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DAT BIO > DAT bio Chapter 11.4 Nervous system > Flashcards

DAT bio Chapter 11.4 Nervous system Flashcards

1
Q

Structure of neuron

A

has three parts: the soma (cell body),
dendrites (extensions that receive signals), and
the axon (sends signals out).

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2
Q

What is the axon hill lock?

A

Place where the axon connects to the cell body.
Responsible for the
summation of graded potentials.

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3
Q

What is myelin sheath?

A

fatty insulation of the axon
that speeds up action potential propagation by
stopping ion exchange.

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4
Q

In the CNS myelin sheath is formed by

A

oligodendrocytes

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5
Q

In the PNC myelin sheath is formed by

A

schwann cells

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6
Q

What are the nodes of ranvier?

A
  • gaps between myelin
    sheaths where ion exchange occurs.
    Propagation of the action potential occurs
    here, jumping from gap to gap (node to node)
    in a process called saltatory conduction.
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7
Q

Steps of an action potential

1)

A 
At resting potential, the membrane potential
of the neuron is around -70mV and is
maintained by Na+/K+ ATPases, which pump
three Na+ ions out and two K+
ions in, powered
by hydrolysis of one ATP. K+
leak channels are
also present and help maintain resting
potential through passive K
\+
leakage.
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8
Q

Steps of an action potential

2)

A

When a stimulus causes threshold potential
to be reached (around -55mV in neurons),
voltage-gated Na+ channels open up, letting
Na+
in, resulting in depolarization of the
neuron (reaches a peak of around +30mV to
+40mV).

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9
Q

Steps of an action potential

3)

A

Next is repolarization of the neuron due to
the opening of voltage-gated K+ channels,
letting K+ out. This causes the membrane
potential to become less positive since positive
ions are leaving.

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10
Q

Steps of an action potential

4)

A

When the membrane potential becomes even
more negative than the normal resting
potential, this is known as hyperpolarization.
This results in a refractory period being
established, during which another action
potential cannot be fired because the
membrane potential is very negative.

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11
Q

Steps of an action potential

5)

A

The membrane potential returns to normal
resting potential through the pumping of
Na+/K+ ATPases and K+
leak channels.

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12
Q

What is the absolute refractory period?

A

refers to the
period after the initiation of the action potential
during which another action potential cannot be
fired no matter how powerful the stimulus is. It is
due to the inactivation of voltage-gated Na
+

channels after they open.

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13
Q

What is The relative refractory period?

A

period after the action potential fires during which
a stronger than normal stimulus could cause
another action potential to be fired.

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14
Q

What is the synapese?

A

space between two neurons

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15
Q

who sends the signal the presynaptic or postynaptic

A

presynaptic

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16
Q

Steps of synaptic transmission step 1

A

Action potential reaches the end of the
presynaptic axon, causing voltage gated
calcium channels to open and letting Ca2+
ions into the neuron.

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17
Q

Steps of synaptic transmission step 2

A

The Ca2+ ions cause synaptic vesicles to fuse
and undergo exocytosis, releasing
neurotransmitters into the synapse.

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18
Q

Steps of synaptic transmission step 3`

A

The neurotransmitters (described in the table
on the next page) bind to ligand-gated ion
channels on the postsynaptic neuron,
producing graded potentials (depolarizations
or hyperpolarizations of the membrane).

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19
Q

Steps of synaptic transmission step 4

A

These graded potentials summate at the axon
hillock and an action will fire if the summation
of graded potentials is higher than the
threshold potential of neurons.

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20
Q

What is excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)

A

graded potential that depolarizes the membrane.

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21
Q

What does excited neurotransmitter cause in EPSP

A

cause Na+
ion gates to open and let Na+
ions flow into the cell.

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22
Q

What is inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)

A

graded potential that hyperpolarizes the

membrane.

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23
Q

What does excited neurotransmitter cause in IPSP

A 
Inhibitory neurotransmitters cause K+
ion gates to open and let K+
ions flow out of the
cell. Another IPSP type allows influx of Cl-,
allowing negative Cl-
ions in.
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24
Q

What are non neuronal cells in the nervous system that help support and surround neurons?

A

glial cells

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25
Q

Glial cells are divided into

A

microglial cells and macroglial cells

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26
Q

Microglial cells are _______that protect the ______

A

macrophages

CNS

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27
Q

Microglial cells have many subtypes

A 
astrocytes
schwann cells
oligondendrocytes
satellite cells
ependymal cells
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28
Q

Astrocytes

A

the most abundant glial cell
and form the blood-brain barrier. They also
help recycle neurotransmitters and provide
blood supply to the CNS neurons.

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29
Q

Schwann cells

A

form the myelin sheath in the

peripheral nervous system (PNS).

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30
Q

Oligodendrocytes

A

form the myelin sheath in

the central nervous system (CNS).

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31
Q

Satellilte cells

A

same functions as

astrocytes but instead help PNS neurons.

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32
Q

Ependymal cells

A

produce cerebrospinal fluid

(CSF), which cushions the CNS.

