Nutrition Flashcards

(113 cards)

1
Q

what are the 6 basic classes of nutrients?

A
protein
fat
carbohydrates 
minerals 
vitamins 
water
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

how much water should an animal have per day?

A

20-70 ml/kg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the normal urine output?

A

2ml/kg/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

why are vitamins important?

A

for energy metabolism and biochemical reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

which vitamins are water-soluble?

A

B and C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the fat-soluble vitamins?

A

A, D, E and K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the macrominerals?

A
sodium
chloride
calcium 
phosphorous 
magnesium 
potassium 
sulphur
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the most important microminerals?

A
iron 
copper 
zinc 
manganese 
iodine 
selenium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

why are cats obligate carnivores?

A

they cannot synthesise taurine within the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the main functions of protein?

A

energy source

regulation of metabolism

cell and muscle fibre structure

tissue growth and repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the essential amino acids?

A
phenylalanine 
valine 
tryptophan 
threonine 
isoleucine 
methionine 
arginine 
leucine 
lysine 
taurine (cats only)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what can taurine deficiency in cats cause?

A

blindness, heart problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what can excess dietary protein cause?

A

liver and kidney problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what can protein deficiency cause?

A
poor growth, muscle and weight loss 
dull hair/coat 
reduced immunity 
oedema (hypoalbuminaemia)
death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are the functions of fats?

A

energy source

aid absorption of fat-soluble vitamins

enhance palatability

source of essential fatty acids

neural development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what can a deficiency in essential fatty acids cause?

A
impaired reproduction 
impaired wound healing 
dry coat 
flaky skin 
eczema - hot spots
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are the 3 main groups of carbohydrates?

A

monosaccharides (glucose, fructose)
disaccharides (maltose, lactose, sucrose)
polysaccharides (starch, glycogen, fibre)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the function of carbohydrates?

A

energy - may be converted to fat

metabolic requirements for glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is fibre made of?

A

indigestible polysaccharides - cellulose, lignin, pectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the function of fibre?

A

adds bulk to the faeces

prevent constipation and diarrhoea

role in correction of obesity

role in regulating blood glucose levels in diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the ideal body condition score for dogs?

A

4-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the ideal body condition score for cats?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the basal energy requirement?

A

energy expended during sleep, 12-18hrs after feed, in a thermoneutral environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the resting energy requirement?

