Respiratory (1-7) Flashcards
(127 cards)
1
Q
name the abnormal respiratory pattern
elevated respiratory rate;
confouned by panting, excitement, stress, fever, etc
A
tachypnoea
2
Q
name the abnormal respiratory pattern
laboured breathing;
reduced, normal or slightly elevated rate;
abdominal component
A
dyspnoea
3
Q
name the abnormal respiratory pattern
laboured breathing with raised rate
A
hyperpnoea
4
Q
name the abnormal respiratory pattern
adopting a position to ease breathing;
sternal (uaually cats), persistent standing, unable to lie recumbent etc
A
Orthopnoea
5
Q
what is the target normal respiratory rate in dogs and cats?
A
< 30bpm
6
Q
name the respiratory sound
harsh, low pitched, continuous, air travelling through a large arways
A
rhonchi
7
Q
name the respiratory sound
whistling, high pitched, continuous, air travelling through narrowed airways
A
wheezes
8
Q
name the respiratory sound
variable pitch (usually high), fine or coarse, discontinuous, airways peeling apart during inspiration
A
crackles
9
Q
what 2 pieces of equipment do you need in order to visualise the oro-pharynx and larynx
A
- pen-torch
- laryngoscope
10
Q
what equipment do you need in order to visualise the trachea and major airways
A
bronchoscopy
11
Q
name 5 applications of bronchoscopy
A
- inspection of airway mucosa
- localisation of lesions
- airway foreign bodies (ID & retrieval)
- accurate sampling of material
- broncho-alveolar lavage
12
Q
what is the best way to exclude cardiac disease in the dog?
A
R lateral thoracic radiograph
13
Q
name the respiratory noise
inspiratory ‘snoring’ noise;
associated with partial occlusion of the nares, nasal passages, choanae or nasopharynx
A
stertor
14
Q
name the respiratory noise
high pitched inspiratory noise;
associated with partial occlusion of the larynx or trachea
A
stridor
15
Q
this is forceful expiration that clears foreign material from the nasal cavity
A
sneeze
16
Q
how to assess airflow/patency of nasal passages?
A
with cold slide or wisp of cotton wool
17
Q
what does decreased resonance on sinus percussion suggest?
A
fluid
18
Q
what might nasal depigmentation suggest?
A
fungal rhinitis
19
Q
what might palatine deformity suggest?
A
mass lesion in nasopharynx
20
Q
name 5 infectious diseases that can be diagnosed by oropharyngeal swabs
A
- FHV
- FCV
- M. felis
- B. bronchiseptica
- C. felis
21
Q
name the two types of rhinoscopy that can be done
A
- normograde
- retroflex
22
Q
name the type of rhinoscopy
rigid endoscope;
view: turbinate mucosa & vessels;
useful for: mass lesions, foreign bodies, fungal plaques
A
normograde
23
Q
name the type of rhinoscopy
flexible endoscope;
view: nasopharynx;
useful for: masss lesions, stenosis
A
retroflex
24
Q
is acute rhinitis more common in dogs or cats?
A
cats
25
name 5 infectious causes of acute rhinitis in cats
1. FHV-1
2. FCV
3. mycoplasma
4. bordetella
5. Chlamydophila
26
name 4 infectious causes of acute rhinitis in dogs
1. distemper
2. mycoplasma
3. bordetella
4. herpesvirus
27
name 4 clinical signs of acute rhinits
1. sneezing
2. serous nasal +/- ocular discharge
3. pyrexia
4. inappetance
28
name 3 antibiotics commonly used in pulse dose to treat feline chronic rhinitis
1. amoxycillin-clavulanate
2. doxycycline
3. clindamycin
29
what 2 drugs should be used to treat feline chronic rhinitis if FHV-1 is identified
1. Famcyclovir
2. L-lysine
30
name 2 causes of fungal rhinitis in cats
1. Cryptococcus neoformans
2. Aspergillus fumigatus
31
name 2 ways to diagnose fungal rhinitis in cats
1. impression smear
2. LCAT (latex crypto antigen agglutination test)
32
name 2 possible treatments for fungal rhinitis in cats
1. Fluconazole
2. Amphotericin B
33
name 2 causes of fungal rhinitis in dogs
1. Aspergillus fumigatus
2. Penicillium spp.
34
why must you have at least 2 supportive tests to diagnose fungal rhinitis in dogs
Aspergillus spores and hyphae may be found in healthy nimals (environmental contaminant)
35
name 4 treatment options for Aspergillosis
1. oral itraconzole
2. topical clotrimazole solution
3. topical clotrimazole cream
4. rhinotomy to debride fungal plaques
36
how to obtain a definitive diagnosis of nasal neoplasia?
