. 60 feet.
C. 50 feet.
439
Advances in sprinkler system design and technology, as well as ever increasing types of hazards, have led to the development of additional systems. A gridded sprinkler system is described as:
A. Wet-pipe system that is continually charged with an antifreeze solution. When the system is activated, the antifreeze solution is discharged, activating the water-flow valve and allowing water to flow to the open sprinkler.
B. System of parallel cross mains connected together by multiple branch lines. Any activated sprinklers will receive water from both mains.
C. System of interconnected cross mains that provide multiple routes for water to reach any point in the system. The branch lines are not interconnected.
D. System that is designed to operate repeatedly in response to a detection device. The system turns on and off based on the demand indicated by the detection device.
E. Wet-pipe system that uses the sprinkler system to circulate water for non-fire protection building services such as heating or cooling. It is a closed system in which water is not removed from the system unless the sprinklers are activated.
F. System that is continually charged with air under pressure combined with a detection system that controls the operation of the water-flow control valve. The detection system activates the water flow control valve, the release of the pressurized air in the system, and the faculty fire alarm. When the system is charged with water, activation of the individual sprinklers will discharge water.
B. System of parallel cross mains connected together by multiple branch lines. Any activated sprinklers will receive water from both mains. (Gridded sprinkler system)
________________________________
A. Wet-pipe system that is continually charged with an antifreeze solution. When the system is activated, the antifreeze solution is discharged, activating the water-flow valve and allowing water to flow to the open sprinkler. (Anti-freeze sprinkler system)
B. System of parallel cross mains connected together by multiple branch lines. Any activated sprinklers will receive water from both mains. (Gridded sprinkler system)
C. System of interconnected cross mains that provide multiple routes for water to reach any point in the system. The branch lines are not interconnected. (Looped sprinkler system)
D. System that is designed to operate repeatedly in response to a detection device. The system turns on and off based on the demand indicated by the detection device. (Multi-cycle sprinkler system)
E. Wet-pipe system that uses the sprinkler system to circulate water for non-fire protection building services such as heating or cooling. It is a closed system in which water is not removed from the system unless the sprinklers are activated. (Circulating closed-loop sprinkler system)
F. System that is continually charged with air under pressure combined with a detection system that controls the operation of the water-flow control valve. The detection system activates the water flow control valve, the release of the pressurized air in the system, and the faculty fire alarm. When the system is charged with water, activation of the individual sprinklers will discharge water. (Combined dry pipe and preaction sprinkler system)
440
Advances in sprinkler system design and technology, as well as ever increasing types of hazards, have led to the development of additional systems. An antifreeze sprinkler system is described as:
A. Wet-pipe system that is continually charged with an antifreeze solution. When the system is activated, the antifreeze solution is discharged, activating the water-flow valve and allowing water to flow to the open sprinkler.
B. System of parallel cross mains connected together by multiple branch lines. Any activated sprinklers will receive water from both mains.
C. System of interconnected cross mains that provide multiple routes for water to reach any point in the system. The branch lines are not interconnected.
D. System that is designed to operate repeatedly in response to a detection device. The system turns on and off based on the demand indicated by the detection device.
E. Wet-pipe system that uses the sprinkler system to circulate water for non-fire protection building services such as heating or cooling. It is a closed system in which water is not removed from the system unless the sprinklers are activated.
F. System that is continually charged with air under pressure combined with a detection system that controls the operation of the water-flow control valve. The detection system activates the water flow control valve, the release of the pressurized air in the system, and the faculty fire alarm. When the system is charged with water, activation of the individual sprinklers will discharge water.
A. Wet-pipe system that is continually charged with an antifreeze solution. When the system is activated, the antifreeze solution is discharged, activating the water-flow valve and allowing water to flow to the open sprinkler. (Anti-freeze sprinkler system)
________________________________
B. System of parallel cross mains connected together by multiple branch lines. Any activated sprinklers will receive water from both mains. (Gridded sprinkler system)
C. System of interconnected cross mains that provide multiple routes for water to reach any point in the system. The branch lines are not interconnected. (Looped sprinkler system)
D. System that is designed to operate repeatedly in response to a detection device. The system turns on and off based on the demand indicated by the detection device. (Multi-cycle sprinkler system)
E. Wet-pipe system that uses the sprinkler system to circulate water for non-fire protection building services such as heating or cooling. It is a closed system in which water is not removed from the system unless the sprinklers are activated. (Circulating closed-loop sprinkler system)
F. System that is continually charged with air under pressure combined with a detection system that controls the operation of the water-flow control valve. The detection system activates the water flow control valve, the release of the pressurized air in the system, and the faculty fire alarm. When the system is charged with water, activation of the individual sprinklers will discharge water. (Combined dry pipe and preaction sprinkler system)
441
Advances in sprinkler system design and technology, as well as ever increasing types of hazards, have led to the development of additional systems. A circulating closed-loop sprinkler system is described as:
A. Wet-pipe system that is continually charged with an antifreeze solution. When the system is activated, the antifreeze solution is discharged, activating the water-flow valve and allowing water to flow to the open sprinkler.
B. System of parallel cross mains connected together by multiple branch lines. Any activated sprinklers will receive water from both mains.
C. System of interconnected cross mains that provide multiple routes for water to reach any point in the system. The branch lines are not interconnected.
D. System that is designed to operate repeatedly in response to a detection device. The system turns on and off based on the demand indicated by the detection device.
E. Wet-pipe system that uses the sprinkler system to circulate water for non-fire protection building services such as heating or cooling. It is a closed system in which water is not removed from the system unless the sprinklers are activated.
F. System that is continually charged with air under pressure combined with a detection system that controls the operation of the water-flow control valve. The detection system activates the water flow control valve, the release of the pressurized air in the system, and the faculty fire alarm. When the system is charged with water, activation of the individual sprinklers will discharge water.
E. Wet-pipe system that uses the sprinkler system to circulate water for non-fire protection building services such as heating or cooling. It is a closed system in which water is not removed from the system unless the sprinklers are activated. (Circulating closed-loop sprinkler system)
________________________________
A. Wet-pipe system that is continually charged with an antifreeze solution. When the system is activated, the antifreeze solution is discharged, activating the water-flow valve and allowing water to flow to the open sprinkler. (Anti-freeze sprinkler system)
B. System of parallel cross mains connected together by multiple branch lines. Any activated sprinklers will receive water from both mains. (Gridded sprinkler system)
C. System of interconnected cross mains that provide multiple routes for water to reach any point in the system. The branch lines are not interconnected. (Looped sprinkler system)
D. System that is designed to operate repeatedly in response to a detection device. The system turns on and off based on the demand indicated by the detection device. (Multi-cycle sprinkler system)
E. Wet-pipe system that uses the sprinkler system to circulate water for non-fire protection building services such as heating or cooling. It is a closed system in which water is not removed from the system unless the sprinklers are activated. (Circulating closed-loop sprinkler system)
F. System that is continually charged with air under pressure combined with a detection system that controls the operation of the water-flow control valve. The detection system activates the water flow control valve, the release of the pressurized air in the system, and the faculty fire alarm. When the system is charged with water, activation of the individual sprinklers will discharge water. (Combined dry pipe and preaction sprinkler system)
442
Advances in sprinkler system design and technology, as well as ever increasing types of hazards, have led to the development of additional systems. A combined dry pipe and preaction sprinkler system is described as:
A. Wet-pipe system that is continually charged with an antifreeze solution. When the system is activated, the antifreeze solution is discharged, activating the water-flow valve and allowing water to flow to the open sprinkler.
B. System of parallel cross mains connected together by multiple branch lines. Any activated sprinklers will receive water from both mains.
C. System of interconnected cross mains that provide multiple routes for water to reach any point in the system. The branch lines are not interconnected.
D. System that is designed to operate repeatedly in response to a detection device. The system turns on and off based on the demand indicated by the detection device.
E. Wet-pipe system that uses the sprinkler system to circulate water for non-fire protection building services such as heating or cooling. It is a closed system in which water is not removed from the system unless the sprinklers are activated.
F. System that is continually charged with air under pressure combined with a detection system that controls the operation of the water-flow control valve. The detection system activates the water flow control valve, the release of the pressurized air in the system, and the faculty fire alarm. When the system is charged with water, activation of the individual sprinklers will discharge water.
F. System that is continually charged with air under pressure combined with a detection system that controls the operation of the water-flow control valve. The detection system activates the water flow control valve, the release of the pressurized air in the system, and the faculty fire alarm. When the system is charged with water, activation of the individual sprinklers will discharge water. (Combined dry pipe and preaction sprinkler system)
________________________________
A. Wet-pipe system that is continually charged with an antifreeze solution. When the system is activated, the antifreeze solution is discharged, activating the water-flow valve and allowing water to flow to the open sprinkler. (Anti-freeze sprinkler system)
B. System of parallel cross mains connected together by multiple branch lines. Any activated sprinklers will receive water from both mains. (Gridded sprinkler system)
C. System of interconnected cross mains that provide multiple routes for water to reach any point in the system. The branch lines are not interconnected. (Looped sprinkler system)
D. System that is designed to operate repeatedly in response to a detection device. The system turns on and off based on the demand indicated by the detection device. (Multi-cycle sprinkler system)
E. Wet-pipe system that uses the sprinkler system to circulate water for non-fire protection building services such as heating or cooling. It is a closed system in which water is not removed from the system unless the sprinklers are activated. (Circulating closed-loop sprinkler system)
443
Advances in sprinkler system design and technology, as well as ever increasing types of hazards, have led to the development of additional systems. A looped sprinkler system is described as:
A. Wet-pipe system that is continually charged with an antifreeze solution. When the system is activated, the antifreeze solution is discharged, activating the water-flow valve and allowing water to flow to the open sprinkler.
B. System of parallel cross mains connected together by multiple branch lines. Any activated sprinklers will receive water from both mains.
C. System of interconnected cross mains that provide multiple routes for water to reach any point in the system. The branch lines are not interconnected.
D. System that is designed to operate repeatedly in response to a detection device. The system turns on and off based on the demand indicated by the detection device.
E. Wet-pipe system that uses the sprinkler system to circulate water for non-fire protection building services such as heating or cooling. It is a closed system in which water is not removed from the system unless the sprinklers are activated.
F. System that is continually charged with air under pressure combined with a detection system that controls the operation of the water-flow control valve. The detection system activates the water flow control valve, the release of the pressurized air in the system, and the faculty fire alarm. When the system is charged with water, activation of the individual sprinklers will discharge water.
C. System of interconnected cross mains that provide multiple routes for water to reach any point in the system. The branch lines are not interconnected. (Looped sprinkler system)
________________________________
A. Wet-pipe system that is continually charged with an antifreeze solution. When the system is activated, the antifreeze solution is discharged, activating the water-flow valve and allowing water to flow to the open sprinkler. (Anti-freeze sprinkler system)
B. System of parallel cross mains connected together by multiple branch lines. Any activated sprinklers will receive water from both mains. (Gridded sprinkler system)
C. System of interconnected cross mains that provide multiple routes for water to reach any point in the system. The branch lines are not interconnected. (Looped sprinkler system)
D. System that is designed to operate repeatedly in response to a detection device. The system turns on and off based on the demand indicated by the detection device. (Multi-cycle sprinkler system)
E. Wet-pipe system that uses the sprinkler system to circulate water for non-fire protection building services such as heating or cooling. It is a closed system in which water is not removed from the system unless the sprinklers are activated. (Circulating closed-loop sprinkler system)
F. System that is continually charged with air under pressure combined with a detection system that controls the operation of the water-flow control valve. The detection system activates the water flow control valve, the release of the pressurized air in the system, and the faculty fire alarm. When the system is charged with water, activation of the individual sprinklers will discharge water. (Combined dry pipe and preaction sprinkler system)
444
Advances in sprinkler system design and technology, as well as ever increasing types of hazards, have led to the development of additional systems. A multicycle sprinkler system is described as:
A. Wet-pipe system that is continually charged with an antifreeze solution. When the system is activated, the antifreeze solution is discharged, activating the water-flow valve and allowing water to flow to the open sprinkler.
B. System of parallel cross mains connected together by multiple branch lines. Any activated sprinklers will receive water from both mains.
C. System of interconnected cross mains that provide multiple routes for water to reach any point in the system. The branch lines are not interconnected.
D. System that is designed to operate repeatedly in response to a detection device. The system turns on and off based on the demand indicated by the detection device.
E. Wet-pipe system that uses the sprinkler system to circulate water for non-fire protection building services such as heating or cooling. It is a closed system in which water is not removed from the system unless the sprinklers are activated.
F. System that is continually charged with air under pressure combined with a detection system that controls the operation of the water-flow control valve. The detection system activates the water flow control valve, the release of the pressurized air in the system, and the faculty fire alarm. When the system is charged with water, activation of the individual sprinklers will discharge water.
D. System that is designed to operate repeatedly in response to a detection device. The system turns on and off based on the demand indicated by the detection device. (Multicycle sprinkler system)
________________________________
A. Wet-pipe system that is continually charged with an antifreeze solution. When the system is activated, the antifreeze solution is discharged, activating the water-flow valve and allowing water to flow to the open sprinkler. (Anti-freeze sprinkler system)
B. System of parallel cross mains connected together by multiple branch lines. Any activated sprinklers will receive water from both mains. (Gridded sprinkler system)
C. System of interconnected cross mains that provide multiple routes for water to reach any point in the system. The branch lines are not interconnected. (Looped sprinkler system)
D. System that is designed to operate repeatedly in response to a detection device. The system turns on and off based on the demand indicated by the detection device. (Multi-cycle sprinkler system)
E. Wet-pipe system that uses the sprinkler system to circulate water for non-fire protection building services such as heating or cooling. It is a closed system in which water is not removed from the system unless the sprinklers are activated. (Circulating closed-loop sprinkler system)
F. System that is continually charged with air under pressure combined with a detection system that controls the operation of the water-flow control valve. The detection system activates the water flow control valve, the release of the pressurized air in the system, and the faculty fire alarm. When the system is charged with water, activation of the individual sprinklers will discharge water. (Combined dry pipe and preaction sprinkler system)
445
To make sprinkler systems useful in residential applications, changes in design, operation, water supply, and flow requirements were made. These changes decreased the cost of the systems while enhancing their effectiveness in protecting life. Sprinkler coverage in residential systems is not as extensive as in standard commercial automatic sprinkler systems. Sprinklers can be omitted from bathrooms not over _____ .
A. 85 ft.².
B. 75 ft.².
C. 65 ft.².
D. 55 ft.².
D. 55 ft.².
-----------------------------------------
Also may be omitted from:
• Small closets not more than 24 ft.² and having a short wall that does not exceed 3 feet.
• Garages, porches, carports, uninhabited attics, & entrance hallways.
446
Fire-extinguishing agents used in fixed dry-chemical systems are generally the same types that are used in portable fire extinguishers. The agents smother the fire by creating a layer between the burning fuel and oxygen. An agent that is most effective on Class B and Class C fires is:
A. LITH-X.
B. NA-X.
C. Purple-K.
D. MET-L-X.
C. Purple-K. (Potassium bicarbonate)
447
Fire-extinguishing agents used in fixed dry-chemical systems are generally the same types that are used in portable fire extinguishers. The agents smother the fire by creating a layer between the burning fuel and oxygen. A "sodium bicarbonate" extinguisher is also known as:
A. Ordinary dry chemical.
B. Purple-K.
C. Multipurpose dry chemical.
D. NA-X.
A. Ordinary dry chemical.
448
Fire-extinguishing agents used in fixed dry-chemical systems are generally the same types that are used in portable fire extinguishers. The agents smother the fire by creating a layer between the burning fuel and oxygen. A "Potassium bicarbonate" extinguisher is also known as:
A. Ordinary dry chemical.
B. Purple-K.
C. Multipurpose dry chemical.
D. NA-X.
B. Purple-K.
449
Fire-extinguishing agents used in fixed dry-chemical systems are generally the same types that are used in portable fire extinguishers. The agents smother the fire by creating a layer between the burning fuel and oxygen. A "Monoammonium phosphate" extinguisher is also known as:
A. Ordinary dry chemical.
B. Purple-K.
C. Multipurpose dry chemical.
D. NA-X.
C. Multipurpose dry chemical.
450
Fire-extinguishing agents used in fixed dry-chemical systems are generally the same types that are used in portable fire extinguishers. The agents smother the fire by creating a layer between the burning fuel and oxygen. A "Multipurpose dry chemical" extinguisher is also known as:
A. Sodium bicarbonate.
B. Potassium bicarbonate.
C. Monoammonium phosphate.
D. NA-X.
C. Monoammonium phosphate. (Pale yellow in color)
451
Fire-extinguishing agents used in fixed dry-chemical systems are generally the same types that are used in portable fire extinguishers. The agents smother the fire by creating a layer between the burning fuel and oxygen. A "Purple-K" extinguisher is also known as:
A. Sodium bicarbonate.
B. Potassium bicarbonate.
C. Monoammonium phosphate.
D. NA-X.
B. Potassium bicarbonate. (Color-coded violent to differentiated from other dry chemicals)
452
Fire-extinguishing agents used in fixed dry-chemical systems are generally the same types that are used in portable fire extinguishers. The agents smother the fire by creating a layer between the burning fuel and oxygen. An "Ordinary dry chemical" extinguisher is also known as:
A. Sodium bicarbonate.
B. Potassium bicarbonate.
C. Monoammonium phosphate.
D. NA-X.
A. Sodium bicarbonate.
453
Fire-extinguishing agents used in fixed dry-chemical systems are generally the same types that are used in portable fire extinguishers. The agents smother the fire by creating a layer between the burning fuel and oxygen. _____ is effective on Class B and Class C fires; widely used for the protection of commercial food-preparation equipment such as fryers and range hoods. When evaluated against an equal weight of CO2, it is twice as effective for Class B fires.
A. Sodium bicarbonate (Ordinary dry chemical).
B. Potassium bicarbonate (Purple-K).
C. Monoammonium phosphate (Multipurpose dry chemical).
D. NA-X.
E. MET-L-X.
F. LITH-X.
A. Sodium bicarbonate (Ordinary dry chemical).
454
Fire-extinguishing agents used in fixed dry-chemical systems are generally the same types that are used in portable fire extinguishers. The agents smother the fire by creating a layer between the burning fuel and oxygen. _____ is the most effective on Class B and Class C fires; house properties and applications similar to sodium bicarbonate. On a pound-for-pound basis, it can extinguish a fire twice the size of one that can be extinguished with the same amount of sodium bicarbonate. Like sodium bicarbonate, it is also treated to be water-repellent and free-flowing.
A. Sodium bicarbonate (Ordinary dry chemical).
B. Potassium bicarbonate (Purple-K).
C. Monoammonium phosphate (Multipurpose dry chemical).
D. NA-X.
E. MET-L-X.
F. LITH-X.
B. Potassium bicarbonate (Purple-K).
455
Fire-extinguishing agents used in fixed dry-chemical systems are generally the same types that are used in portable fire extinguishers. The agents smother the fire by creating a layer between the burning fuel and oxygen. _____ is effective on class A, class B, and class C fires; has an action similar to other dry chemicals on flammable liquid fires. It can have a corrosive effect on unprotected metals, corrosion can form around extinguisher system nozzles, piping, and agent containers.
A. Sodium bicarbonate (Ordinary dry chemical).
B. Potassium bicarbonate (Purple-K).
C. Monoammonium phosphate (Multipurpose dry chemical).
D. NA-X.
E. MET-L-X.
F. LITH-X.
C. Monoammonium phosphate (Multipurpose dry chemical).
456
Combustible metal extinguishing agents, also known as "dry powders", are designed to extinguish Class D fires involving aluminum, magnesium, sodium, and potassium. No single agent is effective on all combustible metals. _____ is a sodium carbonate based agent with additives to enhance its flow; designed specifically for use on sodium, potassium, and sodium-potassium alloy fires (NOT suitable for the use on magnesium fires).
A. Sodium bicarbonate (Ordinary dry chemical).
B. Potassium bicarbonate (Purple-K).
C. Monoammonium phosphate (Multipurpose dry chemical).
D. NA-X.
E. MET-L-X.
F. LITH-X.
D. NA-X.
457
Combustible metal extinguishing agents, also known as "dry powders", are designed to extinguish Class D fires involving aluminum, magnesium, sodium, and potassium. No single agent is effective on all combustible metals. _____ is a sodium chloride (salt) based agent intended for use on magnesium, sodium, and potassium fires; contains additives to enhance flowing and prevent caking in the extinguisher. It extinguishes metal fires by forming a crust on the burning metal. It is nonabrasive and has no known toxic effects.
A. Sodium bicarbonate (Ordinary dry chemical).
B. Potassium bicarbonate (Purple-K).
C. Monoammonium phosphate (Multipurpose dry chemical).
D. NA-X.
E. MET-L-X.
F. LITH-X.
E. MET-L-X.
458
Combustible metal extinguishing agents, also known as "dry powders", are designed to extinguish Class D fires involving aluminum, magnesium, sodium, and potassium. No single agent is effective on all combustible metals. _____ is a graphite based agent that extinguishes fires by conducting heat away from the fuel after a layer of the powder has been applied to the fuel; can be used in several combustible metals. It was developed to control fires involving lithium but can also be used to extinguish magnesium, zirconium, and sodium fires. Unlike other dry powders, it does not form a crust on the burning metal.
A. Sodium bicarbonate (Ordinary dry chemical).
B. Potassium bicarbonate (Purple-K).
C. Monoammonium phosphate (Multipurpose dry chemical).
D. NA-X.
E. MET-L-X.
F. LITH-X.
F. LITH-X.
459
A foam fire-extinguishing system is used when water alone may not be an effective fire-extinguishing agent. A foam fire-extinguishing system must have an adequate water supply, foam concentrate supply, piping system, proportioning equipment, and foam discharge devices. A _____ system is described as: "Foam discharge piping is in place but not attached to a permanent source of foam; requires a separate mobile foam solution source, usually a fire brigade or fire Department pumper/truck; primarily used on flammable liquid storage tanks."
```
A. Semifixed Type A.
B. Semifixed Type B.
C. Fixed.
D. Foam-water.
E. High expansion.
```
A. Semifixed Type A.
460
A foam fire-extinguishing system is used when water alone may not be an effective fire-extinguishing agent. A foam fire-extinguishing system must have an adequate water supply, foam concentrate supply, piping system, proportioning equipment, and foam discharge devices. A _____ system is described as: "Foam solution is delivered to foam hydrants for connection to hose lines and portable foam application devices; provides a foam solution source that is piped throughout the facility, much like a water distribution system. Provides foam capability to an area not directly to the hazard."
```
A. Semifixed Type A.
B. Semifixed Type B.
C. Fixed.
D. Foam-water.
E. High expansion.
```
B. Semifixed Type B.
461
A foam fire-extinguishing system is used when water alone may not be an effective fire-extinguishing agent. A foam fire-extinguishing system must have an adequate water supply, foam concentrate supply, piping system, proportioning equipment, and foam discharge devices. A _____ system is described as: "Complete installation that is piped from a central phone station; automatically discharges foam roof fixed delivery outlets to the protected hazard. If a pump is required to increase pressure on the system, it is usually permanently installed. Maybe total flooding or local application. Most are the deluge type that have unlimited water supplies and may also have a large foam supplies."
```
A. Semifixed Type A.
B. Semifixed Type B.
C. Fixed.
D. Foam-water.
E. High expansion.
```
C. Fixed.
462
A foam fire-extinguishing system is used when water alone may not be an effective fire-extinguishing agent. A foam fire-extinguishing system must have an adequate water supply, foam concentrate supply, piping system, proportioning equipment, and foam discharge devices. A _____ system is described as: "Designed for local application or total flooding in commercial and industrial applications. With a total flooding application, entire buildings can be filled to several feet above the highest storage area or equipment within a few minutes. Systems of this type are used to protect aircraft hangers and shipboard engine rooms among other locations."
