Diagnostic Imaging (1-6) Flashcards
(148 cards)
1
Q
what phase of respiration do you want to take a thoracic radiograph during
A
inspiratory
2
Q
do you want high or low contrast in a thoracic radiograph?
A
low contrast image
3
Q
what kVp and mAs is needed for a low contrast image of the thorax
A
high kVp & low mAs
4
Q
why do you need to take 3-views of the thorax?
and what are these 3 views
A
recumbent lung collapses under weight of the heart;
so take L lat. recumbency, R lat. recumbency, and VD/DV
5
Q
what are the 5 Röntgen signs that every organ should be assessed for on radiography
A
- size
- shape
- opacity
- location
- number/presence
6
Q
do cats have a clavicle?
A
yes, prominent
7
Q
name 4 changes in the lungs that may be seen in an old dog
“old dog lungs”
A
- pleural thickening
- incr. bronchial mineralization
- incr. foci of heterotropic bone
- incr. lung opacity w/ interstitial pattern & bronchial mineralisation
8
Q
name the order of the thorax anatomic approach to interpreting a radiograph
A
- non-thoracic soft tissue: neck and abdomen
- skeleton
- heart & vessels
- pleural space
- lungs (most difficult, do last)
9
Q
where the pulmonary veins in relation to the bronchus
A
ventral & central
10
Q
where are the pulmonary arteries in relation to the bronchus
A
dorsal & peripheral
11
Q
on a lateral view, the cranial pulmonary vessel diameter should be smaller than what rib width?
A
< 4th proximal rib width
12
Q
on a VD/DV radiographic view, the caudal pulmonary vessel diameters should be smaller than what rib width?
A
< 9th rib width at cross point
13
Q
name 3 signs of hypovolaemia that can be seen on a thoracic radiograph
A
- small pulmonary arteries and veins
- small cardiac sillhouette
- hyperlucent lung fields, normal size
14
Q
name 3 factors (not diseases) that might cause lungs to have increased opacity on radiography
A
- technical
- underinflation
- obese patient
15
Q
name 2 factors (not diseases) that may cause lungs to have decreased opacity on a radiograph
A
- technical
- manual hyperinflation
16
Q
name 3 reasons that lungs may have hyperinflation and decreased opacity on a radiograph
A
- stress
- emphysema
- reduced vascular blood supply
17
Q
name 2 reasons lungs might be hypovascular and have decr. opacity on a radiograph
A
- shock, dehydration
- Addison’s disease
18
Q
what 5 patterns can diffusely increased lung opacity have?
A
- alveolar
- bronchial
- vascular
- nodular
- unstructured interstitial
19
Q
name the pattern of diffusely incr. lung opacity
white and fluffy
A
alveolar
20
Q
name the pattern of diffusely incr. lung opacity
rings & tramlines
A
bronchial
21
Q
name the pattern of diffusely incr. lung opacity
too mant too big vessels
A
vascular
22
Q
name the pattern of diffusely incr. lung opacity
soft tissue nodules
A
nodular
23
Q
name the pattern of diffusely incr. lung opacity
moderately incr. diffuse opacity;
vessels still visible
A
unstructured interstitial
24
Q
name 4 causes of an alveolar lung pattern (soft tissue opaque lung)
A
- oedema
- inflammation/infection
- haemorrhage
- neoplasia
25
name 2 causes of ventral alveolar lung pattern
1. pneumonia
2. aspiration pneumonia
26
name a cause perihilar alveolar lung pattern
canine cardiogenic pulmonary oedema
27
name 2 causes of caudodorsal alveolar lung pattern
1. non-cardiogenic oedema
2. inhaled foreign body pneumonia
28
name 2 causes of diffuse alveolar lung pattern
1. haemorrhage
2. viral pneumonia
29
name 3 Roentgen signs of alveolar lung pattern
1. soft tissue opacity w/o distinguishable vessels
2. airbronchograms
3. border effacement
30
name 2 features of bronchial lung pattern
1. bronchial thickening, bronchiectasis
2. bronchial mineralization
31
name 5 things that may cause interstitial lung pattern on radiograph
1. underexposure
2. expiration
3. interstitial oedema
4. inflammation
5. cellular infiltrate
32
name the 2 possible types of expansion with chest wall masses
1. intrathoracic expansion
2. extrathoracic expansion
33
name 2 possible congenital malformations of the ribs
1. pectus excavatum
2. pectus carinatum
34
name 3 possible types of fractures of the ribs
1. acute with sharp margins
2. chronic (often malunion or non-union)
3. flail chest
35
name 2 common incidental findings of the ribs
(not a clinical concern)
