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Flashcards in Day 8.1 Oncology Deck (258):
1

Hallmarks of cancerous cells

Evade apop
self-sufficient growth signals
insensitive to anti-growth signals
sustained angiogenesis
limitless replication
tsu invasion
metastasis

2

hyperplasia

increased # of cells

3

dysplasia

abn prolif of cells w loss of size/shape/orientation
commonly pre-neoplastic

4

anaplasia

abn cells lacking differentiation. don't resemble original cell at all, bc have de-differentiated and lost characteristics
when cells are anaplastic, it is hard to identify where they came from.

5

in-situ carcinoma

pre-invasive
neoplastic cells have not invaded BM
have a high nuclear:cytoplasmic ration and clumped chromatin
neoplastic cells encompass entire thickness of the area
tumor cells are mono-clonal

6

Invasive carcinoma

cells have invaded BM using collagenases and hydrolases
if they reach a lymph vessel or blood vessel, they can metastasize

7

Metastasis

spread to distant organ via blood (mesenchymal) or lymph (epithelial)
must survive immune attack
seed/soil theory- must deposit, adhere, develop own blood supply
angiogenesis allows for tumor survival
decreased cadherin,
increased laminin,
increased integrin receptors

8

metaplasia

one adult cell type is replaced by another cell type
often secondary to irritation/env exposure
eg smokers get squamous cell metaplasia in trachea, bronchi

9

neoplasia

clonal proliferation of cells that is uncontrolled and excessive

10

desmoplasia

fibrous tsu formation in response to neoplasm

11

do cancers become less differentiated or more differentiated as they grow?

LESS differentiated.

12

hamartoma

mass of mature tsu that is endogenous to the site where it's found.
like hyperplasia.

13

features of anaplastic cells

high nucleus to cytoplasm ratio
prominent nucleoli
nuclear chromatin clumping
many mitotic figures

14

tumor grade

degree of cellular differentiation dep on histological appearance
grade is 1-4 based on how much differentiation and number of mitoses.
grade 4 is the least differentiated (worst)
grade = character of tumor itself
(stage = spread)

15

tumor stage

stage = spread
degree of localization/spread based on site/size of primary lesion, spread to regional lymph nodes, presence of metastases
TNM:
T= size of Tumor
N= Node involvment
M= Metastases

16

Which is more prognostic, tumor grade or stage?

Stage

17

How do epithelial tumors spread? Mesenchymal tumors?

Mesenchymal (loose CT) tumors spread thru blood
Epithelial tumors spread thru lymph

18

Classify: osteoma

benign bone tumor

19

classify: angiosarcoma

malignant blood vessel tumor

20

classify: rhabdomyoma

benign skel musc tumor

21

classify: papillary carcinoma

malignant epithelial cell tumor

22

classify: leiomyosarcoma

malignant smooth musc tumor

23

classify: leukemia

malignant blood cell tumor

24

classify: lipoma

benign fat tumor

25

classify: osteosarcoma

malignant bone tumor

26

classify: hemangioma

benign blood vessel tumor

27

classify: adenoma

benign epithelial cell tumor

28

classify: leiomyoma

benign smooth musc cell tumor
(uterine fibroids)

29

classify: papilloma

benign epithelial cell tumor

30

classify: adenocarcinoma

malignant epithelial cell tumor

31

classify: lymphoma

malignant blood cell tumor

32

classify: lipsarcoma

malignant fat cell tumor

33

classify: multiple myeloma

malignant blood cell (b cell) tumor

34

classify: rhabdomyoma

benign skel musc tumor

35

Tumors w >1 cell type

benign: mature teratoma (women) aka dermoid tumor

malignant: mature teratoma (men) or immature teratoma

36

What is the difference between carcinoma and sarcoma?

Carcinoma = epithelial origin
Sarcoma = mesenchymal origin
BUT both are malignant.

