DSM 5 Test C- Others

Question 1

6. When asked to attribute women’s and men’s performance on traditionally masculine and feminine tasks:
7. women attributed females’ performance to ability regardless of the type of task, while men attributed males’ performance to ability regardless of the type of task.
8. both women and men attributed males’ performance on masculine tasks and females’ performance on feminine tasks to ability, while attributing males’ performance on feminine tasks and females’ performance on masculine tasks to luck.
9. women and men attributed males’ success to ability regardless of the type of task, while they attributed females’ success to ability on feminine tasks, and to luck on masculine tasks.
10. women attributed females’ success to ability regardless of the type of task, while men attributed males’ success to ability on masculine tasks, and to luck on feminine tasks.

Answer 1

Correct Answer: 3. women and men attributed males’ success to ability regardless of the type of task, while they attributed females’ success to ability on feminine tasks, and to luck on masculine tasks.

Feedback: Research on sex role stereotypes has found that men are seen as more competent by both women and men. A study that looked at attributions found that the success of males was consistently attributed to ability regardless of the type of task, while the success of females was attributed to ability only on the traditionally female task, and to luck on the traditionally male task.

Question 2

9. The overjustification hypothesis is most closely related to:
10. internal and external locus of control.
11. intrinsic and extrinsic motivation.
12. ratio of inputs and outputs.
13. Gain-Loss Theory.

Answer 2

Correct Answer: 2. intrinsic and extrinsic motivation.

Why?
OVERJUSTIFICATION HYPOTHESIS
- based on research that found that offering external rewards or incentives for activities that had previously been intrinsically motivated, resulted in a subsequent decrease in interest in the rewarded activity.
- Example: rewarding kids who already enjoy reading leading to reduced interest in reading.

• Internal and external locus of control (Response 1) is a critical component in several attribution theories.
• Ratio of inputs and outputs (Response 3) specifically relates to Equity Theory, a cognitive theory of motivation.
• Gain-Loss Theory (Response 4) proposes that the people we like most are those who initially don’t like us and then change their perspective to come to like us. This phenomenon ostensibly results from the feeling that we have gained something.

Question 3

12. The earliest age of operations is:
13. 2 years.
14. 4 years.
15. 7 years.
16. 11 years.

Answer 3

Correct Answer: 3. 7 years.

Why?
Piaget described 4 stages leading up to the capacity for adult thought:
- Sensorimotor
- Preoperational (starts at age 2)
- Concrete Operational (7-11 y.o.) - involves beginning of organized and logical thought. Aquire ability to comprehend the principle of conservation and order events in a logical sequence. Can only think about physical (concrete) objects- have not yet developed the capacity for abstract reasoning. T
- Formal Operational (can begin at age 11)

Question 4

14. A therapist of which of the following orientations would be most likely to self-disclose?
15. A feminist psychotherapist.
16. A classical psychoanalyst.
17. A cognitive-behavioral therapist.
18. A community psychologist.

Answer 4

Correct Answer: 1. A feminist psychotherapist.

Why?

• Feminist psychotherapists use self-disclosure as one means to discourage the client from adopting the typical dependent patient role.
• Self-disclosure is not specifically associated with cognitive-behaviorist or community psychologist approaches (thought they may do this sometimes- it is not prohibited).
• A classical psychoanalyst would be least likely to self-disclose, preferring to be a “blank screen.”

Question 5

15. A lesion to which of the following structures might result in disturbances of sleep?
16. Thalamus.
17. Hypothalamus.
18. Hippocampus.
19. Amygdala.

Answer 5

Correct Answer: 2. Hypothalamus.

Feedback: The brain structure significantly involved in the sleep-wake cycle is the hypothalamus. The hypothalamus regulates many homeostatic functions in addition to the sleep-wake cycle, including temperature, hunger, and aggression. The thalamus (Response 1) is a sensory relay center, receiving input from all our senses except smell. The hippocampus (Response 3) primarily functions to consolidate experiences into long-term memories. The amygdala (Response 4) attaches emotional significant to sensory input; it is strongly implicated in the startle response, aggression, and emotional memory.

Question 6

20. A group of students apply for entrance to a high school for performing arts. As part of the admission process they are required to take a multiple-choice exam designed to assess creativity. After taking the exam the students complain that the exam does not actually measure their talents in the performing arts. These students are complaining about the exam’s:
21. face validity.
22. content validity.
23. construct validity.
24. criterion-related validity.