tissue biopsy
37
what is the most successful form of therapy for nasal neoplasia
radiotherapy
38
name 3 dental diseases that may cause nasal discharge
1. osteomyelitis
2. tooth root abscessation
3. oro-nasal fistula formation
39
name 3 signs of an aspirated foreign body in the nasopharynx
1. vomiting
2. retching
3. gagging
40
name 2 signs of an inhaled foreign body in the nasal cavity
1. acute onset sneezing
2. chronic unilateral nasal discharge
41
these are benign growths thought to be assoc. with inflammation;
arise from lining of Eustachian tube;
typically in young cats
nasopharyngeal polyps
42
name 5 clinical signs of nasopharyngeal polyps
1. sneezing
2. nasal discharge
3. stertorous respiration
4. head tilt
5. Horner's syndrome
43
name 3 ways to diagnose nasopharyngeal polyps
1. oral exam
2. aural exam
3. radiography
44
what sign of nasopharyngeal polyps may be seen on an aural examination
mass lesion in vertical ear canal
45
what 2 signs of nasopharyngeal polyps may be seen on an oral examination
1. ventral deviation of palate
2. mass visualised with retraction of SP
46
what sign of nasopharyngeal polyps may be seen on a lateral view radiograph
mass lesion on nasopharynx
47
name 2 treatment options for nasopharyngeal polyps
1. traction-evulsion (pull polyp with forceps)
2. bulla osteotomy
| (anti-inflammatory doses of steroids after may reduce recurrence)
48
this is a reflex expulsion of air against a closed glottis that suddenly opens
cough
49
are there cough receptors in the respiratory bronchioles & alveoli?
No
50
name the 3 types of receptors that activate coughing
1. mechano-
2. stretch
3. irritant
51
this is an inappropriate breathing pattern or effort
dyspnoea
52
what dog breeds are predisoposed to tracheal collapse?
small, toy breeds
53
# name the respiratory problem
classic 'goose-honk', 'seal-bark' sound;
aggravated by lead pulling;
dyspnoea common
tracheal collapse
54
what is the best method of diagnosing tracheal collapse?
bronchoscopy
55
name 4 medical management options for tracheal collapse therapy
1. obesity control
2. environment control
3. exercise control
4. medication
56
name 2 surgical management options for tracheal collapse therapy
1. dorsal membrane plication
2. prosthesis insertion
57
what is the official term for kennel cough?
acute tracheobronchitis
58
what is the main cause of acute tracheobronchitis? (40% of dogs)
Bordetella bronchiseptica
| (kennel cough)
59
what is the treatment for acute tracheobonchitits (kennel cough)
nothing, self-limiting disease
(resolves spontaneously in 7-21 days)
60
this is a pathological dilatation of larger airways
bronchiectasis
61
this is pathological damage to airway walls resulting in loss of wall strength
bronchomalacia
62
name 3 medications for therapy of chronic bronchitis
1. glucocorticosteroids
2. bronchodilators
3. antibacterial therapy
63
name 3 clinical signs of feline asthma syndrome (FAS)
1. cough
2. wheezing
3. dyspnoea
64
what haematological feature might a cat with feline asthma syndrome (FAS) present with
circulating eosinophilia
65
name 6 treatments for feline asthma
1. allergen avoidance
2. glucocorticoids
3. bronchodilators
4. antibiotics
5. allergen specific immunotherapy
6. anti-body immunotherapy
66
name 4 parts of emergency feline asthma treatment
1. oxygen therapy
2. bronchodilator therapy
3. glucocorticosteroids
4. antibacterial therapy
67
# name the respiratory parasite
urban fox in Scotland;
indirect life cycle (mollusc intermediate host);
dogs show mild to moderate signs (coughing mainly)
Crenosoma vulpis
68
name 3 ways to diagnose respiratory parasites
1. visualisation on bronchoscopy
2. identification on airway samples
3. faecal analysis
69
name 3 treatment drugs for respiratory parasites
1. Benzimidazole anthelmintics (panacur)
2. Milbemycin oxime (Milobemax, interceptor)
3. Moxidectin (imidacloprid)
70
name 3 ways to diagnose airway foreign bodies
1. radiography
2. bronchoscopy
3. exploratory thoracotomy
70
name 3 potential complications of airway foreign bodies
1. pleural contamination
2. lung lobe consolidation
3. pulmonary abscess
71
what is the treatment of choice for airway foreign bodies
bronchoscopic retrieval
72
should you use anti-tussives in pneumonia therapy?