1. mineralized rib cartilage
2. canine osteochondromas
36
# what recumbency is the patient in?
Y-shaped dorsal hemidiaphragms;
Caudal Vena Cava (CVC) continues to more caudal right hemidiaphragm
left lateral recumbency
37
# what recumbency is the patient in?
parallel dorsal hemidiaphragms;
Caudal Vena Cava (CVC) ends at more cranial right hemidiaphragm
right lateral recumbency
38
what does cranial diaphragmatic displacement usually indicate
space-occupying lesion in the abdomen
39
what does caudal diaphragmatic displacement usually indicate
space-occupying lesion in the thorax
40
what 3 things can cause lung-chest wall separation (abnormalities in pleural space)
1. fluid
2. soft tissue mass
3. gas
41
name 3 radiographic signs of pleural effusion
1. fissure lines
2. cardiac border effacement
3. separation lung - boundaries (lung lobe retraction)
42
what might scalloping (undulating lung margin) on a thoracic radiograph indicate
1. pyothorax
2. chylothorax
3. chronic hydrothorax
43
this is a localized pleural soft tissue opacity ;
mole hill-like medial deviation of pulmonary margins ;
differentiates thoracic wall from lung mass
extrapleural sign
44
what 5 structures are normally visible on radiograph in the mediastinum
1. trachea with carina
2. caudal vena cava
3. aorta
4. parts of oesophagus
5. juvenile thymus
45
name 4 possible pathologies of the mediastinum
1. pneumomediastinum
2. shift
3. widening
4. masses
46
what is the cardiac sillhouette comprised of
1. heart
2. pericardium
47
what 4 things should you assess of the cardiac silhouette
1. size
2. shape
3. position
4. opacity
48
name 3 radiographic signs of left sided cardiomegaly in a dog
1. pronounced left atrium with straightened dorsocaudal silhouette
2. dorsal tracheal displacement pivoting at carina
3. pulmonary venomegaly & oedema
49
name 4 radiogaphic signs of R sided cardiomegaly in a dog
1. enlarged cardiac silhouette
2. pronounced R ventricle
3. dorsal tracheal displacement pivoting cranial to carina
4. inverse D shape
50
name 2 radiographic signs of feline hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
1. enlarged cardiac silhouette
2. pronounced R & L atria (valentine's shaped heart)
51
name 2 radiographic signs of canine heartworm disease (Dirofilariasis)
1. R heart enlargement (inverse D-shape)
2. enlarged and tortuous pulmonary arteries
52
name 3 radiographic signs of pericardial effusion
1. enlarged & round cardiac silhouette
2. sharp margins of cardiac silhouette
3. indented silhouette margin at diaphragmatic/sternal contact
53
# name the term
incomplete maturation of cartilage into bone;
very rare in cats
osteochondrosis
54
# name the term
when osteochondral fragment separates from subchondral bone
Osteochondrosis dissecans (OCD)
55
# name the term
increased laxity of the hip joint;
most common orthopedic condition in dog, rare in cats;
leads to subluxation & DJD
hip dysplasia
56
The femoral head should be covered by how much of teh dorsal acetabular edge on radiograph?
at least 50%
57
on a radiograph of the hip, where should there be parallel femur and acetabulum margins at?