```
A. Semifixed Type A.
B. Semifixed Type B.
C. Fixed.
D. Foam-water.
E. High expansion.
```
E. High expansion.
463
A foam fire-extinguishing system is used when water alone may not be an effective fire-extinguishing agent. A foam fire-extinguishing system must have an adequate water supply, foam concentrate supply, piping system, proportioning equipment, and foam discharge devices. A _____ system is described as: "Basically a deluge sprinkler system with foam introduced into it; used where there is a limited foam concentrate supply but an unlimited water supply. Thus, if the foam concentrate supply becomes depleted, the system continues to operate as a water-based automatic sprinkler system."
```
A. Semifixed Type A.
B. Semifixed Type B.
C. Fixed.
D. Foam-water.
E. High expansion.
```
D. Foam-water.
464
Two basic styles of smoke detectors are in use: photoelectric and ionization. The allowable sensitivity ranges for both types of smoke detectors are established by UL. Photoelectric smoke detectors are best suited for areas containing:
A. Large pieces of furniture.
B. Chemicals.
C. Paper products.
D. Cooking fat/grease.
A. Large pieces of furniture.
465
The purpose of a fire alarm signaling system is to quickly alert occupants and emergency response organizations to the presence of fire. Alarm signaling systems vary from the very simple to the very complex. A protected premises (local) alarm system is designed to transmit both a visible and an audible alarm only within the immediate premises. There are no provisions for off-site reporting. The alarm's purpose is to alert the buildings occupants and to ensure their life safety. Which of the following is a type of local alarm system?
A. Local energy system.
B. Auxiliary system.
C. Proprietary alarm system.
D. Addressable alarm system.
D. Addressable alarm system. (Local)
466
The primary hazard associated with lumberyards is the high fuel load created by the large quantities of combustible materials on the site. For open-yard storage, several important code provisions must be implemented. Lumbar stacks must be located on solid ground, preferably paved or subsurface with materials such as cinders, fine gravel, or stone. The height of stacks must not exceed _____ to ensure that they remain relatively stable.
A. 10 feet.
B. 15 feet.
C. 20 feet.
D. 25 feet.
C. 20 feet.
467
Welding and thermal cutting our processes that are used to join or sever materials (also called hot work). Where combustible materials such as paper clippings, wood shavings, or textile fibers are on the floor, an area with a radius of at least 35 feet must be cleared before welding or cutting operations can begin. Following a welding or thermal cutting operation, a firewatch must be maintained for at least _____ after any job is completed.
A. 90 minutes.
B. 60 minutes.
C. 30 minutes.
D. 15 minutes.
C. 30 minutes.
468
A Fire lane is a road or passageway that is required to ensure a means of access and parking for fire apparatus or other emergency vehicles such as ambulances. Both fire lanes and fire apparatus access roads must be wide enough to allow unimpeded passage around a facility. Width requirements are intended to allow a vehicle to pass a parked apparatus including an aerial device without rigors deployed. Vertical clearance over a fire lane or apparatus access road must be a minimum of _____ .
A. 11.3 feet.
B. 13.5 feet.
C. 15 feet.
D. 20 feet.
B. 13.5 feet.
469
A Fire lane is a road or passageway that is required to ensure a means of access and parking for fire apparatus or other emergency vehicles such as ambulances. Most nationally developed fire codes require that all lanes and apparatus access roads extend to within _____ of all portions of the building, although local codes may require otherwise.
A. 50 feet.
B. 100 feet.
C. 150 feet.
D. 200 feet.
C. 150 feet.
470
A Fire lane is a road or passageway that is required to ensure a means of access and parking for fire apparatus or other emergency vehicles such as ambulances. Fire lanes and apparatus access roads must be a minimum width of _____ .
A. 13.5 feet.
B. 16 feet.
C. 20 feet.
D. 24 feet.
B. 16 feet.
471
A Fire lane is a road or passageway that is required to ensure a means of access and parking for fire apparatus or other emergency vehicles such as ambulances. Fire lanes and apparatus access roads must be a minimum width of 16 feet, but _____ if adjacent to buildings for one-way travel.
A. 13.5 feet.
B. 16 feet.
C. 20 feet.
D. 24 feet.
C. 20 feet.
472
A Fire lane is a road or passageway that is required to ensure a means of access and parking for fire apparatus or other emergency vehicles such as ambulances. Fire lanes and apparatus access roads must be a minimum width of 16 feet, but _____ if adjacent to buildings for two-way travel.
A. 13.5 feet.
B. 16 feet.
C. 20 feet.
D. 24 feet.
D. 24 feet.
473
The effectiveness of evacuation plans should be tested on a regular basis by conducting emergency evacuation drills. The occupancies loss control or safety staff has the responsibility for planning and executing emergency evacuation drills. The frequency that emergency evacuation drills are held various with the type of occupancy and local code requirements. However, at a minimum, occupancies should conduct at least _____ emergency evacuation drills per year.
A. 4.
B. 3.
C. 2.
D. 1.
C. 2.
474
Which element of the fire tetrahedron is known as the reducing agent?
A. Self-sustaining chemical reaction.
B. Oxygen.
C. Fuel.
D. Heat.
C. Fuel.
475
Fires are classified by the type of fuel involved and the type of extinguishing agent or activity that will be required to control it. Class K fires involve:
```
A. Combustible metals.
B. Ordinary, solid, combustible materials.
C. Energized electrical equipment.
D. Oils and greases.
E. Flammable or combustible liquids.
```
D. Oils and greases. (Class K)
________________________________
A. Combustible metals. (Class D)
B. Ordinary, solid, combustible materials. (Class A)
C. Energized electrical equipment. (Class C)
E. Flammable or combustible liquids. (Class B)
476
Flashover is the rapid transition between the growth and the fully developed fire stages. The following statement is TRUE regarding flashover.
A. Flashover is a specific event like ignition.
B. Flashover range from approximately 500 to 900°F.
C. Like ghosting, flashover is a fire-gas ignition.
D. When the temperature in a compartment results in the simultaneous ignition of all the combustibles contents in the space.
D. When the temperature in a compartment results in the simultaneous ignition of all the combustibles contents in the space. (TRUE)
________________________________
A. Flashover "is a" specific event like ignition. (FALSE - "is not a")
B. Flashover range from approximately "500 to 900°F." (FALSE - "900 to 1200°F")
C. Like ghosting, flashover is a fire-gas ignition. (FALSE)
477
In a compartment fire, the most fundamental fuel characteristics influencing fire development are:
A. Thermal properties of the compartment.
B. Mass and surface area.
C. Compartment volume and ceiling height.
D. Ambient conditions.
B. Mass and surface area.
478
Type II construction consists of noncombustible materials that do not meet the strict requirements of those materials used in the Type I building classification. The following statement is TRUE regarding Type II construction:
A. Used when fire risk is expected to be high or when fire suppression and detection systems are not required.
B. Used when fire risk is expected to be low or when fire suppression and detection systems are designed to meet the hazard.
C. Type II construction never incorporate combustible materials into their construction.
D. The exterior bearing walls are composed entirely of wood and other combustible materials.
B. Used when fire risk is expected to be low or when fire suppression and detection systems are designed to meet the hazard.
479
Type III construction is commonly used when building:
A. Schools and mercantile structures.
B. Single-family dwelling or residence.
C. Auditoriums, and other large vaulted facilities.
D. Reinforced concrete, precast concrete, and protected steel frame construction.
A. Schools and mercantile structures. (also churches and apartment dwellings)
480
Type V construction type is commonly known as:
A. Fire resistant construction.
B. Heavy timber construction.
C. Wood frame or frame construction.
D. Noncombustible construction.
C. Wood frame or frame construction. (Type V)
________________________________
A. Fire resistant construction. (Type I)
B. Heavy timber construction. (Type IV)
D. Noncombustible construction. (Type II)
481
_____ roof construction allows builders to provide overhanging roofs over walkways along the exterior walls of a structure.
A. Cantilever.
B. Arch.
C. Truss.
D. Bar joist.
A. Cantilever.
482
In an ordinary, nonreinforced wall, the strength stability of the wall are derived from:
A. The height of the masonry and the horizontal bonding between adjacent wythes.
B. The weight of the masonry and the horizontal bonding between adjacent wythes.
C. The height of the masonry and the vertical bonding between adjacent wythes.
D. The weight of the masonry and the vertical bonding between adjacent wythes.
B. The weight of the masonry and the horizontal bonding between adjacent wythes.
483
When a building is constructed using a structural frame for the main structural support, the exterior wall functions only to enclose the building and is known as a:
A. Drywall.
B. Party.
C. Enclosure.
D. Curtain.
D. Curtain.
484
In multistory buildings, exit stairs are critical components of the means of egress. The TRUE statement regarding exit stairs is:
A. All stairways must have handrails and each flight of stairs between landings must be no longer than 10 feet.
B. All stairways must have handrails and each flight of stairs between landings must be no longer than 20 feet.
C. Stairways must be at least 44 inches wide unless the total occupant load of all floors served by the stairway is less than 50 people.
D. Stairways must be at least 36 inches wide unless the total occupants load of all floor served by the stairways is less than 50 people.
C. Stairways must be at least 44 inches wide unless the total occupant load of all floors served by the stairway is less than 50 people.
(In which case, stairways must be at least 36 inches wide. And each flight of stairs between landings must be no longer than 12 feet.)
485
NFPA 14 is used for the design and installation of standpipes. A Class III standpipe is designed to be used by:
A. Fire-suppression personnel trained in handling large handlines.
B. Trained building occupants.
C. Both fire-suppression personnel trained in handling a large handlines, and trained building occupants.
D. Neither fire-suppression personnel trained in handling large handlines, nor trained building occupants.
C. Both fire-suppression personnel trained in handling a large handlines, and trained building occupants. (Class III)
________________________________
A. Fire-suppression personnel trained in handling large handlines. (Class I)
B. Trained building occupants. (Class II)
486
Current practice is to locate standpipes so that any part of a floor is within _____ of the standpipe hose connection.
A. 150 feet.
B. 130 feet.
C. 100 feet.
D. 75 feet.
B. 130 feet.
| This distance allows any fire to be reached with 100 feet of hose, plus a 30 foot fire stream.
487
Combustible metal extinguishing agents, are designed to extinguish Class D fires. No single agent is effective in all combustible metals. MET-L-X is a sodium chloride-based agent intended for use on fires involving the following combustible metals:
A. Magnesium, sodium, and potassium.
B. Lithium, and magnesium.
C. Sodium, potassium, and sodium-potassium alloys.
D. Zirconium and sodium.
A. Magnesium, sodium, and potassium. (MET-L-X)
________________________________
B. Lithium, and magnesium. (LITH-X)
C. Sodium, potassium, and sodium-potassium alloys. (NA-X)
D. Zirconium and sodium. (LITH-X)
488
Fire extinguishers with a gross weight of less than 40 pounds should be installed so that the top of the extinguisher is no more than _____ above the floor.
A. 5 1/2 feet.
B. 5 feet.
C. 3 1/2 feet.
D. 3 feet.
B. 5 feet. (Less than 40 lbs)
489
Fire extinguishers with a gross weight of greater than 40 pounds, except wheeled types, should be installed so that the top of the extinguisher is no more than _____ above the floor.
A. 5 1/2 feet.
B. 5 feet.
C. 3 1/2 feet.
D. 3 feet.
C. 3 1/2 feet. (greater than 40 lbs)
490
Clearance between the bottom of the fire extinguisher and the floor should never be less than _____ .
A. 2 inches.
B. 3 inches.
C. 4 inches.
D. 5 inches.
C. 4 inches.
491
Fire detection systems using heating detection devices are among the oldest in service. A green, very extra high detector would have a temperature rating of:
A. 250 to 324°F.
B. 325 399°F.
C. 400 to 499°F.
D. 500 to 575°F.
```
C. 400 to 499°F. (Very extra high)
-----------------------------------------
175 to 249°F. =WHITE -Intermediate
250 to 324°F. = BLUE -High
325 to 399°F. = RED -Extra High
400 to499°F= GREEN-Very Extra High
500 to 575°F. =ORANGE -Ultra High
```
492
Lumberyards can represent a very large fire hazard in small and medium sized communities. The following statement is TRUE regarding lumberyards.
A. The heights of stacks must not exceed 20 feet.
B. Driveways must be spaced so that's a maximum grid system of not more than 25 x 125 feet is produced.
C. Driveways must be spaced so that a maximum grid system of not more than 20 x 100 feet is produced.
D. The heights of stacks must not exceed 35 feet.
A. The heights of stacks must not exceed 20 feet. (TRUE)
________________________________
Driveways must be spaced so that a maximum grid system of not more than 50 x 150 feet is produced.
493
Dry-cleaning plants are classified by the type of solvent used in the process. The following statement is TRUE regarding dry-cleaning plants:
A. At least one approved 2-A:10-BC portable fire extinguisher must be provided near the door into the dry-cleaning room where petroleum based solvents are used.
B. A dry-cleaning room must be separate from the rest of the building by a partition with a 1-hour fire resistance rating.
C. The floor or roof above a dry cleaning room must have a fire resistance rating of not less than two hours.
D. Because Class I solvents have flashpoint below 100°F, Type I plants are prohibited.
D. Because Class I solvents have flashpoint below 100°F, Type I plants are prohibited. (TRUE)
________________________________
A. At least "one" approved 2-A:10-BC portable fire extinguisher must be provided near the door into the dry-cleaning room where petroleum based solvents are used. (FALSE - "two")
B. A dry-cleaning room must be separate from the rest of the building by a partition with a "1-hour" fire resistance rating. (FALSE - "2-hour")
C. The floor or roof above a dry cleaning room must have a fire resistance rating of not less than "two" hours. (FALSE - "one")
494
There are three general types of drawings used to show structure, facility, or site information. A plot plan is described as:
A. Shows the layout of individual floors, subfloors, and roofs.
B. Other structures on the property and the grades of the surrounding ground.
C. Indicates how buildings/ structures are situated with respect to other structures and streets in the area.
D. Shows side views of structures depicting the number of floors in the structures and grades of the surrounding ground.
C. Indicates how buildings/ structures are situated with respect to other structures and streets in the area. (Plot plan)
________________________________
A. Shows the layout of individual floors, subfloors, and roofs. (Floor plan)
D. Shows side views of structures depicting the number of floors in the structures and grades of the surrounding ground. (Elevation view)
495
Inspectors should be familiar with the components of an emergency evacuation plan and the procedures for testing this plan. Three key elements to an evacuation plan are evacuation routes and:
A. Stairways and exits.
B. Monitor duties and employees/occupants duties.
C. Number of the evacuation drills and frequency of evacuation drills.
D. Indicate routes to the exits, and location of meeting points for occupants.
B. Monitor duties and employees/occupants duties.
496
When investigating a code complaint, investigators may or may not need to give the owner/occupant advanced notice. The severity of the "nature of the complaint" is one of three factors that often determine whether an inspector needs to obtain an administrative warrant to enter the location the other two factors are:
A. The type of occupancy, and location within the occupancy.
B. The type of occupancy, and the number of occupants.
C. The location within the occupancy, and the number of occupants.
D. The date of the complaint, and date of the last inspection.
A. The type of occupancy, and location within the occupancy.
497
Firewalls are erected to limit the maximum spread of fire. The following statement is TRUE regarding firewalls:
A. The highest rating for a firewall required by the building codes is 4 hours.
B. Building codes do not allow a reduction in hourly rating of firewalls when a building is equipped with an automatic sprinkler system.
C. Firewalls must extend beyond walls and roofs to prevent the convected heat of flames from igniting adjacent surfaces.
D. When ducts for heating, ventilating, and air-conditioning systems penetrate firewalls that have a fire resistance rating, the ducts must be equipped with fire and smoke dampers within the duct.
A. The highest rating for a firewall required by the building codes is 4 hours. (TRUE)
498
Fire doors are designed, constructed, tested, and certified to meet specific fire-resistance needs.
A. Class B are openings in firewalls and walls that divide a structure into separate fire areas.
B. Fire doors are rated as 4 1/2 hours, 4 hours, 2 hours, and 1 1/2 hours.
C. Fire doors are rated as 4 hours, 3 hours, 1 1/2 hour, 1 hour, 2/3 hour, and 1/3 hour.
D. Class A are openings in vertical shafts such as stairwells.
C. Fire doors are rated as 4 hours, 3 hours, 1 1/2 hour, 1 hour, 2/3 hour, and 1/3 hour. (TRUE)
499
Unless it is the policy of the local jurisdiction, a formal letter to the owner/occupant is not necessary for an inspection report. Following situations require a formal letter... the exception is:
A. Code violations that create life-threatening hazards.
B. Code violations that involve major renovations to comply.
C. A single fire extinguisher out of inspection date.
D. A number of minor violations that taken together constitute a life safety issue for the occupancy.
C. A single fire extinguisher out of inspection date.
500
Numerical ratings for Class B fire extinguishers are from 1-B through 640-B. A 10-B portable fire extinguisher can be expected to extinguish a fire of _____ , which is the rating for an untrained operator.
A. 10 ft.².
B.15 ft.².
C. 20 ft.².
D. 25 ft.².
A. 10 ft.².
| A trained operator = 25 ft.²
501
The Steiner tunnel test is the most commonly used method for evaluating surface burning characteristics of materials. Materials with a _____ rating are required in the vertical exits of most occupancies.
A. Class A (0-25).
B. Class A (26-75).
C. Class B (0-25).
D. Class B (26-75).
A. Class A (0-25).
502
The primary oxidizing agent most fires is oxygen. At normal ambient temperatures, materials can ignite and burn at oxygen concentrations as low as:
A. 8%
B. 10%
C. 12%
D. 14%
D. 14%
503
Interior protected stairs are critical components of the life safety system of a building. Protected stairs are enclosed with fire rated construction, usually with _____ depending on building height.
A. 1 or 2 hour rating.
B. 2 or 3 hour rating.
C. 3 hour rating.
D. 4 hour rating.
A. 1 or 2 hour rating.
504
Ramps became common elements in many occupancies in the US with the adoption of the Americans With Disabilities Act in 1990. The maximum length for a single ramp is _____ without a landing.
A. 10 feet.
B. 20 feet.
C. 30 feet.
D. 40 feet.
C. 30 feet.
505
According to FIC; combustible liquids have flashpoints that are:
A. Less than 150°F.
B. Above 150°F.
C. Less than 100°F.
D. Above 100°F.
D. Above 100°F. (Combustible liquid)
________________________________
Flammable liquid is less than 100°F according to FIC.
506
During the growth stage of a compartmentation fire, the fire exhibits a variety of traits that indicate changes in the environment. _____ is described as: "Pockets of flames may be observed moving through the hot-gas layer above the neutral plane. Some people refer to this phenomenon as ghosting".
A. Rollover.
B. Thermal layering.
C. Isolated flames.
D. Alternative path.
C. Isolated flames.
507
During the growth stage of a compartmentation fire, the fire exhibits a variety of traits that indicate changes in the environment. _____ is described as: "The tendency of gases to separate into layers according to temperature. Other terms sometimes used to describe the tendency are heat stratification and thermal balance.".
A. Rollover.
B. Thermal layering.
C. Isolated flames.
D. Alternative path.
B. Thermal layering.
508
During the growth stage of a compartmentation fire, the fire exhibits a variety of traits that indicate changes in the environment. _____ is described as: "A condition where the unburned fire gases accumulate at the top of a compartment ignite and flames propagate through the hot-gas layer or across the ceiling. Like ghosting, it is a fire gas ignition..".
A. Rollover.
B. Thermal layering.
C. Isolated flames.
D. Alternative path.
A. Rollover.
509
_____ construction is commonly used when building churches, schools, and mercantile structures.
A. Type I.
B. Type II.
C. Type III.
D. Type IV.
C. Type III.
510
Walls that provide structural support for multistory buildings must be greater in thickness than those that support single-story buildings. Non-reinforced masonry walls usually are limited to a max height around _____ and these are usually found in old structures built in the early part of the 20th century.
A. Three stories.
B. Six stories.
C. Nine stories.
D. Twelve stories.
B. Six stories.
511
When two exits are required, they are to be located _____ of the overall diagonal dimension of the room or building area.
A. Not less than one-third of the perimeter dimension of the room.
B. Not less than one-half the perimeter dimension of the room.
C. Not less than one-third the length of the overall diagonal dimension of the room.
D. Not less than one-half the length of the overall diagonal dimension of the room.
D. Not less than one-half the length of the overall diagonal dimension of the room.
512
Sprinkler coverage in residential systems is not as expensive as in standard commercial automatic sprinkler systems. Sprinklers in one and two family dwellings can be omitted in bathrooms not larger than _____ ; small closets not more than 24 ft.² and having a short wall that does not exceed 3 feet ; as well as Garages, porches, carports, uninhabited attics, and entry hallways.
A. 55 ft.².
B. 45 ft.².
C. 35 ft.².
D. 25 ft.².
A. 55 ft.².
-----------------------------------------
Residential sprinklers can also be omitted from the following areas in one and two family dwellings:
• Small closets not more than 24 ft.² and having a short wall that does not exceed 3 feet.
• Garages, porches, carports, uninhabited attics, and entry hallways.
513
Spacing for sprinklers in residential systems is a maximum of _____ per sprinkler.
A. 6 feet.
B. 12 feet.
C. 144 feet.
D. 20x20 feet.
C. 144 feet.
________________________________
Spacing for sprinklers in residential systems is a maximum of "144 ft.²" per sprinkler. The maximum spacing between sprinklers is "12 feet" with the maximum allowable distance of a sprinkler from a wall being "6 feet".
514
The maximum spacing between residential sprinklers allowed is _____ .
A. 6 feet.
B. 12 feet.
C. 144 feet.
D. 20x20 feet.
B. 12 feet.
________________________________
Spacing for sprinklers in residential systems is a maximum of "144 ft.²" per sprinkler. The maximum spacing between sprinklers is "12 feet" with the maximum allowable distance of a sprinkler from a wall being "6 feet".
515
The maximum allowable distance of a residential sprinkler from a wall is ______ .
A. 6 feet.
B. 12 feet.
C. 144 feet.
D. 20x20 feet.
A. 6 feet.
________________________________
Spacing for sprinklers in residential systems is a maximum of "144 ft.²" per sprinkler. The maximum spacing between sprinklers is "12 feet" with the maximum allowable distance of a sprinkler from a wall being "6 feet".
516
Some residential sprinklers, can be spaced to protect an area as large as _____ .
A. 6 feet.
B. 12 feet.
C. 144 feet.
D. 20x20 feet.
D. 20x20 feet.
517
Some residential sprinklers, can be spaced to protect an area as large as 20x20 feet. However, with the sprinkler spacing, the minimum discharge with one sprinkler upgrade is increased to _____ .
A. 13 GPM.
B. 18 GPM.
C. 22.5 GPM.
D. 32.5 GPM.
D. 32.5 GPM. (20x20 with one residential sprinkler)
________________________________
A. 13 GPM. (2 or more residential sprinklers)
B. 18 GPM. (Single residential sprinkler)
C. 22.5 GPM. (20x20 with two residential sprinklers)
518
Some residential sprinklers, can be spaced to protect an area as large as 20x20 feet. However, with the sprinkler spacing, the minimum discharge with two sprinklers operating is increased to _____ .
A. 13 GPM.
B. 18 GPM.
C. 22.5 GPM.
D. 32.5 GPM.
C. 22.5 GPM. (20x20 with two residential sprinklers)
________________________________
A. 13 GPM. (2 or more residential sprinklers)
B. 18 GPM. (Single residential sprinkler)
D. 32.5 GPM. (20x20 with one residential sprinkler)
519
Water supply requirements for residential sprinklers are less than those for standard sprinkler systems. NFPA 13D requires only _____ for any single sprinkler.
