Disorders of bone health including osteoporosis Flashcards

(68 cards)

1
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

Progressive skeletal disease characterised by low bone mass and microarchitectual deterioration of bone structure

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2
Q

Which sex gets osteoporosis more commonly?

A

Women

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3
Q

How does osteoporosis present?

A

Asymptomatic until fractures

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4
Q

Over which age is osteoporosis frequent?

A

50

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5
Q

What are the common osteoporotic fracture sites?

A

Neck of femur
Vertebral body
Distal radius
Humeral neck

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6
Q

What is the domino effect in relation to osteoporosis?

A

An increasing number of vertebral fractures due to osteoporosis causing progressive curvature of the spine

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7
Q

Where does bone remodelling occur?

A

Bone remodelling units

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8
Q

Describe bone remodelling

A

Osteoclasts begin to reabsorb bone at specific sites >
Osteoclasts replaced by osteoblasts which lay down osteoid >
Osteoid undergoes mineralisation to bone >
Resorptive cavity completely filled with new bone

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9
Q

How is bone remodelling altered in osteoporosis?

A

Reabsorption of bone occurs more than formation

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10
Q

How is osteoporotic bone architecture different from normal bone?

A

Large spaces and breaks

Weakened

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11
Q

Which factors are important in bone density?

A
Body weight
Genetics
Sex hormones 
Diet 
Exercise
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12
Q

Which factors contribute to bone density loss?

A
Lowered sex hormones (menopause)
Low body weight
Poor genetics
Calcium deficient diet 
Immobility 
Disease affecting bones
Drugs (e.g steroids)
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13
Q

How does bone density change with age?

A

Bone density increases until around 30
After 40 it begins to decline slowly
During and after menopause bone density loss is rapid and oestrogen deficiency can further perpetuate this

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14
Q

What are the non-modifiable risk factors for fragility fractures?

A
Age 
Gender
Ethnicity 
Previous fracture
Family history 
Early menopause (
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15
Q

What are the modifiable risk factors for fragility fractures?

A
Bone mineral density 
Alcohol
Low weight
Inactivity 
Diet 
Smoking 
Pharmacological (steroids)
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16
Q

Which diseases increase the risk factor for an osteoporotic fragility fracture?

A
Rheumatoid arthritis
Hyperthyroidism
Chronic liver disease
Hypogonadism
Diabetes
Dementia
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17
Q

Who should be risk assessed?

A

Patients over 50 with risk factors

Patients under 50 with serious risk factors (steroids, early menopause)

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18
Q

Who should be referred for a dexa bone scan?

A

High risk patients

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19
Q

How is bone mineral density measured?

A

DEXA bone scan

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20
Q

Is bone mineral density a dependent or independent risk factor for fragility fractures?

A

Independent

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21
Q

What is osteopenia?

A

Low bone density above 1 standard deviation below expected

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22
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

Low bone density over 2 and a half standard deviations below expected

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23
Q

What is severe osteoporosis?

A

Low bone density over 2 and a half standard deviations below expected + fragility fracture

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24
Q

How can osteoporosis be classified in patients younger than 20?