no
73
name the 2 most important parts of pneumonia therapy
1. antibiotics
2. good nursing care
74
what is the diagnostic test of choice to diagnose pulmonary infiltration with eosinophilia?
BALF eosinophilia
75
name the 3 parts of treatment for pulmonary infiltration with eosinophilia?
1. glucocorticosteroids
2. immunosuppressive agents
3. treat for lung parasititism
76
what respiratory disease is known as Westie Lung Disease (WLD)?
crackles on auscultation;
gradual onset, middle to old age dogs, progressive deterioration
non-specific interstitial pneumonitis (NSIP)
77
what is the treatment for non-specific interstitial pneumonitis (NSIP)?
mycophenolate
78
what diagnostic test should be used to confirm Westie Lung Disease (WLD)/Non-specific Interstitial Pneumonia (NSIP)?
HRCT (high res CT)
79
name 2 reasons pleural effusion develops
1. hydrostatic pressure rises
2. oncotic pressure falls
80
name 2 causes of incr. hydrostatic pressure that may lead to the development of pleural effusion
1. congestive heart failure
2. masses occluding draining into veins and lymphatics
81
name 2 causes of decr. oncotic pressure that may lead to the development of pleural effusion
1. hypoalbuminaemia
2. exudative reactions within the pleural space
82
name 5 effusion types of pleural effusion
1. true transudate
2. modified transudate
3. exudate
4. chyle
5. bood
83
name 7 possible causes of pleural effusion
1. Cardiac disease
2. neoplasia
3. inflammation
4. infection
5. hepatic, GI, and renal disease
6. trauma
7. idiopathic
84
what is the most common cause of pleural effusion in cats?
cardiac disease
85
what is the most common cause of pleural effusion in dogs?
idiopathic
86
name 2 common causes of feline pyothorax (thoracic empyema)
1. aspiration of oro-pharyngeal agents
2. extension from adjacent infection
| (uncommon causes: direct inoculation & non-oropharyngeal flora)
87
what is the treatment for feline pyothorax (thoracic empyema)
drainage, lavage & broad spectrum antibiotics
88
# name the diagnostic imaging for diagnosing pleural effusion
minimally invasive;
rapid assessment;
readily achievable in general practice;
degree of lung retraction can be seen (mild, moderate or severe);
volume cannot be calculated
ultrasonography
89
name 4 parts of pleural effusion therapy
1. thoracocentesis
2. treat underlying cause
3. dietary management for chylothorax
4. exploratory thoracotomy
90
what is the best type of needle to use in a thoracocentesis to drain a pleural effusion?
butterfly catheter
91
name 6 causes of mediastinal widening
1. obesity
2. enlarged thymus
3. neoplasia
4. abscess, granuloma, mediastinitis
5. oesophageal dilation, impaction, foreign bodies
6. oedema, haemorrhage
92
name the 5 main types of respiratory therapeutic drugs
1. bronchodilators
2. anti-inflammatory drugs
3. mucolytics
4. expectorants
5. anti-tussives
93
name 3 main parts of the upper respiratory tract defense mechanism
1. nasal turbinates
2. mucociliary apparatus
3. sensory reflexes
94
name 4 parts of lower respiratory tract defence mechanism
1. bronchial smooth muscle
2. goblet cells
3. sensory innervation
4. alveolar clearance
95
what is the most important system for regulating bronchial smooth muscle tone?
