Dermatology Flashcards
(255 cards)
1
Q
what are the most common signs presented by an animal with a dermatology issue?
A
pruritus scale alopecia crusting ulceration erosion nodules
2
Q
what can pruritus be due to?
A
allergy
parasites
microbial infection
ears
3
Q
what type of disorders are implied when scale is present?
A
keratinisation disorders
4
Q
what are primary skin lesions?
A
those that develop within the skin of their own accord
5
Q
what is alopecia?
A
hair loss - may also be secondary
6
Q
what is a bullae?
A
localised collection of fluid >0.5cm in diameter and larger than a vesicle
7
Q
what is erythema?
A
a diffuse or localised redness of the skin which disappears with diascopy
8
Q
what is a macule?
A
flat skin discolouration <1cm in diameter without surface elevation or depression
9
Q
what is a nodule?
A
solid elevation greater than 1 cm usually extending into the dermis
10
Q
what are large nodules referred to as?
A
masses
11
Q
what is a papule?
A
small solid elevation of skin up to 1cm in diameter
12
Q
what is a papule caused by?
A
infiltration of inflammatory cells, fluid or foreign material (calcium), with oedema and epidermal hyperplasia
13
Q
what is a patch?
A
localised flat change in skin pigmentation larger than 1cm in diameter (a big macule)
14
Q
what is a plaque?
A
flat topped elevation of the skin >0.5cm, flatter than a nodule
15
Q
what is a plaque formed from?
A
coalition of papules
16
Q
what is a pustule?
A
small elevation of epidermis filled with purulent material
17
Q
what is a vesicle?
A
small elevation of the epidermis filled with clear fluid <0.5cm in diameter (blister like)
18
Q
what is a wheal?
A
sharply raised lesion consisting of oedema, appears and disappears within minutes to hours
19
Q
what are secondary lesions created by?
A
scratching, chewing or other trauma to the skin
20
Q
what are secondary skin lesions the result of?
A
infections
evolve from regressing primary lesions
21
Q
what is an comedone?
A
dilated hair follicle filled with cornified cells and sebaceous material
22
Q
what is a crust?
A
dried exudate, cells, pus and scale adherent to the surface
23
Q
what is an epidermal collarette?
A
excoriation / erosion, superficial damage to the epidermis
24
Q
what is a fissure?
A
linear cleavage into the epidermis
25
what is hyperkeratosis?
increase in thickness in the cornified layer of the skin
26
when is hyperkeratosis often seen?
chronic skin disease
27
what is hyper and hypopigmentation?
changes in skin colour
28
what is lichenification?
thickening of the skin resulting in a cobblestone appearence
29
what is scale?
accumulation of loose fragments of the cornified layer of the skin
30
what is ulceration?
full thickness loss of the epidermis exposing the dermis
31
what is erosion?
some level of damage to the epidermis
32
what is involved in the process of diagnosing dermatological issues?
history
physical exam
list of viewed signs/problems
differential diagnoses which inform diagnostic plan
33
what is the key part of diagnosis of dermatology diseases?
history
34
what areas of the body are included in a dermatological physical exam?
ears (otoscope)
pads
ventrum
35
what questions should be asked during history taking to aid diagnosis of dermatological issues?
diet
other animals in the house
any human skin issues - zoonosis
36
what are the main diagnostic techniques used in dermatology?
```
acetate tape
skin scrapings
impression smears
flea comb
trichogram
skin biopsy
```
37
what can be found during acetate tape for cytology?
malassezia
bacteria
inflammatory cells
squames
38
what can be found from performing deep skin scrapings?
demodex mites
39
what can be found from performing superficial skin scrapings?
cheyletiella
| sarcoptes
40
what can be found by performing impression smears of skin?
inflammatory cells
malassezia
bacteria
41
what bacteria may be found after performing impression smears?
staphylococci
| bacilli - Pseudomonas
42
where should be swabbed when performing an ear swab?
bottom of vertical canal
43
what may be found when testing with a flea comb?
fleas
| cheyletiella
44
what is a trichogram?
hair pluck
45
what is anagen hair?
new growth within follicle
46
what is telogen hair?
resting phase of hair growth
47
what may be found from a trichogram?