37

T/F most mesenchymal tumors do NOT go from benign to malignant tumors

True

38

Benign v Malignant tumor differences

Benign = well differentiated (mature, resemble tsu they come from), slow well-organized growth, well demarcated- no BM invasion, and no metastasis

Malignant - poorly differentiated (aka anaplastic), erratic growth, local invasion, diffuse, may mestastasize

39

Stain for connective tsu

vimentin

40

Stain for neuroglia

GFAP

41

Stain for epithelial cells

cytokeratin

42

Stain for muscle

desmin

43

stain for neurons

Neurofilaments (that's the name of the stain)

44

Stain for carcinoma (and some sarcomas)

Cytokeratin (stains epithel cells)

45

Stain for Rhabdomyosarcoma

Desmin (Stains muscle)

46

Stain for Sarcomas (and some carcinomas)

Vimentin (stains conenective tsu)

47

Stain for leiomyosarcoma

Desmin (stains muscle)

48

Stain for adrenal neuroblastoma

Neurofilaments

49

Stain for primitive neuroectodermal tumor

Neurofilaments (Stains neurons)

50

Neoplasm in Down syndrome

ALL (we ALL fall DOWN)
AML

51

Neoplasm in xeroderma pigmentosum (thymidine dimer repair defect) and albinism

melanoma
basal cell carcinoma
sq cell carcinoma of the skin (esp this one)

52

Neoplasem in chronic atrophic gastritis, pernicious anemia, or post-surgical gastric remnants

Gastric adenocarcinoma

53

neoplasm in Tuberous sclerosis (facial angiofibroma, seizures, MR, ash leaf spots)

astrocytoma (10% of pts)
angiomyolipoma
cardiac rhabdomyoma (2/3 of pts!!)

54

Neoplasm in actinic keratosis (sandpaper lesions on sun-exposed skin)

sq cell carcinoma of the skin

55

neoplasm in barrett's esophagous (chronic GI reflux)

esophageal adenocarcinoma

56

Neoplasm in plummer-vinson syndrome (atrophic glossitis/smooth tongue, esophg webs (causing aphagia), anemia- all d/t iron def)

sq cell carcinoma of the esophg

57

Neoplasm assoc w cirrhosis (alcoholic, hep B or hep C)

hepatocellular carcinoma (screen all pts w aFP)

58

neoplasm in ulcerative colitis (and crohns, but less so)

colonic adenocarcinoma

59

neoplasm in paget's dz of bone

secondary osteosarcoma and fibrosarcoma

60

neoplasm in immunodeficiency states

malignant lymphomas

61

neoplasm in AIDS pts

aggressive malignant lymphomas (non-hodgkin's)
kaposi's sarcoma

62

neoplasm in autoimmune dz (eg hashimoto's thyroiditis, myasthenia gravis)

Lymphoma

63

Neoplasm in acanthosis nigricans (hyperpigmentation and epidermal thickening)

visceral malignancy (stomach, lung, breast, uterus)

64

neoplasm in dysplastic nevus

malignant melanoma

65

neoplasm in radiation exposure

sarcoma, papillary thyroid cancer

66

Neoplasm in ataxia-telangiectasia (DNA repair defect)

Lymphomas
Acute leukemias

67

Neoplasm in Sjogren's syndrome (dry mouth, dry eyes)

B cell lymphoma

68

Rx for actinic keratosis (sandpaper lesions on skin)

5-fluoruracil cream (turns the spots beefy red)

69

What does acanthosis nigricans usu indicate?

Diabetes
But, if it's NEW ac nig in pt >40yo, 50% of the time it will be d/t visceral cancer.

70

neoplasm in achalasia (narrowing of LES)

sq cell carcinoma of the esphg

71

What are oncogenes?

Genes that, when mutated, cause a GAIN of function, and therefore cause cancer.
Only need damage to ONE allele since it gains fn by mutation.

72

List the oncogenes

abl
c-myc
bcl-2
erb-B2
ras (K-ras, N-ras, H-ras)
L-myc
N-myc
ret
c-kit

73

Oncogene abl a/w which tumor?

CML
gene product is a non-receptor tyrosine kinase

74

Oncogene c-myc a/w which tumor?

Burkitt's lymphoma

75

Oncogene bcl-2 a/w which tumor?

follicular and undifferentiated lymphomas (inhibits apoptosis)

76

Oncogene erb-B2 a/w which tumors?

breast, ovarian, and gastric carcinoma

77

Oncogene L-myc a/w which tumor?

Lung tumors- esp small cell lung cancer

78

Oncogene N-myc a/w which tumor

Neuroblastoma (adrenal!)

79

What histology is seen in adrenal neuroblastoma?

Homer-Wright rosettes

80

Oncogene c-kit is a/w which tumor?

GIST: gastrointestinal stromal tumor

81

Oncogene ret is assoc w which tumors?

MEN 2A and 2B
medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
papillary carcinoma of the thyroid

82

Oncogene Ras is a/w which tumors?

Follicular thyroid carcinoma
H-ras: bladder and kidney tumors
K-ras: Kolon, lung, panKreatic tumors
N-ras: melanomas, hematologic malignancies

83

What is a tumor supressor gene?

