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Cat & Dog > Musculoskeletal System (1-14) > Flashcards

Musculoskeletal System (1-14) Flashcards

1
Q

What 3 topics should be discussed when taking an orthopedic history

A
  1. presenting complaint
  2. general history
  3. problem history
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2
Q

for forelimb lameness, the head nod goes down on the good or bad side?

A

good side

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3
Q

A dog with a head nod down on the left side has lameness on which limb?

A

right forelimb

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4
Q

list the anatomy of the paw

A
  1. phalanges
  2. metacarpal/metatarsal bones
  3. flexor tendons
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5
Q

what 5 areas of the paw should be examined/palpated during a clinical exam

A
  1. digital pad/nail
  2. central pad
  3. interdigital webs
  4. distal and proximal interphalangeal joints
  5. metacarpal/tarsal phalangeal joint
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6
Q

List the anatomy of the carpus

A
  1. antebrachiocarpal joint
  2. middle carpal joint
  3. carpometacarpal joint
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7
Q

what 2 areas of the carpus should be palpated/examined during a clinical exam

A
  1. styloid processes
  2. accessory carpal bone
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8
Q

to what degree can a normal carpus be flexed

A

150

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9
Q

to what degree can a normal carpus be extended

A

10-20

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10
Q

to what degree can a normal carpus be valgused

A

10-15

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11
Q

what does applying valgus and varus stress to the carpus check for

A

collateral ligaments integrity

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12
Q

list the anatomy of the elbow

A
  1. medial part of humeral condyle
  2. anconeus
  3. collateral ligaments
  4. annular ligament
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13
Q

what 3 areas of the elbow should be palpated/examined during a clinical exam

A
  1. ulna and radius
  2. medial/lateral epicondyles
  3. olecranon (and triceps tendon)
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14
Q

to what degree can a normal elbow be extended

A

150

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15
Q

to what degree can a normal elbow be flexed

A

20

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16
Q

what degree should the elbow be fixed at in order to rotate the paw to test supination and pronation

A

90

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17
Q

name the 3 areas of the shoulder that should be examined/palpated during a clinical exam

A
  1. deltoid tuberosity
  2. greater tubercle of the humerus
  3. acromion of the scapula
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18
Q

to what degree can a normal shoulder be flexed

A

60

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19
Q

to what degree can a normal shoulder be extensed

A

160

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20
Q

to what degree can a normal shoulder be abducted

A

35

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21
Q

list the anatomy of the hock

A
  1. tarsal bones
  2. short and long collateral ligaments
  3. plantar fibrocartilage
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22
Q

what two areas of the hock should be palpated/examined during a clinical exam

A
  1. medial and lateral malleoli
  2. calcaneous/achilles tendon
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23
Q

to what degree can a normal talocrural (hock) joint be flexed

A

20

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24
Q

to what degree can a normal talocrural (hock) joint be extended

A

180

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25
Q

how can you check the long and short collateral ligaments of the hock?

A

valgus and varus stress in flexion/extension

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26
Q

list the anatomy of the stifle

A
  1. complex hinge joint
  2. collateral ligaments
  3. cranial and caudal cruciate
  4. medial and lateral menisci
  5. joint capsule/muscle
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27
Q

what two areas of the stifle should be palpated/examined during a clinical exam

A
  1. tibial tuberosity, fibular head
  2. patella, fabella
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28
Q

to what degree can a normal stifle be flexed

A

40

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29
Q

to what degree can a normal stifle be extended

A

160-170

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30
Q

to what degree can a normal stifle be rotated internally

A

5

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31
Q

list the anatomy of the hip

A
  1. femoral head
  2. acetabulum
  3. joint capsule
  4. Teres ligament
  5. surrounding muscles
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32
Q

what two areas of the hip should be palpated/examined during a clinical exam

A
  1. greater trochanter
  2. ilial wing, ischium
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33
Q

to what degree can a normal hip be flexed

A

50

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34
Q

to what degree can a normal hip be extended

A

160

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35
Q

to what degree can a normal hip be abducted

A

40

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36
Q

what kind of tube should be used for Arthrocentesis

A

EDTA tube

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37
Q

list 5 properties of synovial fluid

A
  1. clear, colorless or pale yellow
  2. viscous
  3. small volume
  4. low cell count
  5. mononuclear cytology
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38
Q

what position should the elbow be in for arthrocentesis

A

neutral position

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39
Q

what position should the antebrachiocarpal joint be in for arthrocentesis

A

flexed maximally

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40
Q

what position should the stifle be in for arthrocentesis

A

slight flexion

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41
Q

name 6 clinical signs of fracture

A
  1. loss of function (lame)
  2. swelling
  3. change in limb length, alignment or orientation
  4. abnormal ROM
  5. pain
  6. crepitus
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42
Q

what 3 things does fracture healing need

A
  1. adequate reduction and stability of the fracture site
  2. absence of complicating factors
  3. sufficient time
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43
Q

name 4 goals of fracture management

A
  1. reduce discomfort
  2. eliminate ongoing trauma
  3. support healing
  4. restore function
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44
Q

what two things does primary bone union require

A
  1. complete stability
  2. no or small fracture gap
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45
Q

name the type of primary bone healing

  1. direct apposition of the fracture ends with no movement permits direct remodelling
  2. new cutting cones are initiated in the region of the fracture
  3. reduced radiographic density at bone ends adjacent to fracture site
A

contact healing

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46
Q

name the type of primary bone healing

  1. small gaps between the fracture end
  2. minimal movement
  3. lamellar bone forms directly in the fracture gap
  4. intracortical remodelling throuhg the fracture gap then restores bone integrity
A

gap healing

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47
Q

name the neutralising force

causes lengthening

A

tension

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48
Q

name the neutralising force

causes shortening

A

compression

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49
Q

name the neutralising force

combines tension and compression: tension on convex surface, compression on concave surface - neutral axis results

A

bending

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50
Q

name the type of fracture

bone fracture secondary to an underlying pathologucal process that weakens the structure (infection, neoplasia, nutritional disease)
-normal loading results in fracture

A

pathological fracture

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51
Q

name the fracture classification

occurs in the central/middle part of a bone

A

diaphyseal

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52
Q

name the fracture classification

occurs in the wider part of the bone near the growth plate.