A. 13 GPM.
B. 18 GPM.
C. 22.5 GPM.
D. 32.5 GPM.
B. 18 GPM. (Single residential sprinkler)
________________________________
A. 13 GPM. (2 or more residential sprinklers)
C. 22.5 GPM. (20x20 with two residential sprinklers)
D. 32.5 GPM. (20x20 with one residential sprinkler)
520
Water supply requirements for residential sprinklers are less than those for standard sprinkler systems. NFPA 13D requires only _____ when there are two or more sprinklers.
A. 13 GPM.
B. 18 GPM.
C. 22.5 GPM.
D. 32.5 GPM.
A. 13 GPM. (2 or more residential sprinklers)
________________________________
B. 18 GPM. (Single residential sprinkler)
C. 22.5 GPM. (20x20 with two residential sprinklers)
D. 32.5 GPM. (20x20 with one residential sprinkler)
521
For large multiple residential dwellings, the design flowrates are greater. NFPA 13R requires 18 GPM for a single sprinkler and not less than 13 GPM to a maximum of ____ sprinklers in a compartment (room or space).
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
B. 4
522
The value of a fire extinguisher lies in:
A. The first line of defense against an incipient fire.
B. The speed in which it can be used by the people not trained as professional firefighters.
C. Presence of a portable fire extinguisher should never be considered a substitute or replacement for an automatic sprinkler system.
D. It is often assumed that including additional portable fire extinguishers in an occupancy allows elimination of other fixed fire-extinguishing systems.
B. The speed in which it can be used by the people not trained as professional firefighters.
523
In many situations, the portable fire extinguisher provides the "first line of defense" against an incipient fire. For a portable fire extinguisher to be effective, the following requirements must be met... the exception is:
A. Readily visible and accessible.
B. Suitable for the hazard being protected.
C. In working order.
D. Sufficient size to control a fully developed fire.
E. Appropriate wind and weather conditions to ensure effectiveness.
D. Sufficient size to control "a fully developed fire". (FALSE - "an incipient fire")
524
According to NFPA 72, pull stations should be mounted on walls or columns so that the operable part is _____ about the floor.
A. Not less than 3 feet and no more than 5 feet.
B. Not less than 3 feet and no more than 4 1/2 feet.
C. Not less than 3 feet and no more than 4 feet.
D. Not less than 3 1/2 feet and no more than 4 1/2.
D. Not less than 3 1/2 feet and no more than 4 1/2.
525
The manual pull station should be positioned so that it is in plain sight and unobstructed. Multistory facilities should have at least 1 pull station on each floor. In all cases, travel distance to the manual pull station should not exceed _____ ; and pull stations are required to be placed within 5 feet of every exit so that facility occupants can activate an alarm while they are exiting the facility.
A. 50 feet.
B. 100 feet.
C. 150 feet.
D. 200 feet.
D. 200 feet.
526
Dry cleaning plants are classified by the type of solvent used in the process. According to the international fire code, the plant classification for plants using liquids that are classified as nonflammable and the dry cleaning may or may not be conducted by the public is:
A. Type IV or V.
B. Type IIIA or IIIB.
C. Type II.
D. Type I.
A. Type IV or V.
________________________________
A. Type I (Class I). (FP
527
Dry cleaning plants are classified by the type of solvent used in the process. According to the international fire code, the plant classification for plants using liquids that are classified as: "Liquids having a flashpoint below 100°F".
```
A. Type I (Class I).
B. Type II (Class II).
C. Type IIIA (Class IIIA).
D. Type IIIB (Class IIIB).
E. Type IV (Class IV).
F. Type V. (Class IV).
```
A. Type I (Class I).
________________________________
A. Type I (Class I). (FP
528
Dry cleaning plants are classified by the type of solvent used in the process. According to the international fire code, the plant classification for plants using liquids that are classified as: "Liquids having a flashpoint at or above 100°F and below 140°F".
```
A. Type I (Class I).
B. Type II (Class II).
C. Type IIIA (Class IIIA).
D. Type IIIB (Class IIIB).
E. Type IV (Class IV).
F. Type V. (Class IV).
```
B. Type II (Class II).
________________________________
A. Type I (Class I). (FP
529
Dry cleaning plants are classified by the type of solvent used in the process. According to the international fire code, the plant classification for plants using liquids that are classified as: "Liquids having a flashpoint at or above 140°F and below 200°F".
```
A. Type I (Class I).
B. Type II (Class II).
C. Type IIIA (Class IIIA).
D. Type IIIB (Class IIIB).
E. Type IV (Class IV).
F. Type V. (Class IV).
```
C. Type IIIA (Class IIIA).
________________________________
A. Type I (Class I). (FP
530
Dry cleaning plants are classified by the type of solvent used in the process. According to the international fire code, the plant classification for plants using liquids that are classified as: "Liquids having a flashpoint at or above 200°F".
```
A. Type I (Class I).
B. Type II (Class II).
C. Type IIIA (Class IIIA).
D. Type IIIB (Class IIIB).
E. Type IV (Class IV).
F. Type V. (Class IV).
```
D. Type IIIB (Class IIIB).
________________________________
A. Type I (Class I). (FP
531
Dry cleaning plants are classified by the type of solvent used in the process. According to the international fire code, the plant classification for plants using liquids that are classified as: "Liquids that are classified as a nonflammable; dry cleaning not conducted by the public".
```
A. Type I (Class I).
B. Type II (Class II).
C. Type IIIA (Class IIIA).
D. Type IIIB (Class IIIB).
E. Type IV (Class IV).
F. Type V. (Class IV).
```
E. Type IV (Class IV).
________________________________
A. Type I (Class I). (FP
532
Dry cleaning plants are classified by the type of solvent used in the process. According to the international fire code, the plant classification for plants using liquids that are classified as: "Liquids that are classified as a nonflammable; dry cleaning conducted by the public".
```
A. Type I (Class I).
B. Type II (Class II).
C. Type IIIA (Class IIIA).
D. Type IIIB (Class IIIB).
E. Type IV (Class IV).
F. Type V. (Class IV).
```
F. Type V. (Class IV).
________________________________
A. Type I (Class I). (FP
533
No matter what type of occupancy is involved, the key to successfully handling an emergency is the effective execution of an emergency plan. Which of the following is a monitor duty in an evacuation plan?
A. Turns off all equipment.
B. Checks the performance of other essential safety shutdown functions if conditions and time allows.
C. Account for the people who are evacuated from the area.
D. Close doors and windows.
C. Account for the people who are evacuated from the area. (Monitor)
534
Three key elements to an evacuation plan are as follows: Evacuation routes ; Monitor duties ; & Employee/occupant duties. "Evacuation routes" are defined as primary and secondary routes of exit from a structure given for each compartment, division, area, or room in an occupancy. Maps showing these routes are given to each employee and posted in conspicuous locations. The following are TRUE about evacuation route maps... the exception is:
A. Indicate the present location of the person reading the map (marked with "you are here" notes).
B. Indicate the routes to the exits.
C. Show the location of the meeting point for occupants once they have left the structure, which allows for accounting of evacuees and gives information on the evacuation to the incident commander (IC).
D. Account for people who are evacuated from the area.
D. Account for people who are evacuated from the area. (FALSE - monitor duty)
535
Three key elements to an evacuation plan are as follows: Evacuation routes ; Monitor duties ; & Employee/occupant duties. Monitor duties - Each compartment, Rome, area or division has an assigned primary monitor to supervise the evacuation process. This monitor is responsible for ensuring that all people in the particular area know that emergency evacuation plan and their individual duties and responsibilities. Monitor duties include the following... the exception is:
A. Account for the people who are effectuated from the area.
B. Make a thorough search of the area if possible to ensure that everyone has left before personally leaving the area.
C. Close doors and windows.
C. Close doors and windows. (FALSE - Employee/occupant duty)
536
Three key elements to an evacuation plan are as follows: Evacuation routes ; Monitor duties ; & Employee/occupant duties. Employee/occupant duties - Everyone is responsible for ensuring that the particular area is completely evacuated during an emergency. Employee/occupant duties include... the exception is:
A. Turn off all equipment; Close doors and windows.
B. Check the performance of other essential safety shutdown functions if conditions and time allow.
C. Provide information to the IC through the monitor or other representative on the type of actions taken.
D. Ensure that visitors are accounted for and evacuated from the building.
E. Make a thorough search of the area if possible to ensure that everyone has left before personally leaving the area.
E. Make a thorough search of the area if possible to ensure that everyone has left before personally leaving the area. (FALSE - Monitor duty)
537
Concrete has many applications in building construction. The single most important factor in determining the ultimate strength of concrete is:
A. Length of time the concrete is allowed to cure.
B. Water-to-cement ratio.
C. Admixtures (superplasticizer).
D. Use of reinforcing bars.
B. The water-to-cement ratio.
538
Field sketches are used to create the final inspection drawings that are retained in the building inspection file. A plot plan is described as:
A. Indicates how buildings/ structures are situated with respect to other structures and streets in the area.
B. Shows the layout of individual floors, subfloors, and roofs.
C. Shows side views of the structures depicting the number of floors in the structure and grades of the surrounding ground.
D. A rough drawing of the structure, facility, or site used to illustrate existing and special conditions.
A. Indicates how buildings/ structures are situated with respect to other structures and streets in the area. (Plot plan)
________________________________
B. Shows the layout of individual floors, subfloors, and roofs. (Floor plan)
C. Shows side views of the structures depicting the number of floors in the structure and grades of the surrounding ground. (Elevation view)
D. A rough drawing of the structure, facility, or site used to illustrate existing and special conditions. (Field sketch)
539
The letter-symbol method of extinguisher identification is older than the picture-symbol method. The geometric shape used to identify combustible metal fires is:
```
A. Circle.
B. Octagon.
C. Star.
D. Triangle.
E. Square.
```
C. Star. (Class D - Combustible metals)
540
The letter-symbol method of extinguisher identification is older than the picture-symbol method. The geometric shape used to identify ordinary combustibles fires is:
```
A. Triangle.
B. Square.
C. Circle.
D. Star.
E. Octagon.
```
A. Triangle. (Ordinary combustibles - Class A)
________________________________
B. Square. (Flammable liquids - Class B)
C. Circle. (Electrical equipment - Class C)
D. Star. (Combustible metals - Class D)
E. Octagon. (Cooking media - greases, fats, oil - Class K)
541
The letter-symbol method of extinguisher identification is older than the picture-symbol method. The geometric shape used to identify Flammable liquid fires is:
```
A. Triangle.
B. Square.
C. Circle.
D. Star.
E. Octagon.
```
B. Square. (Flammable liquids - Class B)
________________________________
A. Triangle. (Ordinary combustibles - Class A)
B. Square. (Flammable liquids - Class B)
C. Circle. (Electrical equipment - Class C)
D. Star. (Combustible metals - Class D)
E. Octagon. (Cooking media - greases, fats, oil - Class K)
542
The letter-symbol method of extinguisher identification is older than the picture-symbol method. The geometric shape used to identify Electrical equipment fires is:
```
A. Triangle.
B. Square.
C. Circle.
D. Star.
E. Octagon.
```
C. Circle. (Electrical equipment - Class C)
_______________________________
A. Triangle. (Ordinary combustibles - Class A)
B. Square. (Flammable liquids - Class B)
C. Circle. (Electrical equipment - Class C)
D. Star. (Combustible metals - Class D)
E. Octagon. (Cooking media - greases, fats, oil - Class K)
543
The letter-symbol method of extinguisher identification is older than the picture-symbol method. The geometric shape used to identify Combustible metal fires is:
```
A. Triangle.
B. Square.
C. Circle.
D. Star.
E. Octagon.
```
D. Star. (Combustible metals - Class D)
________________________________
A. Triangle. (Ordinary combustibles - Class A)
B. Square. (Flammable liquids - Class B)
C. Circle. (Electrical equipment - Class C)
D. Star. (Combustible metals - Class D)
E. Octagon. (Cooking media - greases, fats, oil - Class K)
544
The letter-symbol method of extinguisher identification is older than the picture-symbol method. The geometric shape used to identify Cooking media (greases, fats, oils) fires is:
```
A. Triangle.
B. Square.
C. Circle.
D. Star.
E. Octagon.
```
E. Octagon. (Cooking media - greases, fats, oil - Class K)
________________________________
A. Triangle. (Ordinary combustibles - Class A)
B. Square. (Flammable liquids - Class B)
C. Circle. (Electrical equipment - Class C)
D. Star. (Combustible metals - Class D)
E. Octagon. (Cooking media - greases, fats, oil - Class K)
545
_____ is an exothermic chemical reaction that releases energy in the form of heat and light.
A. Oxidation.
B. Pyrolysis.
C. Fire.
D. Endothermic reaction.
C. Fire. (aka Combustion)
546
_____ is the thermal or chemical decomposition of a substance through the action of heat.
A. Oxidation.
B. Pyrolysis.
C. Fire.
D. Endothermic reaction.
B. Pyrolysis.
547
The density of liquids in relation to water is known as _____ .
A. Flashpoint.
B. Specific gravity.
C. Gas specific gravity.
D. Fire point.
B. Specific gravity.
548
Liquids have mass and volume, but no definite shape. Liquids assume the shape of their container. Liquids have a number of characteristics that contribute to their abilities to ignite and burn. _____ is described as: "Extent to which a substance will mix with water."
A. Solubility.
B. Vaporization.
C. Vapor pressure.
D. Surface area.
A. Solubility.
549
Atmospheric air contains _____ oxygen.
A. 14%
B. 18%.
C. 21%.
D. 78%.
C. 21%.
550
At normal ambient temperatures (70°F), materials can ignite and burn at oxygen concentrations as low as _____ . When oxygen concentration is limited, flaming combustion should diminish, but combustion may continue in the smoldering mode.
A. 14%
B. 18%.
C. 21%.
D. 78%.
A. 14%
551
There are two forms of ignition. While both piloted ignition and autoignition occur under fire conditions, _____ is the most common.
A. Semi ignition.
B. Piloted ignition.
C. Autoignition.
D. Self ignition.
B. Piloted ignition.
552
There are two forms of ignition. _____ occurs when a mixture of fuel and oxygen encounters an external heat source with sufficient heat energy to start the combustion reaction.
A. Semi ignition.
B. Piloted ignition.
C. Autoignition.
D. Self ignition.
B. Piloted ignition. (Most common)
553
There are two forms of ignition. _____ occurs without any external flame or spark to ignite the fuel gases or vapors. In this case, the fuel surface is chemically heated to the point at which the combustion reaction occurs.
A. Semi ignition.
B. Piloted ignition.
C. Autoignition.
D. Self ignition.
C. Autoignition.
554
Heat energy usually comes from several sources. All of the following sources of energy can heat a substance. Which of the following sources of energy is one of the most common?
A. Light.
B. Chemical.
C. Sound.
D. Nuclear.
B. Chemical.
________________________________
Chemical, electrical, and mechanical energy are the most common sources of heat that result in the ignition of a few.
Other sources of heat energy include light, and nuclear.
555
Numerous factors affect the development and spread of a fire. To limit the spread of a fire in a structure, it may be necessary to acquire the installation of a fire suppression system, fire barriers, or additional fire detection and alarm system to provide the necessary level of life safety for the occupants. The following factors influence fire development within a compartment... the exception is:
A. Fuel type.
B. Availability and location of additional fuel (in relation to the fire location).
C. Compartment volume and ceiling height (geometry).
D. Construction of the roof.
E. Ventilation (and changes in ventilation).
F. Thermal properties of the compartment.
G. Ambient conditions (wind, temperature, humidity, etc.).
H. Effects of changing conditions.
D. Construction of the roof. (FALSE)
556
Both the international building code and the NFPA recognize five types of construction. Every structure is composed of the following building elements... the exception is:
A. Structural frame.
B. Load bearing walls, both interior and exterior.
C. Nonbearing walls and partitions, both interior and exterior.
D. Floor construction.
E. Roof construction.
F. Contents.
F. Contents. (FALSE)
557
Places of assembly include, but are not limited to, all buildings or portions of buildings used for the gathering together of more than _____ persons for such purposes as deliberations, worship, entertainment, dining, amusement, or waiting transportation.
A. 20 persons.
B. 25 persons.
C. 50 persons.
D. 100 persons.
C. 50 persons.
558
Places of assembly facilities that are capable of handling 301 to 1000 persons is a _____ place of assembly.
A. Class A.
B. Class B.
C. Class C.
D. Class D.
```
B. Class B. (301 < 1000 people)
___________________________
A. Class A. (over 1000 people)
B. Class B. (301 < 1000 people)
C. Class C. (50 < 300 people)
D. Class D. (N/A)
```
559
Places of assembly facilities that are capable of handling 50 to 300 persons is a _____ place of assembly.
A. Class A.
B. Class B.
C. Class C.
D. Class D.
```
C. Class C. (50 < 300 people)
________________________________
A. Class A. (over 1000 people)
B. Class B. (301 < 1000 people)
C. Class C. (50 < 300 people)
D. Class D. (N/A)
```
560
Places of assembly facilities that are capable of handling over 1000 persons is a _____ place of assembly.
A. Class A.
B. Class B.
C. Class C.
D. Class D.
```
A. Class A. (over 1000 people)
________________________________
A. Class A. (over 1000 people)
B. Class B. (301 < 1000 people)
C. Class C. (50 < 300 people)
D. Class D. (N/A)
```
561
Residential board and care occupancies are described in NFPA 1 and NFPA 101 as locations where lodging, boarding, and personal care are provided to _____ or more residents who are unrelated to the owner or operator.
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
B. 4
562
Steel is basically an alloy of iron and carbon. Common structural steel has _____ carbon.
A. Less than 0.3%.
B. 2%.
C. 3%.
D. Greater than 5%.
A. Less than 0.3%.
563
Cast iron has a carbon content of _____ . The higher the carbon content of cast iron produces a material that is hard but brittle, while the lower carbon content of steel makes it less likely to fracture or break.
A. Less than 0.3%.
B. 2 to 3%.
C. 3 to 4%.
D. 5 to 6%.
C. 3 to 4%.
564
Structures that make use of fabrics as part of their enclosing surfaces are known as membrane structures. The use of various kinds of fabrics for shelters or structures is not a new concept. All of the following statements are advantages of membrane structures... the exception is:
A. Fabrics weigh less than other roof systems (about 2 pounds per square foot).
B. They can usually be erected in less time than a rigid structural system.
C. The fabric of the membrane can flex and absorb some of the stresses from seismic and wind forces.
D. Fabrics cannot support compressive forces.
E. The use of fabric permits the development of innovative architectural shapes.
D. Fabrics cannot support compressive forces. (Disadvantage)
565
Steel rigid frames with inclined roof members are widely used for the construction of one-story industrial buildings, farm buildings, and a variety of other applications. The top of the rigid frame is also known as the:
A. Ridge.
B. Peak.
C. Knees.
D. Crown.
D. Crown.
566
Steel rigid frames with inclined roof members are widely used for the construction of one-story industrial buildings, farm buildings, and a variety of other applications. The points where the inclined members intersect the vertical members are known as the:
A. Ridge.
B. Peak.
C. Knees.
D. Crown.
C. Knees.
| The "crown" and the "knees" are designed as rigid joints with no rotation between members.
567
Steel columns can vary from simple single-piece members, such as cylindrical pipes, to complex tower assemblies. The most common column cross-sections are... the exception is:
A. Hollow cylinder.
B. Rectangular cylinder.
C. I beam.
D. Wide flange.
C. I beam.
________________________________
"The most common column cross-sections are the hollow cylinder, rectangular tube, and wide flange shape similar to the cross-section of and I-beam."
568
Post and beam framing is a form of wood-frame construction. The posts are usually 4 x 4 inches or 6 x 6 inches. The posts are usually spaced 4 to ____ feet.
A. 12
B. 10
C. 8
D. 6
A. 12
569
Several types of gypsum board are produced for different purposes. _____ is used for shaft walls and solid partitions.
```
A. Coreboard.
B. Regular gypsum board.
C. Type-X gypsum board.
D. Type-C gypsum board.
E. Water-resistant gypsum board.
F. Foil-backed gypsum board.
G. Gypsum backing board.
```
A. Coreboard.
________________________________
A. Coreboard. (Shaft walls and solid partitions)
B. Regular gypsum board. (For most applications)
C. Type-X gypsum board. (Used in fire-rated assemblies)
D. Type-C gypsum board. (Also used in fire-rated assemblies
E. Water-resistant gypsum board. (Used where may be exposed to moisture)
F. Foil-backed gypsum board. (Used to eliminate the vapor barrier in outside walls)
G. Gypsum backing board. (Use as a backing layer and multilayered assemblies)
570
Several types of gypsum board are produced for different purposes. _____ is used for most applications..
```
A. Coreboard.
B. Regular gypsum board.
C. Type-X gypsum board.
D. Type-C gypsum board.
E. Water-resistant gypsum board.
F. Foil-backed gypsum board.
G. Gypsum backing board.
```
B. Regular gypsum board.
________________________________
A. Coreboard. (Shaft walls and solid partitions)
B. Regular gypsum board. (For most applications)
C. Type-X gypsum board. (Used in fire-rated assemblies)
D. Type-C gypsum board. (Also used in fire-rated assemblies
E. Water-resistant gypsum board. (Used where may be exposed to moisture)
F. Foil-backed gypsum board. (Used to eliminate the vapor barrier in outside walls)
G. Gypsum backing board. (Use as a backing layer and multilayered assemblies)
571
Several types of gypsum board are produced for different purposes. _____ is produced with a water-repellent paper facing for use where it may be exposed to moisture.
```
A. Coreboard.
B. Regular gypsum board.
C. Type-X gypsum board.
D. Type-C gypsum board.
E. Water-resistant gypsum board.
F. Foil-backed gypsum board.
G. Gypsum backing board.
```
E. Water-resistant gypsum board.
________________________________
A. Coreboard. (Shaft walls and solid partitions)
B. Regular gypsum board. (For most applications)
C. Type-X gypsum board. (Used in fire-rated assemblies)
D. Type-C gypsum board. (Also used in fire-rated assemblies
E. Water-resistant gypsum board. (Used where may be exposed to moisture)
F. Foil-backed gypsum board. (Used to eliminate the vapor barrier in outside walls)
G. Gypsum backing board. (Use as a backing layer and multilayered assemblies)
572
Several types of gypsum board are produced for different purposes. _____ is used in fire rated assemblies.
```
A. Coreboard.
B. Regular gypsum board.
C. Type-X gypsum board.
D. Type-C gypsum board.
E. Water-resistant gypsum board.
F. Foil-backed gypsum board.
G. Gypsum backing board.
```
BOTH C. Type-X gypsum board. and D. Type-C gypsum board.
________________________________
A. Coreboard. (Shaft walls and solid partitions)
B. Regular gypsum board. (For most applications)
C. Type-X gypsum board. (Used in fire-rated assemblies)
D. Type-C gypsum board. (Also used in fire-rated assemblies
E. Water-resistant gypsum board. (Used where may be exposed to moisture)
F. Foil-backed gypsum board. (Used to eliminate the vapor barrier in outside walls)
G. Gypsum backing board. (Use as a backing layer and multilayered assemblies)
573
Several types of gypsum board are produced for different purposes. _____ is used to eliminate the vapor barrier in outside walls.
```
A. Coreboard.
B. Regular gypsum board.
C. Type-X gypsum board.
D. Type-C gypsum board.
E. Water-resistant gypsum board.
F. Foil-backed gypsum board.
G. Gypsum backing board.
```
F. Foil-backed gypsum board.
________________________________
A. Coreboard. (Shaft walls and solid partitions)
B. Regular gypsum board. (For most applications)
C. Type-X gypsum board. (Used in fire-rated assemblies)
D. Type-C gypsum board. (Also used in fire-rated assemblies
E. Water-resistant gypsum board. (Used where may be exposed to moisture)
F. Foil-backed gypsum board. (Used to eliminate the vapor barrier in outside walls)
G. Gypsum backing board. (Use as a backing layer and multilayered assemblies)
574
Several types of gypsum board are produced for different purposes. _____ is used as a backing layer in multilayer assemblies.