cranial acetabular edge
58
this is a caudal curvilinear osteophyte on a hip radiograph;
earliest osteophyte, prognostic indicator for developing DJD
Morgan line
59
# name the hip dysplasia scoring method
3 radiographic views (hips extende, distracted, compressed);
static and dynamic joint laxity;
greater than 4 months of age;
only by certified vet;
Distraction index (DI) = degree of subluxation;
results given in relation to all dogs of breed in database
PennHIP method
60
# name the hip dysplasia scoring method
can be performed by every vet;
very widely available;
12-24 months;
no breed average given;
not all studies submitted;
femoral head subluxation is underscored
BVA/OFA/FCI
61
# name the condition
canine ischemic femoral head necrosis;
occurs in young breed dogs;
almost always unilateral;
ischemic progressive necrosis of the femoral head epiphysis;
unknown cause but not progressive
Legg-Calve-Perth disease
62
what is the treatment of choice for canine ischemic femoral head necrosis (Legg-Calve-Perth disease)
femoral head excision
63
# name the condition
occurs in 1-2 year old cats, often male and obese;
femoral head physeal cartilage does not mature into bone;
leads to non-traumatic femoral head physeal slip fracture (SH type 1)
feline femoral head physeal dysplasia
64
# name the condition
developmental abnormality leading to malformation & degeneration of the elbow joint;
very common in young, large breed dogs;
genetic disease;
umbrella term for separate conditions
canine elbow dysplasia (ED)
65
name 6 conditions included under the umbrella term of canine elbow dysplasia (ED)
1. elbow incongruity
2. fragmented medial coronoid process
3. united anconeal process
4. osteochondrosis of the humeral condyle
5. incomplete ossification of the humeral condyle
6. Patella cubiti
66
# name the form of elbow dysplasia
incongruence of radio-ulnar, humero-ulnar, OR humero-radial joint ;
often related to groeth disturbance of proximal or distal physis
elbow incongruity
67
# name the form of elbow dysplasia
most common form of elbow dysplasia;
likely short radius - increased load on MCP;
leads to sclerosis, fissures, and fragmentation
fragmented medial coronoid process (FMCP)
68
# name the form of elbow dysplasia
only occurs in some breeds (GSD, great dane, basset hound, etc);
anconeal proxess is separate ossification centre, failure of fusion with olecranon before 20 weeks of age;
Rads: irregular radiolucent line in dogs older than 20 wks, adjacent sclerosis, proximal displacement of AP, best seen on lateral flexed view
ununited anconeal process (UAP)
69
# name the form of elbow dysplasia
small osteochondral defect medial aspect of humeral condyle;
large surrounding sclerosis
osteochondrosis of the humeral condyle
70
# name the form of elbow dysplasia
lack of fusion of medial & lateral humeral condyle, remnant fibrocartilage;
common in spaniel breeds;
prodromal lameness & pain;
radiography very poor, CT modality of choice
incomplete ossification of the Humeral Condyle (IOHC)
71
# name the form of elbow dysplasia
very rare developmental or congenital condition in young large breed dogs without trauma history;
olecranon is separated from rest of ulna at level of elbow joint;
proximal ulnar physis can be normal or irregular;
not painful, often no surgical treatment required
Patella cubiti
72
# name the condition
= osteoarthritis;
initial cartilage degeneration & sec changes;
very common, debilitating disease of dogs and cats;
Rads: subchondral bone sclerosis, joint effusion, subluxation, periarticular osteophytosis
degenerative joint disease (DJD)
73
what two things can a ligament connect
(2 options)
1. bone-bone
2. organ-organ
74
what two things does a tendon connect?
bone-muscle
75
what does the prefix Desmo- indicate?
