Ophthalmology (1-9) Flashcards
(241 cards)
1
Q
name the spaces of the orbit
A
- intraconal space
- extraconal space
2
Q
name 7 possible clinical signs of orbital disease in dog
A
- exophthalmos
- incr. resistance to digital retropulsion
- Strabismus
- pain on opening mouth
- TEL protrusion
- Lagophthalmos & exposure keratopathy
- Conj. hyperaemia/chemosis/congestion
3
Q
name the term
protrusion of a normal sized globe
A
exophthalmos
4
Q
name the term
deviation of the gobe
A
strabismus
5
Q
name 2 common differential diagnoses of exophthalmos
A
- retrobulbar cellulitis or abscess
- retrobulbar neoplasia
6
Q
what is the most common retrobulbar neoplasm?
A
nasal adenocarcinoma
7
Q
what is the mean age of dogs with masticatory myositis
A
3 years
8
Q
how to treat masticatory myositis
A
corticosteroids systemically (weeks)
9
Q
what 2 breeds are most typically affected by extraocular polymyositis
A
- labradors
- golden retrievers
10
Q
name the condition
exophthalmos but NO 3rd eyelid protrusion;
no pain;
swollen & hyperechoic extraocular mm on U/S;
respond to corticosteroids
A
extraocular polymyositis
11
Q
name the condition
protrusion of the globe with eyelids behind equator of globe;
caused by trauma
A
traumatic proptosis
12
Q
name 2 positive prognostic indicators for vision following traumatic proptosis
A
- brachycephalic conformation
- positive direct or indirect pupillary light reflexes
13
Q
name 4 negative prognostic indicators for vision following traumatic proptosis
A
- cats
- severe intraocular trauma
- rupture of multiple extraocular muscles
- obvious optic nerve damage
14
Q
name the 2 steps of replacement of proptosed globe
A
- preparation and canthotomy
- closure - temporary tarsorrhaphy
15
Q
what is done during replacement of proptosed globe to release tension on the eyelids and allow them to be drawn forward over the cornea
A
lateral canthotomy (scissors)
16
Q
sutures should be left in place for at least this long following replacement of a proptosed globe
A
at least 2 weeks
17
Q
name 4 indications for enucleation
A
- a non-visual eye with intractable pain
- irreparable damageto the globe or optic nerve
- proptosis with optic nerve transection
- neoplasia that cannot be removed without sacrificing the globe
18
Q
name 4 major disadvantages of loupes
A
- lack of variability in magnification
- limited magnification
- small field of view
- limited depth of field
19
Q
what is the ideal product for patient positioning for an enucleation?
keeps patient insulated from cold table; resistant to commonly used disinfectants; radiolucent; vacu-support shaped to fit patient
A
Kruuse - Buster pillows
(vacuum positioning)
20
Q
what is the main consideration during enucleation of a cat or brachycephalic bulb
A
short optic nerve
(do NOT clamp or ligate - risk injury to other nerve via optic chiasm)
21
Q
what is the main consideration during enucleation of a rabbit
A
large orbital venous sinus
(risk for hemorrhage)
22
Q
name the procedure
removal of globe, eyelids and conj. sacs in one unit ;
eyelids sutured together or held by Allis tissue forceps
A
transpalpebral enucleation
23
Q
what part of the eye should NOT be penetrated during a transpalpebral enucleation?