A

BER plus energy expended for recovery from physical activity and feeding
Hospitalised patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what is the maintenance energy requirement?
energy required by a moderately active animal | doesn't include energy for growth, lactation or work
26
how do you calculate the RER for animals <2 or >45kg?
70 x (bw kg)^0.75
27
how do you calculate RER for animals 2kg-45kg?
30 x (bw kg) + 70
28
how is MER calculated?
RER x appropriate lifestage factor
29
what can cause obesity?
modern lifestyle neutering overfeeding poor owner understanding
30
what are the possible consequences of obesity in dogs and cats?
hepatic lipidosis joint disease exercise intolerance diabetes mellitus cardiorespiratory disease surgical implications FLUTD
31
how do you calculate MER for an overweight animal?
based on ideal weight, not current weight
32
what is a realistic weight loss target?
0. 8-1% for dogs | 0. 5-1% for cats
33
what should obesity diets be?
nutritionally balanced high protein formulated for joint health adequate levels of L-carnitine
34
what is L-carnitine?
non-essential amino acid transports long-chain fatty acids into the mitochondria for use in beta-oxidation (encourages use of fat as an energy source)
35
what is the function of L-carnitine in an obesity diet?
helps encourage use of fat for energy and reduce fat storage reduces risk of hepatic lipidosis in cats
36
what should be considered in diets for GI disease?
highly digestible proteins and starch MOS and FOS (prebiotics) EPA/DHA (omega 3 EFAs) psyllium high fat vs. low fat lypex supplement in patients with EPI/malabsorption syndromes
37
what is MOS and FOS?
mannan oligosaccharides from yeast cell walls fructooligosaccharides from chicory/grains/barley/wheat
38
when might hypoallergenic diets be prescribed?
management of dogs with food allergy/hypersensitivity/intolerance also useful for IBD and EPI
39
what are hydrolysed proteins?
proteins in food which have been broken down to the point where they no longer provoke an immune response
40
what components do hypoallergenic diets usually contain?
hydrolysed proteins/novel protein skin barrier protection (B vitamins + amino acids + zinc + linoleic acid) omega 3 fatty acids (EPA/DHA) digestive security (beet pulp, FOS/MOS, zeolite)
41
what is the purpose of omega 3 fatty acids in hypoallergenic food?
help support skin and GI mucosal integrity
42
what is the purpose of zeolite in hypoallergenic food?
help support a healthy intestinal environment
43
what % of total energy should come from protein in convalescent diets?
30-50%
44
what forms do convalescent diets come in?
liquid, powdered and solid wet
45
why are critically ill patients at high risk of malnutrition?
catabolic depletion and rapid breakdown of energy and protein stores
46
how can you encourage a hospitalised patient to eat voluntarily?
calm environment provide fresh food warming the food - make sure it is palatable make sure no physical barriers e.g. buster collars, saucers for cats only try one food at a time
47
when should an enteral feeding tube be considered?
when an animal cannot get adequate caloric intake through voluntary eating
48
how can we alter food to help with dental health?
``` provide dry food, large kibbles oral hygiene chews phosphate salts bind salivary calcium use of anti-gingipain IgY addition of omega 3s and xylitol (not dogs?) ```
49
how can we encourage patients to eat spontaneously?
try different textured and strong smelling foods, warmed foods consider giving antiemetic medication/appetite stimulants/analgesia/pro-kinetics if required TLC - grooming, cuddles, playing offer food away from kennel try their favourite treats
50
what should we avoid doing when encouraging patients to eat spontaneously?
food buffets in kennels introducing prescription diets (may create aversion) don't keep offering food if condition seems to be worsening - consider assisted feeding
51
when is a feeding tube placed?
if a patient has been anorexic for 48 hours or more if the vet anticipates the patient to be anorexic after a surgical procedure if there is trauma to the mouth/head/neck to administer oral rehydration or medication (maintaining normal 'ins' and 'outs')
52
what types of feeding tube are there?
naso-oesophageal oesophageal percutaneous endoscopic gastrotomy (PEG) tube
53
what equipment is required to place a naso-oesophageal tube?
``` surgical stapler correct feeding and correct french gauge syringes (correct size for feeding tube) proxymetacaine (LA) sterile lubricant gloves sterile water tape ```
54
briefly describe how to place a naso-oesophageal tube.