A

metaphyseal
(occurs in metaphysis)

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53
Q

name the fracture classification

type of bone fracture that affects the growing part of a skeletally immature animal, potential for growth plate damage
-likely articular involvement

A

epiphyseal fracture

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54
Q

name the fracture classification

when a bone breaks inside or around a joint;
must achieve accurate anatomical reduction and rigid fixation for best results;
‘no compromise’ fractures

A

articular fractures

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55
Q

name the type of incomplete fracture

skeletally immature animals where bone incompletely mineralized, so less brittle than fully mineralized adult bone;
secondary to skeletal demineralization

A

Greenstick

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56
Q

name the type of incomplete fracture

crack through a bone without alteration in its alignment and in which the periosteum is not broken;
undisplaced ones are often seen running along the cortex from a major fracture line

A

fissure

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57
Q

name the type of complete fracture

bone is broken perpendicular to its length in a straight line

A

transverse

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58
Q

name the type of complete fracture

bone is broken at an angle, straight line that’s angled across the width of your bone

A

oblique

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59
Q

name the type of complete fracture

bone is broken in at least two places, leaving a piece of bone totally separated by the breaks

A

segmental

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60
Q

name the type of complete fracture

when bone is broken with twisting motion;
fracture line that wraps around the bone and looks like a corkscrew

A

spiral

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61
Q

name the type of complete fracture

A fracture with more than one fracture line so that there are one or more intermediate fragments

A

multifragmentary

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62
Q

this is when a bone fragment is distracted by muscle pull or ligament attachment
(tibial tuberosity, olecranon, elective osteotomy)

A

avulsion

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63
Q

where does avulsion occur in skeletally immature animals?

A

along physis

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64
Q

where does avulsion occur in skeletally mature animals

A

at muscular/ligament insertions

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65
Q

this is when fracture ends are driven together;
often stable and can be managed conservatively

A

impacted

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66
Q

name the type of fracture

broken bone that causes an open wound or break in the skin;
previously known as a ‘compound’ fracture;
graded 1-3 on the severity of soft tissue injury

A

open fracture

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67
Q

what is the immediate first aid of open fractures

A
  1. cover open wounds
  2. control hemorrhage
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68
Q

name 3 clinical function signs of fracture healing

A
  1. progressive improvement in function
  2. consistent weight bearing
  3. minimal muscular atrophy
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69
Q

name 2 radiographic signs of fracture healing

A
  1. bridging callus
  2. loss of fracture lines
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70
Q

what 4 things should be done ASAP to treat an open fracture

A
  1. clip widely
  2. lavage copiously
  3. debride all dead tissue
  4. start open wound management
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71
Q

what 3 types of factors play a role in the fracture patient assessment score to identify ‘risky’ patients

A
  1. clinical factors
  2. mechanical factors
  3. biological factors
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72
Q

the higher the fracture patient assessment score, the (lower or higher?) the risk in fracture healing?

A

lower

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73
Q

which mechanical aspect of a fracture has a higher risk?

bridge fracture, contact fracture, or compression fracture?

A

bridge fracture

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74
Q

which mechanical aspect of a fracture has a higher risk?

multiple limb injury OR single limb

A

multiple limb injury

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75
Q

which mechanical aspect of a fracture has a higher risk?

toy breed, large breed, or giant breed?

A

giant breed

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76
Q

which biological aspect of a fracture has a higher risk?

juvenile, yong adult, adult, geriatric?

A

geriatric

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77
Q

which biological aspect of a fracture has a higher risk?

poor health or excellent health?

A

poor health

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78
Q

which biological aspect of a fracture has a higher risk?

good soft tissue or poor soft tissue?

A

poor soft tissue

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79
Q

which biological aspect of a fracture has a higher risk?

cortical bone or cancellous bone?

A

cortical bone

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80
Q

which biological aspect of a fracture has a higher risk?

low enery or high energy?

A

high energy

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81
Q

name 2 clinical aspects that can make fracture healing more risky

A

poor client and patient compliance

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82
Q

name one conservative method of fracture repair

A

cage rest

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83
Q

name two external methods of fracture repair

A
  1. Coaptation
  2. ESF
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84
Q

name 3 coaptation methods of fracture repair

A
  1. splint
  2. cast
  3. dressing
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85
Q

name 3 External Skeletal Fixation (ESF) methods of fracture repair

A
  1. linear
  2. circular
  3. hybrid
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86
Q

name 5 internal methods of fracture repair

A
  1. internal fixators
  2. plates and screws
  3. screws alone
  4. wires
  5. pins
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87
Q

name 1 salvage method of fracture repair

A

amputation

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88
Q

what is the emergency support for lower limb fractures

A

Robert-Jones Dressing

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89
Q

name 4 advantages of external coaptation for fracture management

A
  1. ultimate biological fixation
  2. quick
  3. don’t need much inventory
  4. MIGHT be cheap
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90
Q

name 3 disadvantages of external coaptation for fracture management

A
  1. heavy maintenance
  2. cast associated soft tissue injury
  3. fracture disease
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91
Q

name the external method of fracture management

short-term/adjunctive support;
OK for radius and ulna;
apply over cast padding and conforming bandage;
spoon part at bottom

A

splint

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92
Q

name the external method of fracture management

thermoplastic materials;
stronger and lighter than Plaster of Paris;
need to be quite hot before they are moldable;
can be awkward to use

A

anatomical molded splints

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93
Q

name the external method of fracture management

cheap;
easy to apply;
conform well;
take 8+ h to dry fully;
heavy to wear;
radiodense

A

Plaster of Paris (cast)

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94
Q

name the external method of fracture management

light and strong;
don’t soften when wet;
conform well;
set rapidly;
radiolucent;
need an oscillating saw for removal

A

Fiberglass/Resin (cast)

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95
Q

how often should a cast be checked by a vet

A

weekly

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96
Q

name 5 signs of cast complications to explain to owners to watch for

A
  1. rubbing/chewing at cast
  2. swollen foot pads
  3. bad smell
  4. stops weight bearing
  5. becomes ill
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97
Q

name 4 possible cast complications

A
  1. soft tissue complications (pressure sores, ischemia)
  2. fracture disease (muscle wasting, stiffness, osteoporosis, tissue adhesion)
  3. malunion
  4. delayed union
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98
Q

name the external method of fracture management

a series of percutaneous pins that pass into or through the bone and are connected externally by clamps and rods, acrylic bars and epoxy putty

A

external skeletal fixation (ESF)

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99
Q

name 3 advantages of external skeletal fixation (ESF) for fracture management

A
  1. versatile
  2. easy to apply
  3. compatible with principles of ‘biological osteosynthesis’
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100
Q

this aims to take full advantage of biological healing potential to maximize rate of fracture healing (maintain limb length and orientation & avoid creating further surgical trauma);
goal is to provide an optimal biological and mechanical environment for fracture repair

A

biological osteosynthesis

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101
Q

what type of pins does unilateral frame for external skeletal fixation (ESF) use

A

half pins

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102
Q

what type of pins does bilateral frame for external skeletal fixation (ESF) use?