A
conjunctival sac
24
Q
describe the 7 steps of a transpalpebral enucleation
A
- elliptical incision around eyelid margins
- blunt dissection around globe
- posterior sclera reached beyond conj. reflection
- dissect under EOM insertions and cut
- ensure all conjunctival tissue removed
- close subcuticular layer (vicryl - watertight)
- close skin layer
25
name 5 possible complications of enucleation
1. excessive bruising
2. infection
3. retention of conjunctiva
4. orbital emphysema
5. contralateral blindness optic nerve traction
26
# name the condition
eyes sinking deeper in eye socket
enophthalmos
27
name 4 causes of enophthalmos
1. ocular pain causing globe retraction
2. conformation
3. atrophy of orbital tissue (cachexia, muscle loss)
4. Horner's syndrome (loss of smooth muscle tone in the orbit)
28
# name the term
the protective and supporting structures of the eyeball (globe) and optic nerve
adnexa
29
what 5 things make up the adnexa of the eye
1. external eyelids
2. third eyelids
3. conjunctiva
4. lacrimal system
5. orbit
30
what 3 things does the middle layer of the eyelids contain
1. glands
2. muscles
3. connective tissue
31
what does the inner layer of the eyelid contain
palpebral conjunctiva
32
this is a small pink nodule at the medial canthus of the eye;
it is external to the third eyelid and can bear fine hairs
caruncle
33
# name the tendon
short, tethers the medial canthus to the frontal bone
medial canthal tendon
34
# name the tendon
longer, attaching the lateral canthus to the orbital ligament
lateral canthal tendon
35
what muscle closes the eyelids
orbicularis oculi mm (VII)
36
what dye is applied topically to detect any corneal ulceration and to check for nasolacrimal patency;
can highlight distichiasis or facial hairs in contact with the pre-ocular tear-film
fluorescein dye
37
name 3 conditions involving eyelid cilia
1. distachiasis
2. conjunctival cilia (ectopic cilia)
3. trichiasis
38
# name the condition
very common in dogs;
cilia emerge from lid margin;
bother some dogs more than others;
treat those with evidence of discomfort
distichiasis
39
name 3 signs of discomfort with distichiasis
1. lacrimation
2. incr. blink rate
3. blepharospasm
40
# name the condition
uncommon (young dogs);
hair emerges through conjunctiva of upper lid;
really painful;
cornea frequently ulcerated opposite hair
conjunctival/ectopic cilium
41
# name the condition
normally located hairs which are abnormally directed to contact and irritate/damage the ocular surface
trichiasis
42
this is when the lid margin turns inward towards the cornea, so the upper and lower lid margins do not meet perfectly when blinking;
skin hairs in contact with the cornea causes PAIN
entropion
43
name 4 signs of ocular pain
1. blepharospasm
2. lacrimation
3. globe retraction
4. photosensitivity
44
name 6 things that might cause a patient to have entropion
1. excessively long eyelids
2. abnormal canthal attachments
3. excess skin folds
4. painful process causing globe retraction
5. loss of retrobulbar contents
6. loss of skin elasticity
45
this is typically seen in brachycephalic dogs with a misdirected/tight medial canthal ligament ;
generally not in pain and cornea does not usually ulcerate, but chronic irritation causes corneal pigmentation ;
may be tear overflow by functional obstruction of the lower lacrimal punctum
medial canthal entropion
46
name 7 eye troubles with brachycephalics
1. prominent globes cannot readily retract
2. macropalpebral fissure & lagophthalmos
3. medial canthal entropion
4. hairy caruncle
5. nasal folds with hair contacting cornea
6. tear film evaporation
7. reduced corneal sensation
47
this is a surgical procedure usually done for brachycephalics which shortens the length of the palpebral aperture and reduces corneal exposure
medial canthoplasty
48
what does entropion often cause?
severity is variable & most will heal uneventfully on medical management
corneal ulceration
49
what dog breed is predisposed to entropion;
puppies present with pain almost as soon as the lid open - must address promptly with temporary tacking procedure
sharpei
50
this is a simple technique that corrects entropion only while sutures are in place;
protects the cornea, giving time for problem to be self corrected (or a safe delay in performing permanent procedure)
temporary tacking with vertical mattress sutures
51
this is the definitive surgical correction of entropion;
involves the removal of an ellipse of skin below the lid margin at the affected site and the wound closed with simple interrupted sutures
Hotz-Celsus repair
52
this affects the lower lid and is only a cosmetic concern so NO treatment is needed;
it can, however, be responsible for repeated exposure conjunctivitis and should be treated with simple lid shortening
ectropion
53
this is upper and lower entropion laterally and ectropion of mid lower lid so it kinks in upper and lower lids
"diamond eye" conformation
54
# name the term
face lift
rhyditectomy
55
# name the term
inflammation of the eyelids
blepharitis
56
this is the rupture of meibomian gland → release of lipid meibum into tissues → pyogranulomatous response ;
warm compress may be useful in the early stages ;
topical antibiotics 7-10 days
chalazion
57
what is the 2 most common eyelid tumours in older dogs
1. tarsal gland adenoma or adenocarcinoma
2. melanoma
58
what are the 2 most common eyelid tumours in younger dogs
1. viral papilloma
2. histiocytoma
59
# name the eyelid tumour
very common in dogs;
warty/cauliflower appearance;
evert lid, may see thickened ridge/bulge on conjunctival surface over tarsal gland;
may obstruct meibomian gland opening
tarsal gland adenoma
60
what closure should be used for eyelid mass excision?