Answer 6

Correct Answer: 1. face validity.

Why?

• Face validity is not validity in the technical sense.
• Face validity refers to what the test appears superficially to measure- whether the test “looks valid” to the examinees who take it, to technically untrained observers, etc.
• Assessment of content validity is determined through such tasks as a job analysis, and with the input of a panel of experts (Response 2).
• Construct validity looks at how well a test measures an underlying construct (e.g., creativity) using such methods as factor analysis or the multi-trait, multi-method matrix (Response 3).
• Criterion-related validity looks at how well a test predicts criterion outcome, by correlating scores on the predictor test with a measure of outcome (Response 4).

Question 7

23. In order to gain admittance to Elite Prep, an applicant must score high on all five sections of the entrance exam. This type of scoring is termed:
24. additive.
25. compensatory.
26. nomothetic.
27. conjunctive.

Answer 7

Correct Answer: 4. conjunctive.

Why? (hard question- so can use process of elimination)
- In Conjunctive Scoring each score is looked at individually (and must be above a certain cutoff in this scenario). One low score = fail entrance exam. This method of scoring is also known as a multiple cutoff procedure.

• This is a difficult question, that can be approached using a process of elimination.
• In additive scoring (Response 1), each score contributes to a final score, and higher scores serve to offset lower scores. Such scoring does not apply to this scenario because each score is looked at individually and must be above the passing cutoff. Additive scoring is compensatory (Response 2), in that higher scores compensate for the lower scores.
• Nomothetic (Response 3) is a term that refers to studying groups as opposed to individuals; it’s not a concept relevant to scoring.

Question 8

24. One area of emphasis in Maslow’s theory is on needs that are:
25. social.
26. psychological.
27. emotional.
28. motivators.

Answer 8

Correct Answer: 1. social.

Maslow’s need hierarchy has five levels of needs:

1. physiological
2. safety
3. belonging and love (specifically described as social needs by Maslow)
4. esteem
5. self-actualization

Question 9

25. According to Peter Lewinsohn, depression results from:
26. low rates of behavior.
27. too much punishment.
28. cognitive distortions.
29. deficits in serotonin.

Answer 9

Correct Answer: 1. low rates of behavior.

Why?

• Lewinsohn is a behaviorist who argues that depression is caused by a low rate of behavior, and all other symptoms of depression result from this initial low rate of behavior. Initial low rate of behavior is the result of a lack of reinforcement from the environment.
• BEHAVIORAL ACTIVATION -developed by Lewinsohn and colleagues, an evidenced-based treatment for depression that increases pleasant activities. Based on the principle of teaching depressed patients how to elicit higher rates of reinforcement from the environment, which thereby increases rates of behavior, and reduces depression.

Question 10

27. When an individual is not legally capable of giving informed consent, and governmental regulations prohibit securing consent from a legally authorized person, a psychologist should:
28. refrain from providing therapy or assessment services.
29. take reasonable steps to protect the individual’s rights and welfare.
30. substitute the individual’s assent for consent.
31. secure consent from the institution in which the therapy or assessment services are to be provided.

Answer 10

Correct Answer: 2. take reasonable steps to protect the individual’s rights and welfare.

Feedback: In general, when an individual lacks the legal capacity to give consent, psychologists should still provide the individual with an explanation, seek assent (Response 3), consider the individual’s best interests, and obtain permission from a legally authorized individual. According to the 2002 APA Ethics Code, when obtaining permission from a legally authorized person is prohibited, psychologists should “take reasonable steps to protect the individual’s rights and welfare.” Psychologists do not have to refrain from providing services (Response 1). Institutions (Response 4) often give approval or authorization for services, but they cannot give “consent.”

Question 11

29. According to classical conditioning an attitude could be considered:
30. an unconditioned stimulus.
31. an unconditioned response.
32. a conditioned stimulus.
33. a conditioned response.

Answer 11

Correct Answer: 4. a conditioned response.

Why?

• An attitude is a response that is conditioned over time (e.g., prejudice toward Gays and Lesbians)- so not automatic and unconditioned.
• An attitude is not universal like most unconditioned responses are (i.e., everyone experiences pain when shocked but everyone doesn’t have the same attitude toward Gays and Lesbians).

