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Cat & Dog > Respiratory (1-7) > Flashcards

Respiratory (1-7) Flashcards

1
Q

name the abnormal respiratory pattern

elevated respiratory rate;
confouned by panting, excitement, stress, fever, etc

A

tachypnoea

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2
Q

name the abnormal respiratory pattern

laboured breathing;
reduced, normal or slightly elevated rate;
abdominal component

A

dyspnoea

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3
Q

name the abnormal respiratory pattern

laboured breathing with raised rate

A

hyperpnoea

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4
Q

name the abnormal respiratory pattern

adopting a position to ease breathing;
sternal (uaually cats), persistent standing, unable to lie recumbent etc

A

Orthopnoea

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5
Q

what is the target normal respiratory rate in dogs and cats?

A

< 30bpm

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6
Q

name the respiratory sound

harsh, low pitched, continuous, air travelling through a large arways

A

rhonchi

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7
Q

name the respiratory sound

whistling, high pitched, continuous, air travelling through narrowed airways

A

wheezes

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8
Q

name the respiratory sound

variable pitch (usually high), fine or coarse, discontinuous, airways peeling apart during inspiration

A

crackles

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9
Q

what 2 pieces of equipment do you need in order to visualise the oro-pharynx and larynx

A
  1. pen-torch
  2. laryngoscope
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10
Q

what equipment do you need in order to visualise the trachea and major airways

A

bronchoscopy

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11
Q

name 5 applications of bronchoscopy

A
  1. inspection of airway mucosa
  2. localisation of lesions
  3. airway foreign bodies (ID & retrieval)
  4. accurate sampling of material
  5. broncho-alveolar lavage
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12
Q

what is the best way to exclude cardiac disease in the dog?

A

R lateral thoracic radiograph

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13
Q

name the respiratory noise

inspiratory ‘snoring’ noise;
associated with partial occlusion of the nares, nasal passages, choanae or nasopharynx

A

stertor

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14
Q

name the respiratory noise

high pitched inspiratory noise;
associated with partial occlusion of the larynx or trachea

A

stridor

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15
Q

this is forceful expiration that clears foreign material from the nasal cavity

A

sneeze

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16
Q

how to assess airflow/patency of nasal passages?

A

with cold slide or wisp of cotton wool

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17
Q

what does decreased resonance on sinus percussion suggest?

A

fluid

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18
Q

what might nasal depigmentation suggest?

A

fungal rhinitis

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19
Q

what might palatine deformity suggest?

A

mass lesion in nasopharynx

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20
Q

name 5 infectious diseases that can be diagnosed by oropharyngeal swabs

A
  1. FHV
  2. FCV
  3. M. felis
  4. B. bronchiseptica
  5. C. felis
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21
Q

name the two types of rhinoscopy that can be done

A
  1. normograde
  2. retroflex
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22
Q

name the type of rhinoscopy

rigid endoscope;
view: turbinate mucosa & vessels;
useful for: mass lesions, foreign bodies, fungal plaques

A

normograde

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23
Q

name the type of rhinoscopy

flexible endoscope;
view: nasopharynx;
useful for: masss lesions, stenosis

A

retroflex

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24
Q

is acute rhinitis more common in dogs or cats?

A

cats

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25
Q

name 5 infectious causes of acute rhinitis in cats

A
  1. FHV-1
  2. FCV
  3. mycoplasma
  4. bordetella
  5. Chlamydophila
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26
Q

name 4 infectious causes of acute rhinitis in dogs

A
  1. distemper
  2. mycoplasma
  3. bordetella
  4. herpesvirus
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27
Q

name 4 clinical signs of acute rhinits

A
  1. sneezing
  2. serous nasal +/- ocular discharge
  3. pyrexia
  4. inappetance
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28
Q

name 3 antibiotics commonly used in pulse dose to treat feline chronic rhinitis

A
  1. amoxycillin-clavulanate
  2. doxycycline
  3. clindamycin
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29
Q

what 2 drugs should be used to treat feline chronic rhinitis if FHV-1 is identified

A
  1. Famcyclovir
  2. L-lysine
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30
Q

name 2 causes of fungal rhinitis in cats

A
  1. Cryptococcus neoformans
  2. Aspergillus fumigatus
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31
Q

name 2 ways to diagnose fungal rhinitis in cats

A
  1. impression smear
  2. LCAT (latex crypto antigen agglutination test)
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32
Q

name 2 possible treatments for fungal rhinitis in cats

A
  1. Fluconazole
  2. Amphotericin B
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33
Q

name 2 causes of fungal rhinitis in dogs

A
  1. Aspergillus fumigatus
  2. Penicillium spp.
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34
Q

why must you have at least 2 supportive tests to diagnose fungal rhinitis in dogs

A

Aspergillus spores and hyphae may be found in healthy nimals (environmental contaminant)

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35
Q

name 4 treatment options for Aspergillosis

A
  1. oral itraconzole
  2. topical clotrimazole solution
  3. topical clotrimazole cream
  4. rhinotomy to debride fungal plaques
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36
Q

how to obtain a definitive diagnosis of nasal neoplasia?