A

full pins

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103
Q

which type of external skeletal fixation (ESF)?

unilateral, uniplanar

A

type 1

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104
Q

which type of external skeletal fixation (ESF)?

bilateral, uniplanar

A

type 2

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105
Q

which type of external skeletal fixation (ESF)?

bilateral, biplanar

A

type 3

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106
Q

which type of external skeletal fixation (ESF)?

ring fixator, cESF

A

Ilizarov

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107
Q

which type of fixation pin for external skeletal fixation (ESF)?

holds fracture together by friction only

A

smooth pin

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108
Q

which type of fixation pin for external skeletal fixation (ESF)?

good bone purchase;
weak point must be protected

A

negative profile thread pin

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109
Q

which type of fixation pin for external skeletal fixation (ESF)?

excellent bone purchase;
no weak point;
must pre-drill a pilot hole

A

positive profile thread pin

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110
Q

what should the width of the pins used for external skeletal fixation (ESF) be?

A

20-25% of cortical width

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111
Q

how many pins should you aim for per fragment in external skeletal fixation (ESF)?

A

3 pins per fragment

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112
Q

what can external skeletal fixation (ESF) be used for besides just fracture management?

A

protection of ligament repairs

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113
Q

name the internal method of fracture repair

holds fragments in alignment;
resists bending but NOT rotation, shear or axial shortening

A

intramedullary (IM) pins

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114
Q

what should the diameter of IM pins be?

A

aim to fill the medullary canal at narowest point

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115
Q

name the method of placing an IM pin

  1. introduce pin away from fracture site
  2. reduce fracture
  3. advance pin across fracture
    may be able to do this closed
A

normograde pinning

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116
Q

name the method of placing an IM pin

  1. introduce pin at fracture site
  2. push/pull pin through bone to allow fracture reduction
  3. reduce fracture and drive pin across fracture line
A

retrograde pinning

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117
Q

what bone can you NOT use intramedullary (IM) pinning in?

A

radius

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118
Q

name the internal method of fracture repair

an IM pin perforated to accept bone screws;
neutralizes all forces very effectively;
requires specialized instrumentation;
can be technically challenging

A

interlocking (IL) nail

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119
Q

name the internal method of fracture repair?

used to repair fractures or osteotomies which are subjected to distractive forces (olecranon osteotomy, tibial tuberosity avulsion, malleolar fracture);
figure 8 wire anchored in a transverse bone tunnel and passed around the ends of the pin(s);
anchored by twisting ;
converts distractive forces to compression at the fracture line

A

tension band wiring

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120
Q

name the type of bone screw

cut their own thread in the bone;
cutting tip

A

self tapping

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121
Q

name the type of bone screw

thread must be cut in the bone;
thread conforms exactly to screw profile;
maximises metal-bone contact and holding power

A

tapped

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122
Q

name the 5 steps of bone screw placement

A
  1. drill pilot hole
  2. measure depth of hole (and add 2mm)
  3. Countersink
  4. tap
  5. place screw and tighten
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123
Q

name the type of bone screw

when the screw crosses a fracture line that can be compressed;
provides interfragmentary compression

A

Lag Screw

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124
Q

name the type of bone screw

when the screw crosses a fracture line that cannot be compressed;
when near fragment is too small to take a gliding hole

A

position screw

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125
Q

what 3 ways can a bone plate be applied

A
  1. compression plate
  2. neutralisation plate
  3. buttress plate
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126
Q
A
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127
Q

name the type of bone plate

bone is anatomically reconstructed and load sharing;
promotes primary bone union;
uses tension band principle

A

compression plate

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128
Q

name the type of bone plate

applied to protect a lag screw reconstruction; cannot take significant loads without failure;
load sharing between plate and bone

A

neutralisation plate

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129
Q

name the type of bone plate

fracture cannot be anatomically restructured;
no load sharing between bone and plate;
plate transmits the full force of loading across the fracture gap

A

buttress plate

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130
Q

this is inflammation/infection of the bone and associated bone marrow

A

osteomyelitis

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131
Q

what is the most common source of infection causing osteomyelitis?

A

post-surgery
(open fracture, open reduction of closed fracture)

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132
Q

name 4 sources of infection causing osteomyelitis

A
  1. post-surgery
  2. penetrating injury
  3. local extension
  4. haematogenous spread (rare)
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133
Q

what 3 things does the establishment of infection in the bones/bone marrow require?

A
  1. sufficient numbers of pathogenic bacteria
  2. avascular cortical bone
  3. favorable environment for colonization and multiplication
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134
Q

name 5 clinical signs associated with acute osteomyelitis (ex: following extension of a deep surgical site infection)

A
  1. localized pain
  2. swelling
  3. pyrexia
  4. anorexia
  5. lethargy
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135
Q

name 4 clinical signs associated with chronic osteomyelitis

A
  1. lameness
  2. bone pain
  3. swelling
  4. heat
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136
Q

name 5 radiographic signs of osteomyelitis

A
  1. bone destruction
  2. periosteal new bone formation
  3. soft tissue swelling
  4. sequestrum formation
  5. delayed or non-union
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137
Q

this is failure of bone healing and is usually iatrogenic; i.e. YOUR FAULT

A

non-union

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138
Q

name the type of non-union

usually arise due to inadequate stability of the fracture site or inadequate reduction;
should heal following adequate stabilization

A

viable non-union

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139
Q

name the type of non-union

highly vascular fracture site;
significant callus;
need to work out what is wrong and put it right (remove loose implants and stabilize fragments);
don’t usually require bone graft

A

hypertrophic non-union

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140
Q

name 4 types of non-viable non-union

A
  1. dystrophic
  2. necrotic
  3. defect
  4. atrophic
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141
Q

name the type of non-union

blood supply inadequate

A

dystrophic (non-viable non-union)

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142
Q

name the type of non-union

necrotic tissue in fracture site

A

necrotic (non-viable non-union)

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143
Q

name the type of non-union

bone defect at fracture gap

A

defect (non-viable non-union)

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144
Q

name the type of non-union

biologically inactive;
no evidence of attempt to heal;
bone ends sclerotic and atrophied;
medullary cavity may seal over;
fracture gap fills with fibrous tissue;
pseudoarthrosis formation

A

atrophic (non-viable non-union)

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145
Q

what is the treatment for atrophic non-union of a fracture

A
  1. aggressive treatment (open approach, debride fracture ends to viable bone, open medullary cavity)
  2. rigid stabilization
  3. bone graft
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146
Q

this is when the quadriceps muscle becomes adherent to fracture site;
progressive decrease in range of stifle joint mobility;
stifle and hock overextend

A

quadriceps contracture

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147
Q

what is the treatment for quadriceps contracture?