allows knot to be placed at safe distance from cornea & align lid margin accurately
figure 8 suture
61
what is the normal appearance of the ocular surface
1. moist
2. clear cornea
3. uninterrupted reflection of light
62
this is a fold of conjunctiva, supported internally by T shaped cartilage;
lots of lymphoid tissue;
nictitans glad at base of cartilage contributes to aqueous portion of tear film
third eyelid
(nictitating membrane/nictitans)
63
name 5 causes of third eyelid prominence
1. orbital mass lesions (extraconal)
2. retraction of globe
3. reduction in globe size
4. reduction in orbital contents
5. alteration to nervous control
64
this is the common name for a prolapsed nictitans gland
cherry eye
65
this is plasma cell infiltration of the third eyelid (GSD and collies);
'depigmentation' appearance due to pink/tan fleshy tissue covering the pigment;
treated with long-term topical cyclosporine;
UV exposure exacerbates
nictitans plasmacytic conjunctivitis/plasmoma
66
name the 4 layers of the cornea
1. epithelium
2. stroma
3. descemet's membrane
4. endothelium
67
# name the corneal layer
sheets of collagen in a glycoprotein matrix
stroma
68
# name the corneal layer
the basement membrane for the endothelium
Descemet's membrane
69
# name the corneal layer
monolayer of cells, in contact with the aqueous
endothelium
70
# name the term
full thickness defect of the epithelium, exposing underlying stroma
corneal ulceration
71
# name the type of corneal ulcer
only the epithelium is lost
superficial ulcer
72
# name the type of corneal ulcer
the ulcer is deeper than just the epithelium, with varying degrees of stromal loss
stromal ulcer / deep ulcer
73
# name the type of corneal ulcer
an ulcer that reaches Descemet's membrane
Descemetocoele
74
# name the type of corneal ulcer
full thicknes corneal defect!
perforated/ruptured ulcer
75
name 6 signs of corneal ulceration
1. pain
2. conjunctival hyperaemia
3. localised corneal oedema
4. irregularity of surface contour
5. neovascularization and cellular infiltration
6. reflex uveitis
76
what 2 tests should be performed to assess a corneal ulcer
1. STT Test (Schirmer Tear Test)
2. Fluorescein stain
77
name 8 causes of corneal ulcers
1. trauma/foreign body
2. hair/lash trauma
3. infection (secondary)
4. tear film abnormalities
5. SCCED/'Boxer' ulcer
6. exposure keratopathy
7. rupture of bullae secondary to endothelial dysfunction
8. erosion by cholesterol or calcium deposits
78
will fuoroscein staining be more or less intense for a corneal ulcer when there is corneal oedema
less intense
79
what is the most common cause of a ventromedial corneal ulceration
foreign body under third eyelid
80
what is the most common cause of a dorsal, vertically orientated corneal ulceration
ectopic cilium
81
what medication potentiate enzymatic degradation of corneal ulcers - resulting in progressive stromal loss
topical corticosteroids
82
what causes progressive stromal loss causing the corneal ulcer to deepen?
enzymatic degradation
83
what medication should be given to an animal with a "melting" ulcer (extreme stromal ulcer)
broad spectrum antibiotics
| (assume infected)
84
what is the treatment for a superficial ulcer (epithelial loss only)
1. topical broad spectrum antibiotic
(+/- systemic NSAID for analgesia & atropine if reflex uveitis)
| (reassess to ensure healing - heals quickly)
85
86
# name the type of corneal ulcer
superficial ulcers;
rarely infected;
failure of adhesion of epithelium to underlying stroma;
underrun edges;
middle aged to older dogs
spontaneous chronic corneal epithelial defect (SCCED)
| ("Boxer ulcer")
87
name 4 medical treatment options for a SCCED (spontaneous chronic corneal epithelial defect)
1. analgesia
2. topical antibiotics
3. atropine if reflex uveitis
4. autologous serum
88
name 5 surgical treatment options for a SCCED (spontaneous chronic corneal epithelial defect)
1. debride with cotton buds
2. keratotomy (grid or punctate)
3. diamond burr debridement
4. phenol cautery
5. superficial keratectomy
89
# name the SCCED (spontaneous chronic corneal epithelial defect) treatment
25G needle used to produce superficial scratches in a grid pattern;
scarring may result
superficial grid keratotomy
| (NOT IN CATS!!!!)