A

tissue biopsy

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37
Q

what is the most successful form of therapy for nasal neoplasia

A

radiotherapy

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38
Q

name 3 dental diseases that may cause nasal discharge

A
  1. osteomyelitis
  2. tooth root abscessation
  3. oro-nasal fistula formation
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39
Q

name 3 signs of an aspirated foreign body in the nasopharynx

A
  1. vomiting
  2. retching
  3. gagging
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40
Q

name 2 signs of an inhaled foreign body in the nasal cavity

A
  1. acute onset sneezing
  2. chronic unilateral nasal discharge
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41
Q

these are benign growths thought to be assoc. with inflammation;
arise from lining of Eustachian tube;
typically in young cats

A

nasopharyngeal polyps

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42
Q

name 5 clinical signs of nasopharyngeal polyps

A
  1. sneezing
  2. nasal discharge
  3. stertorous respiration
  4. head tilt
  5. Horner’s syndrome
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43
Q

name 3 ways to diagnose nasopharyngeal polyps

A
  1. oral exam
  2. aural exam
  3. radiography
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44
Q

what sign of nasopharyngeal polyps may be seen on an aural examination

A

mass lesion in vertical ear canal

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45
Q

what 2 signs of nasopharyngeal polyps may be seen on an oral examination

A
  1. ventral deviation of palate
  2. mass visualised with retraction of SP
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46
Q

what sign of nasopharyngeal polyps may be seen on a lateral view radiograph

A

mass lesion on nasopharynx

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47
Q

name 2 treatment options for nasopharyngeal polyps

A
  1. traction-evulsion (pull polyp with forceps)
  2. bulla osteotomy

(anti-inflammatory doses of steroids after may reduce recurrence)

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48
Q

this is a reflex expulsion of air against a closed glottis that suddenly opens

A

cough

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49
Q

are there cough receptors in the respiratory bronchioles & alveoli?

A

No

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50
Q

name the 3 types of receptors that activate coughing

A
  1. mechano-
  2. stretch
  3. irritant
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51
Q

this is an inappropriate breathing pattern or effort

A

dyspnoea

52
Q

what dog breeds are predisoposed to tracheal collapse?

A

small, toy breeds

53
Q

name the respiratory problem

classic ‘goose-honk’, ‘seal-bark’ sound;
aggravated by lead pulling;
dyspnoea common

A

tracheal collapse

54
Q

what is the best method of diagnosing tracheal collapse?

A

bronchoscopy

55
Q

name 4 medical management options for tracheal collapse therapy

A
  1. obesity control
  2. environment control
  3. exercise control
  4. medication
56
Q

name 2 surgical management options for tracheal collapse therapy

A
  1. dorsal membrane plication
  2. prosthesis insertion
57
Q

what is the official term for kennel cough?

A

acute tracheobronchitis

58
Q

what is the main cause of acute tracheobronchitis? (40% of dogs)

A

Bordetella bronchiseptica

(kennel cough)

59
Q

what is the treatment for acute tracheobonchitits (kennel cough)

A

nothing, self-limiting disease
(resolves spontaneously in 7-21 days)

60
Q

this is a pathological dilatation of larger airways

A

bronchiectasis

61
Q

this is pathological damage to airway walls resulting in loss of wall strength

A

bronchomalacia

62
Q

name 3 medications for therapy of chronic bronchitis

A
  1. glucocorticosteroids
  2. bronchodilators
  3. antibacterial therapy
63
Q

name 3 clinical signs of feline asthma syndrome (FAS)

A
  1. cough
  2. wheezing
  3. dyspnoea
64
Q

what haematological feature might a cat with feline asthma syndrome (FAS) present with

A

circulating eosinophilia

65
Q

name 6 treatments for feline asthma

A
  1. allergen avoidance
  2. glucocorticoids
  3. bronchodilators
  4. antibiotics
  5. allergen specific immunotherapy
  6. anti-body immunotherapy
66
Q

name 4 parts of emergency feline asthma treatment

A
  1. oxygen therapy
  2. bronchodilator therapy
  3. glucocorticosteroids
  4. antibacterial therapy
67
Q

name the respiratory parasite

urban fox in Scotland;
indirect life cycle (mollusc intermediate host);
dogs show mild to moderate signs (coughing mainly)