A
  1. surgical release of adhesions
  2. muscle/tendon lengthening if necessary
  3. passive and active physiotherapy
  4. 90-90 bandage postoperatively
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148
Q

what is the classification of bone graft?

donor and recipient is same individual

A

autograft

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149
Q

what is the classification of bone graft?

donor and recipient are different animals of the same species

A

allograft

150
Q

what is the classification of bone graft?

demineralized bone matrix

A

biomaterials

151
Q

what is the classification of bone graft?

ex: ceramics, bioglass

A

synthetic bone substitutes

152
Q

name 4 properties of an ideal bone graft

A
  1. osteogenic
  2. osteoinductive
  3. osteoconductive
  4. non-immunogenic
153
Q

this property of an ideal bone graft means it is a source of osteoblasts to fracture site

A

osteogenic

154
Q

this property of an ideal bone graft means it induces migration and differentiation of mesenchymal stem cells from remote site

A

osteoinductive

155
Q

this property of an ideal bone graft means it is a scaffold in which bone can develop

A

osteoconductive

156
Q

what are 2 uses for bone grafts

A
  1. filling defects
  2. to encourage healing
157
Q

name 4 places you can collect a cancellous autograft from

A
  1. lateral tuberosity of humerus
  2. medial proximal tibia
  3. greater trochanter of femur
  4. wing of ileum
158
Q

name 3 advantages of cancellous autograft

A
  1. no immune response
  2. greatest osteogenic effect (high cellularity)
  3. no risk of cross infection
159
Q

name 2 disadvantages of cancellous autograft

A
  1. extra operating sites must be prepped and accessed
  2. large quantities can be difficult to obtain
160
Q

name 3 advantages of cortical allograft

A
  1. can be banked
  2. convenient
  3. unlimited quantity
161
Q

name 3 disadvantages of cortical allograft

A
  1. immunogenic
  2. slow incorporation into host bone
  3. risk of cross infection
162
Q

where do primary tumors of the musculoskeletal system originate from?

A

mesenchymal cells

(sarcoma)

163
Q

what does an osteosarcoma originate from

A

bone

164
Q

what does a soft tissue sarcoma, fibrosarcoma, myxosarcoma originate from

A

connective tissue

165
Q

what does a haemangiosarcoma originate from

A

blood vessels

166
Q

what do rhabdomyosarcomas originate from

A

striated muscle

167
Q

what do leiomyosarcomas originate from

A

smooth muscle

168
Q

what do liposarcomas originate from

A

fat

169
Q

what do chondrosarcomas & synovial cell sarcomas originate from

A

cartilage

170
Q

name 3 musculoskeletal sarcomas with a higher risk of metastasis (>90%)

A
  1. osteosarcoma
  2. haemangiosarcoma
  3. histiocytic sarcoma elsewhere (NOT around the joint)
171
Q

name 5 musculoskeletal tumors with a lower risk of metastasis (<40%)

A
  1. peripheral nerve sheath tumor (PNST)
  2. Fibrosarcoma (FSA) / soft tissue sarcoma (STS)
  3. Histiocytic sarcoma around the joint
  4. chondrosarcoma
  5. feline injection site sarcoma
172
Q

Stage vs. Grade

This is the extent of the tumour: how far has it got?
clinical assessment of current disease burden

A

Stage

173
Q

Stage vs. Grade

This is based on the histological features of the tumor;
mitotic activity, vascularity, invasion, necrosis, differentiation

A

Grade

174
Q

name 1 pro and 1 con of using incisional biopsy and histology to diagnose a primary sarcoma in the musculoskeletal system

A

Pro: large sample so better chance of diagnosis and accurate grade
Con: requires GA

175
Q

name 1 pro and 1 con of using tru-cut biopsy to diagnose a primary sarcoma in the musculoskeletal system

A

Pro: may be possible under sedation
Con: small sample so chance of non-representative sample - diagnosis or grade

176
Q

what is the preferred type of imaging for musculoskeletal primary tumors

A

MRI or CT

(radiograph is rel. insensitive)

177
Q

all sarcomas have a predilection for metastasis to what organ?

A

lungs

178
Q

name 2 clinical signs of an osteosarcoma

A
  1. pain and lameness
  2. swelling/mass at primary site
179
Q

name 5 differentials for bone tumors

A
  1. osteosarcoma!
  2. chondrosarcoma
  3. histiocytic sarcoma
  4. other (fibrosarcoma, haemangiosarcoma, etc)
  5. benign tumors/cysts
180
Q

name 4 primary treatment options for an osteosarcoma
(to prevent pain, stop or delay progression of tumor)

A
  1. amputation!
  2. limb sparing (high risk of infection and failure)
  3. radiotherapy
  4. analgesia only
181
Q

what is the best chemotherapy protocol to slow development of metastatic disease from an osteosarcoma?

A

carboplatin

182
Q

what is the median survival for a dog with an osteosarcoma after amputation alone?

A

5 months

183
Q

what is the median survival for a dog with an osteosarcoma after amputation and platinum chemotherapy?

A

9-12 months

184
Q

name 4 possible toxicities caused by Carboplatin

A
  1. GI toxicity
  2. Myelosuppression
  3. nephrotoxicity
  4. mild GIT side effects
185
Q

name 3 prognostic factors for osteosarcoma

A
  1. location
  2. presence of metastatic disease
  3. total alkaline phosphatase
186
Q

where is an osteosarcoma most likely to occur in dogs

A

front limbs

(appendicular skeleton - metaphysis of long bones)

187
Q

what are the ideal surgical margins for soft tissue sarcomas

A

3 cm lateral and 1 fascial plane beyond extent of tumour

188
Q

name 3 methods of sample preparation for margin assessment of soft tissue sarcomas

A
  1. cardinal (most common)
  2. bread loafing
  3. shaved margins
189
Q

name the sample prep method for margin assess. of soft tissue sarcomas

3 sections;
relies on mass being spheroid (not always true)

A

cardinal

190
Q

metronomic chemo to treat microscopic residual disease from a soft tissue sarcoma is well tolerated but what is the main risk?