```
anagen and telogen hair
mite and lice eggs
evidence of pruritus
dermatophytosis
hair shaft abnormalities
```
48
how can evidence of pruritus be seen in trichogram?
broken ends of hairs
49
what is dermatophytosis?
infection of hair and skin caused by dermatophytes
50
what may be evidence of flea infestation seen from flea combing?
flea faeces - small red spots
51
what breed of cats is dermatophytosis often seen in?
persian
52
what are the signs of dermatophytosis?
scaling
| alopecia
53
how can dermatophytosis be diagnosed?
Wood's lamp
microscopy
dermatophyte test medium
culture
54
how does a Woods lamp test for dermatophytosis work?
use UV light to check for fluorescence of bacteria on skin
55
what test medium is used for dermatophytosis?
lactophenol cotton blue
56
how long will a dermatophytosis culture take?
2 weeks at room temperature
57
how can dermatophytosis be treated?
topical therapy
| systemic therepy
58
what may apparent cure of small localised lesions of dermatophytosis be due to?
hosts immune response rather than products used
59
where may dermatophytosis infection spread to from obvious lesions?
up to 6cm away
60
what effect can clipping have on dermatophytosis?
reduce environmental and host load but can spread the disease around the animal
61
what shampoos can be used to treat dermatophytosis?
Malaseb
| Microbex
62
what dips can be used to treat dermatophytosis?
Imaverol
63
what has Malaseb been proven to help with?
decontamination of infected cats environment
64
how should shampoos for treatment of dermatophytosis be applied?
twice weekly and rinsed after 10 minutes
65
when is systemic treatment of dermatophytosis used?
for generalised, chronic infection
66
what systemic treatment for dermatophytosis is available in cats?
Itraconazole
67
how should Itraconazole be used to treat dermatophytosis?
7 days
3 x per day
7 days between each
68
what forms is Itraconazole available in?
suspension or capsules
69
what drug is used for treatment of dermatophytosis in dogs?
Ketoconazole
70
what is a major source of environmental contamination with dermatophytes?
fungal spores on hairs
71
how can dermatophytes be removed from the environment?
combination of physical cleaning and use of chemical agents
grooming equipment, collars, bedding should be thrown away
washable items should be soaked in antifungal disinfectant and then washed above 50
72
what is the difficulty with using chemicals to clean the environment?
staining / damage of soft furnishings
73
what chemicals can be used to clean the environment following dermatophyte infection of animal?
bleach (1:100 dilution)
| Enilconazole - spray or smoke bomb
74
what are the key indications for skin biopsy?
neoplasia (suspected or obvious)
unusual or serious generalised dermatosis
condition responding poorly to therapy
other diagnostic tests not helpful
vesicles, bullae, erosions or ulcerations
75
what forms of anaesthetic are used for skin biopsy?
GA - most common
| LA and sedation
76
what skin prep is necessary for biopsy?
clip but no scrub as bacteria on skin need to be preserved
77
what lesions should be chosen for biopsy?
multiple sites
fully developed lesions
not chronic or traumatized sites
78
what are the 2 main types of skin biopsy?
punch (4/6/8mm)
| excision
79
what tests may be performed on biopsied tissue?
histopathology
culture
cytology
80
what are the 4 main results of a skin biopsy?
diagnostic
compatible with clinical diagnosis
not compatible with a diagnosis
non-diagnostic
81
what histopathologist should be chosen to deal with skin biopsies?
one with interest in skin disease
82
what should be provided to lab along with sample?
full history (age, breed etc)
signs
differential diagnoses
83
what are "flare factors"?