Question 12

33. Two people work in the customer service department at a telephone company. On a daily basis, one handles about twice as many customer complaints as the other. According to predictions of Equity Theory, the one who handles more complaints is most likely to:
34. increase performance further.
35. ask for a raise.
36. leave the field of customer service.
37. transfer to another telephone company.

Answer 12

Correct Answer: 2. ask for a raise.

Why? Equity Theory

• looks at the ratio of one’s inputs/outcomes vs. others’ inputs/outcomes.
• Inequity is believed to be a motivating state that causes people to adjust their performance until the ratios appear fair.
• Here, the employee who works harder is likely to attempt to increase her outcomes (salary) to match her inputs (amount of work that she does). Alternatively, she may reduce her inputs (amount of work) to match her outcomes (salary).

Question 13

36. A CEO is confronted by the need to reduce his company’s budget deficit. He is following the rational-economic model, also known as classical decision theory, if he:
37. adopts a “satisficing” style.
38. implements the first proposal that is adequate.
39. examines all possible solutions before choosing one.
40. relies on the principles of scientific management.

Answer 13

Correct Answer: 3. examines all possible solutions before choosing one.

Feedback: The rational-economic model, also known as classical decision theory, involves exhaustively compiling all relevant information, investigating all possible solutions, and choosing the very best one. Not surprisingly, it is rarely implemented because of practical limitations of time and information-gathering. Responses 1 and 2 characterize the administrative model of decision making, also known as behavioral decision theory, which was developed by Herbert Simon. This model is based on a recognition of real-life limits. Response 4 does not apply here. Scientific management was an approach used in the early 1900s to increase workers’ productivity and efficiency.

Question 14

47. Regarding the negative effects of divorce, research has shown that:
48. it may not appear to affect younger children but its effects show themselves during adolescence.
49. there is no difference between its effects on younger and older children.
50. negative effects are minimized if parents are open about conflicts between them.
51. most children and adolescents tend not to suffer long-lasting negative effects.

Answer 14

Correct Answer: 4. most children and adolescents tend not to suffer long-lasting negative effects.

Why?
-Research into the impact of divorce indicates that initial recovery may take children from three to five years. Ultimately, about 2/3 of these children do not suffer long-lasting negative effects.

• Negative effects are more likely to occur if the parents argue openly in front of the children (ruling out Response 3).
• The short-term and long-term effects differ depending on the age of the children at the time of the divorce (ruling out Response 2)
• Younger children initially demonstrate poorer adjustment than adolescents, however, children who are older at the time of divorce appear to have more significant problems later in life (ruling out Responses 1 and 2).

Question 15

50. A patient with a lesion in the left inferior frontal area is most likely to exhibit impairments in:
51. speech fluency.
52. speech comprehension.
53. proprioception.
54. memory.

Answer 15

Correct Answer: 1. speech fluency.

Why?
Broca’s area is located in the left frontal lobe, which controls the muscles that produce speech. Broca’s aphasia, which results from damage to this area, includes difficulties with speech production and fluency.

• Difficulties in speech comprehension (Response 2) would result from damage to Wernicke’s area, located in the temporal lobes.
• Impairment in proprioception (Response 3) would result from damage to the parietal lobes.
• Memory problems (Response 4) would result from damage to several areas, including the frontal lobes, hippocampus, and the temporal lobes.

Question 16

51. With regard to predicting violent behavior in forensic testimony:
52. psychologists can accurately predict violent behavior based on instruments designed for this purpose.
53. it is unethical to make predictions regarding future violent behavior.
54. psychologists can accurately predict violent behavior based on clinical judgment.
55. there is widespread disagreement about psychologists’ ability to make predictions about future violent behavior.

Answer 16

Correct Answer: 4. there is widespread disagreement about psychologists’ ability to make predictions about future violent behavior.

Feedback: There is widespread disagreement in the field regarding clinicians’ abilities to predict violent behavior using either instruments (Response 1) or clinical judgment (Response 3). It is not unethical to predict violent behavior (Response 2), however, it is crucial that a psychologist use caution when making such predictions, and discuss the likelihood of error involved in the predictions.

Question 17

56. A psychologist administers an MMPI to a patient, then sends the MMPI to a test scoring and interpretation service. Her patient complains about the report, and it is later revealed that the report was actually based on another person’s MMPI results. Primary responsibility for the inaccurate interpretations and evaluations made in the report falls with:
57. the publishing company.
58. the test scoring and interpretation service.
59. the employee at the scoring and interpretation service who mixed up the two patients’ MMPI data.
60. the psychologist who wrote up the report.