```
A. Coreboard.
B. Regular gypsum board.
C. Type-X gypsum board.
D. Type-C gypsum board.
E. Water-resistant gypsum board.
F. Foil-backed gypsum board.
G. Gypsum backing board.
```
G. Gypsum backing board.
________________________________
A. Coreboard. (Shaft walls and solid partitions)
B. Regular gypsum board. (For most applications)
C. Type-X gypsum board. (Used in fire-rated assemblies)
D. Type-C gypsum board. (Also used in fire-rated assemblies
E. Water-resistant gypsum board. (Used where may be exposed to moisture)
F. Foil-backed gypsum board. (Used to eliminate the vapor barrier in outside walls)
G. Gypsum backing board. (Use as a backing layer and multilayered assemblies)
575
A party wall is a wall that lies on a lot line between two buildings and is common to both buildings. They are almost always loadbearing walls. Party walls are erected to limit the maximum spread of fire; they frequently function as firewalls and extend through a building from the basement through the roof and are capped with a parapet. Party walls are not uncommon in old masonry construction. A very common location for breaches in party walls is in:
A. Cocklofts.
B. Basement.
C. Interior walls.
D. Partitions.
A. Cocklofts. (Attic areas)
576
Roofs are fundamental part of all buildings, with the primary function of providing protection from the weather. From a fire protection standpoint, building roofs can be broadly classified into three categories... the exception is:
A. Curved.
B. Pitched.
C. Arched.
D. Flat.
C. Arched. (FALSE)
________________________________
Flat, pitched, and curved
577
From a fire protection standpoint, the most substantial wood floors are those found in heavy timber buildings. The floor decking in Type IV construction is a minimum 3 inch thick plank with a 1 inch finished flooring supported by _____ beams.
A. 2 x 8 inch.
B. 4 x 8 inch.
C. 6 x 8 inch.
D. 6 x 10 inch.
D. 6 x 10 inch.
578
Doors maybe classified by the way they operate. Generally, the following types of doors are used in modern building construction... the exception is:
```
A. Swinging.
B. Sliding.
C. Rolling.
D. Vertical.
E. Folding.
F. Revolving.
```
C. Rolling. (FALSE)
579
Moving stairs, commonly called escalators, are stairways with electrically powered steps that move continuously in one direction. The steps easily move at speeds of either _____ feet per minute, or _____ feet per minute.
A. 30, 60.
B. 60, 90.
C. 90, 120.
D. 120, 150.
C. 90, 120.
580
Emergency power supplies that requires batteries commonly use a lead-acid type storage batteries. Because of the materials they contain and their potential electromechanical reactions, these batteries percent significant potential hazards. Lead-acid batteries contain the following two hazards, sulfuric acid and:
A. Hydrogen gas.
B. Metallic lead.
C. Plastic wafers.
D. Helium gas.
B. Metallic lead.
* The sulfuric acid releases flammable hydrogen gas during battery charging (can undergo unusual electrochemical reactions such as "thermal runaway" or a battery fire).
* The Metallic lead is a toxic heavy metal.
581
The means of egress system is composed of the three basic elements of exit access, exit, exit discharge. The following are examples of an exit... the exception is:
A. Horizontal exit.
B. Doors at ground level that leads directly to the outside of the building.
C. Stairway that is enclosed by fire-resistance-rated walls and self-closing doors.
D. Elevators.
D. Elevators.
582
The exit access leads from an occupied portion of the building or structure to the exit. The following are examples of an exit access... the exception is:
A. Enclosed stairway.
B. Occupied room or space.
C. Corridor leading to the exit opening.
D. Unclosed ramp or stairs.
E. Aisle or hallway with an assembly occupancy that is designed to accommodate and conduct people to an exit.
F. Pathway leading from inside a space to an exit.
A. Enclosed stairway. (FALSE - considered an exit)
583
Exit passageways are designed to connect an interior exit stair to an exit door on the exterior of the structure.
1) Exit passageways may be constructed with a less fire-resistant materials than the exit stairs.
2) An exit passageway must be wide enough to accommodate the total capacity of all exits that discharge through it.
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
B. #2 is true.
They must be constructed "of the same fire-resistance-rated material as the exit stairs". Simply, an exit passageway is similar to an exit stair enclosure except that is constructed in a horizontal plane.
584
Horizontal exits are commonly used in (but not limited to) high-rise buildings and hospitals as a means of passage through a fire barrier wall that separates two fire compartments in a structure. Two basic types of horizontal exits are:
1) A means of egress from one building to an area of refuge in another building on approximate the same level.
2) A means of egress through a fire barrier or firewall to an area of refuge at approximately the same level in the same building that provides protection from smoke and fire.
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
585
Horizontal exits require firewalls or fire-barrier walls with at least a _____ fire-resistant rating and a _____ rated door assembly.
A. 4 hour ; 2 - 3 hour.
B. 3 hour ; 2 1/2 hour.
C. 2 hour ; 1 1/2 hour.
D. 2 hour ; 1 hour.
C. 2 hour ; 1 1/2 hour.
586
Horizontal exits maybe substituted for other exits if they do not compose more than _____ of the total exit capacity of the building.
A. 20%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
C. 50%
587
Access to a _____ is made through a vestibule or outside balcony. This arrangement prevents smoke from entering the stairwell when corridor doors are opened. The stair enclosure may be pressurized by using either natural or mechanical ventilation.
A. Exit passageways.
B. Horizontal exits.
C. Smokeproof enclosures.
D. Exit discharge.
C. Smokeproof enclosures. (aka Smokeproof towers)
________________________________
Smokeproof enclosures/towers provide the highest degree of fire protection of staring closures that the model code.
588
The exit discharge exists between the termination of the exit and the public way. Two examples of exit discharges:
1) Exterior walkway along the side of a structure from the exit to a public way.
2) Privately owned drive or alley that connects the exit to a public way.
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
589
The least true statement in regards to egress doors is:
A. Doors should open in the direction of travel.
B. Each door opening must be wide enough to accommodate the number of people expected to travel through the door in an emergency.
C. In new buildings, each of the model code organizations require that doors serving as components of a mean of egress be at least 36 inches wide.
D. The floor on each side of the door does not need to be at the same level.
D. The floor on each side of the door does not need to be at the same level. (FALSE)
590
The occupant load is determined by dividing the gross area of the building or the next area of a specific portion of the building by the area in square feet projected for each person. Some examples from assembly occupancies will illustrate the different amounts of space designated for each person. An assembly area of "concentrated" use "without fixed seating", such as an auditorium would have _____ per person.
A. 3 ft.².
B. 7 ft.².
C. 15 ft.².
D. 50 ft.².
B. 7 ft.². (w. out fixed seats, concentrated)
________________________________
A. 5 ft.². (w. out fixed seats, standing space)
B. 7 ft.². (w. out fixed seats, concentrated)
C. 15 ft.². (w. out fixed seating, unconcentrated)
591
The occupant load is determined by dividing the gross area of the building or the next area of a specific portion of the building by the area in square feet projected for each person. Some examples from assembly occupancies will illustrate the different amounts of space designated for each person. An assembly area of "standing space" use "without fixed seating", such as an auditorium would have _____ per person.
A. 5 ft.².
B. 7 ft.².
C. 15 ft.².
D. 50 ft.².
A. 5 ft.². (w. out fixed seats, standing space)
________________________________
A. 5 ft.². (w. out fixed seats, standing space)
B. 7 ft.². (w. out fixed seats, concentrated)
C. 15 ft.². (w. out fixed seating, unconcentrated)
592
The occupant load is determined by dividing the gross area of the building or the next area of a specific portion of the building by the area in square feet projected for each person. Some examples from assembly occupancies will illustrate the different amounts of space designated for each person. An assembly area of "unconcentrated" use "without fixed seating", such as an auditorium would have _____ per person.
A. 5 ft.².
B. 7 ft.².
C. 15 ft.².
D. 50 ft.².
C. 15 ft.². (w. out fixed seating, unconcentrated)
________________________________
A. 5 ft.². (w. out fixed seats, standing space)
B. 7 ft.². (w. out fixed seats, concentrated)
C. 15 ft.². (w. out fixed seating, unconcentrated)
593
In order to provide a protected path of exit travel and to qualify as an exit, all interior stairs must be separated from other parts of the building by proper construction.
1) If an exit next four or more stories, separating construction must have at least a 2 hour fire resistance rating.
2) The fire door must have a 1 hour fire rating when used on a 1 hour rated enclosure.
3) In a 2 hour enclosure, the fire door must be rated at 2 hours.
A. #1 & #2 are true.
B. #1 & #3 are true.
C. #2 & #3 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
A. #1 & #2 are true.
________________________________
3) In a 2 hour enclosure, the fire door must be rated "at 2 hours". (FALSE - "at 1 1/2 hour")
594
_____ provide the highest degree of fire protection of stair enclosures recommended by the model codes.
A. Fire escapes.
B. Interior stair enclosures.
C. Exterior stair enclosures.
D. Smokeproof enclosure.
D. Smokeproof enclosure.
aka Smokeproof towers
595
In business areas, the occupant load is _____ per person.
A. 15 ft.².
B. 100 ft.².
C. 120 ft.².
D. 200 ft.².
B. 100 ft.².
596
The water distribution system consists of three main feeders... the exception is:
A. Primary feeders.
B. Headers.
C. Distributors.
D. Secondary feeders.
B. Headers. (FALSE)
597
Control valve spacing on water mains is usually planned so that if it is necessary to close a valve, a minimum length of the water distribution system will be out of service.
1) The maximum lengths for valve spacing should be 500 feet in high-value districts.
2) The maximum length for valve spacing in other areas is 800 feet.
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
598
Because an adequate water supply is essential to the operation of water-based fire-suppression systems, the ability of inspectors to analyze the water supply is critical. The analysis may involve the actual flow testing of hydrants on the water distribution systems. Flow tests should be conducted after... the exception is:
A. Any extensive water main improvements.
B. Annually.
C. Following construction of water line extensions.
D. Every five years.
B. Annually. (FALSE)
599
When testing the available water supply, determining the number of hydrants to be opened depends on an estimate of the flow available in the area. Enough hydrants should be opened to drop the static pressure by at least 10%. If more accurate results are required, the pressure drop should be increased to:
A. 20%.
B. 25%.
C. 30%.
D. 35%.
B. 25%.
600
Traditionally, the fire service has recognized four basic types of automatic sprinkler systems as defined in NFPA 13. Which of the following is not one of the four basic types?
```
A. Wet-pipe sprinkler system.
B. Dry-pipe sprinkler system.
C. Antifreeze sprinkler system.
D. Deluge sprinkler system.
E. Preaction sprinkler system.
```
C. Antifreeze sprinkler system. (FALSE)
601
A _____ sprinkler system is continually charged with air or nitrogen under pressure. When a sprinkler activates, the air is released allowing the water-flow control valve to operate and charge the system with water. These systems are used in areas where freezing temperatures are likely to occur.
A. Wet-pipe.
B. Dry-pipe.
C. Deluge.
D. Preaction.
B. Dry-pipe.
602
A _____ sprinkler system is continually charged with water under pressure that discharges immediately when one or more sprinklers are activated by heat from a fire.
A. Wet-pipe.
B. Dry-pipe.
C. Deluge.
D. Preaction.
A. Wet-pipe.
603
A _____ sprinkler system is continually charged with air that may or may not be under pressure. The system only operates when both a sprinkler opens and a detection device in the same area activate the water flow control valve.
A. Wet-pipe.
B. Dry-pipe.
C. Deluge.
D. Preaction.
D. Preaction.
604
A _____ sprinkler system consists of open sprinklers attached to unpressurized dry pipes. The system is activated when a detection device in the protected area senses a fire and opens the water-flow control valve to the system. All sprinklers discharge water simultaneously.
A. Wet-pipe.
B. Dry-pipe.
C. Deluge.
D. Preaction.
C. Deluge.
605
The water line on which sprinklers are directly installed is called:
A. Cross main.
B. Feeder main.
C. Branch lines.
D. Main lines.
C. Branch lines.
606
An automatic sprinkler system consists of an arrangement of pipes in different sizes. The system starts with a(n) _____ that may originate from a public or private water supply. The _____ contains a check valve to prevent sprinkler water from flowing back (backflowing) and possibly contaminating the potable (drinkable) water supply. The _____ may also have a pipe to allow the fire department to augment the system through FDC.
A. Underground water supply main.
B. System risers.
C. Cross main.
D. Branch lines.
A. Underground water supply main.
607
An automatic sprinkler system consists of an arrangement of pipes in different sizes. _____ are vertical sections of pipe that connect the underground supply to the rest of the piping in the system. This portion contains the system water-flow control valves and associated hardware that is used for testing, alarm activation, isolation, and maintenance.
A. Underground water supply main.
B. System risers.
C. Cross main.
D. Branch lines.
B. System risers.
608
An automatic sprinkler system consists of an arrangement of pipes in different sizes. Risers supply the _____ that directly serves a number of branch lines.
A. Underground water supply main.
B. System risers.
C. Cross main.
D. Branch lines.
C. Cross main.
609
An automatic sprinkler system consists of an arrangement of pipes in different sizes. Sprinklers are installed on the _____ with nipple risers (short vertical sections of pipe). Hangers, rings, and clamps support the entire system, which may be pitched (sloped) to facilitate drainage.
A. Underground water supply main.
B. System risers.
C. Cross main.
D. Branch lines.
D. Branch lines.
610
_____ standpipes are intended for use by fire suppression personnel trained in handling large hand lines (2 1/2 inch hose).
A. Class 1.
B. Class 2.
C. Class 3.
D. Class 4.
A. Class 1. (Firefighters)
________________________________
B. Class 2. (Trained building occupants)
C. Class 3. (Combination)
611
According to NFPA 20, a variety of fire pump types can be installed as fixed or stationary pumps for fire suppression systems. The five following major type of centrifugal pumps are in use as stationery fire pumps today... the exception is:
```
A. Horizontal split-case pump.
B. Vertical split-case pump.
C. Vertical inline pump.
D. Vertical turbine pump.
E. Horizontal in-line pump.
F. End suction pump.
```
E. Horizontal in-line pump. (FALSE)
612
An additional pump that is found on automatic sprinkler systems is the pressure-maintenance or _____ . Its purpose is to maintain pressure on the sprinkler system. The design of the pressure-maintenance pump may be the same as any of the other listed types.
```
A. Horizontal split-case pump.
B. Vertical split-case pump.
C. Vertical inline pump.
D. Vertical turbine pump.
E. End suction pump.
F. Jockey pump.
```
F. Jockey pump.
613
The _____ is the most common type of fire pump found in stationary fire suppression systems. The drive shaft is on a horizontal plane with the pump on one end of the shaft and the driver (motor) on the other. This pump is used to boost the pressure from incoming, pressurized water source such as a municipal water main or facility water supply. The most common gallon rating for this pump in use today are those in the 500 to 1500 GPM range. Is not a self-priming pump (cannot draft water from a static supply source into the pump on its own).
```
A. Horizontal split-case pump.
B. Vertical split-case pump.
C. Vertical inline pump.
D. Vertical turbine pump.
E. End suction pump.
F. Jockey pump.
```
A. Horizontal split-case pump.
614
The _____ is very similar to the horizontal split-case, except that the impeller shaft runs vertically. This pump is always driven by an electric motor that sits on top of the pump. The main advantage of this pump is it's compactness. Shaft bearings and the assembly frame are designed to support the weight of the unit in a vertical position. The capabilities of this pump are the same as those described for the horizontal split-case pump.
```
A. Horizontal split-case pump.
B. Vertical split-case pump.
C. Vertical inline pump.
D. Vertical turbine pump.
E. End suction pump.
F. Jockey pump.
```
B. Vertical split-case pump.
615
The _____ is a single-stage pump designed to fit into the intake/ discharge line with the driver located above the in-line impeller. The advantages of this pump are the use of installation as a replacement pump, the compact space required for the pump, and the ease of maintenance of the pump and driver. The pump has a capacity up to 1500 GPM and operating pressures up to 165 PSI.
```
A. Horizontal split-case pump.
B. Vertical split-case pump.
C. Vertical inline pump.
D. Vertical turbine pump.
E. End suction pump.
F. Jockey pump.
```
C. Vertical inline pump.
616
The _____ is very useful for lifting water from a source below the pump. They are commonly used as well pumps in non-fire protection applications. Their impellers are actually located within the water supply source. Water is drawn into the impellers and then discharged up through the impeller casing. Most of these pumps are multistage pumps. As the water exits one impeller, it enters the next, and so on until it is discharged into the fire suppression system piping. The volume capabilities of _____ are consistent with horizontal and vertical split-case pumps. However, they are available with discharge pressure ratings up to 500 psi.
```
A. Horizontal split-case pump.
B. Vertical split-case pump.
C. Vertical inline pump.
D. Vertical turbine pump.
E. End suction pump.
F. Jockey pump.
```
D. Vertical turbine pump.
617
The _____ is a variation of the horizontal split-case design. _____ are single-stage pumps that have centerline suction and discharge. They have pressure ratings from 40 to 150 psi, along with flow ranges of 50 to 750 GPM. Their advantages are the ease of installation, simplified piping arrangement, and reduced pipe strain. The pumps are self-venting, which eliminates the need for an automatic air-release valve that is normally installed to control overheating of the pump.
```
A. Horizontal split-case pump.
B. Vertical split-case pump.
C. Vertical inline pump.
D. Vertical turbine pump.
E. End suction pump.
F. Jockey pump.
```
E. End suction pump.
618
A _____ boosts incoming pressure. The shaft moves horizontally with a pump at one end and a motor at the other.
```
A. Horizontal split-case pump.
B. Vertical split-case pump.
C. Vertical inline pump.
D. Vertical turbine pump.
E. End suction pump.
F. Jockey pump.
```
A. Horizontal split-case pump.
619
In a _____ , the driver or motor is located above the inline impeller.
```
A. Horizontal split-case pump.
B. Vertical split-case pump.
C. Vertical inline pump.
D. Vertical turbine pump.
E. End suction pump.
F. Jockey pump.
```
C. Vertical inline pump.
620
A _____ has a vertical impeller shaft but serves the same function as a horizontal split-case pump.
```
A. Horizontal split-case pump.
B. Vertical split-case pump.
C. Vertical inline pump.
D. Vertical turbine pump.
E. End suction pump.
F. Jockey pump.
```
B. Vertical split-case pump.
621
In a _____ , the impellers are located in the water source.
```
A. Horizontal split-case pump.
B. Vertical split-case pump.
C. Vertical inline pump.
D. Vertical turbine pump.
E. End suction pump.
F. Jockey pump.
```
D. Vertical turbine pump.
622
______ are single-stage pumps that have a centerline suction and discharge.
```
A. Horizontal split-case pump.
B. Vertical split-case pump.
C. Vertical inline pump.
D. Vertical turbine pump.
E. End suction pump.
F. Jockey pump.
```
E. End suction pump.
623
_____ is defined as: "Pump with one or more impellers that rotate and use centrifugal force to move the water.
```
A. Centrifugal pump.
B. Jockey pump.
C. Self-priming Centrifugal pump.
D. Single-stage Centrifugal pump.
E. Head pressure.
F. Multistage Centrifugal pump.
```
A. Centrifugal pump.
624
_____ is defined as: "Small-capacity, high-pressure pump used to maintain constant pressure on the fire-protection system; often used to prevent the main pump from starting unnecessarily".
```
A. Centrifugal pump.
B. Jockey pump.
C. Self-priming Centrifugal pump.
D. Single-stage Centrifugal pump.
E. Head pressure.
F. Multistage Centrifugal pump.
```
B. Jockey pump.
625
_____ is defined as: "Centrifugal pump that uses an air-water mixture to reach a fully primed pumping condition."
```
A. Centrifugal pump.
B. Jockey pump.
C. Self-priming Centrifugal pump.
D. Single-stage Centrifugal pump.
E. Head pressure.
F. Multistage Centrifugal pump.
```
C. Self-priming Centrifugal pump.
626
_____ is defined as: "Centrifugal pump with only one impeller."
```
A. Centrifugal pump.
B. Jockey pump.
C. Self-priming Centrifugal pump.
D. Single-stage Centrifugal pump.
E. Head pressure.
F. Multistage Centrifugal pump.
```
D. Single-stage Centrifugal pump.
627
_____ is defined as: "Pressure exerted by a stationary column of water, directly proportional to the height of the column."
```
A. Centrifugal pump.
B. Jockey pump.
C. Self-priming Centrifugal pump.
D. Single-stage Centrifugal pump.
E. Head pressure.
F. Multistage Centrifugal pump.
```
E. Head pressure.
628
_____ is defined as: "Any centrifugal fire pump having more than one impeller."
```
A. Centrifugal pump.
B. Jockey pump.
C. Self-priming Centrifugal pump.
D. Single-stage Centrifugal pump.
E. Head pressure.
F. Multistage Centrifugal pump.
```
F. Multistage Centrifugal pump.
629
Dry standpipe systems should be hydrostatic tested every _____ .
A. Year.
B. 3 years.
C. 5 years.
D. 10 years.
C. 5 years.
630
As with all fire protection systems, standpipe and hose systems need to be inspected and tested at regular intervals. Building management personnel should make a visual inspection at least _____ .
A. Weekly.
B. Monthly.
C. Quarterly.
D. Semi-annually.
B. Monthly.
631
Wet-chemical fire-extinguishing agents are typically composed of water and... the exception is:
A. Potassium carbonate.
B. Potassium citrate.
C. Potassium bicarbonate.
D. Potassium acetate.
C. Potassium bicarbonate. (FALSE)
632
CO2 systems exist as either high-pressure systems or low-pressure systems. Carbon dioxide stored in high-pressure systems is stored in standard DOT cylinders at a pressure of _____ .
A. 300 psi.
B. 550 psi.
C. 850 psi.
D. 1000 psi.
C. 850 psi.
633
CO2 systems exist as either high-pressure systems or low-pressure systems. A low-pressure system is designed to protect much larger hazards. The liquefied CO2 in the system is stored in large, refrigerated tanks at _____ at a temperature of 0°F.
A. 300 psi.
B. 550 psi.
C. 850 psi.
D. 1000 psi.
A. 300 psi.
634
A portable fire extinguisher is viewed by some as the _____ against incipient fires of limited size.
A. First line of offense.
B. Second line of offense.
C. Second line of defense.
D. First line of defense.
D. First line of defense.
635
_____ extinguishers used for Class B and C fires. Colorless noncombustible gas that is heavier than air; extinguishes primarily through a smothering action by establishing a gaseous blanket between the fuel and the surrounding air.