ligament
76
# name the condition
infectious, immune-mediated myositis;
degenerative overuse;
genetic diseases (muscular dystrophy)
myopathies
77
# name the condition
non-infectious, inflammatory bone marrow lesion in young dogs;
usually large breed, 5-18 months old;
lameness & pain on palpation, fever, anorexia;
Rads: incr. medullary opacity, sometimes as "thumbprint" in long bones, often near nutrient foramen, rarely secondary endosteal or periosteal reaction
panosteitis
78
# name the condition
synonym: hypertrophic osteodystrophy (HOD);
idiopathic, non-infectious, inflammatory polyostotic lesion, usually symmetric;
young dogs (2-6 mo) with fever and pain;
initially metaphyseal osteolysis
metaphyseal osteopathy
79
# name the condition
synonyms: Marie's disease, Cadiot-Ball;
rare condition in many species;
cause unknown;
periosteal palisading periosteal reaction secondary to thoracic or abdominal mass lesion;
bilaterally symmetric diffuse periosteal reaction
hypertrophic (pulmonary) osteopathy
80
# what type of immune-mediated arthropathies are these an example of?
1. Joint effusion & ostelysis
2. canine rheumatoid arthritis
3. Feline progressive polyarthritis
4. polyarthritis of Greyhounds
erosive
81
# what type of immune-mediated arthropathies are these an example of?
1. joint effusion
2. idiopathic
3. systemic lupus erythematosus
4. feline progressive polyarthritis
non-erosive
82
# name the condition
post traumatic non-vitalised bone fragment;
usually dense and initially sharply marginated;
serves as nidus or infection, often with draining tract;
usually requires surgical debridement
sequestrum formation
83
# name the condition
insidious chronic infection following bite from infected prey species ;
proliferative and/or osteolytic bone changes
Feline mycobacteriosis
84
name the 11 organs to scan with ultrasound on the Left-side (patient in R lateral recumbency)
1. liver
2. stomach
3. spleen
4. L kidney & ovary
5. L adrenal gland
6. L lobe of pancreas
7. L medial iliac LN & vessels
8. Urinary bladder
9. prostate/uterus
10. jejunum & peritoneum
11. descending colon
85
name the 12 organs to scan with ultrasound on the right-side (patient in L lateral recumbency)
1. urinary bladder
2. R medial ilian LN & vessels
3. R kidney & ovary
4. R adrenal gland
5. R lobe of pancreas
6. body of pancreas
7. duodenum
8. ileum
9. prostate/uterus
10. caecum, ascending & transverse colon
11. liver & gall bladder
12. testicles
86
# name the material based on U/S characteristics
anaechoic pattern;
acoustic enhancement artifact that makes all organs more echogenic than normal
free fluid
87
# name the material based on U/S characteristics
anechoic pattern;
refractive peripheral shadows;
acoustic enhancement;
sharp border outlines;
defined far walls are usually seen
encapsulated cystic fluid
88
# name the material based on U/S characteristics
variable echo patterns;
peripheral shadows variable;
acoustic enhancement presence variable;
may see swirling on ballotement
cellular or viscous fluids
89
# name the material based on U/S characteristics
multiple small but sharp reverberation-like echos within the anechoic fluid
suspended gas, ingesta or pus
90
# name the material based on U/S characteristics
intensively reflective (30-60%) - hyperechoic;
rest of the echoes are absorbed and will result in acoustic shadowing of deeper structures
bones, calcified tissue & calculi
91
# name the material based on U/S characteristics
intensely reflective (99%) thus hyperechoic interface;
generated variable degrees of underlying reverberation and partial shadowing
gas
92
list 6 abdominal structures from least to most echogenic
| (for most cats love sunny places)
1. fluid
2. medulla (renal)
3. cortex (renal)