central and additional influences on the perception of pruritus
84
what are the 4 main "flare factors"?
fleas
bacterial and yeast infection
dry skin and low humidity / sweating
psychological factors (stress, anxiety)
85
what scale is involved in assessment of pruritus?
visual analogue scale
86
who will complete a VAS relating to pruritus?
owner
| clinican
87
what should owners be specifically questioned about in relation to pruritus?
foot liking and face rubbing which may be interpreted as grooming
head shaking - not solely related to ear infection and can be a sign of generalised pruritus
88
why must all factors contributing to pruritus be investigated?
animal without disease manifestations may tolerate a certain allergic load - small increase may push the animal over the threshold to showing clinical signs.
naturally occurring diseases alongside pruritus may also push animals over this threshold.
There is often more than one cause
89
what are the clinical signs of canine atopic dermatitis?
```
self trauma
secondary bacterial and Malessezia (yeast) infections
alopecia
erythema
excoriation
hyperpigmentation
lichenification
```
90
how is canine atopic dermatitis diagnosed?
rule out other conditions that cause pruritus
91
what is used to select allergens for immunotherapy for canine atopic dermatitis?
intradermal injections and blood testing
92
what breeds of dog are particularly prone to atopic dermatitis?
GSD
Terrier
animals with lots of skin folds
93
what is not confirmed by allergen testing?
diagnosis of atopic disease
94
what can allergen testing provide?
identification of allergens of clinical significance
| basis for allergen specific immunotherapy (ASIT) / immunotherapy
95
what are the clinical signs of pyoderma?
intraepidermal pustules easily disrupted by grooming / scratching
transient primary lesions and secondary lesions of crusting
96
what is produced by peripheral spread of pyoderma?
annular lesion with epidermal collarette
97
what aspects of pyoderma are sometimes antibiotic responsive?
lesions and sometimes the pruritus
98
when will pyoderma reoccur?
if underlying cause is not identified and managed
99
what are the common underlying causes of pyoderma?
ectoparasites
allergy
endocrinopathies
100
what are the 2 main types of pyoderma?
superficial
| deep
101
what happens during superficial pyoderma?
bacteria multiply on surface of skin and in hair folicles
102
what happens during deep pyoderma?
infection is deep into hair follicle - often caused by demodex mite
103
what antibiotic is often used to treat pyoderma?
clavanic acid and amoxicillin
104
when does superficial pyoderma usually respond to treatment?
3-4 weeks
105
why may pruritus associated with pyoderma resolve completely with treatment?
pruritus may be due to immune response to Staphylococci antigens
106
what must happen before any investigations into allergies or endocrinopathies is started?
treat bacterial infections throughly
107
what is concerning about treating pyoderma with antibiotics?
advent of meticillin resistant Staphylococcus pseudintermedius with repeated treatment
108
what therapy may be used for pyoderma instead of antibiotics or alongside?
topical (e.g. shampoos)
| clipping of coat
109
what is beneficial about topical therapy for pyoderma?
removes scale, crusts and exudate from skin surface
reduces number of bacteria
promotes deeper drainage of lesions
reduction of pain and pruritus
110
how often and for how long should topical treatment for pyoderma be used?
2-3 times weekly until clinical remission
111
what do products normally used to treat pyoderma contain?
chlorhexadine
112
how long should the shampoo be on the animals coat before through rinsing?
10 mins
113
what is Malassezia?
opportunistic yeast pathogen
114
where on the body is Malassezia pachydermatis usually found?
external ear canal, chin, perioral and interdigital areas
115
what molecule is Malassezia pachydermatis dependent on?
lipids
116
what will Malassezia pachydermatis grow on in the lab?
Saboraud's medium
117
what are the predisposing factors to Malassezia pachydermatis?
alterations in skin microclimate
| allergic and bacterial skin disease
118
where is Malassezia pachydermatis found on the body?
generalised with ventral distribution
| localised to the face, feet, perianal regions and skin folds
119
what sign is commonly seen with Malassezia pachydermatis?
severe pruritus
120
what is the appearance of the skin of an animal with Malassezia pachydermatis?