Usually suppresses tumors, mutation means LOSS of function. Have to lose BOTH alleles before there is dz, since if you lose one, the other is still working to suppress.

84

List the TSGs

Rb
BRCA1, BRCA2
p53
p16
APC
WT1
NF1, NF2
DPC, DCC

85

TSG Rb a/w which tumor?

Retinoblastoma
and (!) osteosarcoma

86

TSGs BRCA1 and BRCA2 a/w which tumors?

BRCA1- breast and ovarian cancer
BRCA2- breast cancer

87

TSG p53 is a/w which tumors?

Most human cancers
Li-Fraumeni syndrome

88

TSG p16 is a/w which tumor?

Melanoma

89

TSG APC is a/w which tumor?

Colorectal cancer (a/w FAP)
Gardner's syndrome

90

TSG WT1 a/w which tumor?

Wilms' tumor

91

TSGs NF1 and NF2 a/w which tumor

Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (von Recklinghausen)
Neurofibromatosis Type 2 (bilateral acoustic schwanomas)

92

TSGs DPC and DCC a.w which tumors?

DPC = Deleted in Pancreatic Cancer
DCC = Deleted in Colon Cancer

93

T/F the best way to dx is by tumor marker

False. Do not dx. Only confirm, monitor for tumor recurrence, monitor response to therapy.

94

PSA

Prostate-specific Ag
Used to screen for prostate carcinoma
But, is elevated in any prostate pathology- BPH, prostatitis, etc.

95

Prostatic acid phosphatase

Tumor marker for prostate carcinoma

96

CEA

Carcinoembryonic Ag
Tumor marker- v non-specific, but made by 70% of colorectal and pancreatic cancers. Also made by gastric and breast carcinoma

97

alpha-Feto Protein

Normally made by fetus
Used as a tumor marker for hepatocellular carcinomas (screen HBV and HCV pts for aFP)
Also marker for non-seminomatous germ cell tumors of the testis (eg yolk sac tumor, aka endodermal sinus tumor)

98

B-hCG

Normal in pregnancy
Tumor marker for hydatidiform moles and choriocarcinomas (and molar pregnancy is a precursor to choriocarcinoma)

99

CA-125

Tumor marker for ovarian and malignant epithelial tumors.
Any peritoneal irritation will cause increased CA-125, so not good for screening for ovarian, but ovarian might have it.

100

S-100

Tumor marker for:
melanoma
neural tumors
astrocytoma (in tuberous sclerosis)

101

Alk Phos

alkaline phosphatase
Tumor marker for metastases to bone, obstructive biliary dz, or paget's dz or bone

102

Bombesin

Tumor marker for neuroblastoma (adrenal), lung, and gastric cancer

103

TRAP

Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase.
Tumor marker for hairy cell leukemia (B cell neoplasm)
TRAP the HAIRY animal.

104

CA-19-9

Tumor marker for pancreatic adenocarcinoma

105

HTLV-1 is assoc w which cancer?

Human Tcell Leukemia/Lymphoma-1

106

HBV and HCV are a/w which cancer?

Hepatocellular carcinoma (see increased aFP)
HCV is also assoc w papillary thyroid carcinoma

107

EBV is a/w which cancer?

Burkitt's lymphoma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Hodgkin's lymphoma
Oral hairy leukoplakia

108

HPV is a/w which cancer?

Cervical carcinoma (16, 18)
Penile/anal carcinoma
Vulvar epithelial carcinoma, vulvar cancer

109

HHV-8 is a/w which cancer?

Body cavity fluid B-cell lymphoma
Kaposi's sarcoma

110

Aspergilis aflatoxin a/w which cancer?

Hepatocellular carcinoma

111

Vinyl chloride exposure is a.w which cancer?

Angiosarcoma in the liver (blood vessels of liver)

112

CCl4 is a/w neoplasm in what organ?

Liver- centrolobular necrosis, fatty chg)

113

Nitrosamines from smoked foods cause neoplasms in what organs?

Esophg, Stomach

114

Cigarette smoke is a carcinogen to which organs?

Larynx (sq cell carcinoma)
Lung (sq cell and sml cell carcinoma)
Kidney (renal cell carcinoma)
Bladder (transitional cell carcinoma)

115

Asbestos causes which cancer?

Lung cancer:
Brochogenic carcinoma
Mesothelioma

116

Arsenic causes which cancer?