1. measure correct size tube (tip of snout to 7th rib in cats/ 8th rib in dogs) 2. apply proxymetacaine to one of the nares and around the nostrils 3. apply sterile lubricant to end of tube and put patient in sitting position with control of the head 4. direct tube in a medio-ventral-caudal direction - first part quickly, keep inserting until reach mark on tube 5. check tube has negative pressure 6. apply 10mls water for injection and monitor patient for respiratory distress 7. apply tape to tube by the nares, staple/superglue in place to patients face (repeat again between eyes and between ears) 8. place a buster collar
55
how do you check placement of a N/O tube?
check for negative pressure using a syringe | administer 10mls of water and monitor for respiratory distress
56
how do you administer a N/O tube feed?
1. calculate required amount 2. wear non-sterile gloves and draw up required amount into appropriate syringe 3. pre-warm food within syringes in a warm water bath 4. check for negative pressure 5. administer 10mls water as pre-flush 6. administer feed slowly over 10-15 mins, watch for signs of nausea/regurgitation (slow down/stop if seen) 7. administer 10mls flush afterwards
57
what are the nursing considerations for the N/O tube patient?
keep face and muzzle clean tempt with food before every feed take buster collar off for walks if putting it back on is well-tolerated avoid food buffets in kennels avoid offering prescription diets
58
how long can a N/O tube be used for?
up to 7 days
59
how do you remove a N/O tube?
remove by removing staples from patient or peeling away tape | using non-sterile gloves, pull gently out of the patients nose
60
what are the contraindications for N/O tube placement?
patient who are comatose or have limited gag reflex/risk of aspiration cat flu/congestion rhinitis/epistaxis/head trauma oesophageal disease marked regurgitation persistent vomiting impaired gastric outflow if nutritional support needed for >7 days
61
what are the possible complications with N/O tube feeding?
patients removing their own tube not getting negative pressure before a feed - tube displacement? infection reluctance to eat due to irritation from tube aspiration large dogs requiring very large feeds, small lumen blockage
62
what equipment is required for placing an oesophageal feeding tube?
feeding tube + correct french gauge sterile and non-sterile gloves curved artery forceps surgical prep equipment (clippers/scrub/drape) scalpel blade bandage material
63
how to you maintain an oesophageal feeding tube?
check stoma site 2x daily and assess for swelling/discharge/pain/redness clean with 1:10 iodine check for negative pressure and flush sterile water down the tube redress
64
what other nursing considerations should be given when nursing a patient with an oesophageal tube?
tempt with food before every feed no neck collars/slip leads administer medication through the tube to try and foster a positive relationship with food avoid food buffets in kennels avoid offering prescription diets
65
how do you administer an oesophageal tube feed?
wear non-sterile gloves pre-warm food syringes in warm water bath check for negative pressure and administer 10ml flush administer food slowly over 10-15 mins flush again with 10ml and watch for signs of regurgitation/reflex/nausea administer any medication administer flush
66
how long can an oesophageal tube be in place?
weeks to months
67
how you you remove an oesophageal tube?
wear non-sterile gloves cut suture holding the tube to the skin, gently pull away from patient apply a primary dressing to cover the stoma site can be managed by owner at home
68
what are the contraindications for placing an oesophageal feeding tube?
persistent vomiting reduced/impaired gastric outflow comatose, recumbent or dysphoric patients - aspiration risk oesophageal disease
69
what are the possible complications of an oesophageal tube?
infection loss of negative pressure - displacement suture failure blockage (rarer)
70
what is a percutaneous endoscopic gastrotomy tube?
a tube which runs through the skin of the abdomen and the stomach wall and into the stomach cavity
71
what equipment is required for placing a PEG tube?
correct size PEG tube kit (guide wire, needle/catheter, PEG tube) endoscope endoscope forceps suture material surgical prep equipment (scrub, drapes)
72
how do you provide a feed through a peg tube?
wait 24 hours after placement wear non-sterile gloves and pre-heat feed in a warm water bath aspirate contents of stomach until you get negative pressure. measure volume and replace back through PEG tube adjust feed as necessary and administer slowly over 20-25 mins administer any medication flush 10ml water through tube
73
what are the nursing considerations for a PEG tube?
try to administer oral medications through PEG tube where possible check stoma site twice daily as for O-tube care stockinette instead of wrap dressing tempt with food before every meal
74
how long can a PEG tube be in place?
cannot remove for at least 7 days | can be in place for months
75
how is a PEG tube removed?