```
erythema
scale
hyperpigmentation
oily scale
malodour
```
121
how can Malassezia pachydermatis infection be diagnosed?
impression smears
Acetate tape
culture
122
what test is not recommended for Malassezia pachydermatis?
serology
123
how is Malassezia pachydermatis infection treated?
twice weekly bathing with miconazole/chlorhexidine based shampoos
bathing with shampoos that have keratolytic effects
systemic therapy with Itraconazole
124
what is a major sign of Malassezia pachydermatis infection?
otitis externa
125
how can otitis externa infection with Malassezia pachydermatis be treated?
topical or oral steroids will control glandular hyperplasia and prevent cerumen production within the ear canal - effectively starving the yeast
126
what is the most important feature of a fleas life cycle from a treatment perspective?
most of the intermediate stages may be found in the hosts environment
127
will the flea usually try to remain on the host?
yes but usually removed by grooming or scratching
128
why do allergic animals often have no signs flea infestation?
cats especially, are particularly efficient at removing fleas by grooming
129
what is the most common ectoparasite of cats and dogs in the UK?
flea - Ctenocephalides felis
130
what is the term flea bite hypersensitivity used to describe?
the clinical condition seen in animals that have become sensitised to antigenic components of flea saliva
131
what hypersensitivity reactions are seen with flea bite hypersensitivity?
type 1 and type 4 hypersensitivity reactions with late onset IgE and continuous basophil response
132
what signs are seen with flea bite hypersensitivity?
```
seen on animals dorsal and lateral areas
allopecia
excoration
erythaema
thickening of skin
pruritus
```
133
what can be used to help diagnose flea bite hypersensitivity?
history
compatible clinical signs
evidence of fleas or flea excreta in the hair coat
evidence of flea infestation on in-contact animals
evidence of Dipylidium caninum infestation
positive response to flea control programme
elimination of differential diagnoses
positive responses to intradermal / serology testing with flea saliva allergen
134
what are the factors which influence the efficacy of flea control?
```
formulation
hair coat length
bathing or swimming
use of insecticidal products on the animal
insect growth development inhibitors
```
135
what are the best formulations of flea control?
spot on is best
| sprays can work but a lot needs to be used
136
what do insect growth development inhibitors do to affect flea lifecycle?
decrease the viability of eggs
137
when are insect growth development inhibitors not effective?
pupae and pre-emerged adults remain unaffected and viable for long periods
138
what is the best mechanical control method for indoor management of fleas?
through vacuuming
139
what effect will vacuuming have on fleas in the environment?
removes larvae and eggs
removes organic debris / flea faeces which are nutritional support for larvae
improves efficacy of environmental spray treatment by aerating carpet before application
140
what is not recommended to remove fleas from the environment?
carpet shampooing and steam cleaning due to residual humidity providing optimum growing environment
141
what is the main aim of flea control for unaffected puppies, kittens and adults?
prophylaxis
142
how should unaffected puppies, kittens and adults be treated for fleas?
regular use of topical on-animal product with demonstrated efficacy, long duration of action and acceptable safety
effective, safe environmental product such as the IGIs
143
how do many owners realise that their pet has a flea infestation?
they are being bitten themselves
144
how should an infested dog, cat or environment be treated?
effective, fast acting pesticide is required for all in contact pets
treatment of environment that includes insecticide to deal with newly emerging adults
adequate vacuuming
145
how should animals with flea allergy dermatitis be treated?
on-animal insecticide
environmental insecticide
use of IGI to ensure long term control
adjunctive treatment with short acting glucocorticoids and/or antibiotics
146
what is crucial for animals with flea allergy dermatitis?
fast effective insecticide treatment followed by a preventative programme
147
what can lead to failure to achieve flea control?