Skin- sq cell carcinoma
Liver- angiosarcoma (blood vessels of liver)

117

Naphthalene (aniline) dyes a/w which cancer?

Bladder- transitional cell carcinoma
Napthalene is found in moth balls too.

118

Alkylating agents (cancer drugs) can cause which cancer?

Blood cancers- leukemia

119

Radon (coal mines, basements) causes which cancer?

Lung cancer

120

What cancer does Schistosoma cause?

sq cell carcinoma of the bladder (transitional epithelium)

121

What cancer is a/w H. pylori?

Gastric adenocarcinoma and lymphoma

122

What cancer is a/w HIV?

Primary CNS lymphoma
(note: Kaposi's is in AIDS pts, but it's caused by HHV-8)

123

What cancers cause increased ADH, leading to SIADH?

small cell lung carcinoma and intracranial neoplasms (or any CNS disorder)
Causes hyponatremia (bc holding in too much water, so diluted), and decreased serum osmolarity

124

What cancers cause increased ACTH or ACTH-like peptide?

small cell lung carcinoma
The increased ACTH causes increased cortisol and Cushing's syndrome.

125

What cancers cause increased PTH-rp (related protein), which leads to hypercalcemia, and also increases TGF-B, TNF, and IL-1

small cell lung carcinoma, renal cell carcinoma, breast carcinoma, and multiple myeloma

126

What are the neoplasms that increase EPO, leading to polycythemia?

Renal cell carcinoma, hemangioblastoma, hepatacellular carcinoma, and pheochromocytoma

127

Which cancers cause Ab against presynaptic channels at the NMJ?

Thymomas and small cell lung carcinomas.
The Ab cause Lambert-Easton syndrome (muscle weakness that gets better with use)- it's difficult to generate muscle contractions bc you can't rls NT (Ca2+)

128

What cancers cause hyperuricemia d/t excess nucleic acid turnover (i.e. cytotoxic therapy)?

Leukemias and Lymphoma.
The hyperuricemia leads to gout and urate nephropathy.

129

When are psamomma bodies seen?

PSaMMoma:
Papillary adenocarcinoma of the thyroid
Serous cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary
Meningioma
Malignant Mesotheioma

Psammoma bodies are laminated, concentric, calcific spherules. Looks like tree trunk rings.

130

When is ESR increased?

Infection
Inflammation (e.g temporal arteritis)
Cancer
Pregnancy
SLE

good for ruling out osteomyelitis

131

When is ESR decreased?

Sickle cell (altered shape)
Polycythemia (too many)
CHF

132

What is ESR?

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
Products of inflam (like fibrinogen) coat RBCs and cause aggregation. When they are aggregated, they settle faster in a test tube.

133

What primary cancers cause metastasis to the brain?

Lots of Bad Stuff Kills Gila:
Lung
Breast
Skin (melanoma)
Kidney (renal cell carcinoma)
GI
50% of brain tumors come from metastases.
There are usu multiple well-circumscribed tumors at the gray-white border.

134

What primary cancers cause metastases to the liver

Cancer Sometimes Penetrates Benign Liver:
Colon
Stomach
Pancreas
Breast
Lung

Liver and lung are the most common sites of metastases (after lymph nodes). Liver cancer is much more likely to be from metastasis than from a primary tumor.

135

What primary cancers cause metastasis to the bone?

Peanut Butter, Tater Tots- Kids Love:
Prostate
Breast
Testes
Thyroid
Kidney
Lung

Lung = lytic
Prostate = blastic (bone building)
Breast = both lytic and blastic

More common for a bone cancer to be from metastases than from primary bone cancer.

136

Male cancer incidence: Top 3 cancers
Male cancer mortality: Top 4 cancers

Incidence:
1. prostate
2. lung
3. colon/rectum

Mortality
1. lung
2. prostate
3. colon/rectal
4. pancreatic

137

Female cancer incidence: Top 5
Female cancer mortality: Top 3

Incidence:
1. Breast
2. Lung
3. Colon/rectal
4. Uterine
5. Ovary

Mortality:
1. Lung
2. Breast
3. Colorectal

Deaths from lung cancer have plateaued in males but continue to rise in females.

138

Leading causes of death in US (overall)- top 4

1. heart dz
2. cancer
3. stroke
4. COPD

139

Retinoblastoma: inherited vs sporadic

In order for Retinoblastoma to occur, there must be mutations in both Rb alleles.
Inherited Retinoblastoma = one mutation comes from parent, other is sporadic
Sporadic Retinoblastoma = both mutations are sporadic.