A

sterile haemorrhagic cystits

191
Q

name 4 prognostic factors of soft tissue sarcomas

A
  1. tumour grade and mitotic rate
  2. tumour size
  3. tumour location
  4. achieving local control of tumour
192
Q

what organ is most commonly affected by haemangiosarcomas

A

spleen

193
Q

name 3 clinical signs of a haemangiosarcoma

A
  1. shock, collapse, haemoabdomen
  2. palpable mass or fluid thrill on spleen
  3. intramuscular bruising
194
Q

name 2 poor prognostic factors of a haemangiosarcoma

A
  1. tumour rupture and bleeding into abdomen
  2. metastases
195
Q

what is the typical survival for splenic tumors with metastasis

A

4-6 weeks

196
Q

what category of chemodrug is Doxorubicin and Epirubicin

A

antitumour antibiotic

197
Q

name 8 toxicities that may be caused by Doxorubicin and Epirubicin

A
  1. SEVERE perivascular irritant
  2. anaphylaxis (premed w chlorpheniramine)
  3. acute/cumulative cardiotoxicity
  4. nausea
  5. GI effects
  6. Myelosuppression
  7. nephrotoxicity
  8. alopecia
198
Q

when should an echocardiogram be performed when giving Doxorubicin or Epirubicin to a patient

A

prior to first & third or fourth treatment

199
Q

what type of haemangiosarcomas have an excellent outcome and mean survival time (MST) of 1000 days

A

dermal HSA

200
Q

how are the best outcomes achieved for a histiocytic sarcoma

A

multi-modal therapy
(surgery, radiation, & lomustine/anthracycline chemo)

201
Q

the synonym of this is Degenerative joint disease;
it affects the diarthrodial joints

A

osteoarthritis (OA)

202
Q

what 3 things is osteoarthritis (OA) charcterized by?

A
  1. degeneration of cartilage
  2. periarticular new bone and fibrosis
  3. low grade inflammation
203
Q

what are 2 possible pathogeneses for osteoarthritis (OA)

A
  1. abnormal motion on normal cartilage
  2. normal motion on abnormal cartilage
204
Q

name 5 clinical findings/signs of ostearthritis (OA)

A
  1. lameness
  2. pain
  3. reduction in normal movement
  4. effusion
  5. crepitus
205
Q

name three signs of osteoarthritis (OA) seen on radiographic imaging

A
  1. osteophytosis
  2. sclerosis
  3. effusion
206
Q

name 4 signs of osteoarthritis seen arthrocentesis investigations

A
  1. incr. or decr. volume
  2. reduced viscosity
  3. incr. white blood cells
  4. pred. mononuclear
207
Q

what nutritional supplement can be given to treat osteoarthritis (OA) with unequivocal evidence of efficacy

A

Omega-3 Fatty Acids

208
Q

40% of older cats with osteoarthritis (OA) also have this disease

A

kidney disease

209
Q

what two options are there for surgical management of osteoarthritis (OA)?

A
  1. arthroplasty
  2. arthrodesis (NOT hip)
210
Q

what is a synonym for bacterial infective arthritis

A

septic arthritis

211
Q

name 5 signs of bacterial infective arthritis seen with arthrocentesis investigations

A
  1. large volume
  2. abnormal appearance
  3. incr. cell count
  4. neutrophilia
  5. culture
212
Q

what is Lyme disease caused by?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi,
transmitted by Ixodes ticks

213
Q

what is the treatment for Lyme disease?

A

Tetracyclines

214
Q

SKIPPING 8
COME BACK TO IT

A
215
Q

name 5 differential diagnoses for multiple limb lameness in immature dogs/cats

A
  1. craniomandibular osteopathy
  2. nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism
  3. panosteitis
  4. metaphyseal osteopathy
  5. vaccine reactions
216
Q

name 5 differential diagnoses for multiple limb lameness in adult dogs/cats

A
  1. immune mediated joint disease
  2. drug induced polyarthritis
  3. renal secondary hyperparathyroidism
  4. hypervitaminosis A
  5. hypertrophic osteopathy
217
Q

name the pathogenesis of craniomandibular osteopathy

A
  1. lamellar bone production
  2. occipital bones/tympanic bullae/mandible
  3. +/- long bones
218
Q

what is the clinical sign of craniomandibular osteopathy

(young dogs - 5-7 months)

A

pain on opening mouth +/- limb swelling

219
Q

excess of this mineral impairs endochondral ossification

A

calcium

220
Q

puppies and kittens fed this type of diet are more prone to nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

all meat diets

221
Q

name 4 features of nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism

A
  1. low calcium:phosphate ratio
  2. increased parathyroid hormone
  3. calcium resorbed from skeleton
  4. osteopenia (pathological fractures)
222
Q

what breeds are more prone to panosteitis?

A

large breeds (GSD)

(rare in cats)

223
Q

what sex is panosteitis more common in

A

males

224
Q

name 3 clinical signs of panosteitis

A
  1. waxing and waning lameness
  2. can be non-weight bearing
  3. pain on bone palpation
225
Q

name 3 radiographic signs of panosteitis

A
  1. medullary opacity
  2. occassional periosteal bone
  3. weeks to develop
226
Q

what is teh treatment for panosteitis

A
  1. analgesia
  2. self resolves in adulthood
227
Q

what is metaphyseal osteopathy characterized by

A

severe metaphyseal inflammation

228
Q

what age, breed, and sex is metaphyseal osteopathy more common in?
(can occur in both dogs and. cats and any breed though)

A

young (4-6 month),
giant breeds,
male

229
Q

name 4 clinical signs of metaphyseal osteopathy

A
  1. very painful
  2. pyrexic
  3. shifting lameness
  4. gross metaphyseal swelling
230
Q

name 2 radiographic findings with metaphyseal osteopathy

A
  1. metaphyseal radiolucency, parallel to physis
  2. periosteal mineralization
231
Q

metaphyseal osteopathy usually resolves in 7-10, but what is the exception to this?

A

hip in cats

232
Q

name 2 clinical signs seen with vaccination reactions

A
  1. pyrexia
  2. stiff, panful, swollen joints
233
Q

how long after primary vaccination course are vaccination reactions usually seen

A

2-7 days

234
Q

what are 2 sub-classifications of immune mediated joint disease

A
  1. erosive
  2. non-erosive
235
Q

what is the pathogenesis of immune mediated joint disease

A
  1. inappropriate immune response in synovium
  2. pain and lameness
236
Q

name 2 genetic risks for immune mediate joint disease

A
  1. major histocompatability complex genes
  2. terrier breeds
237
Q

name 4 signs of immune mediated joint disease found on clinical examination

A
  1. joint effusion, distal joints
  2. multiple joints affected
  3. symmetrical joint swelling
  4. overt joint pain
238
Q

what changes will be seen in synovial fluid analysis for immune mediated joint disease

A
  1. increased volume
  2. reduced viscosity
  3. turbid (raised cell count)
  4. neutrophilic cytology
239
Q

what is the treatment for immune mediated joint disease?