A

Crenosoma vulpis

68
Q

name 3 ways to diagnose respiratory parasites

A
  1. visualisation on bronchoscopy
  2. identification on airway samples
  3. faecal analysis
69
Q

name 3 treatment drugs for respiratory parasites

A
  1. Benzimidazole anthelmintics (panacur)
  2. Milbemycin oxime (Milobemax, interceptor)
  3. Moxidectin (imidacloprid)
70
Q

name 3 ways to diagnose airway foreign bodies

A
  1. radiography
  2. bronchoscopy
  3. exploratory thoracotomy
70
Q

name 3 potential complications of airway foreign bodies

A
  1. pleural contamination
  2. lung lobe consolidation
  3. pulmonary abscess
71
Q

what is the treatment of choice for airway foreign bodies

A

bronchoscopic retrieval

72
Q

should you use anti-tussives in pneumonia therapy?

A

no

73
Q

name the 2 most important parts of pneumonia therapy

A
  1. antibiotics
  2. good nursing care
74
Q

what is the diagnostic test of choice to diagnose pulmonary infiltration with eosinophilia?

A

BALF eosinophilia

75
Q

name the 3 parts of treatment for pulmonary infiltration with eosinophilia?

A
  1. glucocorticosteroids
  2. immunosuppressive agents
  3. treat for lung parasititism
76
Q

what respiratory disease is known as Westie Lung Disease (WLD)?
crackles on auscultation;
gradual onset, middle to old age dogs, progressive deterioration

A

non-specific interstitial pneumonitis (NSIP)

77
Q

what is the treatment for non-specific interstitial pneumonitis (NSIP)?

A

mycophenolate

78
Q

what diagnostic test should be used to confirm Westie Lung Disease (WLD)/Non-specific Interstitial Pneumonia (NSIP)?

A

HRCT (high res CT)

79
Q

name 2 reasons pleural effusion develops

A
  1. hydrostatic pressure rises
  2. oncotic pressure falls
80
Q

name 2 causes of incr. hydrostatic pressure that may lead to the development of pleural effusion

A
  1. congestive heart failure
  2. masses occluding draining into veins and lymphatics
81
Q

name 2 causes of decr. oncotic pressure that may lead to the development of pleural effusion

A
  1. hypoalbuminaemia
  2. exudative reactions within the pleural space
82
Q

name 5 effusion types of pleural effusion

A
  1. true transudate
  2. modified transudate
  3. exudate
  4. chyle
  5. bood
83
Q

name 7 possible causes of pleural effusion

A
  1. Cardiac disease
  2. neoplasia
  3. inflammation
  4. infection
  5. hepatic, GI, and renal disease
  6. trauma
  7. idiopathic
84
Q

what is the most common cause of pleural effusion in cats?

A

cardiac disease

85
Q

what is the most common cause of pleural effusion in dogs?

A

idiopathic

86
Q

name 2 common causes of feline pyothorax (thoracic empyema)

A
  1. aspiration of oro-pharyngeal agents
  2. extension from adjacent infection

(uncommon causes: direct inoculation & non-oropharyngeal flora)

87
Q

what is the treatment for feline pyothorax (thoracic empyema)

A

drainage, lavage & broad spectrum antibiotics

88
Q

name the diagnostic imaging for diagnosing pleural effusion

minimally invasive;
rapid assessment;
readily achievable in general practice;
degree of lung retraction can be seen (mild, moderate or severe);
volume cannot be calculated

A

ultrasonography

89
Q

name 4 parts of pleural effusion therapy

A
  1. thoracocentesis
  2. treat underlying cause
  3. dietary management for chylothorax
  4. exploratory thoracotomy
90
Q

what is the best type of needle to use in a thoracocentesis to drain a pleural effusion?

A

butterfly catheter

91
Q

name 6 causes of mediastinal widening

A
  1. obesity
  2. enlarged thymus
  3. neoplasia
  4. abscess, granuloma, mediastinitis
  5. oesophageal dilation, impaction, foreign bodies
  6. oedema, haemorrhage
92
Q

name the 5 main types of respiratory therapeutic drugs

A
  1. bronchodilators
  2. anti-inflammatory drugs
  3. mucolytics
  4. expectorants
  5. anti-tussives
93
Q

name 3 main parts of the upper respiratory tract defense mechanism

A
  1. nasal turbinates
  2. mucociliary apparatus
  3. sensory reflexes
94
Q

name 4 parts of lower respiratory tract defence mechanism

A
  1. bronchial smooth muscle
  2. goblet cells
  3. sensory innervation
  4. alveolar clearance
95
Q

what is the most important system for regulating bronchial smooth muscle tone?