90
# name the SCCED (spontaneous chronic corneal epithelial defect) treatment
23G needle used to produce superficial scratches;
less likely to cause scarring
superficial punctate keratotomy
91
what are the only corneal ulcers you can treat with debridement
SCCED (spontaneous chronic corneal epithelial defect)
92
name the 6 steps of treatment for a stromal or malacic corneal ulcer
1. cytology +/- C&S
2. topical antibiotics
3. autologous serum
4. systemic NSAIDs
5. +/- atropine
6. re-assess q25-48h
93
name 4 features of a corneal ulcer that indicate it is a SCCED and can be debrided
1. middle aged-older dog
2. superficial
3. no obvious inciting cause or infection
4. loose epithelial edges/under-running of fluorescein
94
name 6 causes of corneal opacities
1. oedema
2. cells ('infiltrate')
3. blood vessels
4. pigment
5. scarring (fibrosis)
6. lipid
95
this occurs mostly in German Shepherd Dogs;
a typically rough, fleshy looking infiltrate of inflammatory tissue, vessels and sometimes pigment;
advances towards the central cornea from the lateral limbus
Chronic Superficial Keratitis (CSK)
96
# name the part of the eye
this is the structures in front of and including the lens
anterior segment
97
# name the part of the eye
the anterior and posterior chambers are both within what segment of the eye
anterior segment
98
what two structures make up the anterior uvea of the eye
1. iris
2. ciliary body
99
what is the posterior uvea of the eye known as
choroid
100
# name the part of the eye
determines the amount of light passing through the pupil
iris
101
# name the part of the eye
supports the lens, produces aqueous and contains smooth muscle controlling accommodation
ciliary body
102
what sort of lighting should be used to examine the iris
in the dark using a focal light source and some magnification
103
what sort of lighting should be used to assess the pupil
room light
104
# name the term
pupils of two different sizes
anisocoria
105
# name the term
dilation of the pupil
mydriasis
106
# name the term
constriction of the pupil
miosis
107
what can you use in order to assess the ciliary body of the eye
ocular ultrasound
108
# name the term
embryological remnants in the form of strands of tissue arising from the iris collarette, and attaching to the cornea, or lens, or across the pupil to the iris
persistent pupillary membranes
109
# name the term
this is common in dogs;
often seen as senile atrophy in elderly dogs;
pupil edges look irregular;
iris thins;
PLRs are slow/incomplete;
no treatment
iris atrophy
110
# name the term
flat pigmented area on the iris, progression uncommon and slow;
must be carefully distinguished from a melanoma
iris melanosis
111
where do most primary tumours of the eye arise from?
iris and ciliary body
| (usually benign in dogs)
112
this is the most common primary ocular neoplasm;
typically affects older dogs;
most commonly appears as pigmented mass
anterior uveal melanoma
113
# name the primary ocular neoplasm
relatively uncommon;
non-pigmented mass protruding behind the pupil
iridocilliary adenoma / adenocarcinoma
114
# name the ocular neoplasm
generalised lymphadenopathy usually found on physical exam;
infiltration with thickenin of the iris;
accumulation of cells and blood in the anterior chamber;
discomfot often only mild
lymphoma
115
name 8 signs of acute anterior uveitis
1. pain
2. variable visual loss
3. red eye
4. corneal oedema
5. swelling of the iris
6. breakdown of the blood/aqueous barrier
7. miosis
8. reduced IOP
116
# name the term
this is when the iris sticks to the lens, blocking flow of aqueous humor from posterior to anterior chamber ;
common with inflammation of the iris
posterior synechia
117
# name the term
focal accumulations of inflammatory cells that adhere to the inner surface of the cornea;
"mutton fat" appearance;
may be obscured by the third eyelid
keratotic precipitates
118
name 7 possible complications of anterior uveitis
1. synechiae formation
2. glaucoma
3. iris colour changes
4. vitreal opacities
5. cataract formation
6. lens luxation
7. phthisis bulbi
119
# name the possible complication of anterior uveitis
posterior synechiae through 360° causes this ;
iris plane is "ballooned" forward by trapped aqueous ;
causes pupil block glaucoma and deep corneal vascularisation
iris bombe
120
# name the possible complication of anterior uveitis
ciliary body production of aqueous ceases as a result of severe intraocular damage;
eye blind and shrunken
phthisis bulbi
121
name 4 local causes of anterior uveitis
1. corneal ulceration
2. blunt and penetrating trauma
3. release of antigenic lens protein
4. intraocular neoplasia
122
name 5 systemic causes of anterior uveitis
1. septicaemia
2. bacteraemia
3. toxaemia
4. infectious diseases
5. lymphoma/leukaemia
123
what immediate therapy is always indicated in treatment of intra-ocular inflammation
anti-inflammatory therapy
124
what is most often used immediately to treat intra-ocular inflammation
| (ensure cornea is intact first)
topical corticosteroids
| (ex 1% prednisolone acetate)
125
# name the term
an elevation in intraocular pressure (IOP) incompatible with normal function of the eye
glaucoma
126
at what two locations in the eye can flow of aqueous be obstructed and lead to a glaucoma
1. level of pupil
2. iridocorneal angle
127
name 5 signs of a glaucoma
1. red eye
2. ocular pain
3. unexplained visual loss
4. poorly responsive pupils
5. diffuse corneal oedema
128
why is glaucoma a neurological emergency?