4. liver
5. spleen
6. prostate/peritonitis
93
name 4 large and readily visualised (by U/S) abdominal viscera
| (first day competencies)
1. liver and gallbladder
2. spleen
3. kidneys
4. urinary bladder
94
# name the common findings of the liver on U/S
multiple poorly defined hypoechoic nodules;
becomes more prolific as dogs age;
incidental
nodular hyperplasia
95
name 2 differential diagnoses for diffusely hyperechoic parencyma of the liver seen on U/S
1. fatty/non-fatty vacuolar hepatopathy
2. steroid hepatopathy
96
# name the common findings of the spleen on U/S
incidental;
hyperechoic tissue surrounding splenic vasculature at hilus
myelolipomata
97
# name the common findings of the kidney on U/S
shadowing structure with a hyperechoic interface
renoliths
98
# name the common findings of the kidney on U/S
thin walled anechoic with diswtal acoustic enhancement;
congenital/acquired
renal cysts
99
# name the common findings of the kidney on U/S
increased cortical echogenicity;
loss of corticomedullary distinction;
smaller kidney with irregular margin (end stage)
chronic kidney disease
100
# name the common finding of the urinary bladder on U/S
gravity-dependent, hyperechoic, speckled material
sediment
101
# name the common finding of the urinary bladder on U/S
gravity-dependent, hyperechoic shadowing structures
cystoliths
102
# name the common finding of the urinary bladder on U/S
irregularly marginated, pedunculated trigone mass originating from UB-wall and projecting into the UB-lumen
urothelial carcinoma (TCC)
103
name the 4 portions of the GIT that is fixed and easier to visualise on U/S
1. stomach
2. descending duodenum
3. ileum/ICCJ
4. colon
104
name the 2 hypoechoic layers of the GIT
1. mucosa
2. muscularis
| (the two M's)
105
name the 2 hyperechoic layers of the GIT
1. submucosa
2. serosa
| (the two S's)
106
what is the echogenicity of a normal mesenteric lymph node
isoechoic to the mesentery
107
what is the echogenicity of a reactive or neoplastic mesenteric lymph node
hypoechoic
108
where to center the x-ray for stomach and liver radiographs of a large dog?
on last rib
109
where to center the x-ray for caudal organ radiograph of a large dog
mid abdomen
110
where to center the x-ray for whole abdominal organs radiographs of small or medium size dog
on last rib
111
what Kv and mAs levels do you want for abdominal radiographs
low Kv and high mAs
112
this provides good contrast in the cat to visualise the ventral margin of the liver
falciform fat
113
# name the organ
craniventral abdomen;
traingular, sharp margins, within the rib cage or extending just beyond
liver
114
name 5 common causes of diffuse hepatomegaly
1. hepatic venous congestion (R heart failure)
2. endocrine & metabolic disease
3. inflammation (hepatitis/cholangiohepatitis)
4. infiltrative neoplasia
5. nodular hyperplasia (dogs)
115
# name the organ
head visible on VD projection on the left cranial aspect of the abdomen;
tail not usually seen on lateral abdominal film in a cat
spleen
116
how wide must the small intestinal diameter be in order for it to be considered abnormal distension in a cat
wider than 12 mm
117
how wide must the small intestinal diameter be in order for it to be considered abnormal distension in a dog
SI max / L5 vert. body height > 2.4
118
what should the diameter of the colon be in a dog
less than the length of the body of L7
119
what should the diameter of the colon be in a cat
2.2x the sm. intest. diameter
OR
2.8x the length of the cranial endplate of L2
120
name 6 abdominal organs/structures that are not normally visible on radiograph
1. adrenals
2. pancreas
3. ovaries
4. sublumbar lymph nodes
5. uterus
6. prostate
121
what is the modality of choice for head & spine imaging?