can cut tube and will naturally pass through or firmly pull mushroom out of the stoma site?
76
what are the advantages of a N/O tube?
no GA required quick to place easy removal, no healing required well-tolerated
77
what are the disadvantages of a N/O tube?
short term risk of aspiration irritating - can inhibit spontaneous eating can block due to narrow lumen feeds are time-consuming
78
what are the advantages of an oesophageal tube?
can administer larger volumes more easily can administer medications more easily can be managed at home with owner
79
what are the disadvantages of an oesophageal tube?
GA required stoma site can become infected can dislodge if patient vomits or regurgitates, aspiration risk can get blocked time-consuming feeds
80
what are the advantages of a PEG tube?
large lumen to administer medication | can be in situ for months, managed by owner
81
what are the disadvantages of a PEG tube?
GA required has to be in situ for 7 days before removal - not good for short-term support cannot use for first 24 hours infection risk
82
how much food can be given 24 hours after a PEG tube is placed?
1/3rd RER
83
how much food can be given 48 hours after a PEG tube is placed?
2/3rd RER
84
how much food can be given 72 hours after a PEG tube is placed?
all of RER
85
what is the exocrine function of the pancreas?
synthesise and excrete digestive enzymes
86
which dogs are pre-disposed to pancreatitis?
terriers, miniature poodles, miniature schnauzers | overweight dogs
87
what is pancreatitis?
premature activation of digestive enzymes within the acinar cells resulting in pancreas autodigestion due to secretory block
88
how does pancreatitis present?
vomiting abdominal pain anorexia lethargy
89
what can pancreatitis lead to?
``` EPI chronic pancreatitis renal failure acute lung injury DIC ```
90
what is the treatment for pancreatitis?
supportive - IVFT, antiemetics, analgesia, gastro-protectants nutrition is key
91
should pancreatitis patients be fasted?
no - no requirement to fast, causes increase in systemic inflammation
92
what effect does early enteral nutrition have on pancreatitis? (first 48 hours of admission)
reduced bacterial translocation reduced villus atrophy reduced pancreatic inflammation
93
what is important to remember when enteral feeding for pancreatitis?
avoid high fat diet due to concurrent hyperlipidaemia prepyloric feeding well-tolerated in acute pancreatitis lumen size may restrict diet choice
94
which dietary components are important for normal skeletal development/maintenance?
calcium phosphorous vitamin D
95
what is osteoarthritis?
progressive articular cartilage degradation
96
what are 3 common orthopaedic conditions?
osteoarthritis joint dysplasia cranial cruciate ligament rupture/luxating patellae
97
which dietary components are important in nutrition for arthritis?
weight management omega 3 fatty acids (EPA/DHA - reduce inflammation) glucosamine-chondroitin sulphate
98
what is the function of glucosamine-chondroitin sulphate?
cartilage formation and repair reduce inflammation slow cartilage degeneration
99
what are the dietary aims for treating diabetes?
achieving and maintaining normal serum glucose levels decrease post-prandial glucose peaks achieve normal metabolism of carbs/fats/proteins normalise bodyweight
100
what does DMB mean?
dry matter basis
101
what % DMB should protein make up in a diabetes diet?
15-25% dogs | 28-50% cats
102
what % DMB should fat make up in a diabetes diet?
<20% DMB - high fat increases insulin resistance
103
what % DMB should carbohydrate make up in a diabetes diet?
<30 DMB
104
what other component is important in a diabetes diet?
insoluble carbohydrate (fibre) - important factor in DB management
105
what dietary component is important to manage in hyperthyroidism?
iodine - dietary iodine required for production of thyroid hormone
106
how can feline hyperthyroidism be treated/managed?
0.2ppm iodine DMB e.g. Hills y/d important that cat eats absolutely nothing else
107
why should kidney function be monitored while treating hyperthyroidism?
can lower blood pressure = reduced perfusion to the kidneys
108
which dietary alterations may help treat cardiac disease?
mild sodium restriction sufficient taurine, L-carnitine, arginine, omega 3 fatty acids
109
what is the importance of taurine in managing cardiac disease?
deficiency linked to DCM | especially relevant in cats
110
what is the importance of L-carnitine in managing cardiac disease?
myocardial energy production | synthesised from lysine and methionine
111
what is the importance of arginine in managing cardiac disease?
maintenance of normal vascular tone
112
what is the importance of omega 3 fatty acids in managing cardiac disease?
reduces muscle loss | anti-arrhythmic effects
113
how much L-carnitine should be included in the diet for cardiac disease?
50-100mg/kg PO q8h