elevated IOP can cause irreversible damage to ganglion cells of neuroretina and ischaemic damage w/in hours
129
# name the term
glaucoma that arises as a result of primary abnormalities in the drainage apparatus NOT associated with any other ocular disease
primary glaucoma
130
# name the term
glaucoma occurs as a complication of pre-existing ocular disease
secondary glaucoma
131
this can be used to asses the iridocorneal drainage angle to aid in glaucoma diagnosis
goniolens
132
what are the 3 medical treatment options for a glaucoma
1. carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
2. beta-adrenergic blockers
3. prostaglandin analogues
133
# name the medical treatment for glaucoma
reduce aqueous production;
dorzolamide or brinzolamide topical solutions most commonly used;
safe drugs in most cases of primary and secondary glaucoma but may not be potent enough to drop IOP sufficiently
carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
134
# name the medical treatment for glaucoma
potent miotics;
increase uveoscleral outflow, leading to rapid reduction in IOP;
used most often in treatment of acute primary glaucoma (do NOT use in secondary glaucoma to ALL or uveitis);
valuable emergency drug;
latanoprost most frequently used
prostaglandin analogues
135
what is the function of the lens of the eye
focus light on the retina
136
name the 4 layers of the lens
1. capsule
2. epithelium
3. cortex
4. nucleus
137
# name the layer of the lens
elastic envelope;
impermeable to large molecules;
thicker at the front (anterior)
capsule
138
# name the layer of the lens
produces lens fibres through life
epithelium
139
# name the layer of the lens
clear lens fibres;
fibres meet at suture lines;
Y at front, upside down Y at back
cortex
140
# name the layer of the lens
forms as an embryo;
increased density with age
nucleus
141
# name the part of the eye
collagenous fibres;
suspend the lens behind the pupil;
originate from the ciliary body;
insert on the lens capsule
zonules
142
# name the part of the eye
changing the lens shape (accommodation);
muscle relaxation increases the tension exerted on the zonules to flatten the lens;
innervated by Cn III; parasympathetic
ciliary body muscle
143
what are the 2 techniques for examining the lens
1. distant direct ophthalmoscopy
2. close direct ophthalmoscopy
144
# name the technique for examination of the lens
visualise the tapetal reflection;
detection of lens opacities;
light source positioned next to the eye
distant direct ophthalmoscopy
145
# name the technique for examination of the lens
detailed assessment of the lens structure;
ophthalmoscope setting at +10 to 15 Dioptres
close direct ophthalmoscopy
146
name 2 opacities that may occur on the lens
1. nuclear sclerosis
2. cataracts
147
# name the lens disease
normal ageing change from increased lens density;
hazy grey-blue appearance to lens;
transparent on distant direct ophthalmoscopy ;
no obvious change in vision
nuclear sclerosis
148
# name the lens disease
opacity of the lens, loss of transparency;
effect on vision determined by size, density and site of opacity;
disruption of fibre arrangement and accumulation of insoluble proteins
cataract
149
name the 4 stages of cataract maturity
1. incipient
2. immature
3. mature
4. hypermature
150
# name the stage of cataract maturity
smal focal opacity <15% of lens;
rest of lens is transparent;
sight is unaffected;
surgery is not indicated at this stage;
no Tx required
incipient cataract
151
# name the stage of cataract maturity
>15-90% of lens affected;
tapetal reflection still visible;
surgery indicated if vision is poor;
low grade lens induced uveitis
immature cataract
152
# name the stage of cataract maturity
opacity fills entire lens;
tapetal reflection is not visible;
absent menace response;
surgery is indicated;
moderate lens-induced uveitis
mature cataract
153
# name the stage of cataract maturity
cataract liquefaction and resorption;
leakage of lens protein through capsule;
lens shrinks in volume creating wrinkles in capsule;
tapetal reflection may be visible and eye may be visible;
surgery is high risk
hypermature cataract
154
name 5 possible causes of a cataract
1. congenital
2. hereditary
3. Diabetes mellitus
4. secondary to other ocular disease
5. senile/spontaneous cataracts
155
what is the most common cause of cataracts in dogs
Diabetes mellitus
156
what type of surgery is done for treatment of cataracts
phacoemulsification
157
# name the lens disorder
lens is positioned in front of the iris
anterior luxation
158
# name the lens disorder
lens sinks ventrally behind the iris
posterior luxation
159
name 4 signs of anterior lens luxation