cAMP
96
what receptor should be stimulated in order to increase cAMP for bronchodilation
beta2 adrenoreceptor & H2 receptor
97
what receptor should be stimulated in order to decrease cAMP for bronchoconstriction
alpha-adrenoreceptor
98
this is the reversible contraction of airway smooth muscle;
airway narrowing and airflow limitation;
asthma, infection and other inflammatory causes of airway disease;
treat with bronchodilators
bronchoconstriction
99
name 3 classes of drugs for bronchodilation
1. beta2-adrenoreceptor agonists (salbutamol)
2. methylxantines (aminophylline)
3. anti-cholinergics (atropine)
100
# name the drug
relax airway smooth muscle, most effective bronchodilators;
modulate mast cell function, TNF-alpha release from monocytes, and mucus secretion
beta2 adrenoreceptor agonists
101
# name the drug
reduce cAMP breakdown by PDE III inhibition;
incr. respiratory muscle strength;
of questionable value in bronchoconstriction
Methylxanthines
102
name 2 benefits of glucocorticosteroids in inflammatory respiratory disease
1. reduce airway inflammation
2. reduces eosinophil numbers
103
name 3 methods of promoting expectoration
(not including expectorant drugs)
1. chest coupage & physiotherapy
2. steam inhalation
3. nebulised saline
104
name 5 antibiotics with high distribution to site of infection & penetration in lungs
1. fluoroquinolones
2. doxycycline
3. trimethoprim
4. clindamycin
5. erythromycin
105
where are 60-80% of all respiratory tract tumours located?
sino-nasal
106
what is the most common type of sino-nasal tumour
adenocarcinoma
107
name 4 possible risk factors for dogs for sino-nasal tumours
1. dolicocephalic
2. urban environment
3. tobacco exposure
4. fossil fuel combustion products
108
name 5 differential diagnoses for chronic nasal discharge
1. chronic rhinitis
2. fungal
3. tumour
4. bleeding disorder
5. foreign body
109
what two diagnostic tests should be done if a patient presents with epistaxis
1. BMBT
2. blood pressure
110
name 4 ways to obtain a tissue biopsy to obtain a definitive nasal tumour diagnosis
1. vigorous nasal flushing
2. blind nasal biopsy
3. visual guidance
4. trephination or Sx biopsy
111
where should you measure to & not go past for a nasal biopsy
medial canthus of eye
112
what is the standard of care treatment for sino-nasal tumours
radiation therapy (RT)
| (NOT surgery)
113
what is the medical palliative therapy for sino-nasal tumours
NSAIDs
114
which lung lobes are most commonly affected by primary tumours
caudal lung lobes
115
# name the syndrome
primary lung tumour associated with metastasis to multiple digits
lung digit syndrome
116
what percent of primary lung cases present for digital lesions
25%
117
what is the treatment of choice for primary lung tumours?
surgery & lymph node biopsy
118
name 3 negative prognostic factors for primary lung tumours in cats
1. poorly differentiated tumours
2. metastasis to digits
3. presence of metastasis to LNs
119
name 4 negative prognostic factors for primary lung tumours in dogs
1. presence of clinical signs
2. metastasis
3. bigger than 5cm
4. SCC
120
what is the mechanism of action for Vinorelbine (Navelbine)?
(semisynthetic vinca alkyloid)
mitotic microtubule polymerization
121
list 4 clinical signs for malignant pleural effusions
1. dyspnoea
2. tachypnoea
3. lethargy
4. anorexia
122
these are rare neoplasms that originate from ectodermal cells that line the body cavities
mesothelioma
123
name 4 clinical signs of a cranial mediastinal mass
1. dyspnoea
2. tachypnoea
3. coughing
4. precaval syndrome
124
this is swelling of the face, brisket and legs because of obstruction to venous and lymphatic drainage;
sign of cranial mediastinal masses
precaval syndrome
125
name 3 clinical signs of a thymoma
1. cranial mediastinal mass
2. paraneoplastic myasthenia gravis
3. regurgitation and weakness
126
what is the most common cardiac tumour
right atrial haemangiosarcoma