failure to treat all animals in the house
failure to treat effectively with an on animal product
failure to remove fleas from environment
148
what histological changes are seen in an animal with demodex?
mural folliculitis - inflammation of hair follicle walls
folliculitis and furunculosis - superficial and deep boils
nodular dermatitis (itchy dumps on skin) in some cases
interface mural folliculitis
149
how is demodex diagnosed?
deep skin scrapings
hair plucks
skin biopsy
150
is skin biopsy a routine procedure for finding demodex?
no
151
under what circumstances does generalised demodicosis occur?
immune system is suppressed
152
in what animals is demodex common?
young dogs <18 months
| also seen as adult onset
153
what proportion of demodex cases recover spontaneously?
50%
154
should animals with generalised demodocosis be used for breeding?
no - predisposition is inherited
155
what defines demodex as generalised?
more than 5 lesions
one major body region affected
2 or more feet affected
156
does localised demodicosis usually become generalised?
rarely
157
describe the signs of juvenile onset / localised demodicosis
focal areas of alopecia and erythema especially on legs and head
158
in principle should localised demodicosis be treated?
no - spontaneous resolution in up to 90% of cases
159
what should happen if a single adult demodex mite is found?
reassess in a couple of weeks to see if there is demodicosis
160
what can cause adult onset demodex?
```
suppression of the immune system
corticosteroid therapy
hyperadrenocorticism
chemotherapy
neoplasia
hypothyroidism
idiopathic
```
161
how can the trigger of adult onset demodex be disocvered?
```
look at history - including any drug therapies
haematology
serum biochemistry
endocrine function tests
urinalysis
lymph node biopsy
radiography
```
162
what is the main treatment for demodicosis?
acaricidal treatment (fluralaner, afoxolaner, sarolaner)
163
how can secondary bacterial pyoderma to demodicosis be treated?
oral cefalexin for 4-12 weeks
| bathe with chlorhexidine 3 times a week
164
how long is the life cycle of sarcoptes?
up to 3 weeks
165
where are Sarcoptes eggs laid?
deep in burrows in the host created by the female
166
where are sarcoptes mites found?
superficial layers of the skin
167
what sign is sarcoptes infestation particularly associated with?
pruritus
168
why is sarcoptes associated with intense pruritus?
due to activity of mites in skin and the development of a hypersensitivity response
169
how can canine sarcoptes be diagnosed?
skin scrapings
skin biopsy
ELISA blood test
170
what skin scrapings should be taken to diagnose sarcoptes?
multiple, superficial - avoiding crusts and excoriated areas
171
is skin biopsy for sarcoptes diagnosis often useful?
only supportive, rarely diagnostic with no reliable histomorphological markers
172
how are sarcoptes mites transmitted?
close contact
fomites
red foxes
173
where may animals be exposed to sarcoptes?
kennel or grooming parlour - any contamination of the environment
174
how should concurrent staphylococcal infections be treated alongside sarcoptes?
appropriate antibacterial therapy including antibacterial shampoo
oral antibiotics for 3 weeks
175
what medication is used to treat scabies?
macrocyclic lactones or isoxazolines
176
when may corticosteroids be given to sarcoptes patients?
to alleviate pruritus through anti-inflammatory doses (only with sarcoptes treatment alongside)
177
what may accompany the onset of Otodectes cynotis infection?
acute signs of irritation
178
what may be developed by some cats in response to feeding Otodectes cynotis mites?
profound hypersensitivity
179
what is the main treatment for Otodectes cynotis?
selamectin is licensed in cats as a spot on
| moxidectin (Advocate)
180
what should be done prior to application of a product indicated for killing Otodectes cynotis mites?
wax removed from ear
181
what are Cheyletiella?
large surface mites associated with cats, dogs and rabbits
182
where do Cheyletiella live on the host?
epidermal pseudo-tunnels
183
what do Cheyletiella feed on?