140

Px of Retinoblastoma

Most are unilateral and d/t sporadic mutations
See white reflex in pics (instead of red like normal)

141

Anti-cancer drug that forms a complex b/t topoisomerase II and DNA

Etoposide (VP-16)
eTOPoside for TOPoisomerase

142

Anticancer drug that alkylates DNA and can cause pulmonary fibrosis

Busulfan

143

Anticancer drug that fragments DNA and can cause pulmonary fibrosis

Bleomycin

144

Anti cancer drug that blocks purine synthesis and is metabolized by xanthine oxidase

6-MP
aka 6-MercaptoPurine

145

Anti cancer drug that cross-links DNA and is both nephrotoxic and ototoxic

Cisplatin, Carboplatin

146

Anticancer drug and folic acid analog that inhibits DHF reductase (dihydrofolate reductase)

MTX (methotrexate)

147

Anticancer drug that prevents tubulin dis-assembly

Paclitaxel, other taxols
(they hyperstabilize the polymerized microtubules in the M phase so that the mitotic spindle can't break down (so anaphase can't occur and mitosis is interrupted).
It is TAXing to stay polymerized.

148

Anticancer drug that inhibits thymidylate synthase, causing decreased nucleotide synthesis

5-FU
aka 5-fluorouracil
decreases production of dTMP, so decreased DNA and decreased protein synth.

149

Anti cancer drug that is a SERM- blocks estrogen binding to estrogen receptor + cells

Tamoxifen, raloxifene
Tamoxifen can incrs risk of endometrial cancer.

150

Anticancer drug w similar mechanism to that of antivirals acyclovir and foscarnet

Cytarabine.
Cytarabine is a pyrimidine antagonist which inhibits DNA polymerase.
Acyclovir and Foscarnet are similar bc they inhibit (viral) DNA polymerase.

151

Anticancer drug w mechanism similar to fluroquinolones

Etoposide.
eTOPoside inhibits TOPoisomerase II, which leads to increased DNA degredation.
Fluroquinolone (abx) also inhibit topoisomerase II and are used for gram-neg rods of urinary and GI tracts, neisseria, and some gram+
note: topoisomerase II = DNA gyrase (same thing)

152

Anticancer drug w mechanism similar to trimethoprim (TMP)

MTX (methotrexate)

Both MTX and TMP block DHF reductase, decreasing dTMP and therefore decreasing DNA and protein synthesis

153

Anticancer drug that is a monoclonal Ab against HER-2 (erb-B2)

Trastuzumab (Herceptin)

154

Anti cancer drug that causes free radical formation, which induces DNA strand breakage

Doxorubicin and Daunorubicin
Bleomycin

155

Anti cancer drug that inhibits PRPP synthetase

6-MP
aka 6-MercaptoPurine

156

Anticancer drug that is reversible w leucovorin

MTX (methotrexate)

157

Anticancer drug that is used to treat choriocarcinoma (placenta cancer)

MTX (methotrexate)
Vincristine, Vinblastine

158

Anti cancer drug used to treat AML

Cytarabine (ara-C)

159

Anti cancer drug used to treat CML

Busulfan
Hydroxurea
Imatinib

160

Anticancer drug that can prevent breast cancer

Tamoxifen, Raloxifene
in pts w BRCA mutation

161

Anticancer drug that treats testicular cancer

Eradicate Ball Cancer
Etoposide
Bleomycin
Cisplatin

162

Anticancer drug that can be applied topically for Actinic Keratosis and basal cell carcinoma

5-FU (flurouracil)
(inhibits thyidylate synthase)

163

Anticancer drug used to treat childhood tumors- Wilm's, Ewing's sarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma

Dactinomycin
(kids ACT out)

164

Anticancer drug that inhibits ribonucleotide reductase

Hydroxyurea

165

Anticancer drug w the side effect of hemorrhagic cystitis

cyclophosphamide
ifosfamide

166

Anticancer drug w Ab against the Philadelphia chromosome

Imatinib

167

Side effects of prednisone?

A Cush HIP HOP Cat:
Acne
Cushing-like symptoms
HTN
Immunosuppression
Peptic ulcers
Hyperglycemia
Osteoporosis
Psychosis
Cataracts

168

What is the SERM used for breast cancer? for osteoporosis?

BC - tamoxifen (sometimes toremifene)
Osteoporosis- raloxifene

169

What drugs inhibit DHF reductase?