Answer 17

Correct Answer: 4. the psychologist who wrote up the report.

Why?

• Ethics guidelines state that psychologists retain ultimate responsibility for the use and interpretation of assessment instruments.
• This is true regardless of whether they score and interpret the tests themselves or use interpretation services (Response 4), so neither the company who scores the report (Response 2) nor its employees (Response 3) are primarily responsible for the inaccurate assessment report.
• The company that publishes the MMPI (Response 1) would have no responsibility whatsoever in this situation.

Question 18

62. You are asked by the court to conduct a custody evaluation for a nine-year-old child. The mother agrees to participate but the father declines. Your best course of action would be to:
63. conduct an evaluation with custody recommendations, based on the data of the participating parent only.
64. conduct an evaluation and report on the information gathered, but do not make any custody recommendations.
65. conduct an evaluation with custody recommendations, stating the limitations of the data.
66. refuse to conduct a custody evaluation if all parties cannot be evaluated.

Answer 18

Correct Answer: 3. conduct an evaluation with custody recommendations, stating the limitations of the data.

Why?
- Still controversial regarding if its cool to make custody recs vs simply report findings, BUT Current APA guidelines permit making recommendations, if “they are derived from sound psychological data” and are “based on the best interests of the child in the particular case.”

• A custody evaluation can be conducted even if one parent refuses or is unavailable (ruling out Response 4). Can include data about that parent (e.g., that he has been convicted of murder or that the child cries and asks not to see him) but cannot make conclusions about that parent’s psychological functioning if that parent has not been personally evaluated.
• Recommendations can still be made (ruling out Response 2), for example, that the mother should receive custody because she is a fit mother, the child is scared of being with the father, and the child needs a stable environment.
• The data of one participating parent (Response 1) is never sufficient for a custody evaluation. Multiple methods of data gathering are required, typically including evaluations of the parent, the child, observation of their interactions, and record review.

Question 19

63. Family therapy based in part on social learning theory is most likely to focus on:
64. hierarchy and boundaries.
65. circular questioning and hypothesis formation.
66. differentiation and lack of differentiation in the family structure.
67. communication problems and deficient reward exchanges.

Answer 19

Correct Answer: 4. communication problems and deficient reward exchanges.

Feedback:

• Behavioral marital therapy is rooted in both social learning theory and behavioral analysis. This theory contends that normal family functioning results when adaptive behavior is rewarded, maladaptive behavior is not reinforced, and benefits of being a member of the family outweigh costs.
• Pathology results from maladaptive behavior that is reinforced by family attention and reward, from deficient reward exchanges, and from communication deficits.

Process of elimination method:

• Structural family therapists, such as Minuchin, focus on hierarchies, boundaries, and subsystems (Response 1).
• Circular questioning and hypothesis formation (Response 2) are techniques in Systemic Family Therapy (Milan group).
• Differentiation issues are the critical focus of Bowen’s Family Systems therapy (Response 3).

Question 20

64. Freud’s phallic stage corresponds to which of Erikson’s stages?
65. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt.
66. Initiative vs. guilt.
67. Trust vs. mistrust.
68. Industry vs. inferiority.

Answer 20

Correct Answer: 2. Initiative vs. guilt.

Why?

• Phallic stage (btw age 3 and 6) corresponds to Erikson’s stage of “Initiative vs Guilt.”
• Anal stage (ages 1 to 3) corresponds to “Autonomy vs Shame and Doubt” (Response 1)
• Oral stage (1st year of life) corresponds to “Trust vs Mistrust”
• Latency stage (ages 6 to 12) corresponds to “Industry vs Inferiority”

Question 21

65. A person’s sleep is repeatedly interrupted at the onset of dream activity. This is likely to result in:
66. an absence of dreaming on subsequent nights.
67. resumption of normal dream activity on subsequent nights.
68. an increase in dream activity on subsequent nights.
69. a further reduction of dream activity on subsequent nights.

Answer 21

Correct Answer: 3. an increase in dream activity on subsequent nights.

Feedback: Following dream deprivation there is a rebound effect. On subsequent nights the person will have an increase in time spent dreaming.

Question 22

68. In Donald Kirkpatrick’s training evaluation model there are four levels of evaluation. Which of the following is not one of these levels?
69. Reaction of the student.
70. Instructor effectiveness.
71. Behavior.
72. Results.