A

cAMP

96
Q

what receptor should be stimulated in order to increase cAMP for bronchodilation

A

beta2 adrenoreceptor & H2 receptor

97
Q

what receptor should be stimulated in order to decrease cAMP for bronchoconstriction

A

alpha-adrenoreceptor

98
Q

this is the reversible contraction of airway smooth muscle;
airway narrowing and airflow limitation;
asthma, infection and other inflammatory causes of airway disease;
treat with bronchodilators

A

bronchoconstriction

99
Q

name 3 classes of drugs for bronchodilation

A
  1. beta2-adrenoreceptor agonists (salbutamol)
  2. methylxantines (aminophylline)
  3. anti-cholinergics (atropine)
100
Q

name the drug

relax airway smooth muscle, most effective bronchodilators;
modulate mast cell function, TNF-alpha release from monocytes, and mucus secretion

A

beta2 adrenoreceptor agonists

101
Q

name the drug

reduce cAMP breakdown by PDE III inhibition;
incr. respiratory muscle strength;
of questionable value in bronchoconstriction

A

Methylxanthines

102
Q

name 2 benefits of glucocorticosteroids in inflammatory respiratory disease

A
  1. reduce airway inflammation
  2. reduces eosinophil numbers
103
Q

name 3 methods of promoting expectoration
(not including expectorant drugs)

A
  1. chest coupage & physiotherapy
  2. steam inhalation
  3. nebulised saline
104
Q

name 5 antibiotics with high distribution to site of infection & penetration in lungs

A
  1. fluoroquinolones
  2. doxycycline
  3. trimethoprim
  4. clindamycin
  5. erythromycin
105
Q

where are 60-80% of all respiratory tract tumours located?

A

sino-nasal

106
Q

what is the most common type of sino-nasal tumour

A

adenocarcinoma

107
Q

name 4 possible risk factors for dogs for sino-nasal tumours

A
  1. dolicocephalic
  2. urban environment
  3. tobacco exposure
  4. fossil fuel combustion products
108
Q

name 5 differential diagnoses for chronic nasal discharge

A
  1. chronic rhinitis
  2. fungal
  3. tumour
  4. bleeding disorder
  5. foreign body
109
Q

what two diagnostic tests should be done if a patient presents with epistaxis

A
  1. BMBT
  2. blood pressure
110
Q

name 4 ways to obtain a tissue biopsy to obtain a definitive nasal tumour diagnosis

A
  1. vigorous nasal flushing
  2. blind nasal biopsy
  3. visual guidance
  4. trephination or Sx biopsy
111
Q

where should you measure to & not go past for a nasal biopsy

A

medial canthus of eye

112
Q

what is the standard of care treatment for sino-nasal tumours

A

radiation therapy (RT)

(NOT surgery)

113
Q

what is the medical palliative therapy for sino-nasal tumours

A

NSAIDs

114
Q

which lung lobes are most commonly affected by primary tumours

A

caudal lung lobes

115
Q

name the syndrome

primary lung tumour associated with metastasis to multiple digits

A

lung digit syndrome

116
Q

what percent of primary lung cases present for digital lesions

A

25%

117
Q

what is the treatment of choice for primary lung tumours?

A

surgery & lymph node biopsy

118
Q

name 3 negative prognostic factors for primary lung tumours in cats

A
  1. poorly differentiated tumours
  2. metastasis to digits
  3. presence of metastasis to LNs
119
Q

name 4 negative prognostic factors for primary lung tumours in dogs

A
  1. presence of clinical signs
  2. metastasis
  3. bigger than 5cm
  4. SCC
120
Q

what is the mechanism of action for Vinorelbine (Navelbine)?
(semisynthetic vinca alkyloid)

A

mitotic microtubule polymerization

121
Q

list 4 clinical signs for malignant pleural effusions

A
  1. dyspnoea
  2. tachypnoea
  3. lethargy
  4. anorexia
122
Q

these are rare neoplasms that originate from ectodermal cells that line the body cavities

A

mesothelioma

123
Q

name 4 clinical signs of a cranial mediastinal mass

A
  1. dyspnoea
  2. tachypnoea
  3. coughing
  4. precaval syndrome
124
Q

this is swelling of the face, brisket and legs because of obstruction to venous and lymphatic drainage;
sign of cranial mediastinal masses

A

precaval syndrome

125
Q

name 3 clinical signs of a thymoma

A
  1. cranial mediastinal mass
  2. paraneoplastic myasthenia gravis
  3. regurgitation and weakness
126
Q

what is the most common cardiac tumour

A

right atrial haemangiosarcoma

Cat & Dog (19 decks)

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