MTX and TMP

170

What drugs cause pulmonary fibrosis as a side effect?

Bleomycin (anti-cancer)
Busulfan (anti-cancer)
Amiodarone (anti-arrhythmic)

171

What is cyclophosphamide used to treat?

Non-hodgkin's lymphoma
Breast and ovarian carcinomas
+
Used for immunosuppression- wegener's granulomatosis, polyarteritis nodosa

172

5 kinds of drugs that interfere w microtubules

Vincristine, vinblastine (anticancer, stop MT formation)
Taxols, Paclitaxel (anti-cancer: hyperstblz MT so it can't break down)
Anti-helminthic (bendazoles)
Griseofulvin (anti-fungal)
Colchicine (for gout)

173

Drugs that are both nephrotoxic and ototoxic

Cisplatin (anti-cancer)
Vancomycin (abx)
Aminoglycosides (abx)
Loop diuretics

174

Anti-cancer drugs that are cardiotoxic

Traztuzumab
Doxorubicin
Daunorubicin

175

Anti cancer drug that is a nitrogen mustard, alkylates DNA (electophil that binds DNA)

Cyclophosphamide

175

Anti cancer drug that is a nitrogen mustard, alkylates DNA (electophil that binds DNA)

Cyclophosphamide

176

Anticancer drug that intercalates DNA, produces O2 free radicals, and is cardiotoxic

Doxorubicin, Daunorubicin

176

Anticancer drug that intercalates DNA, produces O2 free radicals, and is cardiotoxic

Doxorubicin, Daunorubicin

177

Anticancer drug that is a DNA alkylating agent used in brain cancer

Nitrosureas (the -mustines)
Brain stuff:
-cross BBB
-treat brain tumors
-cause CNS toxicity (dizziness, ataxia)

177

Anticancer drug that is a DNA alkylating agent used in brain cancer

Nitrosureas (the -mustines)
Brain stuff:
-cross BBB
-treat brain tumors
-cause CNS toxicity (dizziness, ataxia)

178

Anticancer drug that prevents tubulin assembly

Vincristine, vinblastine

178

Anticancer drug that prevents tubulin assembly

Vincristine, vinblastine

179

Somatosensory info from body --> medial lemniscus and spinothalamic tract --> which thalamic nucleus?

VPL

179

Somatosensory info from body --> medial lemniscus and spinothalamic tract --> which thalamic nucleus?

VPL

180

Communications w the prefrontal cortex go thru which thalamic nucleus?

Mediodorsal nucleus

180

Communications w the prefrontal cortex go thru which thalamic nucleus?

Mediodorsal nucleus

181

List all of the thalamic nuclei

Anterior nuclear group
Mediodorsal nucleus
VA and VL (motor)
VPL and VPM (sensory- body and face)
LGN, MGN
Pulvinar

181

List all of the thalamic nuclei

Anterior nuclear group
Mediodorsal nucleus
VA and VL (motor)
VPL and VPM (sensory- body and face)
LGN, MGN
Pulvinar

182

What is the blood supply to the thalamus?

Posterior communicating (PComm)
Posterior cerebral (PCA)
Internal carotid (the anterior choroidal arteries come off of the ICA and supply it)

182

What is the blood supply to the thalamus?

Posterior communicating (PComm)
Posterior cerebral (PCA)
Internal carotid (the anterior choroidal arteries come off of the ICA and supply it)

183

The cerebellum (dentate nucleus) and basal ganglia send info to the motor cortex through which thalamic nucleus?

VL ventral lateral

183

The cerebellum (dentate nucleus) and basal ganglia send info to the motor cortex through which thalamic nucleus?

VL ventral lateral

184

The trigeminothalamic and taste pathways pass thru which thalamic nucleus to get to the somatosensory cortex?

VPM

184

The trigeminothalamic and taste pathways pass thru which thalamic nucleus to get to the somatosensory cortex?

VPM

185

The Retina sends info to the occipital lobe thru which thalamic cortex?

LGN
(L for Light- retina)

185

The Retina sends info to the occipital lobe thru which thalamic cortex?

LGN
(L for Light- retina)

186

The basal ganglia send info to the prefronal, premotor, and orbital cortices thru which thalamic nuclei?

VA ventral anterior

186

The basal ganglia send info to the prefronal, premotor, and orbital cortices thru which thalamic nuclei?

VA ventral anterior

187

The mamillothalamic tract sends info thru which thalamic tract to the cingulate cyrus (part of the papez circuit)?