A

Prednisolone (immunosuppression)

240
Q

what 3 immunosuppressive drugs can be used to treat immune mediated joint disease if the animal does not respond to Prednisolone?

A
  1. Chlorambulcil
  2. Azathioprine (NEVER IN CATS)
  3. Leflunomide/Ciclosporin
241
Q

what is a common example of an erosive form of immune mediated joint disease

A

Rheumatoid arthritis (rare)

242
Q

what is the most common form of immune mediated joint disease

A

idiopathic immune mediated polyarthritis (IMPA)

(non-erosive)

243
Q

name 4 subgroups of idiopathic immune-mediated polyarthritis (IMPA)

A
  1. no association
  2. reactive - infection
  3. enteropathic
  4. neoplastic
244
Q

what 3 drugs most commonly cause drug-induced polyarthritis

A
  1. Cephalosporins
  2. Penicillins
  3. Sulphadiazine-trimethoprim (Dobermans)
245
Q

name 5 clinical features of renal secondary hyperparathyroidism
(chronic renal insufficiency)

A
  1. reduced glomerular filtration rate
  2. reduced renal excretion of phosphorus
  3. reduced calcitriol
  4. increased parathyroid hormone
  5. osteopenia - pathological fractures
246
Q

what is “rubber jaw” caused by?

A

renal secondary hyperparathyroidism

247
Q

what is the treatment for renal secondary hyperparathyroidism

A
  1. reduced phosphate diet
  2. oral phosphate binder
  3. vitamin D
248
Q

cats fed liver rich diets can develop this disease causing limb lameness

A

hypervitaminosis A

249
Q

name 3 clinical signs of hypervitaminosis A

A
  1. stiff, lame, unkempt appearance
  2. neurological defecs
  3. excessive spinal new bone, even fusion
250
Q

name 3 synonyms for hypertrophic osteopathy

A
  1. hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy
  2. hypertrophic pulmonary osteopathy
  3. Marie’s disease
251
Q

what is the radiographic sign of hypertrophic osteopathy

A

periosteal new bone
(any limb bone)

252
Q

what is the main cause of hypertrophic osteopathy

A

thoracic mass neoplasia

253
Q

name 5 differential diagnoses for forelimb lameness in the immature dog and cat

A
  1. carpal laxities
  2. elbow dysplasia
  3. incomplete ossification of the humeral condyle (IOHC)
  4. developmental luxation
  5. osteochondritis dissecans
254
Q

what are 3 causes of carpal laxity in puppies and kittens

A
  1. period of rest
  2. casting
  3. poor nutrition
255
Q

what is the treatment for carpal laxity

A

exercise / balanced diet
(spontaneously resolves)

256
Q

what causes flexural deformity of the carpus?

A

contracture flexor carpi ulnaris

257
Q

Elbow dysplasia is a group of what 3 developmental conditions of dogs?

A
  1. fragmented coronoid process (FCP)
  2. Osteochondritis dissecans of the medial part of humeral condyle (OCD)
  3. ununited anconeal process (UAP)
258
Q

what sex is predisposed to fragmented coronoid process (FCP) - (elbow dysplasia)

A

males

259
Q

what is a grade 0 elbow dysplasia

A

no osteophytosis

260
Q

what is a grade 1 elbow dysplasia

A

osteophytes < 2mm

261
Q

what is grade 2 elbow dysplasia

A

osteophytes 2-5mm or lesion

262
Q

what is grade 3 elbow dysplasia

A

osteophytes >5mm or lesion with osteophytes

263
Q

how old mus t a dog be in order to have elbow dysplasia scored

A

1 year

264
Q

what is the most common form of elbow dysplasia

A

fragmented coronoid process (FCP)

265
Q

what signs will be seen on clinical examination for fragmented coronoid process (FCP)

A

pain on extension and flexion/supination

266
Q

fragmented coronoid process (FCP) is frequently bilateral or unilateral?

A

bilateral

267
Q

what 3 surgical treatments can be done for fragmented coronoid process (FCP)

A
  1. arthrotomy or arthroscopy
  2. fragment removal
  3. ulna/humeral osteotomy
268
Q

this is the failure of endochondral ossification

A

osteochondrosis

269
Q

name 3 aetiologies of osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) of the medial part of the humeral condyle

A
  1. genetics
  2. “over nutrition”
  3. ischemia
270
Q

how to diagnose osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) of the medial part of the humeral condyle

A

radiography

271
Q

what is the treatment for osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) of the medial part of the humeral condyle

A

surgical removal of the flap

272
Q

name 4 signs seen on clinical examination with ununited anconeal process

A
  1. crepitus
  2. marked effusion
  3. pain on extension
  4. 25% bilateral disease
273
Q

how to diagnose ununited anconeal process?

A

radiography
(flexed mediolateral view)

274
Q

how to treat ununited anconeal process ?

A
  1. osteoarthritis management
  2. surgical removal
  3. surgical fixation
275
Q

what is the treatment for incomplete ossification of the humeral condyle?

A

transcondylar position screw

276
Q

name two ways to diagnose shoulder osteochondrosis

A
  1. radiography (radiolucent deficit)
  2. positive contrast arthrogram
277
Q

what is the surgical treatment for shoulder osteochondrosis

A

flap removal / abrade surface

278
Q

name 6 differential diagnoses for hind limb lameness

A
  1. osteochondritis dissecans of the talus
  2. medial patellar luxation
  3. lateral patella luxation
  4. Avascular necrosis
  5. hip dysplasia
  6. panosteitis
279
Q

what 2 presenting signs will a dog with osteochondritis dissecans of the talus

A
  1. marked hind limb lameness
  2. marked effusion/swelling
280
Q

what 3 things can be done to diagnose osteochondritis dissecans of the talus

A
  1. radiography
  2. CT
  3. arthrocentesis (degenerative cytology)
281
Q

what radiographic sign will be seen with osteochondritis dissecans of the talus

A

medial trochlear ridge appears absent

282
Q

what is the treatment for osteochondritis dissecans of the talus

A
  1. fragment removal
    (arthrotomy/arthroscopy technically challenging)
283
Q

what is the prognosis for osteochondritis dissecans of the talus

A

guarded
(some require arthrodesis)