1. red congested conjunctiva
2. corneal oedema
3. lens observed in the anterior chamber
4. deep anterior chamber (lens is pushed back by lens)
160
which type of lens luxation is more urgent
anterior lens luxation
| (because of glaucoma it causes)
161
what are the treatment options for anterior lens luxation
1. surgery (extraction of lens)
2. non-surgical: transcorneal reduction of lens posterior to iris
162
what is the treatment for posterior lens luxation
maintain pupil constriction with a prostaglandin analogue drop
163
this is transparent thick gel inside the posterior segment of the eye;
provides mechanical support for the lens and retina ;
stores nutrients and absorbs metabolic waste from the retina and neighboring tissues
vitreous
164
# name the condition of the vitreous of the eye
degenerative liquefaction
vitreal syneresis
165
# name the condition of the vitreous of the eye
calcium lipid complexes form glistening spheres suspended in the vitreous
asteroid hyalosis
166
name teh 5 structures that make up the fundus of the eye
1. retina
2. optical nerve head
3. tapetum
4. choroid
5. retinal vasculature
| (posterior structures of the eye)
167
# name the part of the fundus of the eye
yellow-green reflective layer;
part of choroid;
located dorsally;
not always present (blue eyes)
tapetum
168
# name the part of the fundus of the eye
covers choroid and tapetum;
pigmented over choroid and unpigmented over the tapetum
retinal pigmented epithelium (RPE)
169
# name the part of the fundus of the eye
transparent layer of photoreceptors and ganglion cells
retina
170
name the 3 components to the ocular exam
1. testing visual behaviour
2. neurophthalmic assessment
3. ophthalmoscopy
171
name 3 types of visual behaviour tests
1. navigation in an unfamiliar environment
2. track moving objects
3. maze testing in bright and dark conditions
172
name 4 parts/tests of a neurophthalmic exam
1. menace response
2. dazzle reflex
3. pupillary light reflex
4. palpebral reflex
173
# name the type of ophthalmoscopy
provides low magnification overview of the fundus;
virtual image (back to front and upside down);
requires a condensing lens positioned infront of the eye
indirect ophthalmoscopy
174
parasympatheticolytic topical drug that induces mydriasis;
takes 20 min to take effect and several hours to wear off;
do NOT use with anterior lens luxation and glaucoma;
makes it eaasier to examine the fundus
Tropicamide (0.5-1%)
175
# name the hereditary eye disease
group of diseases affecting retinal photoreceptors;
progressive loss of vision;
rods affected before cones;
night vision lost before day vision;
secondary cataract is common;
no effective treatment but painless
Progressive Retinal Atrophy (PRA)
176
# name the hereditary eye disease
congenital eye abnormality;
non-progressive, often no effect on vision;
choroidal hypoplasia (pale area lateral to optic nerve head with abnormal choroidal vessels);
recessive autosomal inheritance;
DNA test available
Collie Eye Anomaly
177
name 3 abnormalities that may be seen with Collie Eye Anomaly in addition to choroidal hypoplasia
1. optic nerve coloboma
2. retinal haemorrhage
3. retinal detachment
178
# name the hereditary eye disease
congenital eye disease;
retinal folds and rosettes;
mild forma have no effect on vision but severe disease causes blindness
Retinal dysplasia
179
name the 3 forms of retinal dysplasia
1. multifocal retinal dysplasia
2. geographic retinal dysplasia
3. total retina dysplasia
180
# name the form of retinal dysplasia
often detected incidentally;
greyish, vermiform, linear or small circular lesions;
seen mostly in tapetal area above the disc
multifocal retinal dysplasia
181
# name the form of retinal dysplasia
more extensively affected areas;
can be horse shoe or circular-shaped;
similar to post-inflammatory lesions
geopgraphic retinal dysplasia
182
# name the form of retinal dysplasia
most severe form;
retinal detachement
total retinal dysplasia
183
# name the acquired retinal disease
sudden onset blindness with normal fundus appearance;
apoptosis fo photoreceptors;
no effective treatment;
painless;
dogs eventually learn to cope with vision loss
sudden acquired retinal degeneration syndrome (SARDS)
184
# name the acquired retinal disease
inflammation of the choroid and retina;
commonly a manifestation of a systemic disease;
infectious, inflammation, neoplasia, and immune-mediated
chorioretinitis
185
# name the acquired retinal disease
inflammatory cells accumulating around retinal blood vessels;
retinal oedema;
focal haemorrhage and retinal detachements common;
hazy vitreous
active chorioretinitis
186