tissue fluids
184
where are Cheyletiella eggs attached?
to hair of host by fine fillaments
185
what type of parasites are Cheyletiella?
obligate - live full 35 day lifecycle on host
186
what may develop in the animal in response to Cheyletiella?
hypersensitivuty
187
who can Cheyletiella be transmitted to?
humans - is highly zoonotic
188
why is presence of Cheyletiella mites deemed to be so low?
due to flea control measures
189
what are the clinical signs of Cheyletiellosis?
variable - most commonly observed in young animals
lesions include scaling
mild pruritus
miliary dermatitis or symmetrical alopecia
190
how can Cheyletiella be diagnosed?
microscopic identification of mites or eggs from coat brushings, hair plucks, superficial skin scrapes and acetate tape impressions
191
what is the main method of treatment for Cheyletiellosis?
selamectin applied monthly
moxidectin
spraying with fipronil or permethrins
bathing with selenium sulphide or flea shampoos
192
what are Trombiculids known as?
harvest mites
193
what are harvest mites?
6 legged larvae of Trombicula autumnalis
194
where are Trombicula autumnalis found?
present in vegetation in mid to late summer and autumn - particularly in chalk uplands
195
when do Trombiculids attach to the host?
larvae attach and feed for 3 days before completing life cycle in the environment
196
where do Trombiculids parasitize?
relatively hairless skin (e.g. Henry's pocket, interdigital spaces and ventrum)
197
can Trombiculids be seen with the naked eye?
yes - orange in colour and tend to group together
198
what are the signs of Trombiculids?
erythema
papules
crusting
- depends on development of hypersensitivity
199
how is presence of Trombiculids diagnosed?
observation of orange six legged larvae and confirmed by microscopy
200
what are the treatment options for Trombiculids?
```
spraying with flea products containing fipronil (every 2 weeks to prevent mite attachment)
glucocorticoid therapy (if hypersensitivity reaction)
```
201
what are the 2 main types of louse?
biting - Felicola subrostratus
| chewing - Trichodectes canis
202
what is the lifecycle of lice?
confined to the host and takes 14-21 days
203
where are lice eggs attached?
to the hairs
204
how many nymph stages of lice are there before the adult?
3
205
are lice contagious?
yes - but host specific
206
what are the clinical signs of lice?
pruritus and scaling of the dorsum
| may develop severe self trauma
207
in what animals are lice common?
young animals
debilitated animals
overcrowded or multi-animal houselholds
208
how are lice diagnosed?
careful exam of the coat for adults or eggs
acetate tape impression
coat brushings and hair pluck
209
how are lice treated?
selamectin and moxidectin (licensed)
fipronil spray (one off)
clip heavily infested animals
210
why may clipping highly lice infested animals be an effective form of treatment?
reduces the burden of eggs and adults to allow effective use of topical therapies
211
what are the 3 main zoonotic ectoparasites?
fleas
sarcoptes (scabies)
cheylitellia
212
how many hosts are involved in a tick lifecycle?
3
213
why are ticks viewed as so dangerous?
due to what they carry rather than them themselves
214
how should you remove a tick?
using tool or fine tipped tweezers
grasp tick as close to the skin as possible
pull upwards firmly and steadily
don't squeeze or crush tick body
215
where should exotic ticks be reported to?
UK tick surveillance scheme
216
how can ticks be treated?
fipronil licensed for monthly control of ticks
| deltamethrin (dogs) and flumethrin (cats) based products in a collar
217
what is the main treatment option for dogs and ticks?
isoxazoline family of 4 drugs
| pyripole based products
218
what parasites are included in the PETS travel scheme?
ticks
| tapeworms
219
what tapeworm is prevented from infecting the UK by the PETS travel scheme?