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33
Q

CNS is composed of

A

brain and spinal cord

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34
Q

PNS is composed of

A

nerves branching off the CNS

35
Q

In embryonic development we consider ____ ____ ____ in the CNS

A

forebrain
midbrain
hindbrain

36
Q

Forebrain develops into two things

A

telencephalon

diencephalon

37
Q

Telencelphalon gives rise to

A

cerebrum

38
Q

diencephalon gives rise to

A

thalamus
hypothalamus
pineal gland

39
Q

mid brain develops into

A

mesencephalon

40
Q

mesencephalon gives rise to

A

midbrain

41
Q

hind brain develops into

A

metencephalon

myelencephalon

42
Q

metencephalon gives rise to

A

pons, cerebellum

43
Q

myelencephalon gives rise to

A

medulla oblongata

44
Q

the developed brain cortex is divided into what four lobes?

A

frontal lobes
temporal lobes
occipital lobe
parietal lobe

45
Q

frontal lobe function

A

higher function decision making, problem solving
attention
memories and emotions

46
Q

temporal lobe functions

A

speech/language

hearing

47
Q

occipital lobe functoin

A

vision

48
Q

parietal lobe

A 
visual perception (PAT pattern folding)
touch/pain/ temp sensation
49
Q

Where is the cerebellum located?

A

underneath the occipital lobe and is responsible for the coordination of movement

50
Q

The autonomic nervous system is divided into what two things

A

sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system

51
Q

Sympathetic nervous system is _____

A

fight or flight

52
Q

Parasympathetic nervous system is _____

A

rest and digest

53
Q

Sympathetic nervous sytem effects are

A

Release of sugar into blood for energy.
● Increase in heart rate for oxygen delivery to
brain and muscles.
● Dilation of bronchi and bronchioles to allow
more oxygen into lungs.
● Dilation of the pupil to give the brain more
visual information.

54
Q

Parasympathetic nervous system effects

A

Relaxation of muscles.
● Decrease in heart rate.
● Maintenance of homeostasis.
● Increase in gastrointestinal activity.

55
Q

what is a ganglion

A

cluster of nerve bodies

in the peripheral nervous system.

56
Q

The autonomic
nervous system’s neurons are either
____ or _____

A

preganglionic or postganglionic

57
Q

the preganglionic neurons comes from where?

A

the central
nervous system and synapses with the
postganglionic neuron at the ganglion.

58
Q

Sympathetic nervous system contains

A

short
preganglionic nerves and long postganglionic
nerves

59
Q

Parasympathetic nervous system

A

long
preganglionic nerves and short postganglionic
nerves

60
Q

Sympathetic nervous system → uses what

A

acetylcholine (Ach) for preganglionic nerves and
norepinephrine (NE)/epinephrine (E) for
postganglionic nerves. The sympathetic nervous
system also can stimulate the adrenal medulla to
release NE/E into the blood.

61
Q

Parasympathetic nervous system → uses

A

acetylcholine (Ach) for both preganglionic and

postganglionic nerves.

62
Q

What takes in sound waves

A

outer eat

63
Q

what transfer the sound from outer ear to middle ear?

A

tympanic membrane

64
Q

Where is the malleus, incus, and stapes located?

A

middle ear

65
Q

The middle ear is composed of three bony ossicles. name them

A

malleus
incus
stapes

66
Q

The ossicles transfer _____ through the ear and ____ the ____

A

vibrations
middle ear
amplify the signal

67
Q

The stapes transfers the vibrations from the middle ear to the inner ear using what

A

oval window

68
Q

What does the cochlea use to convert mechanical signal into a neuronal signal known as transduction?

A

uses fluid and hair

69
Q

What is the round window?

A

membrane covered
opening between the middle ear and the inner
ear, similar to the oval window. It helps the
fluid expand and vibrate.

70
Q

The semicircular canal contains what

A

fluid and hairs.

gives info about persons movement (reason why we get dizzy)

71
Q

Cornea

A

transparent; focuses light and

protects the eye.

72
Q

iris

A

controls the size of the pupil

73
Q

lens

A

focuses images on retina

74
Q

retina

A

back of the eye that has photoreceptors (cones and rods)

75
Q

fovea

A

highest concentration of
photoreceptors in the retina and responsible
for high acuity vision.

76
Q

Amacrine and bipolar cells do what

A

take info from rods and cones and transmit that info to ganglion cells of the optic nerve fiber

77
Q

optic nerve

A

bundle of axons that transmits visual info to the brain

78
Q

optic disk

A

blind spot of the eye, where the optic nerve passes through to reach the brain

79
Q

Sclera

A

protective connective tissue that surrounds the eye, the white part of the eye

80
Q

Choroid

A

vascular connective tissue

81
Q

The tongue has how many taste receptor cells

A

5

82
Q

Taste info is sent where

A

thalamus and subsequently the gustatory cortex

83
Q

Nose contains what

A

olfactory receptor cells

84
Q

What does the olfactory receptor cells sense

A

molecules and send signals to the olfactory cortex which gives us the perception of smell. These signals also integrate in the thalamus
and orbitofrontal cortex for smell sensation.

DAT BIO (25 decks)

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