Anterior nuclear group

187

The mamillothalamic tract sends info thru which thalamic tract to the cingulate cyrus (part of the papez circuit)?

Anterior nuclear group

188

Which thalamic nucleus integrates visual, auditory, and somesthetic input?

Pulvinar

188

Which thalamic nucleus integrates visual, auditory, and somesthetic input?

Pulvinar

189

Memory loss is cause by destruction of which thalamic nucleus?

Mediodorsal nucleus

189

Memory loss is cause by destruction of which thalamic nucleus?

Mediodorsal nucleus

190

Auditory info comes from the brachium of the inferior colliculus and goes to the primary auditory cortex after passing thru which thalamic nuclei?

MGN
M = music (hearing)

190

Auditory info comes from the brachium of the inferior colliculus and goes to the primary auditory cortex after passing thru which thalamic nuclei?

MGN
M = music (hearing)

191

The basal ganglia send info thru which thalamic nuclei?

the VA (ventral anterior) and VL (ventral lateral). both carry motor info.
From VA goes to the prefrontal, premotor, and orbital corticies.
From VL goes to the motor cortex.

191

The basal ganglia send info thru which thalamic nuclei?

the VA (ventral anterior) and VL (ventral lateral). both carry motor info.
From VA goes to the prefrontal, premotor, and orbital corticies.
From VL goes to the motor cortex.

192

VPL (thalamus)

the spinothalamic (P/T) and dorsal columns medial lemniscus (prs/vib/touch/prop) carry sensory info from the body to the VPL, which relays it to the primary somatosensory cortex.

192

VPL (thalamus)

the spinothalamic (P/T) and dorsal columns medial lemniscus (prs/vib/touch/prop) carry sensory info from the body to the VPL, which relays it to the primary somatosensory cortex.

193

VPM (thalamus)

The trigeminal nerve (facial sensation) and the gustatory pathway (taste) carry info to the VPM, which gives it to the primary somatosensory cortex.

193

VPM (thalamus)

The trigeminal nerve (facial sensation) and the gustatory pathway (taste) carry info to the VPM, which gives it to the primary somatosensory cortex.

194

LGN (thalamus)

CN II (optic nerve) carries vision info to the LGN, which sends it to the calcarine sulcus
L - light (vision)

194

LGN (thalamus)

CN II (optic nerve) carries vision info to the LGN, which sends it to the calcarine sulcus
L - light (vision)

195

MGN (thalamus)

The superior olive and the inferior colliculus carry auditory info to the MGN, which send it to the auditory cortex of the temporal lobe
M- music (hearing)

195

MGN (thalamus)

The superior olive and the inferior colliculus carry auditory info to the MGN, which send it to the auditory cortex of the temporal lobe
M- music (hearing)

196

Anti cancer drug that is a nitrogen mustard, alkylates DNA (electophil that binds DNA)

Cyclophosphamide

196

Anti cancer drug that is a nitrogen mustard, alkylates DNA (electophil that binds DNA)

Cyclophosphamide

197

Anticancer drug that intercalates DNA, produces O2 free radicals, and is cardiotoxic

Doxorubicin, Daunorubicin

197

Anticancer drug that intercalates DNA, produces O2 free radicals, and is cardiotoxic

Doxorubicin, Daunorubicin

198

Anticancer drug that is a DNA alkylating agent used in brain cancer

Nitrosureas (the -mustines)
Brain stuff:
-cross BBB
-treat brain tumors
-cause CNS toxicity (dizziness, ataxia)

198

Anticancer drug that is a DNA alkylating agent used in brain cancer

Nitrosureas (the -mustines)
Brain stuff:
-cross BBB
-treat brain tumors
-cause CNS toxicity (dizziness, ataxia)

199

Anticancer drug that prevents tubulin assembly

Vincristine, vinblastine

199

Anticancer drug that prevents tubulin assembly

Vincristine, vinblastine

200

Somatosensory info from body --> medial lemniscus and spinothalamic tract --> which thalamic nucleus?

VPL

200

Somatosensory info from body --> medial lemniscus and spinothalamic tract --> which thalamic nucleus?

VPL

201

Communications w the prefrontal cortex go thru which thalamic nucleus?

Mediodorsal nucleus

201

Communications w the prefrontal cortex go thru which thalamic nucleus?