284
Q

name 3 causes of medial patella luxation

A
  1. developmental
  2. complication of cruciate rupture
  3. trauma
285
Q

name the grade of medial patella luxation

in sulcus, and spontaneously returns in sulcus when manually luxated

A

grade 1

286
Q

name the grade of medial patella luxation

when in sulcus, stays in;
when out of sulcus, stays out

A

grade 2

287
Q

name the grade of medial patella luxation

when out of sulcus, can be returned in, but spontaneously luxates out

A

grade 3

288
Q

name the grade of medial patella luxation

out of sulcus all the time, can’t be put in

A

grade 4

289
Q

what is the treatment for an asymptomatic dog with medial patella luxation

A

no treatment

290
Q

what is the treatment for a symptomatic dog with medial patella luxation

A

surgical treatment
(realign patella mechanism)

291
Q

name 4 possible surgical methods to treat medial patella luxation and realign patella mechanism

A
  1. lateral tibial tuberosity transposition
  2. trochlear wedge/block recession sulcoplasty
  3. medial desmotomy
  4. lateral capsular overlap
292
Q

what is the prognosis for dogs with grade 1-3 medial patella luxation

A

excellent

293
Q

what is the prognosis for dogs with grade 4 medial patella luxation

A

guarded
(may require corrective osteotomy)

294
Q

what breeds is lateral patella luxation more common in

A

large breeds
(flat coat retrievers )

295
Q

what breeds is medial patella luxation more common in

A

small/toy breeds

296
Q

what are the two surgical treatments for lateral patella luxation

A
  1. medial tibial crest transposition
  2. trochlear wedge/block sulcoplasty
297
Q

this disease is ischaemic necrosis of the femoral head

A

Legg-Calve-Perthe’s disease

298
Q

what breeds is Legg-Calve-Perthe’s disease more common in

A

small, toy breeds
(dogs)

299
Q

what will the clinical history of a dog with Legg-Calve-Perthe’s disease be?

A
  1. progressively deteriorating lameness
  2. marked hip pain

(3-12 months of age)

300
Q

what 2 signs of Legg-Calve-Perthe’s disease can be seen on radiography for diagnosis

A
  1. lysis/mottling femoral head/neck
  2. femoral head collapse
301
Q

2 ways to surgically treat Legg-Calve-Perthe’s disease

A
  1. femoral head + neck ostectomy
  2. mini total hip replacement
302
Q

what is the prognosis for Legg-Calve-Perthe’s disease

A

good outcome with surgery

303
Q

what sex is metaphyseal osteopathy of cats more common in

A

male
(< 2 years old)

304
Q

what radiographic sign will be seen to diagnose metaphyseal osteopathy of cats

A

radiolucent line across femoral meaphysis

(fracture in 50% cases)

305
Q

name 2 surgical treatments for metaphyseal osteopathy of cats

A
  1. femoral head and neck excision
  2. total hip replacement
306
Q

what is the prognosis for metaphyseal osteopathy of cats treated surgically

A

excellent

307
Q

what two things make up the temporomandibular joint

A
  1. mandibular condyles
  2. temporal bone
308
Q

what are the two treatment options for luxation of the temporomandibular joint

A
  1. closed reduction
  2. open reduction and loose muzzle (4 weeks)
309
Q

how will a dog with luxation of the temporomandibular joint present

A

unable to close mouth

310
Q

name 5 common differential diagnoses for forelimb lamness in mature cat/dog

A
  1. luxation/subluxation injury of carpus
  2. collateral ligament injury
  3. incomplete ossification of humeral condyle
  4. fragmented medial coronoid process
  5. traumatic luxation of elbow
311
Q

name 3 causes of carpal luxation or subluxation

A
  1. trauma (common)
  2. chronic immune mediated polyarthritis (rare)
  3. chronic degeneration (rare)
312
Q

what are the 2 presenting signs of carpal luxation or subluxation

A
  1. palmargrade stance (hyperextended)
  2. mild-moderate lameness
313
Q

how to diagnose carpal luxation or subluxation

A

radiography / stress radiography
(identify joint)

314
Q

how to treat carpal luxation or subluxation in puppies

A

medically!
should spontaneously resolve, no surgery

315
Q

how to treat carpal luxation or subluxation in an adult

A

surgical management
(pancarpal arthrodesis)

316
Q

name the 4 principles/steps of arthrodesis to treat carpal luxation or subluxation

A
  1. remove all articular cartilage
  2. cancellous bone graft
  3. rigid internal fixation (plate)
  4. coaptation (splint/cast) (not always used)
317
Q

what is the prognosis for an adult with carpal luxation or subluxation that has had pancarpal arthrodesis

A

excellent (80%)

318
Q

what are 2 possible complications of treating carpal luxation or subluxation with pancarpal arthrodesis

A
  1. failure of arthrodesis
  2. metacarpal fracture
319
Q

what is the presenting sign for adult animals with carpal collateral ligament injury

A

normal stance with slight valgus

320
Q

how to diagnose carpal collateral ligament injury

A
  1. palpation
  2. stress radiography
321
Q

name 2 surgical treatment options for carpal collateral ligament injury

A
  1. APL transposition
  2. prosthetic - screw/bone tunnels
322
Q

what breed of dog is predisposed to incomplete ossification of the humeral condyle (IOHC)

A

spaniels

323
Q

what is a synonym for incomplete ossification of the humeral condyle (IOHC)

A

Humeral Intercondylar Fissure (HIF)

324
Q

name the 3 possible fractures that dogs with incomplete ossification of the humeral condyle (IOHC) are predisposed to

A
  1. lateral part of condyle
  2. medial part of condyle
  3. di-condylar (‘Y’ or ‘T’)
325
Q

how to treat an adult dog with incomplete ossification of the humeral condyle (IOHC) alone

A

position screw

326
Q

how to treat an adult dog with incomplete ossification of the humeral condyle (IOHC) AND a lateral OR medial condyle fracture

A

lag screw and plate fixation

327
Q

how to treat an adult dog with incomplete ossification of the humeral condyle (IOHC) AND a dicondylar fracture

A

lag screw and double plate fixation

328
Q

what is the prognosis for a dog treated for incomplete ossification of the humeral condyle (IOHC)

