Diagnostics Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is assessment?

A

A. The process
8. SLP’s use of assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why do we complete an evaluation?

A

A. To determine: Is there a disorder?
B. To compare with norms
C. To share with others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

If there is a communication disorder, you will need to:

A

~ Describe the problem
~ Judge severity
~ Deal with the etiology
~ Prognostic statement
~ Make recommendations
~ Write goals/ objectives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

For an assessment to have foundational integrity it needs to adhere to these 5 principles:

A

~ thorough
~ uses a variety of modalities
~ valid
~ reliable
~ tailored to the individual client

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Typical Assessment Includes:

A

~ Case history
~ Interview
~ Evaluate oral-facial mechanism
~ Sample the client’s speech and language abilities
~ Screen hearing
~ Evaluate assessment information
~ Share findings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

May need to make referrals to other professionals

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Possible other referrals:

A

~ Psychologist/psychiatrist
~ OT, PT
~ Audiologist
~ Physician
~ Another SLP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Each assessment will differ slightly

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Some have extensive case histories, clients have different communication difficulties, some cases involve extensive interviewing, some cases require detailed written reports.

A

Differences in Evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What environment factors do you need to consider while doing a diagnostic?

A

~ Privacy/confidentiality
~ Room consideration
~ Recording consideration
~ Stimulus consideration
~ Time
~ Seating
~ Distance
~ Appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

measurement of human traits, abilities, and certain processes

A

psychometrics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

a test measures what it claims to measure

A

test validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

results are replicable

A

reliability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

provides standard procedures for the administration and scoring of the test

A

standardization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

a test measures predetermined theoretical construct, which is an explanation of a behavior or attribute based on empirical observation

A

construct validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

validity that is established by an external criterion

A

criterion validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

a tests validity in comparison to a widely accepted standard

A

concurrent validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

a tests ability to predict performance in another situation or at a later time

A

predictive validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

refers to a tests stability over time

A

test-retest reliability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

refers to a tests internal consistency

A

split-half reliability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

refers to the level of agreement among individuals rating the test

A

rater reliability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

results are consistent when the same person rates the test on more than one occasion

A

intra-rater reliability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

results are consistent when more than one person rates the test

A

inter-rater reliability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

refers to a test’s correlation coefficient with a similar test determined by administering Test A and Test B to the same group of people and comparing the results to determine the test’s alternate form reliability