# name the acquired retinal disease
focal, sharply demarcated hyperreflective lesions in the tapetal fundus;
dense pigment deposits often seen in centre of lesions;
focal pigment loss in the non-tapetal fundus
chronic or post-inflammatory lesions
187
# name the acquired retinal disease
small intraretinal pinpoint bleeds;
large pre-retinal 'keel boat' bleeds
retinal haemorrhage
188
# name the optic nerve disease
disc abnormally small, with an absence of myelinated fibres;
cause blindness if severe;
rare and congenital
optic nerve hypoplasia
189
# name the optic nerve disease
advanced retinal degeneration;
optic nerve head is flat, small and darker due to loss of myelin
optic nerve atrophy
190
# name the optic nerve disease
inflammation of the optic nerve;
sudden onset blindness, functional retina;
normal electroretinogram trace;
optic nerve head appears swollen and hyperaemic
optic neuritis
191
# name the optic nerve disease
compression of the optic nerve head due to high intraocular pressure;
chronic glaucoma;
grave prognosis for vision
optic disc cupping in chronic glaucoma
192
what should STT (Schirmer Tear Test) readings be for cats
greater than 10 mm/min
193
what is the normal intraocular pressure (IOP) for a cat
10-25 mmHg
194
this is congenital absence of the eyelid that occurs in cats;
upper lateral lid margin most often affected;
associated with other ocular congenital disease and leads to corneal ulceration from evaporation of tears
eyelid agenesis/coloboma
195
what is the most common eyelid tumour in cats
squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)
196
name 3 causes of unilateral third eyelid protrusion in a cat
1. Horner's syndrome
2. ocular surface pain
3. retrobulbar disease
197
name 3 causes of bilateral third eyelid protrusion in cats
1. bilateral disease
2. Haws syndrome
3. dysautonomia
198
name 4 important infectious causes of feline conjunctivitis
1. **Chlamydophila felis**
2. **Feline Herpes 1**
3. Mycoplasma
4. Feline Calicivirus
199
# name the infectious cause of feline conjunctivitis
obligate gram neg intracellular bacteria;
primary trophism for the conjunctival epithelium;
does NOT cause corneal ulceration;
unilateral then bilateral;
most cats remain systemically well
Chlamydophila felis
200
how to diagnose Chlamydophila felis as cause of feline conjunctivitis
1. intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies on conjunctival scrape
2. PCR from ventral conjunctival swabs
201
what is the best choice treatment for Chlamydophila felis
doxycycline systemically
202
# name the infectious cause of feline conjunctivitis
upper respiratory and ocular surface pathogen;
tropism for epithelium;
conjunctivitis and ulcerative keratitis
Feline Herpes FHV-1
203
where does FHV-1 (feline herpes virus) become latent in
trigeminal nerve ganglia
204
this is a secondary immune-mediated inflammatory reaction to feline herpes virus within the corneal stroma;
incr. risk in cats that have been treated with topical steroids
stromal keratitis
205
what antiviral treatment can be used for Feline Herpes Virus 1 (FHV-1)
1. oral famciclovir
2. topical ganciclovir
| (only for severe cases)
206
this is a complication of severe FHV conjunctivitis in young cats;
adhesions of conjunctiva or third eyelid to each other or to cornea;
tend to recur if incised
symblepharon
207
# name the feline ocular disease
corneal necrosis;
chronic corneal irritation;
common in brachycephalic cats;
diagnosed on appearance: black cornea on a cat
corneal sequestrum
208
# name the feline ocular disease
progressively infiltrative disease;
immune mediated but associated with FHV-1 infection;
infiltration of eosinophils in the cornea and conjunctiva;
"cottage cheese" plaque appearance;
diagnosis made on cytology
eosinophilic keratitis
209
this is the most common intraocular tumour in cats;
originates from the anterior surface of the iris;
flat, hyperpigmented local lesion;
thickened, raised and furry texture;
secondary glaucoma;
metastasis to liver and lungs in up to 63%
Feline Diffuse Iris Melanoma
210
this is a highly malignant intraocular tumour of cats;
associated with historic ocular trauma or chronic uveitis;
blind, traumatised eyes should be enucleated
feline intraocular sarcoma
211
this is the most common secondary intraocular tumour in cats;
may be associated with FeLV or FIV;
anterior uveitis +/- fleshy pink intraocular mass
Ocular Lymphoma
| (B cell > T cell)
212
# name the feline ocular disease
this is an inherited condition in the Siamese and Abyssinian cat breeds
progressive retinal atrophy (PRA)
212
what deficiency can cause retinal degeneration and dilated cardiomyopathy in cats?