A

Using the z score

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25
As bone mineral density increases what happens to the risk of fracture?
Decreases
26
How should suspected osteoporosis be investigated?
``` U&E LFT Bone biochemistry FBC PV TSH Protein electrophoresis/bence jones proteins (myeloma) Coeliac antibodies Testosterone levels Vitamin D Parathyroid hormone ```
27
List some secondary causes of osteoporosis
``` Hyperthyroidism Hyperparathyroidism Cushing's disease Coeliac IBD Chronic liver disease Chronic pancreatitis Cystic fibrosis COPD Chronic kidney disease ```
28
What lifestyle changes can be helpful in the management of osteoporosis (not diet)?
``` Risk assessment for falls and prevention High intensity strength training Low intensity weight bearing Smoking cessation Avoidance of alcohol excess ```
29
What diet changes can be helpful in the management of osteoporosis?
2-3 portions of milk/dairy per day (700g) 3-4 portions of milk/dairy per day (1000g) post menopausal Non dairy sources (bread, fortified cereal, fish w/ bones, green veg, beans)
30
When are calcium and/or vitamin D supplements indicated?
Considered as risk reduction of non-vertebral fracture in patients at risk of deficiency due to diet or limited sunlight (housebound, cultural garb)
31
When should calcium not be taken?
Within two hours of oral biphosphonates
32
When would vitamin D alone be indicated?
When oral calcium intake is adequate
33
How do biphosphonates work?
Anti-resorptive agents - analogues of pyrophosphate that get absorbed onto bone and eaten by osteoclasts causing cell death and less reabsorption
34
Give two examples of biphosphonates
Alendronate | Risedronate
35
What do biphosphonates reduce the risk of?
Spine and hip fractures
36
When are biphosphonates indicated?
T score less than -2.5 | Existing fragility fracture
37
How long should biphosphonates be given for?
5 yr + | 10 yr + if vertebral fracture
38
What are the risks of long term biphosphonate use?
Osteonecrosis of the jaw Oesophageal carcinoma Atypical fractures
39
How is zoledronic acid given?
Once yearly IV infusion (5mg in 100ml NaCl) for 5 years
40
What is a common side effect of zoledronic acid and how can this be treated?
Influenza like symptoms (acute phase reaction) | Paracetamol
41
How does denosumab work?
Human monoclonal antibody targeting RANKL - inhibiting activation, development of osteoclasts and decreased reabsorption so increased density
42
How is denosumab administered?
Subcutaneous injections 6 monthly
43
Which osteoporosis drug can be administered in severe renal failure?
Denosumab
44
What are the side effects of denosumab?
Hypocalcaemia Eczema Cellulitis
45
What is strontium ranelate?
Antireabsorptive agent
46
When is strontium ranelate contraindicated?
Thromboembolic disease Ischaemic heart disease Peripheral artery disease Uncontrolled hypertension
47
When is strontium ranelate indicated?
When there is no other option
48
What is teriparatide?
Recombinant parathyroid hormone
49
How does teriparatide work?
Stimulates bone growth
50
When is teriparatide indicated?
Over 65 with T score -3.5 plus 2 fragility fractures | 55-64 with T score
51
When should patients be treated for osteoporosis?
Anti-resorptive therapy T score 7.5 for 3 months or more OR prevalent fracture and T score
52
What are the direct and indirect effects of corticosteroids on bone?
Direct - reduced osteoblast activity, suppression of osteoblast growth and reduction in calcium absorption Indirect - reduced gonadal and adrenal hormones
53
Are the fracture risks of glucocorticoids dose dependent?
Yes but no safe dose
54
What is Paget's disease?
Abnormal osteoclast activity followed by increased osteoblast activity resulting in weakened bone and increased fracture risk
55
What is the term for paget's at a single site? What about at multiple sites?
Monostotic | Polystotic
56
What is the aetiology of Paget's?
Unknown
57
Which bones does Paget's affect?
Long bones Pelvis Lumbar spine Skull
58
Which age group is affected by Paget's?
Over 55
59
How does Paget's disease present?
Bone pain Deformity Deafness Compression neuropathies
60
What is a rare complication of Paget's?
Osteosarcoma
61
How can Paget's be investigated?
X-ray Isotope bone scan Isolated raise on alkaline phosphate Normal LFTs
62
How is Paget's treated?
Analgesia +/- biphosphonates if not responding
63
What is osteogenesis imperfecta?
Group of autosomal dominant genetic conditions arising from mutations in type 1 collagen
64
How many types of osteogenesis imperfecta are there?
8 types Neonatal lethal - type 2 Very severe - type 3 and 4 Mild - type 1
65
What is osteogenesis imperfecta associated with?
Blue sclera | Dentinogenesis imperfecta
66
How do severe forms present?
Childhood fractures
67
How is osteogenesis imperfecta treated?
Fixation Surgery for deformity Biphosphonates
68
What is osteogenesis imperfecta an important differential of?
Non-accidental injury