A. Dry chemical.
B. Dry powder.
C. Foam.
D. Carbon dioxide.
D. Carbon dioxide.
636
The type, size and number of extinguishers needed varies according to whether the occupancy is classified as light, ordinary, or extra hazard. Some examples of light hazard occupancies are... the exception is:
```
A. Churches.
B. Light manufacturing.
C. Classrooms.
D. Assembly halls.
E. Offices.
```
B. Light manufacturing. (FALSE - Ordinary hazard)
637
The type, size and number of extinguishers needed varies according to whether the occupancy is classified as light, ordinary, or extra hazard. Some examples of ordinary hazard occupancies are... the exception is:
A. Mercantile storage and display. B. Light manufacturing facilities.
C. Parking garages.
D. Offices.
E. Warehouses with storage below 12 ft.² not classified as extra hazard.
D. Offices. (FALSE - Light hazard)
638
The type, size and number of extinguishers needed varies according to whether the occupancy is classified as light, ordinary, or extra hazard. Some examples of ordinary hazard occupancies are... the exception is:
A. Cotton or waste paper storage (bailed) in a well arranged noncombustible building.
B. Noncombustible institutional buildings with combustible occupancy.
C. Well arranged combustible storage in a noncombustible building.
D. Manufacturing areas with combustible products in a noncombustible building.
D. Manufacturing areas with combustible products in a noncombustible building. (FALSE - Extra hazard)
***(These were all exam examples)***
639
The type, size and number of extinguishers needed varies according to whether the occupancy is classified as light, ordinary, or extra hazard. Some examples of extra hazard occupancies are... the exception is:
A. Automotive repair shops.
B. Painting facilities.
C. Manufacturing operations that use flammable liquids.
D. Restaurants with deep fat fryers.
E. Locations with high piled storage of combustibles.
F. Manufacturing areas with combustible products in a noncombustible building.
G. Cotton or waste paper storage (bailed) and a well arranged noncombustible building.
G. Cotton or waste paper storage (bailed) and a well arranged noncombustible building. (False - Ordinary hazard)
________________________________
NOTE: Any "well arranged" is ordinary hazard***
640
According to NFPA 72, heat sensing fire detectors must be color-coded and marked with their listed operating temperatures. The color-coded for a heat-sensing "high" fire detector with a temperature rating of 250 - 324°F is:
```
A. Uncolored.
B. White.
C. Blue.
D. Red.
E. Green.
F. Orange.
```
```
C. Blue. (High 250 - 324°F)
________________________________
A. Uncolored. (Low or Ordinary 100° - 134°/135°- 174°F)
B. White. (Intermediate 175 - 249°F)
C. Blue. (High 250 - 324°F)
D. Red. (Extra High 325° - 399°F)
E. Green. (Very Extra High 400 - 499°F)
F. Orange. (Ultra High 500 - 575°F)
```
641
According to NFPA 72, heat sensing fire detectors must be color-coded and marked with their listed operating temperatures. The color-coded for a heat-sensing "intermediate" fire detector with a temperature rating of 175 - 249°F is:
```
A. Uncolored.
B. White.
C. Blue.
D. Red.
E. Green.
F. Orange.
```
```
B. White. (Intermediate 175 - 249°F)
________________________________
A. Uncolored. (Low or Ordinary 100° - 134°/135°- 174°F)
B. White. (Intermediate 175 - 249°F)
C. Blue. (High 250 - 324°F)
D. Red. (Extra High 325° - 399°F)
E. Green. (Very Extra High 400 - 499°F)
F. Orange. (Ultra High 500 - 575°F)
```
642
According to NFPA 72, heat sensing fire detectors must be color-coded and marked with their listed operating temperatures. The color-coded for a heat-sensing "Extra High" fire detector with a temperature rating of 325° - 399°F is:
```
A. Uncolored.
B. White.
C. Blue.
D. Red.
E. Green.
F. Orange.
```
```
D. Red. (Extra High 325° - 399°F)
______________________________
A. Uncolored. (Low or Ordinary 100° - 134°/135°- 174°F)
B. White. (Intermediate 175 - 249°F)
C. Blue. (High 250 - 324°F)
D. Red. (Extra High 325° - 399°F)
E. Green. (Very Extra High 400 - 499°F)
F. Orange. (Ultra High 500 - 575°F)
```
643
According to NFPA 72, heat sensing fire detectors must be color-coded and marked with their listed operating temperatures. The color-coded for a heat-sensing "Very Extra High" fire detector with a temperature rating of 400 - 499°F is:
```
A. Uncolored.
B. White.
C. Blue.
D. Red.
E. Green.
F. Orange.
```
```
E. Green. (Very Extra High 400 - 499°F)
______________________________
A. Uncolored. (Low or Ordinary 100° - 134°/135°- 174°F)
B. White. (Intermediate 175 - 249°F)
C. Blue. (High 250 - 324°F)
D. Red. (Extra High 325° - 399°F)
E. Green. (Very Extra High 400 - 499°F)
F. Orange. (Ultra High 500 - 575°F)
```
644
According to NFPA 72, heat sensing fire detectors must be color-coded and marked with their listed operating temperatures. The color-coded for a heat-sensing "Ultra High" fire detector with a temperature rating of 500-575°F is:
```
A. Uncolored.
B. White.
C. Blue.
D. Red.
E. Green.
F. Orange.
```
```
F. Orange. (Ultra High 500 - 575°F)
______________________________
A. Uncolored. (Low or Ordinary 100° - 134°/135°- 174°F)
B. White. (Intermediate 175 - 249°F)
C. Blue. (High 250 - 324°F)
D. Red. (Extra High 325° - 399°F)
E. Green. (Very Extra High 400 - 499°F)
F. Orange. (Ultra High 500 - 575°F)
```
645
There are basically three common types of portable fire extinguishers in use today... the exception is:
A. Stored pressure.
B. Cartridge operated.
C. Loaded stream.
D. Pump operated.
C. Loaded stream. (FALSE)
646
Fire inspection personnel may occasionally encounter fire extinguishers that are out of production and no longer suitable for use. Operating these extinguishers, even when used as directed, could result in injury or death to the user.
In 1982, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration ordered that all of the following extinguishers be removed from service... the exception is:
```
A. Inverting-type.
B. Soldered or riveted shell soda-acid.
C. Chemical foam.
D. Cartridge-operated water.
E. Loaded stream.
F. Pump operated.
```
F. Pump operated. (FALSE)
647
A fire lane is a road or passageway that is required to ensure a means of access and parking for fire apparatus and other emergency vehicles such as ambulances. Most nationally develop fire codes require that all fire lanes and apparatus access roads extend to within _____ of all portions of the building.
A. 150 feet.
B. 100 feet.
C. 50 feet.
D. 25 feet.
A. 150 feet.
648
An inspector should determine whether the angle of approach and departure between the fire lane or apparatus access road and the public street meets the firecode requirements. Generally, an angle of _____ is necessary to allow apparatus to drive onto the lane without striking the ground with the tailboard or front bumper.
A. 8°.
B. 10°.
C. 12°.
D. 15°.
A. 8°.
649
Making a positive first impression with the owner/occupant is always an important step in beginning an inspection. The following considerations are TRUE to help prepare inspector for successful initial contact... the exception is:
A. Maintain a professional appearance.
B. Use a friendly and professional manner with the owner/occupant.
C. Display official identification.
D. Confront ethical compromises or dilemmas.
E. Create and maintain a positive atmosphere with the owner/occupant.
F. Display courteous manner.
G. Retain a professional demeanor.
H. Remain impartial.
I. Maintain a positive approach to code-compliance resolutions.
J. Always remain calm and do not become argumentative.
K. Understand potential cultural differences.
D. "Confront" ethical compromises or dilemmas. (FALSE - "Avoid")
650
The amount of water required for standpipe systems depend on the size and number of fire streams that are needed and the probable length of time the standpipe will be used. In a horizontal standpipe system that supplies three or more Class I or III hose stations, a minimum flow rate of _____ is required.
A. 100 GPM.
B. 500 GPM.
C. 750 GPM.
D. 950 GPM.
C. 750 GPM.
651
Where the discharge pressure at standpipe hose outlets exceeds 100 psi, NFPA 14 requires a pressure regulating device to limit the pressure to 100 psi, unless otherwise approved by the fire department. Pressure-restricting devices consist of a simple restricting orifice inserted into the waterway. They are limited to systems with 1 1/2 inch hose discharge and _____ maximum pressure. This device is not a preferred type because it does not control or reduce the water pressure in the system.
A. 200 psi.
B. 175 psi.
C. 150 psi.
D. 125 psi.
B. 175 psi.
652
Where the discharge pressure at standpipe hose outlets exceeds 100 psi, NFPA 14 requires a pressure regulating device to limit the pressure to 100 psi, unless otherwise approved by the fire department. _____ consist of a simple restricting orifice inserted into the waterway. They are limited to systems with 1 1/2 inch hose discharge and 175 psi maximum pressure. This device is not a preferred type because it does not control or reduce the water pressure in the system.
A. Pressure-restricting devices.
B. Pressure-control devices.
C. Pressure-reducing devices.
A. Pressure-restricting devices.
653
Where the discharge pressure at standpipe hose outlets exceeds 100 psi, NFPA 14 requires a pressure regulating device to limit the pressure to 100 psi, unless otherwise approved by the fire department. _____ preferred for managing excessive pressure and consider to be the most reliable method of pressure control because they use a pitot tube and gauge to read the pressure and automatically reduce the flow through the discharge. Some of the devices are field adjustable, and others are preset at the factory.
A. Pressure-restricting devices.
B. Pressure-control devices.
C. Pressure-reducing devices.
B. Pressure-control devices.
654
Where the discharge pressure at standpipe hose outlets exceeds 100 psi, NFPA 14 requires a pressure regulating device to limit the pressure to 100 psi, unless otherwise approved by the fire department. _____ preferred for managing excessive pressure; use a spring mechanism that compensates for variations in pressure. These mechanisms balance the available pressure within the system with the pressure required for hoseline used.
A. Pressure-restricting devices.
B. Pressure-control devices.
C. Pressure-reducing devices.
C. Pressure-reducing devices.
655
The most serious problem involving CO2 systems, especially total flooding systems, is personnel safety. Total flooding systems are designed to deliver at least a _____ concentration of CO2 into in a closed area, which means that once activated, CO2 will compose at least _____ of the atmosphere. Concentrations this high are lethal to humans.
A. 14%.
B. 24%.
C. 34%.
D. 44%.
C. 34%.
656
In the working environment of commercial kitchens, fire is always present. Employees in such areas are charged with the responsibility to maintain appropriate cooking temperatures to ensure safety. In areas where Class K fires are likely, the maximum travel distance from the hazard to the extinguisher is:
A. 20 feet.
B. 30 feet.
C. 50 feet.
D. 75 feet.
B. 30 feet.
657
Static electricity refers the presence of a non-flowing electrical charge that may develop on almost any surface. Static electricity is hazardous if a charge is present on the surface of a nonconductive material and does not immediately dissipate. A common condition that can generate a static discharge is:
A. Pulverized materials traveling through chutes or pneumatic transfer devices.
B. The generation of static electricity can be prevented.
C. Defective or improper electrical installations.
D. Large appliances or equipment cycling on and off.
A. Pulverized materials traveling through chutes or pneumatic transfer devices.
658
All personnel perform inspections must be familiar with HVAC equipment/systems. To effectively inspect the systems from a fire safety standpoint, inspectors must be able to recognize the various types and operating conditions of a variety of these systems. A _____ is described as: "Automatic controls are provided to turn off the device when the temperature within the ductwork or plenum reaches 250°F. Fire problems with _____ are principally due to inadequate clearances, lack of proper limit controls, heat exchanger burnouts, improper installations, or improper maintenance procedures".
A. Fire-tube boilers.
B. Water-tube boilers.
C. Unit heaters.
D. Warm air furnaces.
D. Warm air furnaces.
659
Quenching is the immersion of a metal part in a quench medium and is divided into batch operations and continuous operations. For "heated" quenching operations, temperatures range from 200 to 400°F. The normal flashpoint of various mediums for heated quenching is 500°F. A quenching oil should never be allowed to be within _____ of its flashpoint.
A. 25°F.
B. 50°F.
C. 75°F.
D. 100°F.
B. 50°F.
660
Quenching is the immersion of a metal part in a quench medium and is divided into batch operations and continuous operations. For "unheated" quenching Is using temperatures from 100° to 200°F. The quenching medium used for unheated quenching normally has a flash point of _____ .
A. 250°F.
B. 300°F.
C. 350°F.
D. 400°F.
B. 300°F.
661
Standpipe and hose systems are designed to provide a means for rapidly deploying firehoses and operating fire streams on all levels of multistory structures and at remote points in large area structures and facilities. In addition to the three classes of Standpipe and hose systems, there are five additional types of standpipe system listed in NFPA 14. _____ is described as: "Contains water in the system, the water supply control valve is open, and pressure is maintained in the system at all times. When the hose valve is opened, water is immediately available".
```
A. Automatic-wet.
B. Automatic-dry.
C. Semiautomatic-dry.
D. Manual-dry.
E. Manual-wet.
```
A. Automatic-wet.
662
In addition to the three classes of Standpipe and hose systems, there are five additional types of standpipe system listed in NFPA 14. _____ is described as: "Contains air under pressure. Water is admitted to the system by the operation of a valve controlled by an electrical switch or other device located at each hose station. Water is not available at the hose station until the water supply control valve is opened by the control device."
```
A. Automatic-wet.
B. Automatic-dry.
C. Semiautomatic-dry.
D. Manual-dry.
E. Manual-wet.
```
B. Automatic-dry.
663
In addition to the three classes of Standpipe and hose systems, there are five additional types of standpipe system listed in NFPA 14. _____ is described as: "Contains unpressurized air in the system and and admits water to the system automatically through the use of a dry-pipe valve when a hose valve is opened."
```
A. Automatic-wet.
B. Automatic-dry.
C. Semiautomatic-dry.
D. Manual-dry.
E. Manual-wet.
```
C. Semiautomatic-dry.
664
In addition to the three classes of Standpipe and hose systems, there are five additional types of standpipe system listed in NFPA 14. _____ is described as: "Contains unpressurized air in pipes and has no permanent water supply; water must be supplied totally from the FDC."
```
A. Automatic-wet.
B. Automatic-dry.
C. Semiautomatic-dry.
D. Manual-dry.
E. Manual-wet.
```
D. Manual-dry.
665
In addition to the three classes of Standpipe and hose systems, there are five additional types of standpipe system listed in NFPA 14. _____ is described as: "Maintains water from a domestic fill connection in the piping for the purpose of detecting leaks on the system. However, no permanently connected water source is attached to the system, and water must be provided by the fire department through the FDC."
```
A. Automatic-wet.
B. Automatic-dry.
C. Semiautomatic-dry.
D. Manual-dry.
E. Manual-wet.
```
E. Manual-wet.
666
In general, foam works by forming a blanket on the burning fuel. The foam blanket excludes oxygen, stops the burning process, and cools adjoining hot surfaces. Foam extinguishers a fire by one or more of the following four methods; _____ is described as: "Lowers the temperature of the fuel and adjacent surfaces."
A. Smothering.
B. Separating.
C. Cooling.
D. Suppressing.
C. Cooling.
667
In general, foam works by forming a blanket on the burning fuel. The foam blanket excludes oxygen, stops the burning process, and cools adjoining hot surfaces. Foam extinguishers a fire by one or more of the following four methods; _____ is described as: "Prevents the release of flammable vapors."
A. Smothering.
B. Separating.
C. Cooling.
D. Suppressing.
D. Suppressing.
668
In general, foam works by forming a blanket on the burning fuel. The foam blanket excludes oxygen, stops the burning process, and cools adjoining hot surfaces. Foam extinguishers a fire by one or more of the following four methods; _____ is described as: "Intervenes between the fuel in the fire."
A. Smothering.
B. Separating.
C. Cooling.
D. Suppressing.
B. Separating.
669
In general, foam works by forming a blanket on the burning fuel. The foam blanket excludes oxygen, stops the burning process, and cools adjoining hot surfaces. Foam extinguishers a fire by one or more of the following four methods; _____ is described as: "Prevents air and flammable vapors from combining."
A. Smothering.
B. Separating.
C. Cooling.
D. Suppressing.
A. Smothering.
670
Electrical heat energy is generated as electric current passes through a conductor such as a copper wire. Electrical heating can occur in several ways; Arcing is defined as:
A. Heat produced when electric current flows through a conductor. Some electrical appliances such as incandescent lamps, ranges, ovens, or portable heaters are designed to make use of ____ . Other electrical equipment is designed to limit ____ under normal operating conditions.
B. When the current flowing through a conductor exceeds its design limits, it may overheat and present and ignition hazard.
C. High-temperature luminous electrical discharge across a gap or through a medium such as charred insulation. May be generated when two conductors are separated from one another or by a surge of high-voltage, static electricity, or lightning.
D. Luminous (glowing) particles that form and spatter away from the point of arcing. In electrical terms, ____ refers to this spatter.
C. High-temperature luminous electrical discharge across a gap or through a medium such as charred insulation. May be generated when two conductors are separated from one another or by a surge of high-voltage, static electricity, or lightning. (Arcing)
________________________________
A. Heat produced when electric current flows through a conductor. Some electrical appliances such as incandescent lamps, ranges, ovens, or portable heaters are designed to make use of ____ . Other electrical equipment is designed to limit ____ under normal operating conditions. (Resistance heating)
B. When the current flowing through a conductor exceeds its design limits, it may overheat and present and ignition hazard. (Overcurrent or overload) Note: - Unintended resistance heating -
C. High-temperature luminous electrical discharge across a gap or through a medium such as charred insulation. May be generated when two conductors are separated from one another or by a surge of high-voltage, static electricity, or lightning. (Arcing)
D. Luminous (glowing) particles that form and spatter away from the point of arcing. In electrical terms, ____ refers to this spatter. (Sparking)
671
Electrical heat energy is generated as electric current passes through a conductor such as a copper wire. Electrical heating can occur in several ways; Overcurrent or overload is defined as:
A. Heat produced when electric current flows through a conductor. Some electrical appliances such as incandescent lamps, ranges, ovens, or portable heaters are designed to make use of ____ . Other electrical equipment is designed to limit ____ under normal operating conditions.
B. When the current flowing through a conductor exceeds its design limits, it may overheat and present and ignition hazard.
C. High-temperature luminous electrical discharge across a gap or through a medium such as charred insulation. May be generated when two conductors are separated from one another or by a surge of high-voltage, static electricity, or lightning.
D. Luminous (glowing) particles that form and spatter away from the point of arcing. In electrical terms, ____ refers to this spatter.
B. When the current flowing through a conductor exceeds its design limits, it may overheat and present and ignition hazard. (Overcurrent or overload) Note: - Unintended resistance heating -
________________________________
A. Heat produced when electric current flows through a conductor. Some electrical appliances such as incandescent lamps, ranges, ovens, or portable heaters are designed to make use of ____ . Other electrical equipment is designed to limit ____ under normal operating conditions. (Resistance heating)
B. When the current flowing through a conductor exceeds its design limits, it may overheat and present and ignition hazard. (Overcurrent or overload) Note: - Unintended resistance heating -
C. High-temperature luminous electrical discharge across a gap or through a medium such as charred insulation. May be generated when two conductors are separated from one another or by a surge of high-voltage, static electricity, or lightning. (Arcing)
D. Luminous (glowing) particles that form and spatter away from the point of arcing. In electrical terms, ____ refers to this spatter. (Sparking)
672
Electrical heat energy is generated as electric current passes through a conductor such as a copper wire. Electrical heating can occur in several ways; Sparking is defined as:
A. Heat produced when electric current flows through a conductor. Some electrical appliances such as incandescent lamps, ranges, ovens, or portable heaters are designed to make use of ____ . Other electrical equipment is designed to limit ____ under normal operating conditions.
B. When the current flowing through a conductor exceeds its design limits, it may overheat and present and ignition hazard.
C. High-temperature luminous electrical discharge across a gap or through a medium such as charred insulation. May be generated when two conductors are separated from one another or by a surge of high-voltage, static electricity, or lightning.
D. Luminous (glowing) particles that form and spatter away from the point of arcing. In electrical terms, ____ refers to this spatter.
D. Luminous (glowing) particles that form and spatter away from the point of arcing. In electrical terms, ____ refers to this spatter. (Sparking)
________________________________
A. Heat produced when electric current flows through a conductor. Some electrical appliances such as incandescent lamps, ranges, ovens, or portable heaters are designed to make use of ____ . Other electrical equipment is designed to limit ____ under normal operating conditions. (Resistance heating)
B. When the current flowing through a conductor exceeds its design limits, it may overheat and present and ignition hazard. (Overcurrent or overload) Note: - Unintended resistance heating -
C. High-temperature luminous electrical discharge across a gap or through a medium such as charred insulation. May be generated when two conductors are separated from one another or by a surge of high-voltage, static electricity, or lightning. (Arcing)
D. Luminous (glowing) particles that form and spatter away from the point of arcing. In electrical terms, ____ refers to this spatter. (Sparking)
673
Electrical heat energy is generated as electric current passes through a conductor such as a copper wire. Electrical heating can occur in several ways; Resistance heating is defined as:
A. Heat produced when electric current flows through a conductor. Some electrical appliances such as incandescent lamps, ranges, ovens, or portable heaters are designed to make use of ____ . Other electrical equipment is designed to limit ____ under normal operating conditions.
B. When the current flowing through a conductor exceeds its design limits, it may overheat and present and ignition hazard.
C. High-temperature luminous electrical discharge across a gap or through a medium such as charred insulation. May be generated when two conductors are separated from one another or by a surge of high-voltage, static electricity, or lightning.
D. Luminous (glowing) particles that form and spatter away from the point of arcing. In electrical terms, ____ refers to this spatter.
A. Heat produced when electric current flows through a conductor. Some electrical appliances such as incandescent lamps, ranges, ovens, or portable heaters are designed to make use of ____ . Other electrical equipment is designed to limit ____ under normal operating conditions. (Resistance heating)
________________________________
B. When the current flowing through a conductor exceeds its design limits, it may overheat and present and ignition hazard. (Overcurrent or overload) Note: - Unintended resistance heating -
C. High-temperature luminous electrical discharge across a gap or through a medium such as charred insulation. May be generated when two conductors are separated from one another or by a surge of high-voltage, static electricity, or lightning. (Arcing)
D. Luminous (glowing) particles that form and spatter away from the point of arcing. In electrical terms, ____ refers to this spatter. (Sparking)
674
The model codes and standards classify industrial ovens and furnaces into four classes: Class A is described as:
A. Has a potential hazard due to flammable material being used or a special atmosphere is present; can use any type of heating system includes a special atmosphere supply system; includes integral quench furnaces and molten salt bath furnaces.
B. Operates at approximately atmospheric pressure where no flammable volatiles or combustible materials are being heated.
C. Operates at approximately atmospheric pressure and has a potential for explosion or fire hazard when flammable volatiles or combustible materials are processed or heated.
D. Operates at temperatures from above ambient to over 5000°F; also operates at pressures normally below atmospheric using any type of heating system; can include the use of special processing atmospheres.
C. Operates at approximately atmospheric pressure and has a potential for explosion or fire hazard when flammable volatiles or combustible materials are processed or heated. (Class A)
________________________________
A. Has a potential hazard due to flammable material being used or a special atmosphere is present; can use any type of heating system includes a special atmosphere supply system; includes integral quench furnaces and molten salt bath furnaces. (Class C)
B. Operates at approximately atmospheric pressure where no flammable volatiles or combustible materials are being heated. (Class B)
C. Operates at approximately atmospheric pressure and has a potential for explosion or fire hazard when flammable volatiles or combustible materials are processed or heated. (Class A)
D. Operates at temperatures from above ambient to over 5000°F; also operates at pressures normally below atmospheric using any type of heating system; can include the use of special processing atmospheres. (Class D)
675
The model codes and standards classify industrial ovens and furnaces into four classes: Class B is described as:
A. Has a potential hazard due to flammable material being used or a special atmosphere is present; can use any type of heating system includes a special atmosphere supply system; includes integral quench furnaces and molten salt bath furnaces.
B. Operates at approximately atmospheric pressure where no flammable volatiles or combustible materials are being heated.
C. Operates at approximately atmospheric pressure and has a potential for explosion or fire hazard when flammable volatiles or combustible materials are processed or heated.
D. Operates at temperatures from above ambient to over 5000°F; also operates at pressures normally below atmospheric using any type of heating system; can include the use of special processing atmospheres.
B. Operates at approximately atmospheric pressure where no flammable volatiles or combustible materials are being heated. (Class B)
________________________________
A. Has a potential hazard due to flammable material being used or a special atmosphere is present; can use any type of heating system includes a special atmosphere supply system; includes integral quench furnaces and molten salt bath furnaces. (Class C)
B. Operates at approximately atmospheric pressure where no flammable volatiles or combustible materials are being heated. (Class B)
C. Operates at approximately atmospheric pressure and has a potential for explosion or fire hazard when flammable volatiles or combustible materials are processed or heated. (Class A)
D. Operates at temperatures from above ambient to over 5000°F; also operates at pressures normally below atmospheric using any type of heating system; can include the use of special processing atmospheres. (Class D)
676
The model codes and standards classify industrial ovens and furnaces into four classes: Class C is described as:
A. Has a potential hazard due to flammable material being used or a special atmosphere is present; can use any type of heating system includes a special atmosphere supply system; includes integral quench furnaces and molten salt bath furnaces.