Mediodorsal nucleus

202

List all of the thalamic nuclei

Anterior nuclear group
Mediodorsal nucleus
VA and VL (motor)
VPL and VPM (sensory- body and face)
LGN, MGN
Pulvinar

202

List all of the thalamic nuclei

Anterior nuclear group
Mediodorsal nucleus
VA and VL (motor)
VPL and VPM (sensory- body and face)
LGN, MGN
Pulvinar

203

What is the blood supply to the thalamus?

Posterior communicating (PComm)
Posterior cerebral (PCA)
Internal carotid (the anterior choroidal arteries come off of the ICA and supply it)

203

What is the blood supply to the thalamus?

Posterior communicating (PComm)
Posterior cerebral (PCA)
Internal carotid (the anterior choroidal arteries come off of the ICA and supply it)

204

The cerebellum (dentate nucleus) and basal ganglia send info to the motor cortex through which thalamic nucleus?

VL ventral lateral

204

The cerebellum (dentate nucleus) and basal ganglia send info to the motor cortex through which thalamic nucleus?

VL ventral lateral

205

The trigeminothalamic and taste pathways pass thru which thalamic nucleus to get to the somatosensory cortex?

VPM

205

The trigeminothalamic and taste pathways pass thru which thalamic nucleus to get to the somatosensory cortex?

VPM

206

The Retina sends info to the occipital lobe thru which thalamic cortex?

LGN
(L for Light- retina)

206

The Retina sends info to the occipital lobe thru which thalamic cortex?

LGN
(L for Light- retina)

207

The basal ganglia send info to the prefronal, premotor, and orbital cortices thru which thalamic nuclei?

VA ventral anterior

207

The basal ganglia send info to the prefronal, premotor, and orbital cortices thru which thalamic nuclei?

VA ventral anterior

208

The mamillothalamic tract sends info thru which thalamic tract to the cingulate cyrus (part of the papez circuit)?

Anterior nuclear group

208

The mamillothalamic tract sends info thru which thalamic tract to the cingulate cyrus (part of the papez circuit)?

Anterior nuclear group

209

Which thalamic nucleus integrates visual, auditory, and somesthetic input?

Pulvinar

209

Which thalamic nucleus integrates visual, auditory, and somesthetic input?

Pulvinar

210

Memory loss is cause by destruction of which thalamic nucleus?

Mediodorsal nucleus

210

Memory loss is cause by destruction of which thalamic nucleus?

Mediodorsal nucleus

211

Auditory info comes from the brachium of the inferior colliculus and goes to the primary auditory cortex after passing thru which thalamic nuclei?

MGN
M = music (hearing)

211

Auditory info comes from the brachium of the inferior colliculus and goes to the primary auditory cortex after passing thru which thalamic nuclei?

MGN
M = music (hearing)

212

The basal ganglia send info thru which thalamic nuclei?

the VA (ventral anterior) and VL (ventral lateral). both carry motor info.
From VA goes to the prefrontal, premotor, and orbital corticies.
From VL goes to the motor cortex.

212

The basal ganglia send info thru which thalamic nuclei?

the VA (ventral anterior) and VL (ventral lateral). both carry motor info.
From VA goes to the prefrontal, premotor, and orbital corticies.
From VL goes to the motor cortex.

213

VPL (thalamus)

the spinothalamic (P/T) and dorsal columns medial lemniscus (prs/vib/touch/prop) carry sensory info from the body to the VPL, which relays it to the primary somatosensory cortex.

213

VPL (thalamus)

the spinothalamic (P/T) and dorsal columns medial lemniscus (prs/vib/touch/prop) carry sensory info from the body to the VPL, which relays it to the primary somatosensory cortex.

214

VPM (thalamus)

The trigeminal nerve (facial sensation) and the gustatory pathway (taste) carry info to the VPM, which gives it to the primary somatosensory cortex.

214

VPM (thalamus)

The trigeminal nerve (facial sensation) and the gustatory pathway (taste) carry info to the VPM, which gives it to the primary somatosensory cortex.

215

LGN (thalamus)

CN II (optic nerve) carries vision info to the LGN, which sends it to the calcarine sulcus
L - light (vision)

215

LGN (thalamus)

CN II (optic nerve) carries vision info to the LGN, which sends it to the calcarine sulcus
L - light (vision)

216

MGN (thalamus)

The superior olive and the inferior colliculus carry auditory info to the MGN, which send it to the auditory cortex of the temporal lobe
M- music (hearing)

216

MGN (thalamus)

The superior olive and the inferior colliculus carry auditory info to the MGN, which send it to the auditory cortex of the temporal lobe
M- music (hearing)