A

alternate form reliability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
standardized tests = ______ tests
formal
26
_______________ provides standard procedures for the administration and scoring of the test
standardization
27
standardization helps to eliminate ___-_____ bias and other extraneous influences so they do not affect the client's performance
test-giver
28
majority of standardizes tests are ____-__________, but not ALL standardized tests are ____-________
norm-referenced
29
any test may be standardized as long as uniform test administration and scoring are used
true
30
consecutive test items that must be correct prior to continuing testing
basal standardization
31
number of test items incorrect prior to discontinuing testing
ceiling standardization
32
exact age of child at the date tested
chronological age
33
adjustment made in age of child if born prematurely
adjusted age
34
the initial score obtained from test results, but must be converted to interpret test results
raw score
35
each test should include information about:
- the purpose of the test - test construction and development - administration and scoring procedures - the normative sample group and statistical information derived from it - test reliability - test validity
36
most tests available to SLP's are ____-________
norm-referenced
37
norm-referenced tests are often used for evaluating articulation and language disorders
true
38
norm referenced tests are always ____________
standardized
39
norm-referenced tests compare an individuals performance of a _____ _____
larger group
40
normal distribution is often depicted using a ____-______ curve
bell-shaped
41
normal range on bell shaped curve
-1 to +1
42
mild range on bell shaped curve
-1 to -1.5
43
moderate range on bell shaped curve
-1.5 to -2
44
severe range on bell shaped curve
-2 or lower
45
scores from norm-referenced tests may include:
standard score, percentile rank, stanine
46
tells how many standard deviation the raw score is away from the mean
standard score
47
tells the percentage of people scoring at or below a particular score
percentile rank
48
based on a 9-unit scale where 5 is average performance. each stanine unit is equally distributed across the curve.
stanine
49
- tests are objective - skills of an individual can be compared to a large group of similar individuals - efficient testing - widely recognized -do not need a high level of experience - insurance companies and school districts prefer known test entities
norm-referenced test advantages
50
- Do not allow for individualization - Generally static - Evaluates isolated skills - Must be administered EXACTLY as instructed - Test materials may not always be appropriate for all populations/cultures
norm-referenced test disadvantages
51
* Do not compare individual’s performance to anyone else * Identify what a client can and cannot do * Help answer the question, “How does a client’s performance compare to an expected level of performance?” * Often used when assessing clients for neurogenic disorders, fluency disorders, and voice disorders * May or may not be standardized
criterion-referenced tests
52
–Usually objective –Usually efficient –Many are widely recognized –Insurance companies and school systems may prefer known tests –With non-standardized criterion-referenced tests, there is some opportunity for individualization
criterion-referenced test advantages
53
* Testing situation may be unnatural * Approach evaluates isolated skills * Standardized CR tests do not allow for individualization * Standardized CR tests must be administered EXACTLY as instructed
criterion-referenced test disadvantages
54
* Identifies what the client can and cannot do * Emphasizes contextualized test stimuli * Test environment is a realistic situation * Authentic assessment is ongoing * Requires more clinical skill, experience and creativity than formal assessment * Strategies recommended for evaluating clients using authentic assessment
authentic assessment approach
55
* Natural and similar to real world * Clients participate in self-evaluation, self-monitoring * Allows for individualization * Offers flexibility
authentic assessment approach advantages
56
–May lack objectivity –Reliability and validity are less assured –Requires a high level of clinical experience and skill –Requires a lot of planning and interpretation time –May be impractical –Insurance companies and school districts prefer known test entities
authentic assessment approach disadvantages
57
Basal is the ________ point for administration
starting
58
ceiling is the ______ point
ending
59
associated with a particular region, social class, or ethnic group
dialects
60
clinicians need special expertise in assessing children who speak:
1. A language other than English 2. English as a second language 3. A dialectal variation of American English (AAE) 4. A different form of English (Australian English)
61
the scientific study of a culture
ethnography
62
you will gather information from:
- written case history - interview - information from professionals
63
Gathers information about the client’s difficulties Helps plan for the assessment Allows you to identify information that needs clarification
case hiystory
64
Take notes or record it Develop trust Stress Be accommodating Share your knowledge clearly Use good communication skills Strong commitment to people
interviewing tips
65
Sensitivity Respect Empathy Objectivity Listening skills Motivation Rapport
Facilitating good communication
66
subjective notes (SOAP notes)
nonmeasureable
67
objective notes (SOAP notes)
measureable findings
68
Assessment (SOAP notes)
synthesis of information/analysis
69
Plan (SOAP notes)
-how to the findings affect the future -outline recommendations for future action and course of treatment
70
- birth through age 2 - identifies current levels of development - Includes family as recipients of services - supports transition to preschool program upon reaching age 3 - services coordinated through a county regional center - plan is reviewed at least every 6 mo
IFSP (individualized Family Service Plan)
71
- For special education of preschool and school-age children ages 3- 21 - identifies special education services necessary to achieve goals - services are coordinated through a local educational agency - Does not include provisions for the family - Supports transition to adulthood upon or before reaching age 21 - plan is reviewed at least every 12 mo
IEP (Individualized Education Plan)
72
abbreviation for "with":
c with line over it
73
abbreviation for "Activity of Daily Living"
ADL
74
abbreviation for "complaining of"
c/o
75
abbreviation for "diagnosis"
dx
76
abbreviation for "Did Not Test"
DNT
77
abbreviation for "history" and "family history"
hx, f/h
78
abbreviation for "independent"
a circle with a capital i in it
79
abbreviation for "within normal limits"
WNL
80
abbreviation for "no known allergies"
NKA
81
abbreviation for "medical history"
m/h
82
abbreviation for "left" and "right"
circle with a capital L in it and circle with a capital R in it
83
abbreviation for "prognosis"
prog
84
abbreviation for "quality of life"
QOL
85
abbreviation for "patient"
pt
86
abbreviation for "range of motion"
ROM
87
abbreviation for "speech therapy'
ST
88
abbreviation for "treatment"
tx
89
abbreviation for "change"
a triangle
90
abbreviation for "signs and symptoms"
s/s
91
for a speech language sample you need a minimum of 50-100 __________
utterances
92
average rate of speech for an adult
220-410 words per minute
93
average rate of speech for a 1st grader
125 wpm
94
average rate of speech for a 5th grader
142 wpm
95
* number of errors * Types of errors * Inconsistency of errors * Vowel errors * Rate of speech * Atypical prosody * Length and linguistic complexity of words/utterances * Insufficient vocal intensity, voice disorders * Disfluencies * Lack of gestures * Testing environment * Client anxiety/fatigue * Client lack of familiarity with materials * Clinician’s ability to understand “less intelligible” speech * Clinician’s familiarity with client
factors that negatively influence speech intelligibility
96
* Correct/incorrect productions * Frequency of disfluency types * Specific language features * Circumlocutions or word-finding difficulties * Correct phonatory behaviors * Inappropriate behaviors * Ability of client to stay on task * Incorrect/correct behaviors/productions (+/-) * Each time a behavior is exhibited * Behaviors according to preselected criteria
what to chart when charting