B. Operates at approximately atmospheric pressure where no flammable volatiles or combustible materials are being heated.
C. Operates at approximately atmospheric pressure and has a potential for explosion or fire hazard when flammable volatiles or combustible materials are processed or heated.
D. Operates at temperatures from above ambient to over 5000°F; also operates at pressures normally below atmospheric using any type of heating system; can include the use of special processing atmospheres.
A. Has a potential hazard due to flammable material being used or a special atmosphere is present; can use any type of heating system includes a special atmosphere supply system; includes integral quench furnaces and molten salt bath furnaces. (Class C)
________________________________
B. Operates at approximately atmospheric pressure where no flammable volatiles or combustible materials are being heated. (Class B)
C. Operates at approximately atmospheric pressure and has a potential for explosion or fire hazard when flammable volatiles or combustible materials are processed or heated. (Class A)
D. Operates at temperatures from above ambient to over 5000°F; also operates at pressures normally below atmospheric using any type of heating system; can include the use of special processing atmospheres. (Class D)
677
The model codes and standards classify industrial ovens and furnaces into four classes: Class D is described as:
A. Has a potential hazard due to flammable material being used or a special atmosphere is present; can use any type of heating system includes a special atmosphere supply system; includes integral quench furnaces and molten salt bath furnaces.
B. Operates at approximately atmospheric pressure where no flammable volatiles or combustible materials are being heated.
C. Operates at approximately atmospheric pressure and has a potential for explosion or fire hazard when flammable volatiles or combustible materials are processed or heated.
D. Operates at temperatures from above ambient to over 5000°F; also operates at pressures normally below atmospheric using any type of heating system; can include the use of special processing atmospheres.
D. Operates at temperatures from above ambient to over 5000°F; also operates at pressures normally below atmospheric using any type of heating system; can include the use of special processing atmospheres. (Class D)
________________________________
A. Has a potential hazard due to flammable material being used or a special atmosphere is present; can use any type of heating system includes a special atmosphere supply system; includes integral quench furnaces and molten salt bath furnaces. (Class C)
B. Operates at approximately atmospheric pressure where no flammable volatiles or combustible materials are being heated. (Class B)
C. Operates at approximately atmospheric pressure and has a potential for explosion or fire hazard when flammable volatiles or combustible materials are processed or heated. (Class A)
678
The general method for locating or distributing extinguishers consists of classified occupancies as 3 different hazard levels. A "Light (low) hazard occupancy" would be:
A. One in which the amount of ordinary combustible materials or flammable liquids presents is such that a fire of small size may be expected. Examples include classrooms, churches, and assembly hall.
B. One in which the amount of ordinary combustibles and flammable liquids present would likely result in an incipient fire of moderate size. In such occupancies, fire growth would not to be so rapid has to be beyond the control of fire extinguishers if the fire were discovered quickly. Examples include mercantile storage and display, light manufacturing facilities, parking garages, and we are houses with storage below 12 sq ft.
C. One in which the amount of ordinary combustible materials and flammable liquids present are high and a rapidly spreading fire may develop. Examples include automotive repair shops, painting facilities, manufacturing operations that use flammable liquids, restaurants with deep fat fryers, and locations with high piled storage of combustible.
A. One in which the amount of ordinary combustible materials or flammable liquids presents is such that a fire of small size may be expected. Examples include classrooms, churches, and assembly hall.
679
The general method for locating or distributing extinguishers consists of classified occupancies as 3 different hazard levels. A "Light (low) hazard occupancy" would be:
A. One in which the amount of ordinary combustible materials or flammable liquids presents is such that a fire of small size may be expected. Examples include classrooms, churches, and assembly hall.
B. One in which the amount of ordinary combustibles and flammable liquids present would likely result in an incipient fire of moderate size. In such occupancies, fire growth would not to be so rapid has to be beyond the control of fire extinguishers if the fire were discovered quickly. Examples include mercantile storage and display, light manufacturing facilities, parking garages, and we are houses with storage below 12 sq ft.
C. One in which the amount of ordinary combustible materials and flammable liquids present are high and a rapidly spreading fire may develop. Examples include automotive repair shops, painting facilities, manufacturing operations that use flammable liquids, restaurants with deep fat fryers, and locations with high piled storage of combustible.
A. One in which the amount of ordinary combustible materials or flammable liquids presents is such that a fire of small size may be expected. Examples include classrooms, churches, and assembly hall. (Light (low) hazard occupancy)
680
The general method for locating or distributing extinguishers consists of classified occupancies as 3 different hazard levels. A "Ordinary (moderate) hazard occupancy" would be:
A. One in which the amount of ordinary combustible materials or flammable liquids presents is such that a fire of small size may be expected. Examples include classrooms, churches, and assembly hall.
B. One in which the amount of ordinary combustibles and flammable liquids present would likely result in an incipient fire of moderate size. In such occupancies, fire growth would not to be so rapid has to be beyond the control of fire extinguishers if the fire were discovered quickly. Examples include mercantile storage and display, light manufacturing facilities, parking garages, and we are houses with storage below 12 sq ft.
C. One in which the amount of ordinary combustible materials and flammable liquids present are high and a rapidly spreading fire may develop. Examples include automotive repair shops, painting facilities, manufacturing operations that use flammable liquids, restaurants with deep fat fryers, and locations with high piled storage of combustible.
B. One in which the amount of ordinary combustibles and flammable liquids present would likely result in an incipient fire of moderate size. In such occupancies, fire growth would not to be so rapid has to be beyond the control of fire extinguishers if the fire were discovered quickly. Examples include mercantile storage and display, light manufacturing facilities, parking garages, and we are houses with storage below 12 sq ft. (Ordinary (moderate) hazard occupancy)
681
The general method for locating or distributing extinguishers consists of classified occupancies as 3 different hazard levels. A "Extra (high) hazard occupancy" would be:
A. One in which the amount of ordinary combustible materials or flammable liquids presents is such that a fire of small size may be expected. Examples include classrooms, churches, and assembly hall.
B. One in which the amount of ordinary combustibles and flammable liquids present would likely result in an incipient fire of moderate size. In such occupancies, fire growth would not to be so rapid has to be beyond the control of fire extinguishers if the fire were discovered quickly. Examples include mercantile storage and display, light manufacturing facilities, parking garages, and we are houses with storage below 12 sq ft.
C. One in which the amount of ordinary combustible materials and flammable liquids present are high and a rapidly spreading fire may develop. Examples include automotive repair shops, painting facilities, manufacturing operations that use flammable liquids, restaurants with deep fat fryers, and locations with high piled storage of combustible.
C. One in which the amount of ordinary combustible materials and flammable liquids present are high and a rapidly spreading fire may develop. Examples include automotive repair shops, painting facilities, manufacturing operations that use flammable liquids, restaurants with deep fat fryers, and locations with high piled storage of combustible. (Extra (high) hazard occupancy)
682
In general, foam works by forming a blanket on the burning fuel. The foam blanket excludes oxygen, stops the burning process, and cools adjoining hot surfaces. Foam extinguishers a fire by one or more of the following four methods; _____ is described as: "Lowers the temperature of the fuel and adjacent surfaces."
A. Smothering.
B. Separating.
C. Cooling.
D. Suppressing.
C. Cooling.
683
In general, foam works by forming a blanket on the burning fuel. The foam blanket excludes oxygen, stops the burning process, and cools adjoining hot surfaces. Foam extinguishers a fire by one or more of the following four methods; _____ is described as: "Prevents the release of flammable vapors."
A. Smothering.
B. Separating.
C. Cooling.
D. Suppressing.
D. Suppressing.
684
In general, foam works by forming a blanket on the burning fuel. The foam blanket excludes oxygen, stops the burning process, and cools adjoining hot surfaces. Foam extinguishers a fire by one or more of the following four methods; _____ is described as: "Intervenes between the fuel in the fire."
A. Smothering.
B. Separating.
C. Cooling.
D. Suppressing.
B. Separating.
685
In general, foam works by forming a blanket on the burning fuel. The foam blanket excludes oxygen, stops the burning process, and cools adjoining hot surfaces. Foam extinguishers a fire by one or more of the following four methods; _____ is described as: "Prevents air and flammable vapors from combining."
A. Smothering.
B. Separating.
C. Cooling.
D. Suppressing.
A. Smothering.
686
Electrical heat energy is generated as electric current passes through a conductor such as a copper wire. Electrical heating can occur in several ways; Arcing is defined as:
A. Heat produced when electric current flows through a conductor. Some electrical appliances such as incandescent lamps, ranges, ovens, or portable heaters are designed to make use of ____ . Other electrical equipment is designed to limit ____ under normal operating conditions.
B. When the current flowing through a conductor exceeds its design limits, it may overheat and present and ignition hazard.
C. High-temperature luminous electrical discharge across a gap or through a medium such as charred insulation. May be generated when two conductors are separated from one another or by a surge of high-voltage, static electricity, or lightning.
D. Luminous (glowing) particles that form and spatter away from the point of arcing. In electrical terms, ____ refers to this spatter.
C. High-temperature luminous electrical discharge across a gap or through a medium such as charred insulation. May be generated when two conductors are separated from one another or by a surge of high-voltage, static electricity, or lightning. (Arcing)
________________________________
A. Heat produced when electric current flows through a conductor. Some electrical appliances such as incandescent lamps, ranges, ovens, or portable heaters are designed to make use of ____ . Other electrical equipment is designed to limit ____ under normal operating conditions. (Resistance heating)
B. When the current flowing through a conductor exceeds its design limits, it may overheat and present and ignition hazard. (Overcurrent or overload) Note: - Unintended resistance heating -
C. High-temperature luminous electrical discharge across a gap or through a medium such as charred insulation. May be generated when two conductors are separated from one another or by a surge of high-voltage, static electricity, or lightning. (Arcing)
D. Luminous (glowing) particles that form and spatter away from the point of arcing. In electrical terms, ____ refers to this spatter. (Sparking)
687
Electrical heat energy is generated as electric current passes through a conductor such as a copper wire. Electrical heating can occur in several ways; Overcurrent or overload is defined as:
A. Heat produced when electric current flows through a conductor. Some electrical appliances such as incandescent lamps, ranges, ovens, or portable heaters are designed to make use of ____ . Other electrical equipment is designed to limit ____ under normal operating conditions.
B. When the current flowing through a conductor exceeds its design limits, it may overheat and present and ignition hazard.
C. High-temperature luminous electrical discharge across a gap or through a medium such as charred insulation. May be generated when two conductors are separated from one another or by a surge of high-voltage, static electricity, or lightning.
D. Luminous (glowing) particles that form and spatter away from the point of arcing. In electrical terms, ____ refers to this spatter.
B. When the current flowing through a conductor exceeds its design limits, it may overheat and present and ignition hazard. (Overcurrent or overload) Note: - Unintended resistance heating -
________________________________
A. Heat produced when electric current flows through a conductor. Some electrical appliances such as incandescent lamps, ranges, ovens, or portable heaters are designed to make use of ____ . Other electrical equipment is designed to limit ____ under normal operating conditions. (Resistance heating)
B. When the current flowing through a conductor exceeds its design limits, it may overheat and present and ignition hazard. (Overcurrent or overload) Note: - Unintended resistance heating -
C. High-temperature luminous electrical discharge across a gap or through a medium such as charred insulation. May be generated when two conductors are separated from one another or by a surge of high-voltage, static electricity, or lightning. (Arcing)
D. Luminous (glowing) particles that form and spatter away from the point of arcing. In electrical terms, ____ refers to this spatter. (Sparking)
688
Electrical heat energy is generated as electric current passes through a conductor such as a copper wire. Electrical heating can occur in several ways; Sparking is defined as:
A. Heat produced when electric current flows through a conductor. Some electrical appliances such as incandescent lamps, ranges, ovens, or portable heaters are designed to make use of ____ . Other electrical equipment is designed to limit ____ under normal operating conditions.
B. When the current flowing through a conductor exceeds its design limits, it may overheat and present and ignition hazard.
C. High-temperature luminous electrical discharge across a gap or through a medium such as charred insulation. May be generated when two conductors are separated from one another or by a surge of high-voltage, static electricity, or lightning.
D. Luminous (glowing) particles that form and spatter away from the point of arcing. In electrical terms, ____ refers to this spatter.
D. Luminous (glowing) particles that form and spatter away from the point of arcing. In electrical terms, ____ refers to this spatter. (Sparking)
________________________________
A. Heat produced when electric current flows through a conductor. Some electrical appliances such as incandescent lamps, ranges, ovens, or portable heaters are designed to make use of ____ . Other electrical equipment is designed to limit ____ under normal operating conditions. (Resistance heating)
B. When the current flowing through a conductor exceeds its design limits, it may overheat and present and ignition hazard. (Overcurrent or overload) Note: - Unintended resistance heating -
C. High-temperature luminous electrical discharge across a gap or through a medium such as charred insulation. May be generated when two conductors are separated from one another or by a surge of high-voltage, static electricity, or lightning. (Arcing)
D. Luminous (glowing) particles that form and spatter away from the point of arcing. In electrical terms, ____ refers to this spatter. (Sparking)
689
Electrical heat energy is generated as electric current passes through a conductor such as a copper wire. Electrical heating can occur in several ways; Resistance heating is defined as:
A. Heat produced when electric current flows through a conductor. Some electrical appliances such as incandescent lamps, ranges, ovens, or portable heaters are designed to make use of ____ . Other electrical equipment is designed to limit ____ under normal operating conditions.
B. When the current flowing through a conductor exceeds its design limits, it may overheat and present and ignition hazard.
C. High-temperature luminous electrical discharge across a gap or through a medium such as charred insulation. May be generated when two conductors are separated from one another or by a surge of high-voltage, static electricity, or lightning.
D. Luminous (glowing) particles that form and spatter away from the point of arcing. In electrical terms, ____ refers to this spatter.
A. Heat produced when electric current flows through a conductor. Some electrical appliances such as incandescent lamps, ranges, ovens, or portable heaters are designed to make use of ____ . Other electrical equipment is designed to limit ____ under normal operating conditions. (Resistance heating)
________________________________
B. When the current flowing through a conductor exceeds its design limits, it may overheat and present and ignition hazard. (Overcurrent or overload) Note: - Unintended resistance heating -
C. High-temperature luminous electrical discharge across a gap or through a medium such as charred insulation. May be generated when two conductors are separated from one another or by a surge of high-voltage, static electricity, or lightning. (Arcing)
D. Luminous (glowing) particles that form and spatter away from the point of arcing. In electrical terms, ____ refers to this spatter. (Sparking)
690
The model codes and standards classify industrial ovens and furnaces into four classes: Class A is described as:
A. Has a potential hazard due to flammable material being used or a special atmosphere is present; can use any type of heating system includes a special atmosphere supply system; includes integral quench furnaces and molten salt bath furnaces.
B. Operates at approximately atmospheric pressure where no flammable volatiles or combustible materials are being heated.
C. Operates at approximately atmospheric pressure and has a potential for explosion or fire hazard when flammable volatiles or combustible materials are processed or heated.
D. Operates at temperatures from above ambient to over 5000°F; also operates at pressures normally below atmospheric using any type of heating system; can include the use of special processing atmospheres.
C. Operates at approximately atmospheric pressure and has a potential for explosion or fire hazard when flammable volatiles or combustible materials are processed or heated. (Class A)
________________________________
A. Has a potential hazard due to flammable material being used or a special atmosphere is present; can use any type of heating system includes a special atmosphere supply system; includes integral quench furnaces and molten salt bath furnaces. (Class C)
B. Operates at approximately atmospheric pressure where no flammable volatiles or combustible materials are being heated. (Class B)
C. Operates at approximately atmospheric pressure and has a potential for explosion or fire hazard when flammable volatiles or combustible materials are processed or heated. (Class A)
D. Operates at temperatures from above ambient to over 5000°F; also operates at pressures normally below atmospheric using any type of heating system; can include the use of special processing atmospheres. (Class D)
691
The model codes and standards classify industrial ovens and furnaces into four classes: Class B is described as:
A. Has a potential hazard due to flammable material being used or a special atmosphere is present; can use any type of heating system includes a special atmosphere supply system; includes integral quench furnaces and molten salt bath furnaces.
B. Operates at approximately atmospheric pressure where no flammable volatiles or combustible materials are being heated.
C. Operates at approximately atmospheric pressure and has a potential for explosion or fire hazard when flammable volatiles or combustible materials are processed or heated.
D. Operates at temperatures from above ambient to over 5000°F; also operates at pressures normally below atmospheric using any type of heating system; can include the use of special processing atmospheres.
B. Operates at approximately atmospheric pressure where no flammable volatiles or combustible materials are being heated. (Class B)
________________________________
A. Has a potential hazard due to flammable material being used or a special atmosphere is present; can use any type of heating system includes a special atmosphere supply system; includes integral quench furnaces and molten salt bath furnaces. (Class C)
B. Operates at approximately atmospheric pressure where no flammable volatiles or combustible materials are being heated. (Class B)
C. Operates at approximately atmospheric pressure and has a potential for explosion or fire hazard when flammable volatiles or combustible materials are processed or heated. (Class A)
D. Operates at temperatures from above ambient to over 5000°F; also operates at pressures normally below atmospheric using any type of heating system; can include the use of special processing atmospheres. (Class D)
692
The model codes and standards classify industrial ovens and furnaces into four classes: Class C is described as:
A. Has a potential hazard due to flammable material being used or a special atmosphere is present; can use any type of heating system includes a special atmosphere supply system; includes integral quench furnaces and molten salt bath furnaces.
B. Operates at approximately atmospheric pressure where no flammable volatiles or combustible materials are being heated.
C. Operates at approximately atmospheric pressure and has a potential for explosion or fire hazard when flammable volatiles or combustible materials are processed or heated.
D. Operates at temperatures from above ambient to over 5000°F; also operates at pressures normally below atmospheric using any type of heating system; can include the use of special processing atmospheres.
A. Has a potential hazard due to flammable material being used or a special atmosphere is present; can use any type of heating system includes a special atmosphere supply system; includes integral quench furnaces and molten salt bath furnaces. (Class C)
________________________________
B. Operates at approximately atmospheric pressure where no flammable volatiles or combustible materials are being heated. (Class B)
C. Operates at approximately atmospheric pressure and has a potential for explosion or fire hazard when flammable volatiles or combustible materials are processed or heated. (Class A)
D. Operates at temperatures from above ambient to over 5000°F; also operates at pressures normally below atmospheric using any type of heating system; can include the use of special processing atmospheres. (Class D)
693
The model codes and standards classify industrial ovens and furnaces into four classes: Class D is described as:
A. Has a potential hazard due to flammable material being used or a special atmosphere is present; can use any type of heating system includes a special atmosphere supply system; includes integral quench furnaces and molten salt bath furnaces.
B. Operates at approximately atmospheric pressure where no flammable volatiles or combustible materials are being heated.
C. Operates at approximately atmospheric pressure and has a potential for explosion or fire hazard when flammable volatiles or combustible materials are processed or heated.
D. Operates at temperatures from above ambient to over 5000°F; also operates at pressures normally below atmospheric using any type of heating system; can include the use of special processing atmospheres.
D. Operates at temperatures from above ambient to over 5000°F; also operates at pressures normally below atmospheric using any type of heating system; can include the use of special processing atmospheres. (Class D)
________________________________
A. Has a potential hazard due to flammable material being used or a special atmosphere is present; can use any type of heating system includes a special atmosphere supply system; includes integral quench furnaces and molten salt bath furnaces. (Class C)
B. Operates at approximately atmospheric pressure where no flammable volatiles or combustible materials are being heated. (Class B)
C. Operates at approximately atmospheric pressure and has a potential for explosion or fire hazard when flammable volatiles or combustible materials are processed or heated. (Class A)
694
The general method for locating or distributing extinguishers consists of classified occupancies as 3 different hazard levels. A "Light (low) hazard occupancy" would be:
A. One in which the amount of ordinary combustible materials or flammable liquids presents is such that a fire of small size may be expected. Examples include classrooms, churches, and assembly hall.
B. One in which the amount of ordinary combustibles and flammable liquids present would likely result in an incipient fire of moderate size. In such occupancies, fire growth would not to be so rapid has to be beyond the control of fire extinguishers if the fire were discovered quickly. Examples include mercantile storage and display, light manufacturing facilities, parking garages, and we are houses with storage below 12 sq ft.
C. One in which the amount of ordinary combustible materials and flammable liquids present are high and a rapidly spreading fire may develop. Examples include automotive repair shops, painting facilities, manufacturing operations that use flammable liquids, restaurants with deep fat fryers, and locations with high piled storage of combustible.
A. One in which the amount of ordinary combustible materials or flammable liquids presents is such that a fire of small size may be expected. Examples include classrooms, churches, and assembly hall.
695
The general method for locating or distributing extinguishers consists of classified occupancies as 3 different hazard levels. A "Light (low) hazard occupancy" would be:
A. One in which the amount of ordinary combustible materials or flammable liquids presents is such that a fire of small size may be expected. Examples include classrooms, churches, and assembly hall.
B. One in which the amount of ordinary combustibles and flammable liquids present would likely result in an incipient fire of moderate size. In such occupancies, fire growth would not to be so rapid has to be beyond the control of fire extinguishers if the fire were discovered quickly. Examples include mercantile storage and display, light manufacturing facilities, parking garages, and we are houses with storage below 12 sq ft.
C. One in which the amount of ordinary combustible materials and flammable liquids present are high and a rapidly spreading fire may develop. Examples include automotive repair shops, painting facilities, manufacturing operations that use flammable liquids, restaurants with deep fat fryers, and locations with high piled storage of combustible.
A. One in which the amount of ordinary combustible materials or flammable liquids presents is such that a fire of small size may be expected. Examples include classrooms, churches, and assembly hall. (Light (low) hazard occupancy)
696
The general method for locating or distributing extinguishers consists of classified occupancies as 3 different hazard levels. A "Ordinary (moderate) hazard occupancy" would be:
A. One in which the amount of ordinary combustible materials or flammable liquids presents is such that a fire of small size may be expected. Examples include classrooms, churches, and assembly hall.
B. One in which the amount of ordinary combustibles and flammable liquids present would likely result in an incipient fire of moderate size. In such occupancies, fire growth would not to be so rapid has to be beyond the control of fire extinguishers if the fire were discovered quickly. Examples include mercantile storage and display, light manufacturing facilities, parking garages, and we are houses with storage below 12 sq ft.
C. One in which the amount of ordinary combustible materials and flammable liquids present are high and a rapidly spreading fire may develop. Examples include automotive repair shops, painting facilities, manufacturing operations that use flammable liquids, restaurants with deep fat fryers, and locations with high piled storage of combustible.
B. One in which the amount of ordinary combustibles and flammable liquids present would likely result in an incipient fire of moderate size. In such occupancies, fire growth would not to be so rapid has to be beyond the control of fire extinguishers if the fire were discovered quickly. Examples include mercantile storage and display, light manufacturing facilities, parking garages, and we are houses with storage below 12 sq ft. (Ordinary (moderate) hazard occupancy)
697
The general method for locating or distributing extinguishers consists of classified occupancies as 3 different hazard levels. A "Extra (high) hazard occupancy" would be:
A. One in which the amount of ordinary combustible materials or flammable liquids presents is such that a fire of small size may be expected. Examples include classrooms, churches, and assembly hall.
B. One in which the amount of ordinary combustibles and flammable liquids present would likely result in an incipient fire of moderate size. In such occupancies, fire growth would not to be so rapid has to be beyond the control of fire extinguishers if the fire were discovered quickly. Examples include mercantile storage and display, light manufacturing facilities, parking garages, and we are houses with storage below 12 sq ft.