A

good (for return to normal function)
WILL develop elbow osteoarthritis

329
Q

what to look for on diagnostic imaging when diagnosing traumatic elbow luxation

A

avulsion fragments

330
Q

how to medically manage traumatic elbow luxation

A
  1. closed reduction
  2. check collaterals
  3. dressing 2 weeks
331
Q

Pronation checks (medial or lateral?) collaterals

A

medial

332
Q

Supination checks (medial or lateral?) collaterals

A

lateral

333
Q

how to surgically treat traumatic elbow luxation

A
  1. open reduction
  2. re-attach avulsion
  3. replace ligaments
334
Q

name 2 elbow salvage procedures

A
  1. elbow arthrodesis
  2. total elbow replacement
335
Q

what angle should the elbow be fused at in elbow arthrodesis

A

110 degrees with a caudal plate

336
Q

this disease is rare in dogs and very rare in cats;
there will be pain on biceps test (palpation on hsoulder flexion);
diagnosed on ultrasound

A

biceps tendon disease

(tenosynovitis or traumatic rupture)

337
Q

name 8 differential diagnoses for hindlimb lameness in the adult dog/cat

A
  1. ligament injuries
  2. shear injuries
  3. Achilles tendon injuries
  4. cranial cruciate ligament disease
  5. collateral ligament rupture
  6. patella tendon rupture
  7. coxofemoral luxation
  8. hip dysplasia

(many more)

338
Q

how to manage ligament injuries of the hock in a mature dog/cat?

A
  1. treat wounds appropriately
  2. external skeletal fixation
  3. pins and tension band
339
Q

what is the prognosis for managed ligament injuries of the hock in a mature dog/cat?

A

good;
development of osteoarthritis

340
Q

what 3 Achilles Tendon injuries can a mature dog/cat have?

A
  1. tendinosis
  2. partial rupture
  3. complete rupture (trauma)
341
Q

thickening, but no lengthening would indicate this Achilles tendon injury in a mature dog/cat

A

tendinosis

342
Q

lengthening & flexed (‘clenched’) digits would indicate this Achilles tendon injury in a mature dog/cat

A

partial rupture

343
Q

plantigrade stance would indicate this Achilles tendon injury in a mature dog/cat

A

complete rupture (trauma)

344
Q

how to treat Achilles tendon tendinosis (no lengthening) in a mature dog/cat

A

medical management

345
Q

how to treat partial rupture of Achilles tendon (lengthening) in a mature dog/cat

A

temporary immobilization/repair or salvage

346
Q

how to treat complete rupture of Achilles tendon in a mature dog/cat

A

primary repaire (surgery)

347
Q

name 2 instances where pantarsal arthrodesis is used as treatment in a mature dog/cat

A
  1. end-stage talocrural joint osteoarthritis
  2. failed Achilles mechanism injury
348
Q

name 5 functions of the cranial cruciate ligament

A
  1. limit cranial translation
  2. limit internal rotation
  3. limit valgus/varus motion
  4. limit stifle extension
  5. proprioception
349
Q

what 4 clinical signs will be seen on clinical examination in a mature dog/cat with cranial cruciate ligament rupture

A
  1. stifle effusion
  2. stifle thickening (medially)
  3. muscle atrophy (bilateral)
  4. pain on full extension
350
Q

name 2 radiographic signs of cranial cruciate ligament rupture

A
  1. effusion
  2. osteophytosis
351
Q

describe extracapsular stabilization (lateral fabella-tibial suture LTFS) for a cranial cruciate ligament rupture

A
  1. tibial tunnel
  2. under patella ligament
  3. around lateral fabella
352
Q

name 3 tibial osteotomies for dunamic stabilization of a cranial cruciate ligament rupture

A
  1. tibial plateau levelling osteotomy (TPLO)
  2. tibial wedge osteotomy (TWO)
  3. Tibial tuberosity advancement (TTA)
353
Q

which technique of stabilization is preferred for cranial cruciate ligament rupture

A

TPLO
(tibial plateau leveling osteotomy)

354
Q

name 2 issues with dynamic stabilization for cranial cruciate ligament rupture

A
  1. costs increased
  2. complications challenging
355
Q

what is the most important orthopaedic condition?

A

cruciate ligament disease

356
Q

name 3 steps to diagnos a collateral ligament injury

A
  1. varus and valgus stress test
  2. confirm with stress radiographs
  3. check integrity of cruciate ligaments
357
Q

what is the treatment for collateral ligament injury in a mature dog/cat

A
  1. primary repair (if possible)
  2. supplement - screws and suture
358
Q

name 5 ligaments that may be involved in a multiple ligamentous injury (often all are injured)

A
  1. medial collateral ligament
  2. lateral collateral ligament
  3. cranial cruciate ligament
  4. caudal cruciate ligament
  5. menisci
359
Q

what is the treatment for multiple ligamentous injury in a mature dog/cat

A
  1. repair/replace individual components
  2. transarticular external skeletal fixation
360
Q

what is the prognosis for isolated collateral injuries

A

excellent

361
Q

what is the prognosis for multiple ligament injuries

A

moderate
(expect lameness, DJD progresses)

362
Q

how is the patella displaced in a patella ligament rupture?

A

proximally displaced
(from forced flexion - quad muscles)

363
Q

what 3 places should you palpate to diagnose hip luxation in a mature dog/cat

A
  1. ilial wing
  2. trochanter
  3. tuber ischia
364
Q

name 3 medical treatments for hip luxation in a mature dog/cat

A
  1. closed reduction
  2. cage rest
  3. support (Ehmer sling, hobbles)
365
Q

what support can be used for a cradiodorsal hip luxation that has had closed reduction

A

Ehmer sling

366
Q

what support can be used for a caduoventral hip luxation that has had closed reduction

A

hobbles

367
Q

name the surgical treatment of choice for hip luxation

A

iliofemoral suture

(base of trochanter to iliopubic eminence)

368
Q

how to diagnose hip dysplasia in a mature dog/cat?

A
  1. Ortolani test (angle of reduction - young only)
  2. Radiographs (hip laxity in young; hip osteoarthritis in old)
369
Q

how to medically manage a mature dog/cat with hip dysplasia

A

osteoarthritis management
(weight, analgesia, acitivty control, etc)

370
Q

2 ways to surgically manage hip dysplasia in a juvenile dog

A
  1. Juvenile pubic symphysiodesis (<5mo)
  2. pelvic osteotomy (<12mo)
371
Q

name 2 ways to sugically manage hip dysplasia in an adult dog

A
  1. femoral head and neck ostectomy (juvenile and adult)
  2. total hip replacement (adult)

Cat & Dog (19 decks)

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