can lead to total diffuse retinal degeneration
Taurine deficiency
213
this medication can cause irreversible retinal damage and blindness in cats if > 5 mg/kg/day is given
enrofloxacin
214
this is the most exposed mucus membrane of the body
the conjunctiva
215
this lines the inner surface of the eyelids
palpebral conjunctiva
216
this covers the cartilage of the third eyelid and gland
nictitans conjunctiva
217
this is paler than palpebral or nictitans conjunctiva;
whiteness of the underlying sclera & terminates at the limbus (vorneoscleral junction)
bulbar conjunctiva
218
# name the term
diffuse reddening, variable amount of discharge and conjunctival swelling
conjunctivitis
219
what is the most common cause of chronic conjunctivitis in the dog
dry eye
220
# name the condition
infection within the conjunctival sac before natural opening of the lids at 10-14 days;
swollen lids must be opened, ocular surface flushed after culture, broad spectrum topical ABs, and lubricants
ophthalmia neonatorum
221
# name the condition
antigenic stimulation of lymphoid tissue;
self-limiting (~12-18 mo of age);
cod roe appearance (posterior surface of the third eyelid and conjunctival fornices);
saline irrigation/lubricants, topical steroids/NSAIDs
juvenile follicular conjunctivitis
222
# name the condition
sub-conjunctival oedema;
loose attachement of conjunctiva allows dramatic swelling;
rapid resolution following parental corticosteroid if allergic in origin
Chemosis
223
which cells of the lacrimal system produce mucus
conjunctival goblet cells
224
which cells of the lacrimal system produce lipid component of tears
tarsal glands
225
which cells of the lacrimal system produce aquoeus component of tears
nictitans glands
226
what are most canine cases of KCS (dry eye) caused by
immune mediated destruction of their lacrimal tissue
227
name 2 drugs that induce KCS (dry eye) in the dog
1. sulphadiazine
2. sulphasalazine
228
name a congenital cause of KCS (dry eye in the dog)
aplasia of lacrimal gland
| (Yorkshire terriors, cocker spaniels, CKCS)
229
name 2 infectious causes of KCS (Dry eye) in the dog
1. distemper
2. Leishmania
230
name 5 clinical signs of KCS (dry eye) in the dog
1. conjunctivitis (conjunctival hyperaemia)
2. tenacious mucopurulent discharge
3. corneal neovascularisation
4. corneal pigmentation
5. lack lustre cornea
231
what is the clinical sign of neurogenic KCS (dry eye) in dogs
dry nose on the same side
232
what is a normal result for a Schirmer 1 tear test
greater than 15mm/min
233
what is an early/subclinical KCS result for a Schirmer 1 tear test
10-15mm/min
234
what is a mild/moderate KCS result for a Schirmer 1 tear test
6-10mm/min
235
what is a severe KCS result for a Schirmer 1 tear test
< 5mm/min
236
what surgery can be done to treat KCS (dry eye) in dogs
parotid duct transposition
237
name 4 nearby structures that can press on and obstruct the nasolacrimal system
1. orbit
2. sinuses
3. tooth roots
4. nasal cavity
238
what test can be done to check nasolacrimal drainage
Jones' test
| (fluorescein to ocular surface to see if it appears at nose)
239
# name the term
obstruction to outflow of the nasolacrimal system
Epiphora
240
# name the condition
inflammation of the lacrimal sac;
often caused by a foreign body such as a grass seed
dacryocystitis