Echinococcus multilocularis
220
what is the definitive host of echinococcus granulosus?
carnivores - have little impact on their health
221
what is caused by Echinococcus granulosus in the intermediate host?
cysts in the liver and lungs - take up space and affect organ function
222
what is the name of the cyst caused by echinococcus granulosus?
hydatid cyst
223
what is used to treat echinococcus granulosus in the definitive host?
praziquantil
224
how is echinococcus granulosus diagnosed and treated in the intermediate host?
diagnosis: PM, ultrasound or radiography
| no treatment
225
how can echinococcus granulosus be controlled?
regular worming of dogs
keep dogs away from fields of sheep to prevent sheep becoming infected
meat should be carefully inspected
226
what are the 3 main zoonotic species of tapeworm?
echinococcus granulosus
taenia
echinococcus multilocularis
227
what are the taenia species found in dogs?
```
taenia multiceps
taenia seralis
taenia pisiformis
taenia hydatigena
taenia ovis
```
228
what is the main taenia species of cat?
taenia taeniformis
229
what is the intermediate stage of taenia hydatigena?
cysticerus larvae in abdomen or liver
230
what is the intermediate stage of taenia multiceps?
coenurus larvae in brain and spinal cord
231
what is the intermediate stage of taenia ovis?
cysticercus larvae in abdomen or liver
232
what is the intermediate stage of taenia taeniaeformis?
strobilocerus larvae in liver and abdomen
233
how are cats and dogs infected with taenia?
hunting / eating infected meat
234
how can taenia hydatigena be controlled?
stop dogs eating offal (don't feed, remove dead sheep)
stop sheep eating eggs (prevent dogs defecating in pasture)
worming
235
what is caused in the intermediate host by taenia multiceps?
space occupying lesion
| destruction of nervous tissue
236
what is the destruction of nervous tissue by taenia multiceps known as?
Coenurus cerebralis
237
why must all pets be wormed 1-5 days before entering the UK?
to prevent echinococcus multilocularis from entering the UK
238
how is echinococcus multilocularis spread?
in gut of DH (carnivore) - shed in faeces - attaches to GI wall of IH (rodents and humans) - DH infected when eats IH
239
how is echinococcus multilocularis prevented from becoming endemic in the UK?
foxes treated with praziquantil
| PETS scheme to prevent entry to UK without praziquantil
240
how is diplidium canium spread?
egg packets expelled in faeces
eggs consumed by fleas (IH)
fleas ingested by DH
241
when does toxocara become infectious?
egg becomes embryonated - contains L3 larva - within the environment
242
what is the lifecycle of toxocara canis?
hatch in the gut
hepato-tracheal migration
can have somatic arrest in adults (stop growing) and be reactivated especially around pregnancy
243
what may reactivate toxocara canis?
pregnancy
244
how can T.canis be prevented and controlled?
routine worming of dogs
early worming of pups
care with pregnant bitches
245
where is a major source of toxocara canis eggs within the environment?
puppies
246
what may be used to treat toxocara canis?
benzimidazoles: fenbendazole
endectocides: milbemycin, moxidectin
piperazine citrate
247
what is the worming protocol for pups with toxocara canis?
2 wees old
then weeks 4, 6, 9 and 12
then every 3 months
248
how should the bitch be wormed before whelping to prevent toxocara canis being passed to her pups?
fenbendazole daily from day 42 - 2 weeks after whelping
| moxidectin and selamectin spot on
249
what routine worm control is needed in adult dogs?
monthly (or every 3)
250
how should cats be wormed to protect kittens from toxocara?
no transplacental transmission (only transmammary) so kittens can just be wormed from 3-4 weeks
251
do cats need to be wormed against toxocara?
yes - paratenic hosts of T.cati
252
what are the clinical signs of angiostrongylus?
```
cough
dyspnoea
anaemia
depression
anorexia
coagulopathy
```
253
what can angiostrongylus lead to?
pneumonia
254
how is angiostrongylus diagnosed?
antigen blood test
255
how is angiostrongylus treated and prevented?
no cure
| prevention: moxidectin and milbemycin