C. One in which the amount of ordinary combustible materials and flammable liquids present are high and a rapidly spreading fire may develop. Examples include automotive repair shops, painting facilities, manufacturing operations that use flammable liquids, restaurants with deep fat fryers, and locations with high piled storage of combustible.
C. One in which the amount of ordinary combustible materials and flammable liquids present are high and a rapidly spreading fire may develop. Examples include automotive repair shops, painting facilities, manufacturing operations that use flammable liquids, restaurants with deep fat fryers, and locations with high piled storage of combustible. (Extra (high) hazard occupancy)
698
There are four basic types of fire retardant coatings used on wood: Which is described as: "Form a thick, noncombustible membrane over the surface of the wood."
A. Intumescent paints.
B. Mastics.
C. Gas-forming paints.
D. Cementitous and mineral-fiber coatings.
B. Mastics.
699
There are four basic types of fire retardant coatings used on wood: Which is described as: "Coating that in the past have been used primarily on steel structure members. In recent times, they have seen limited use on wood-based materials."
A. Intumescent paints.
B. Mastics.
C. Gas-forming paints.
D. Cementitous and mineral-fiber coatings.
D. Cementitous and mineral-fiber coatings.
700
_____ heaters use the circulation of reject heat as the heating media. They are self-contained units designed to heat the immediate surrounding area.
Example: electric baseboard heater.
A. Furnaces.
B. Boilers
C. Room heaters.
D. Unit heaters.
C. Room heaters.
701
_____ heaters are self-contained devices that are automatically controlled. They may be mounted on the floor or suspended from a wall or ceiling of occupancies such as manufacturing or storage facilities or gymnasiums. The heating element and fan are enclosed in a common operating unit.
A. Furnaces.
B. Boilers
C. Room heaters.
D. Unit heaters.
D. Unit heaters.
702
There are 4 types of indicating Water-flow control valves used in automatic sprinkler systems. Outside stem and yoke (OS&Y) are:
A. Valve has a yoke on the outside with a threaded stem or screw; the threaded portion of the stem is out of the yoke when the valve is open and inside the yoke when the valve is closed.
B. Valve has a hollow metal post attached to the valve housing. The valve stem inside the post has a target on which the words OPEN or SHUT appear.
C. Similar to a PIV except that it extends horizontally through the wall with the target and valve operating nut on the outside of the building.
D. Similar to the PIV except that it uses a butterfly valve, while the PIV uses a gate valve.
A. Valve has a yoke on the outside with a threaded stem or screw; the threaded portion of the stem is out of the yoke when the valve is open and inside the yoke when the valve is closed. (Outside stem and yoke - OS&Y)
________________________________
B. Valve has a hollow metal post attached to the valve housing. The valve stem inside the post has a target on which the words OPEN or SHUT appear. Post-indicator valve - PIV)
C. Similar to a PIV except that it extends horizontally through the wall with the target and valve operating nut on the outside of the building. (Wall post indicator valve - WPIV)
D. Similar to the PIV except that it uses a butterfly valve, while the PIV uses a gate valve. (Post-indicator valve assembly - PIVA)
703
There are 4 types of indicating Water-flow control valves used in automatic sprinkler systems. Wall post indicator valve (WPIV) are:
A. Valve has a yoke on the outside with a threaded stem or screw; the threaded portion of the stem is out of the yoke when the valve is open and inside the yoke when the valve is closed.
B. Valve has a hollow metal post attached to the valve housing. The valve stem inside the post has a target on which the words OPEN or SHUT appear.
C. Similar to a PIV except that it extends horizontally through the wall with the target and valve operating nut on the outside of the building.
D. Similar to the PIV except that it uses a butterfly valve, while the PIV uses a gate valve.
C. Similar to a PIV except that it extends horizontally through the wall with the target and valve operating nut on the outside of the building. (Wall post indicator valve - WPIV)
________________________________
A. Valve has a yoke on the outside with a threaded stem or screw; the threaded portion of the stem is out of the yoke when the valve is open and inside the yoke when the valve is closed. (Outside stem and yoke - OS&Y)
B. Valve has a hollow metal post attached to the valve housing. The valve stem inside the post has a target on which the words OPEN or SHUT appear. Post-indicator valve - PIV)
D. Similar to the PIV except that it uses a butterfly valve, while the PIV uses a gate valve. (Post-indicator valve assembly - PIVA)
704
There are 4 types of indicating Water-flow control valves used in automatic sprinkler systems. Post-indicator valve assembly (PIVA) are:
A. Valve has a yoke on the outside with a threaded stem or screw; the threaded portion of the stem is out of the yoke when the valve is open and inside the yoke when the valve is closed.
B. Valve has a hollow metal post attached to the valve housing. The valve stem inside the post has a target on which the words OPEN or SHUT appear.
C. Similar to a PIV except that it extends horizontally through the wall with the target and valve operating nut on the outside of the building.
D. Similar to the PIV except that it uses a butterfly valve, while the PIV uses a gate valve.
D. Similar to the PIV except that it uses a butterfly valve, while the PIV uses a gate valve. (Post-indicator valve assembly - PIVA)
________________________________
A. Valve has a yoke on the outside with a threaded stem or screw; the threaded portion of the stem is out of the yoke when the valve is open and inside the yoke when the valve is closed. (Outside stem and yoke - OS&Y)
B. Valve has a hollow metal post attached to the valve housing. The valve stem inside the post has a target on which the words OPEN or SHUT appear. Post-indicator valve - PIV)
C. Similar to a PIV except that it extends horizontally through the wall with the target and valve operating nut on the outside of the building. (Wall post indicator valve - WPIV)
705
There are 4 types of indicating Water-flow control valves used in automatic sprinkler systems. Post-indicator valve (PIV) are:
A. Valve has a yoke on the outside with a threaded stem or screw; the threaded portion of the stem is out of the yoke when the valve is open and inside the yoke when the valve is closed.
B. Valve has a hollow metal post attached to the valve housing. The valve stem inside the post has a target on which the words OPEN or SHUT appear.
C. Similar to a PIV except that it extends horizontally through the wall with the target and valve operating nut on the outside of the building.
D. Similar to the PIV except that it uses a butterfly valve, while the PIV uses a gate valve.
B. Valve has a hollow metal post attached to the valve housing. The valve stem inside the post has a target on which the words OPEN or SHUT appear. (Post-indicator valve - PIV)
________________________________
A. Valve has a yoke on the outside with a threaded stem or screw; the threaded portion of the stem is out of the yoke when the valve is open and inside the yoke when the valve is closed. (Outside stem and yoke - OS&Y)
C. Similar to a PIV except that it extends horizontally through the wall with the target and valve operating nut on the outside of the building. (Wall post indicator valve - WPIV)
D. Similar to the PIV except that it uses a butterfly valve, while the PIV uses a gate valve. (Post-indicator valve assembly - PIVA)
706
Exit "stairs" are a critical component of the means of egress and multistory buildings. When the total occupant load of all floors served by the stairway is less than 50 people, the stairway must be at least _____ wide.
A. 32 inches.
B. 36 inches.
C. 44 inches.
D. 48 inches.
B. 36 inches. (Less than 50 people)
707
In occupant loads more than 50 people, stairways must be at least _____ inches wide.
A. 32 inches.
B. 36 inches.
C. 44 inches.
D. 48 inches.
C. 44 inches. (More than 50 people)
708
Each "door" opening must be wide enough to accommodate the number of people expected to travel through the door in an emergency. In new building codes, doors serving as a means of egress must be at least (1)_____ inches wide, but no more than (2)_____ inches wide, to provide a minimum of (3)_____ inches of clear unobstructed with.
A. 36 ; 44 ; 32
B. 36 ; 48 ; 32
C. 42 ; 48 ; 36
D. 42 ; 46 ; 36
B. 36 ; 48 ; 32
709
Sprinkler coverage in residential systems is not as extensive as in standard systems. In single-family dwellings, sprinklers can be omitted from many areas, including bathrooms not over _____ .
A. 55 ft.².
B. 144 ft.².
C. 158 ft.².
D. 188 ft.².
A. 55 ft.².
710
Spacing for sprinklers in residential systems is a maximum of _____ per sprinkler.
A. 55 ft.².
B. 144 ft.².
C. 158 ft.².
D. 188 ft.².
B. 144 ft.².
711
The maximum spacing "between" sprinklers in residential systems is _____ feet but the maximum allowable distance of a sprinkler from a wall being _____ feet.
A. 10 ; 5
B. 12 ; 6
C. 14 ; 7
D. 16 ; 8
B. 12 ; 6
712
The height of the building and class of service determine the size of the standpipe riser. For Class I & Class III service, the minimum riser is ____ inch pipe. But for buildings over 100 feet a riser of _____ inch pipe is required.
A. 2 inch ; 4 inch
B. 4 inch ; 6 inch
C. 4 inch ; 8 inch
D. 3 inch ; 6 inch.
B. 4 inch ; 6 inch
713
The height of the building and class of service determine the size of the standpipe riser. For Class II service a riser could be _____ inches for a building height less than 50 feet; for a building over 50 feet the minimum riser is _____ inches. Class II systems in buildings over 275 feet in height must be divided into sections.
A. 1 1/2 inches ; 2 1/2 inches.
B. 2 inches ; 2 1/2 inches.
C. 2 inches ; 4 inches.
D. 2 1/2 inches ; 4 inches.
B. 2 inches ; 2 1/2 inches.
714
The height of the building and class of service determine the size of the standpipe riser. In buildings with combined Standpipe and sprinkler system, the minimum riser size is _____ inches.
A. 2 inches.
B. 3 inches.
C. 4 inches.
D. 6 inches.
D. 6 inches.
715
Energy exists in two states: _____ is the energy possessed by an object that may be released in the future.
A. Potential energy.
B. Kinetic energy.
C. Heat energy.
D. Mechanical energy.
A. Potential energy.
716
CO, HCN, and CO2 are three of the more common products of combustion that can be hazardous to occupants and firefighters. Carbon monoxide can be described as:
A. Byproduct of the incomplete combustion of organic (carbon containing) materials. This gas is probably the most common products of combustion encountered in structure fires.
B. Produced in the combustion of materials containing nitrogen and is a significant byproduct of the combustion of polyurethane foam (commonly used in furniture and bedding).
C. Product of complete combustion of organic materials. Acts as a simple asphyxiant by displacing oxygen, also acts as a respiratory stimulant - increasing respiratory rate.
A. Byproduct of the incomplete combustion of organic (carbon containing) materials. This gas is probably the most common products of combustion encountered in structure fires (Carbon monoxide - CO)
________________________________
B. Produced in the combustion of materials containing nitrogen and is a significant byproduct of the combustion of polyurethane foam (commonly used in furniture and bedding). (Hydrogen cyanide - HCN)
C. Product of complete combustion of organic materials. Acts as a simple asphyxiant by displacing oxygen, also acts as a respiratory stimulant - increasing respiratory rate. (Carbon dioxide - CO2)
717
CO, HCN, and CO2 are three of the more common products of combustion that can be hazardous to occupants and firefighters. Hydrogen cyanide can be described as:
A. Byproduct of the incomplete combustion of organic (carbon containing) materials. This gas is probably the most common products of combustion encountered in structure fires.
B. Produced in the combustion of materials containing nitrogen and is a significant byproduct of the combustion of polyurethane foam (commonly used in furniture and bedding).
C. Product of complete combustion of organic materials. Acts as a simple asphyxiant by displacing oxygen, also acts as a respiratory stimulant - increasing respiratory rate.
B. Produced in the combustion of materials containing nitrogen and is a significant byproduct of the combustion of polyurethane foam (commonly used in furniture and bedding). (Hydrogen cyanide - HCN)
________________________________
A. Byproduct of the incomplete combustion of organic (carbon containing) materials. This gas is probably the most common products of combustion encountered in structure fires.
C. Product of complete combustion of organic materials. Acts as a simple asphyxiant by displacing oxygen, also acts as a respiratory stimulant - increasing respiratory rate. (Carbon dioxide - CO2)
718
CO, HCN, and CO2 are three of the more common products of combustion that can be hazardous to occupants and firefighters. Carbon dioxide can be described as:
A. Byproduct of the incomplete combustion of organic (carbon containing) materials. This gas is probably the most common products of combustion encountered in structure fires.
B. Produced in the combustion of materials containing nitrogen and is a significant byproduct of the combustion of polyurethane foam (commonly used in furniture and bedding).
C. Product of complete combustion of organic materials. Acts as a simple asphyxiant by displacing oxygen, also acts as a respiratory stimulant - increasing respiratory rate.
C. Product of complete combustion of organic materials. Acts as a simple asphyxiant by displacing oxygen, also acts as a respiratory stimulant - increasing respiratory rate. (Carbon dioxide - CO2)
________________________________
A. Byproduct of the incomplete combustion of organic (carbon containing) materials. This gas is probably the most common products of combustion encountered in structure fires (Carbon monoxide - CO)
B. Produced in the combustion of materials containing nitrogen and is a significant byproduct of the combustion of polyurethane foam (commonly used in furniture and bedding). (Hydrogen cyanide - HCN)
719
Exposure to _____ is frequently identified as the cause of death for civilian fatalities and firefighters who have run out of air in their SCBA.
A. Carbon monoxide (CO).
B. Hydrogen cyanide (HCN).
C. Carbon dioxide (CO2).
A. Carbon monoxide (CO).
720
The strength of wood is also affected by its moisture content, most structural lumber has a moisture content of _____% or less.
A. 12%
B. 19%
C. 21%
D. 23%
B. 19%
721
Solid lumber includes boards, dimension lumber, and timbers. Boards have a nominal thickness of _____ .
A. 2 inches or more.
B. 2-4 inches.
C. 2 inches or less.
D. 5 inches or more.
```
C. 2 inches or less. (Boards)
________________________________
A. 2 inches or more. (N/A)
B. 2-4 inches. (Dimensional lumber)
C. 2 inches or less. (Boards)
D. 5 inches or more. (Timbers)
```
722
Solid lumber includes boards, dimension lumber, and timbers. Dimension lumber has a nominal thickness of 2 to 4 inches. It is available in length from _____ in 2 foot increments; in addition, members for use as rafters can be supplied in lengths up to 24 feet.
A. 4 - 12 feet.
B. 8 - 16 feet.
C. 8 - 18 feet.
D. 12 - 20 feet.
B. 8 - 16 feet.
723
Solid lumber includes boards, dimension lumber, and timbers. Timbers have a nominal thickness of _____ or more.
A. 2 inches or more.
B. 2 - 4 inches.
C. 2 inches or less.
D. 5 inches or more.
```
D. 5 inches or more. (Timbers)
________________________________
A. 2 inches or more. (N/A)
B. 2-4 inches. (Dimensional lumber)
C. 2 inches or less. (Boards)
D. 5 inches or more. (Timbers)
```
724
Solid lumber includes boards, dimension lumber, and timbers. Dimension lumber has a nominal thickness of _____ . It is available in length from 8 - 16 feet in 2 foot increments; in addition, members for use as rafters can be supplied in lengths up to 24 feet.
A. 2 inches or more.
B. 2-4 inches.
C. 2 inches or less.
D. 5 inches or more.
```
B. 2-4 inches. (Dimensional lumber)
________________________________
A. 2 inches or more. (N/A)
B. 2-4 inches. (Dimensional lumber)
C. 2 inches or less. (Boards)
D. 5 inches or more. (Timbers)
```
725
In Post and Beam design:
A. Columns are not less than 8x8 inches and beams are not less than 6x10 inches.
B. Posts are usually 4x4 inches or 6x6 inches. The posts are usually spaced at 4 to 12 feet apart.
C. Makes use of 2 inch nominal pieces of lumber measuring 2x4 or 2x8 inches.
B. Posts are usually 4x4 inches or 6x6 inches. The posts are usually spaced at 4 to 12 feet apart. (Post and Beam design)
________________________________
A. Columns are not less than 8x8 inches and beams are not less than 6x10 inches. (Heavy Timber design)
C. Makes use of 2 inch nominal pieces of lumber measuring 2x4 or 2x8 inches. (Light Wood - frame construction)
726
In Light Wood - frame construction:
A. Columns are not less than 8x8 inches and beams are not less than 6x10 inches.
B. Posts are usually 4x4 inches or 6x6 inches. The posts are usually spaced at 4 to 12 feet apart.
C. Makes use of 2 inch nominal pieces of lumber measuring 2x4 or 2x8 inches.
C. Makes use of 2 inch nominal pieces of lumber measuring 2x4 or 2x8 inches. (Light Wood - frame construction)
________________________________
A. Columns are not less than 8x8 inches and beams are not less than 6x10 inches. (Heavy Timber design)
B. Posts are usually 4x4 inches or 6x6 inches. The posts are usually spaced at 4 to 12 feet apart. (Post and Beam design)
727
In Heavy Timber design:
A. Columns are not less than 8x8 inches and beams are not less than 6x10 inches.
B. Posts are usually 4x4 inches or 6x6 inches. The posts are usually spaced at 4 to 12 feet apart.
C. Makes use of 2 inch nominal pieces of lumber measuring 2x4 or 2x8 inches.
A. Columns are not less than 8x8 inches and beams are not less than 6x10 inches. (Heavy Timber design)
________________________________
B. Posts are usually 4x4 inches or 6x6 inches. The posts are usually spaced at 4 to 12 feet apart. (Post and Beam design)
C. Makes use of 2 inch nominal pieces of lumber measuring 2x4 or 2x8 inches. (Light Wood - frame construction)
728
_____ may not extend continuously through a building. These walls are erected from a floor to the underside of the floor above or to the bottom of a fire-rated floor/ceiling assembly. Frequently required for applications such as corridor walls and occupancy separation, and are typically one- hour-rated.
A. Fire Partitions.
B. Fire Barriers.
C. Heat partitions.
D. Heat barriers.
A. Fire Partitions.
Note: Fire Partitions and Fire Barriers do not qualify as fire walls.
729
_____ are used for area separations, hazard protection, stairwells, and shafts. They are also used to create areas of refuge in healthcare facilities. Are required to terminate at the floor or roof deck, they are NOT allowed to terminate at the bottom of a fire-rated floor/ceiling assembly. Are typically 1 to 4 hour-rated.
A. Fire Partitions.
B. Fire Barriers.
C. Heat partitions.
D. Heat barriers.
B. Fire Barriers.
Note: Fire Partitions and Fire Barriers do not qualify as fire walls.
730
Which methods of steel structural support systems describes "Open web joists or trusses aka Bar joists".
A. Composed of a "framework" of steel beams in the form of a truss that is used to support a floor assembly.
B. Used to support precast concrete slab. They can also be used to support the metal deck and concrete floor.
C. Produced from "cold rolled" steel and available in several cross-sections; a fairly recent development and construction to support flooring.
A. Composed of a "framework" of steel beams in the form of a truss that is used to support a floor assembly. (Open web joists or trusses - Bar joists)
________________________________
B. Used to support precast concrete slab. They can also be used to support the metal deck and concrete floor. (Steel beams)
C. Produced from "cold rolled" steel and available in several cross-sections; a fairly recent development and construction to support flooring. (Light gauge steel joists)
731
Each of the model codes establishes specific requirements for the number, type, and frequency of emergency exit drills. None of the following occupancies require an evacuation drill... the exception is:
A. Covered malls.
B. Business.
C. Hazardous.
D. Mercantile.
B. Business. (FALSE)
732
Three key elements to an evacuation plan are evacuation routes, monitor duties, and employee/occupants duties. The following statements are all employees/occupant duties... the exception is:
A. Closed doors and windows.
B. Account for the people who are evacuated from the area.
C. Provide information to the IC through the monitor.
D. Turn off all equipment.
E. Check the performance of other essential safety shutdown functions if conditions and time allow.
B. Account for the people who are evacuated from the area. (FALSE - Monitor duty)
733
There are four basic types of fire retardant coatings used on wood: Which is described as: "Form a thick, noncombustible membrane over the surface of the wood."
A. Intumescent paints.
B. Mastics.
C. Gas-forming paints.
D. Cementitous and mineral-fiber coatings.
B. Mastics.
734
There are four basic types of fire retardant coatings used on wood: Which is described as: "Coating that in the past have been used primarily on steel structure members. In recent times, they have seen limited use on wood-based materials."
A. Intumescent paints.
B. Mastics.
C. Gas-forming paints.
D. Cementitous and mineral-fiber coatings.
D. Cementitous and mineral-fiber coatings.
735
_____ heaters use the circulation of reject heat as the heating media. They are self-contained units designed to heat the immediate surrounding area.
Example: electric baseboard heater.
A. Furnaces.
B. Boilers
C. Room heaters.
D. Unit heaters.
C. Room heaters.
736
_____ heaters are self-contained devices that are automatically controlled. They may be mounted on the floor or suspended from a wall or ceiling of occupancies such as manufacturing or storage facilities or gymnasiums. The heating element and fan are enclosed in a common operating unit.
A. Furnaces.
B. Boilers
C. Room heaters.
D. Unit heaters.
D. Unit heaters.
737
There are 4 types of indicating Water-flow control valves used in automatic sprinkler systems. Outside stem and yoke (OS&Y) are:
A. Valve has a yoke on the outside with a threaded stem or screw; the threaded portion of the stem is out of the yoke when the valve is open and inside the yoke when the valve is closed.
B. Valve has a hollow metal post attached to the valve housing. The valve stem inside the post has a target on which the words OPEN or SHUT appear.
C. Similar to a PIV except that it extends horizontally through the wall with the target and valve operating nut on the outside of the building.
D. Similar to the PIV except that it uses a butterfly valve, while the PIV uses a gate valve.
A. Valve has a yoke on the outside with a threaded stem or screw; the threaded portion of the stem is out of the yoke when the valve is open and inside the yoke when the valve is closed. (Outside stem and yoke - OS&Y)
________________________________
B. Valve has a hollow metal post attached to the valve housing. The valve stem inside the post has a target on which the words OPEN or SHUT appear. Post-indicator valve - PIV)
C. Similar to a PIV except that it extends horizontally through the wall with the target and valve operating nut on the outside of the building. (Wall post indicator valve - WPIV)
D. Similar to the PIV except that it uses a butterfly valve, while the PIV uses a gate valve. (Post-indicator valve assembly - PIVA)
738
There are 4 types of indicating Water-flow control valves used in automatic sprinkler systems. Wall post indicator valve (WPIV) are:
A. Valve has a yoke on the outside with a threaded stem or screw; the threaded portion of the stem is out of the yoke when the valve is open and inside the yoke when the valve is closed.
B. Valve has a hollow metal post attached to the valve housing. The valve stem inside the post has a target on which the words OPEN or SHUT appear.
C. Similar to a PIV except that it extends horizontally through the wall with the target and valve operating nut on the outside of the building.
D. Similar to the PIV except that it uses a butterfly valve, while the PIV uses a gate valve.
C. Similar to a PIV except that it extends horizontally through the wall with the target and valve operating nut on the outside of the building. (Wall post indicator valve - WPIV)
________________________________
A. Valve has a yoke on the outside with a threaded stem or screw; the threaded portion of the stem is out of the yoke when the valve is open and inside the yoke when the valve is closed. (Outside stem and yoke - OS&Y)
B. Valve has a hollow metal post attached to the valve housing. The valve stem inside the post has a target on which the words OPEN or SHUT appear. Post-indicator valve - PIV)
D. Similar to the PIV except that it uses a butterfly valve, while the PIV uses a gate valve. (Post-indicator valve assembly - PIVA)
739
There are 4 types of indicating Water-flow control valves used in automatic sprinkler systems. Post-indicator valve assembly (PIVA) are:
A. Valve has a yoke on the outside with a threaded stem or screw; the threaded portion of the stem is out of the yoke when the valve is open and inside the yoke when the valve is closed.
B. Valve has a hollow metal post attached to the valve housing. The valve stem inside the post has a target on which the words OPEN or SHUT appear.
C. Similar to a PIV except that it extends horizontally through the wall with the target and valve operating nut on the outside of the building.