MRI
122
what is the first line diagnostic imaging tool for eye and orbit
ultrasound
(CT/MRI is second line)
123
what is the modality of choice for imaging nose, pharynx, larynx, oral cavity, and ears
CT
124
what is the modality of choice for imaging dental structures
intraoral radiography
125
# name the parathyroid gland disease
parathyroid neoplasia (carcinoma);
single with atrophy of other PTs;
commonly multiple PT tumours
primary hyperparathyroidism
126
# name the parathyroid gland disease
nutritional: due to calcium deficient diet or malabsorption;
renal: excessive urinary Ca loss due to impaired renal Ca reabsorption;
both: enlarged PT glands
secondary hyperparathyroidism
127
# name the parathyroid gland disease
paraneoplastic syndrome: non-PT tumour produces PT-like hormone (lymphoma, other neo);
atrophied 4 PT glands
tertiary hyperparathyroidism
128
what is the normal diameter of the parathyroid glands
1-3mm
129
# name the condition caused by hyperparathyroidism
marked mandibular osteopenia;
'floating teeth'
"rubber jaw"
130
# name the nasal disease
bacterial, viral, parasitic;
bilaterally symmetric secretion;
no mass lesion;
turbinate destruction rare
rhinitis
131
# name the nasal disease
unilateral & rostral turbinate lysis;
most are radiolucent plant material
inhaled foreign body
132
# name the nasal disease
early stage: unilateral turbinate destruction and mass lesion;
mostly caudal location
nasal neoplasia
| (adenocarcinoma, squamous carcinoma, sarcoma)
133
# name the nasal disease
mostly unilateral & rostral turbinate lysis, secretion, no mass;
frontal sinus hyperostosis;
fungal rhinitis
canine aspergillosis
134
# name the nasal disease
mass lesion affecting dorsal nasal wall;
marked retropharyngeal lymphadenopathy;
fungal rhinitis
feline cryptococcosis
135
# name the nasal disease
insidious chronic infection following bite from infected prey species;
proliferative and/or osteolytic bone changes
feline mycobacteriosis
136
# name the bone proliferative disorder
* non-neoplastic, non-infectious
* unknown aetiology, genetic link in West Highland White Terriers (WHWT)
* occurs in young dogs, 3-8mo
* palisading new bone formation symmetric or occasionally asymmetric on mandible, tympanic bullae & TMJ, frontal bone and calvinarium
* can have calvarial hyperostosis
* present with pain and inability to open mouth
craniomandibular osteopathy
137
# name the cranial disease
distension of the ventricular system;
dome shaped cranium, thin cortices, open frontanelles
hydrocephalus internus
138
# name the incidental vertebral radiographic finding
bridging new bone formation between 2 vertebral endplates;
ventral & lateral;
suggests instability, but not sufficient for clinical diagnosis
spondylosis deformans
139
# name the incidental vertebral radiographic finding
continuous new bone formation of 3 or more vertebrae;
common in Boxer dogs
disseminated idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis (DISH)
140
how much bone loss must there be before osteolysis can be appreciated radiographically
at least 30%
141
name 4 radiographic signs of disk degeneration
1. disk space narrowing
2. vertebral endplate sclerosis
3. mineralised disk material
4. gas in disk space ('vacuum sign')
142
# name the spinal cord disease
* infection of the intervertebra disk and endplates, can extend to articular process joints
* bacterial or fungal in origin, haematogenous spread
* osteolysis and later osteoproliferation of both endplates
* collapsing intervertebral disk space
* with time, smooth new bone formation and block vertebra formation
* difficult to determine radiographically when healed
Diskospondylitis
143
this is a radiographic contrast study where iodinated contrast medium is injected into the subarachnoid space
myelography
144
name 3 possible abnormalities of the contrast columns surrounding the spinal cord
1. deviation
2. thinning/disappearance
3. splitting
145
# name the spinal cord contrast column abnormality
* most common type
* spinal cord/cauda equina is compressed by a lesion outside of the dural sac
* thinning and axial deviation of contrast column near the lesion
* thinning of opposite contast column
* on orthogonal view: both contrast columns can be widened and thinned
* ex: intervertebral disk extrusion or protrusion, vertebral neoplasia
extradural compressive lesion
146
# name the spinal cord contrast column abnormality
* most rare type
* spinal cord/cauda equina is compressed by a lesion within the subarachnoid space
* golf tee sign: widened column with central oval filling defect
* creates a split of contrast column but with rounded margin
* ex: nerve root tumour, meningioma
intradural-extramedullary lesion
147
# name the spinal cord contrast column abnormality
* relatively rare, but important
* spinal cord is swollen
* thinning and abaxial deviation of all contrast columns
* ex: spinal oedema, parenchymal hemorrhage, inflammation, infection, neoplasia
intramedullary lesion
148