D. Similar to the PIV except that it uses a butterfly valve, while the PIV uses a gate valve.
D. Similar to the PIV except that it uses a butterfly valve, while the PIV uses a gate valve. (Post-indicator valve assembly - PIVA)
________________________________
A. Valve has a yoke on the outside with a threaded stem or screw; the threaded portion of the stem is out of the yoke when the valve is open and inside the yoke when the valve is closed. (Outside stem and yoke - OS&Y)
B. Valve has a hollow metal post attached to the valve housing. The valve stem inside the post has a target on which the words OPEN or SHUT appear. Post-indicator valve - PIV)
C. Similar to a PIV except that it extends horizontally through the wall with the target and valve operating nut on the outside of the building. (Wall post indicator valve - WPIV)
740
There are 4 types of indicating Water-flow control valves used in automatic sprinkler systems. Post-indicator valve (PIV) are:
A. Valve has a yoke on the outside with a threaded stem or screw; the threaded portion of the stem is out of the yoke when the valve is open and inside the yoke when the valve is closed.
B. Valve has a hollow metal post attached to the valve housing. The valve stem inside the post has a target on which the words OPEN or SHUT appear.
C. Similar to a PIV except that it extends horizontally through the wall with the target and valve operating nut on the outside of the building.
D. Similar to the PIV except that it uses a butterfly valve, while the PIV uses a gate valve.
B. Valve has a hollow metal post attached to the valve housing. The valve stem inside the post has a target on which the words OPEN or SHUT appear. (Post-indicator valve - PIV)
________________________________
A. Valve has a yoke on the outside with a threaded stem or screw; the threaded portion of the stem is out of the yoke when the valve is open and inside the yoke when the valve is closed. (Outside stem and yoke - OS&Y)
C. Similar to a PIV except that it extends horizontally through the wall with the target and valve operating nut on the outside of the building. (Wall post indicator valve - WPIV)
D. Similar to the PIV except that it uses a butterfly valve, while the PIV uses a gate valve. (Post-indicator valve assembly - PIVA)
741
Exit "stairs" are a critical component of the means of egress and multistory buildings. When the total occupant load of all floors served by the stairway is less than 50 people, the stairway must be at least _____ wide.
A. 32 inches.
B. 36 inches.
C. 44 inches.
D. 48 inches.
B. 36 inches. (Less than 50 people)
742
In occupant loads more than 50 people, stairways must be at least _____ inches wide.
A. 32 inches.
B. 36 inches.
C. 44 inches.
D. 48 inches.
C. 44 inches. (More than 50 people)
743
Each "door" opening must be wide enough to accommodate the number of people expected to travel through the door in an emergency. In new building codes, doors serving as a means of egress must be at least (1)_____ inches wide, but no more than (2)_____ inches wide, to provide a minimum of (3)_____ inches of clear unobstructed with.
A. 36 ; 44 ; 32
B. 36 ; 48 ; 32
C. 42 ; 48 ; 36
D. 42 ; 46 ; 36
B. 36 ; 48 ; 32
744
Sprinkler coverage in residential systems is not as extensive as in standard systems. In single-family dwellings, sprinklers can be omitted from many areas, including bathrooms not over _____ .
A. 55 ft.².
B. 144 ft.².
C. 158 ft.².
D. 188 ft.².
A. 55 ft.².
745
Spacing for sprinklers in residential systems is a maximum of _____ per sprinkler.
A. 55 ft.².
B. 144 ft.².
C. 158 ft.².
D. 188 ft.².
B. 144 ft.².
746
The maximum spacing "between" sprinklers in residential systems is _____ feet but the maximum allowable distance of a sprinkler from a wall being _____ feet.
A. 10 ; 5
B. 12 ; 6
C. 14 ; 7
D. 16 ; 8
B. 12 ; 6
747
The height of the building and class of service determine the size of the standpipe riser. For Class I & Class III service, the minimum riser is ____ inch pipe. But for buildings over 100 feet a riser of _____ inch pipe is required.
A. 2 inch ; 4 inch
B. 4 inch ; 6 inch
C. 4 inch ; 8 inch
D. 3 inch ; 6 inch.
B. 4 inch ; 6 inch
748
The height of the building and class of service determine the size of the standpipe riser. For Class II service a riser could be _____ inches for a building height less than 50 feet; for a building over 50 feet the minimum riser is _____ inches. Class II systems in buildings over 275 feet in height must be divided into sections.
A. 1 1/2 inches ; 2 1/2 inches.
B. 2 inches ; 2 1/2 inches.
C. 2 inches ; 4 inches.
D. 2 1/2 inches ; 4 inches.
B. 2 inches ; 2 1/2 inches.
749
The height of the building and class of service determine the size of the standpipe riser. In buildings with combined Standpipe and sprinkler system, the minimum riser size is _____ inches.
A. 2 inches.
B. 3 inches.
C. 4 inches.
D. 6 inches.
D. 6 inches.
750
Energy exists in two states: _____ is the energy possessed by an object that may be released in the future.
A. Potential energy.
B. Kinetic energy.
C. Heat energy.
D. Mechanical energy.
A. Potential energy.
751
CO, HCN, and CO2 are three of the more common products of combustion that can be hazardous to occupants and firefighters. Carbon monoxide can be described as:
A. Byproduct of the incomplete combustion of organic (carbon containing) materials. This gas is probably the most common products of combustion encountered in structure fires.
B. Produced in the combustion of materials containing nitrogen and is a significant byproduct of the combustion of polyurethane foam (commonly used in furniture and bedding).
C. Product of complete combustion of organic materials. Acts as a simple asphyxiant by displacing oxygen, also acts as a respiratory stimulant - increasing respiratory rate.
A. Byproduct of the incomplete combustion of organic (carbon containing) materials. This gas is probably the most common products of combustion encountered in structure fires (Carbon monoxide - CO)
________________________________
B. Produced in the combustion of materials containing nitrogen and is a significant byproduct of the combustion of polyurethane foam (commonly used in furniture and bedding). (Hydrogen cyanide - HCN)
C. Product of complete combustion of organic materials. Acts as a simple asphyxiant by displacing oxygen, also acts as a respiratory stimulant - increasing respiratory rate. (Carbon dioxide - CO2)
752
CO, HCN, and CO2 are three of the more common products of combustion that can be hazardous to occupants and firefighters. Hydrogen cyanide can be described as:
A. Byproduct of the incomplete combustion of organic (carbon containing) materials. This gas is probably the most common products of combustion encountered in structure fires.
B. Produced in the combustion of materials containing nitrogen and is a significant byproduct of the combustion of polyurethane foam (commonly used in furniture and bedding).
C. Product of complete combustion of organic materials. Acts as a simple asphyxiant by displacing oxygen, also acts as a respiratory stimulant - increasing respiratory rate.
B. Produced in the combustion of materials containing nitrogen and is a significant byproduct of the combustion of polyurethane foam (commonly used in furniture and bedding). (Hydrogen cyanide - HCN)
________________________________
A. Byproduct of the incomplete combustion of organic (carbon containing) materials. This gas is probably the most common products of combustion encountered in structure fires.
C. Product of complete combustion of organic materials. Acts as a simple asphyxiant by displacing oxygen, also acts as a respiratory stimulant - increasing respiratory rate. (Carbon dioxide - CO2)
753
CO, HCN, and CO2 are three of the more common products of combustion that can be hazardous to occupants and firefighters. Carbon dioxide can be described as:
A. Byproduct of the incomplete combustion of organic (carbon containing) materials. This gas is probably the most common products of combustion encountered in structure fires.
B. Produced in the combustion of materials containing nitrogen and is a significant byproduct of the combustion of polyurethane foam (commonly used in furniture and bedding).
C. Product of complete combustion of organic materials. Acts as a simple asphyxiant by displacing oxygen, also acts as a respiratory stimulant - increasing respiratory rate.
C. Product of complete combustion of organic materials. Acts as a simple asphyxiant by displacing oxygen, also acts as a respiratory stimulant - increasing respiratory rate. (Carbon dioxide - CO2)
________________________________
A. Byproduct of the incomplete combustion of organic (carbon containing) materials. This gas is probably the most common products of combustion encountered in structure fires (Carbon monoxide - CO)
B. Produced in the combustion of materials containing nitrogen and is a significant byproduct of the combustion of polyurethane foam (commonly used in furniture and bedding). (Hydrogen cyanide - HCN)
754
Exposure to _____ is frequently identified as the cause of death for civilian fatalities and firefighters who have run out of air in their SCBA.
A. Carbon monoxide (CO).
B. Hydrogen cyanide (HCN).
C. Carbon dioxide (CO2).
A. Carbon monoxide (CO).
755
The strength of wood is also affected by its moisture content, most structural lumber has a moisture content of _____% or less.
A. 12%
B. 19%
C. 21%
D. 23%
B. 19%
756
Solid lumber includes boards, dimension lumber, and timbers. Boards have a nominal thickness of _____ .
A. 2 inches or more.
B. 2-4 inches.
C. 2 inches or less.
D. 5 inches or more.
```
C. 2 inches or less. (Boards)
________________________________
A. 2 inches or more. (N/A)
B. 2-4 inches. (Dimensional lumber)
C. 2 inches or less. (Boards)
D. 5 inches or more. (Timbers)
```
757
Solid lumber includes boards, dimension lumber, and timbers. Dimension lumber has a nominal thickness of 2 to 4 inches. It is available in length from _____ in 2 foot increments; in addition, members for use as rafters can be supplied in lengths up to 24 feet.
A. 4 - 12 feet.
B. 8 - 16 feet.
C. 8 - 18 feet.
D. 12 - 20 feet.
B. 8 - 16 feet.
758
Solid lumber includes boards, dimension lumber, and timbers. Timbers have a nominal thickness of _____ or more.
A. 2 inches or more.
B. 2 - 4 inches.
C. 2 inches or less.
D. 5 inches or more.
```
D. 5 inches or more. (Timbers)
________________________________
A. 2 inches or more. (N/A)
B. 2-4 inches. (Dimensional lumber)
C. 2 inches or less. (Boards)
D. 5 inches or more. (Timbers)
```
759
Solid lumber includes boards, dimension lumber, and timbers. Dimension lumber has a nominal thickness of _____ . It is available in length from 8 - 16 feet in 2 foot increments; in addition, members for use as rafters can be supplied in lengths up to 24 feet.
A. 2 inches or more.
B. 2-4 inches.
C. 2 inches or less.
D. 5 inches or more.
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B. 2-4 inches. (Dimensional lumber)
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A. 2 inches or more. (N/A)
B. 2-4 inches. (Dimensional lumber)
C. 2 inches or less. (Boards)
D. 5 inches or more. (Timbers)
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760
In Post and Beam design:
A. Columns are not less than 8x8 inches and beams are not less than 6x10 inches.
B. Posts are usually 4x4 inches or 6x6 inches. The posts are usually spaced at 4 to 12 feet apart.
C. Makes use of 2 inch nominal pieces of lumber measuring 2x4 or 2x8 inches.
B. Posts are usually 4x4 inches or 6x6 inches. The posts are usually spaced at 4 to 12 feet apart. (Post and Beam design)
________________________________
A. Columns are not less than 8x8 inches and beams are not less than 6x10 inches. (Heavy Timber design)
C. Makes use of 2 inch nominal pieces of lumber measuring 2x4 or 2x8 inches. (Light Wood - frame construction)
761
In Light Wood - frame construction:
A. Columns are not less than 8x8 inches and beams are not less than 6x10 inches.
B. Posts are usually 4x4 inches or 6x6 inches. The posts are usually spaced at 4 to 12 feet apart.
C. Makes use of 2 inch nominal pieces of lumber measuring 2x4 or 2x8 inches.
C. Makes use of 2 inch nominal pieces of lumber measuring 2x4 or 2x8 inches. (Light Wood - frame construction)
________________________________
A. Columns are not less than 8x8 inches and beams are not less than 6x10 inches. (Heavy Timber design)
B. Posts are usually 4x4 inches or 6x6 inches. The posts are usually spaced at 4 to 12 feet apart. (Post and Beam design)
762
In Heavy Timber design:
A. Columns are not less than 8x8 inches and beams are not less than 6x10 inches.
B. Posts are usually 4x4 inches or 6x6 inches. The posts are usually spaced at 4 to 12 feet apart.
C. Makes use of 2 inch nominal pieces of lumber measuring 2x4 or 2x8 inches.
A. Columns are not less than 8x8 inches and beams are not less than 6x10 inches. (Heavy Timber design)
________________________________
B. Posts are usually 4x4 inches or 6x6 inches. The posts are usually spaced at 4 to 12 feet apart. (Post and Beam design)
C. Makes use of 2 inch nominal pieces of lumber measuring 2x4 or 2x8 inches. (Light Wood - frame construction)
763
_____ may not extend continuously through a building. These walls are erected from a floor to the underside of the floor above or to the bottom of a fire-rated floor/ceiling assembly. Frequently required for applications such as corridor walls and occupancy separation, and are typically one- hour-rated.
A. Fire Partitions.
B. Fire Barriers.
C. Heat partitions.
D. Heat barriers.
A. Fire Partitions.
Note: Fire Partitions and Fire Barriers do not qualify as fire walls.
764
_____ are used for area separations, hazard protection, stairwells, and shafts. They are also used to create areas of refuge in healthcare facilities. Are required to terminate at the floor or roof deck, they are NOT allowed to terminate at the bottom of a fire-rated floor/ceiling assembly. Are typically 1 to 4 hour-rated.
A. Fire Partitions.
B. Fire Barriers.
C. Heat partitions.
D. Heat barriers.
B. Fire Barriers.
Note: Fire Partitions and Fire Barriers do not qualify as fire walls.
765
Which methods of steel structural support systems describes "Open web joists or trusses aka Bar joists".
A. Composed of a "framework" of steel beams in the form of a truss that is used to support a floor assembly.
B. Used to support precast concrete slab. They can also be used to support the metal deck and concrete floor.
C. Produced from "cold rolled" steel and available in several cross-sections; a fairly recent development and construction to support flooring.
A. Composed of a "framework" of steel beams in the form of a truss that is used to support a floor assembly. (Open web joists or trusses - Bar joists)
________________________________
B. Used to support precast concrete slab. They can also be used to support the metal deck and concrete floor. (Steel beams)
C. Produced from "cold rolled" steel and available in several cross-sections; a fairly recent development and construction to support flooring. (Light gauge steel joists)
766
Which methods of steel structural support systems describes "Steel beams".
A. Composed of a "framework" of steel beams in the form of a truss that is used to support a floor assembly.
B. Used to support precast concrete slab. They can also be used to support the metal deck and concrete floor.
C. Produced from "cold rolled" steel and available in several cross-sections; a fairly recent development and construction to support flooring.
B. Used to support precast concrete slab. They can also be used to support the metal deck and concrete floor. (Steel beams)
________________________________
A. Composed of a "framework" of steel beams in the form of a truss that is used to support a floor assembly. (Open web joists or trusses - Bar joists)
C. Produced from "cold rolled" steel and available in several cross-sections; a fairly recent development and construction to support flooring. (Light gauge steel joists)
767
Which methods of steel structural support systems describes "Light gauge steel joists".
A. Composed of a "framework" of steel beams in the form of a truss that is used to support a floor assembly.
B. Used to support precast concrete slab. They can also be used to support the metal deck and concrete floor.
C. Produced from "cold rolled" steel and available in several cross-sections; a fairly recent development and construction to support flooring.
C. Produced from "cold rolled" steel and available in several cross-sections; a fairly recent development and construction to support flooring. (Light gauge steel joists)
________________________________
A. Composed of a "framework" of steel beams in the form of a truss that is used to support a floor assembly. (Open web joists or trusses - Bar joists)
B. Used to support precast concrete slab. They can also be used to support the metal deck and concrete floor. (Steel beams)
768
Fire exit drills should be conducted in all types of occupancies. The least true statement on fire exit drills is:
A. Exit drills should be conducted at at least two times per year.
B. The responsibility for planning and evacuating fire drills lies with the fire department, fire prevention division.
C. Emergency evacuation drills should be conducted in all types of occupancies.
D. Records of emergency evacuation drills must be kept at the facility.
B. The responsibility for planning and evacuating fire drills lies with the fire department, fire prevention division. (FALSE - The occupancy's loss control or safety staff has the responsibility for planning and executing emergency evacuation drills.)
769
Generally, the format of an email message follows that of a memo with address lines identifying to whom the message is directed, who originated the message, and a subject line. The following suggested limitations are FALSE regarding use of email messages... the exception is:
A. Email messages are used in place of an official document.
B. Assume an email message was actually received by the party to whom it was sent.
C. Use proper formatting and grammar when sending email messages.
D. Remember that a contact person email address will be the same as the contact name and email address in a faculty file.
E. Schedule inspection appointments by email only.
C. Use proper formatting and grammar when sending email messages. (TRUE)
770
Inspectors should ensure that building representative inspect the dry-chemical system as required by NFPA 17. If the system is controlled by a fusible link device, the fusible link should be replaced at least _____ as required by the manufacturer.
A. Monthly.
B. Quarterly.
C. Semiannually.
D. Annually.
D. Annually.
771
Determining the distribution of Class B extinguishers depends upon the travel distance to the hazard. According to NFPA 10, a flammable liquid spill is considered to be "with depth" when the depths of the liquid is:
A. Less than 1/4 inch depth.
B. 1/4 inch or greater in depth.
C. Less than 1/2 inch depth.
D. 1/2 inch or greater in depth.
B. 1/4 inch or greater in depth. ("With depth")
________________________________
Less than 1/4 inch depth is considered to be "without depth" according to NFPA 10.
772
Electric power sources provided for fire detection and alarm systems must be adequate for the capacity of the system design. A secondary power supply must be provided for fire detection and alarm system. The secondary system must be able to make the fire detection and alarm system fully operational within _____ of the main power supplies failure.
A. 1 second.
B. 15 seconds.
C. 30 seconds.
D. 60 seconds.
C. 30 seconds.
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Secondary power supply must consist of one of the following items:
• Storage battery and charger (Note: cannot be a dry-cell battery).
• Engine driven generator and a four hour capacity storage battery.
• Multiple engine driven generators, of which one must always be set for automatic starting (emergency power).
773
Many municipalities, as well as some county and state governments, have regulations to control open burning within their jurisdictions. In general, code requirements for regulating open burning include the following... the exception is:
A. Uncontained fires should not be allowed within 75 feet of a structure.
B. Grounds around a burn pile or bonfire should be cleared of vegetation or cut to less than 3 inches.
C. A Responsible person capable of preventing the spread of fire must attend the burn operation into the fire is extinguished.
D. Fires should only be allowed when when conditions are less than 5 mph.
E. a fire extinguisher, garden hose, or other similar equipment that can be used to extinguish spreading fire must be present during the burn.
A. Uncontained fires should not be allowed within "75 feet" of a structure. (FALSE - "50 feet")
774
Many people confuse hearing and listening. Consider the following statements regarding hearing and listening:
1) Hearing is the physiological process that involves soundwaves striking the eardrums.
2) Listening is the active part of the communication process that includes attending, understanding, remembering, evaluating, and responding to a speaker.
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. Both #1 & #2 are true.
D. Both #1 & #2 are false.
C. Both #1 & #2 are true.
775
Inspection practices consist of a series of activities, generally performed in order, which result in a complete examination of a faculty or occupancy. A number of items can be examined before meeting the owner/occupant at the building entrance... the exception is:
A. Fire protection systems, controls, and conditions.
B. Conditions, barriers, or obstructions that may affect fire department access to the building.
C. Building name, address, and address numbers.
D. Fire department connections.
A. Fire protection systems, controls, and conditions. (FALSE)
776
A change in a building occupancy classification is a frequent occurrence when an old structure is remodeled or renovated. Therefore, and inspector needs to be aware of the original occupancy classification before conducting the inspection. In particular, changes in occupancy can affect the following fire and life safety code requirements... the exception is:
A. Occupant load calculations.
B. Fire protection equipment design or installation.
C. Building structural modifications. D. Means of egress.
C. Building structural modifications. (FALSE)
777
Weather data is entered on a checklist or PDA, items that should be contained on the inspection checklist include the following... the exception is:
A. Inspectors name.
B. Fire safety knowledge of building representative who accompanied inspector.
C. Height of building and number of stories and below grade.
D. Interior and exterior finishes.
B. Fire safety knowledge of building representative who accompanied inspector. (FALSE)
778
Emergency evacuation drills and educational occupancies require that all persons in the building actually participate. Codes that require _____ emergency evacuation drills may be modified to account for severe weather conditions.
A. Annual.
B. Semiannual.
C. Quarterly.
D. Monthly.
D. Monthly.
779
Ideally, inspection records should be maintained for all properties or facilities (excluding one and two family residences) within a jurisdiction. The following statement is FALSE regarding inspection records.
A. At a minimum, records shall be maintained on occupancies that have been issued a permit, certificate of occupancy, or license of some type within the past five years.
B. At a minimum, records should be maintained on occupancies that contain automatic fire suppression, detection, or alarm systems.
C. At a minimum, record should be maintained on occupancies that contain hazardous materials or perform hazardous operations on a routine basis.
D. It is recommended that records be maintained on a building or facility for its lifetime.
A. At a minimum, records shall be maintained on occupancies that have been issued a permit, certificate of occupancy, or license of some type "within the past five years." (FALSE - would be true if the past 5 years part was omitted)
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Note: According to the ICC the retention of records should be for a minimum of five years after a structure is demolished.
780
Chemical and physical changes almost always involves an exchange of energy. Consider the following statements regarding exchange of energy:
1) Reactions that give off as they occur are called endothermic reactions.
2) Reactions that absorb energy as they occur are called exothermic reactions.
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. Both #1 & #2 are true.
D. Both #1 & #2 are false.
D. Both #1 & #2 are false.
781
According to NFPA 1 and 101, doctor and dentist offices are categorized as:
A. Institutional occupancy.
B. Business occupancy.
C. Mercantile occupancy.
D. Utility/miscellaneous occupancy.
C. Mercantile occupancy.
782
Heat energy comes from a number of different sources. Chemical, electrical, and mechanical energy are the most common sources of heat that result in the ignition of a fuel. Mechanical heat energy is generated by _____ and compression.
A. Resistance.
B. Friction.
C. Decomposition.
D. Dielectric heating.
B. Friction.
783
Suction tanks are located at ground level and provide water supply source for pressure-increasing fire pumps. The minimum tank capacity of _____ may be found, depending on the water supply requirements of the facility.
A. 20,000 gallons.
B. 15,000 gallons.
C. 10,000 gallons.
D. 5000 gallons.
D. 5000 gallons.
784
Which methods of steel structural support systems describes "Steel beams".
A. Composed of a "framework" of steel beams in the form of a truss that is used to support a floor assembly.
B. Used to support precast concrete slab. They can also be used to support the metal deck and concrete floor.
C. Produced from "cold rolled" steel and available in several cross-sections; a fairly recent development and construction to support flooring.
B. Used to support precast concrete slab. They can also be used to support the metal deck and concrete floor. (Steel beams)
________________________________
A. Composed of a "framework" of steel beams in the form of a truss that is used to support a floor assembly. (Open web joists or trusses - Bar joists)
C. Produced from "cold rolled" steel and available in several cross-sections; a fairly recent development and construction to support flooring. (Light gauge steel joists)
785
Which methods of steel structural support systems describes "Light gauge steel joists".
A. Composed of a "framework" of steel beams in the form of a truss that is used to support a floor assembly.
B. Used to support precast concrete slab. They can also be used to support the metal deck and concrete floor.
C. Produced from "cold rolled" steel and available in several cross-sections; a fairly recent development and construction to support flooring.
C. Produced from "cold rolled" steel and available in several cross-sections; a fairly recent development and construction to support flooring. (Light gauge steel joists)
________________________________
A. Composed of a "framework" of steel beams in the form of a truss that is used to support a floor assembly. (Open web joists or trusses - Bar joists)
B. Used to support precast concrete slab. They can also be used to support the metal deck and concrete floor. (Steel beams)