Answer 22

Correct Answer: 2. Instructor effectiveness.

Why?

• Donald Kirkpatrick’s model had 4 levels to assess training effectiveness:
  1. REACTIONS (what student thought and felt about the training received)
  2. LEARNING (increase in skills and knowledge)
  3. BEHAVIOR/TRANSFER (extent to which skills/knowledge are actually used in everyday environment)
  4. RESULTS (effects on business as a result of the training- e.g. income)

Instructor effectiveness (Response 2) is not one of the levels of Kirkpatrick’s training evaluation model.

Question 23

82. Which of the following most accurately describes Bayes’ Theorem?
83. The relation among various conditional probabilities.
84. A theorem of cultural identity development.
85. A theorem of sexual identity development.
86. A biopsychosocial model relating stress to biological and psychological functioning.

Answer 23

Correct Answer: 1. The relation among various conditional probabilities.

Feedback: From some distant galaxy, Bayes’ Theorem is a statistical probability theorem, which describes the likelihood of certain occurrences given the likelihood of other occurrences.

Question 24

83. The focus of aversive counterconditioning is on modifying the:
84. unconditioned stimulus.
85. unconditioned response.
86. conditioned stimulus.
87. conditioned response.

Answer 24

Correct Answer: 4. conditioned response.

Feedback: The focus in aversive counterconditioning is on weakening the conditioned response (CR), typically a maladaptive response, by strengthening an incompatible response, which then becomes the new CR. For example, lighting a cigarette (the CS) is paired with a strong US (nausea), which automatically elicits a negative response (disgust) that is incompatible with the old CR of pleasure. Over several conditioning trials, lighting the cigarette triggers the new CR of disgust.

Question 25

91. You note that a patient relies heavily on the defense mechanism of projection. She would most likely also exhibit:
92. paranoid symptoms.
93. depressive symptoms.
94. anxiety symptoms.
95. la belle indifference.

Answer 25

Correct Answer: 1. paranoid symptoms.

Feedback: Projection is the defense mechanism believed to underlie paranoid symptoms (Response 1, correct answer). In projection, the patient takes his own angry and aggressive feelings, projects them onto others, and then feels that others are out to get him or her. La belle indifference (Response 4) is a description of the unconcerned attitude toward symptoms that has been noted in some patients with conversion disorder.

Question 26

94. A child is playing with toy dinosaurs. One of the dinosaurs falls off the table, and the child asks if the dinosaur is hurt and in pain. This response is characteristic of which stage in Piaget’s theory?
95. Concrete operational.
96. Preoperational.
97. Sensorimotor.
98. Formal operational.

Answer 26

Correct Answer: 2. Preoperational.

Feedback: Animism is characteristic of the preoperational stage of development (ages 2 to 7), in which the child thinks and reasons intuitively and employs magical thinking. In the concrete operational stage (Response 1), the child uses logical thought processes and operates on the real and perceivable world of objects (ages 7 to 11). The sensorimotor stage (Response 3) involves sensory observation, as well as the exploration and manipulation of the environment (birth to 2). The formal operational stage (Response 4) is characterized by the ability to think abstractly and reason deductively (11 years and beyond).

Question 27

100. In extreme cases, abrupt cessation of benzodiazepines (e.g., Xanax, Valium) can be life threatening. More commonly, signs of acute withdrawal include:
101. rebound anxiety.
102. slurred speech and incoordination.
103. fever and diarrhea.
104. dysphoric mood.

Answer 27

Correct Answer: 1. rebound anxiety.

Feedback: Abrupt cessation of a benzodiazepine can lead to some of the characteristic symptoms of sedative, hypnotic and anxiolytic withdrawal. One of these symptoms is anxiety. Additional symptoms include autonomic hyperactivity, hand tremor, insomnia, nausea or vomiting, psychomotor agitation, and grand mal seizures. Slurred speech and incoordination (Response 2) is included among the diagnostic criteria for sedative, hypnotic and anxiolytic intoxication. Fever and diarrhea can occur with opioid withdrawal (Response 3). Dysphoric mood is a hallmark of cocaine and/or amphetamine withdrawal, although it can occur with other syndromes, such as opioid withdrawal (Response 4).

Question 28

110. What is most essential in Beck’s Cognitive Behavioral Therapy?
111. Hypothesis testing.
112. Modifying behavioral contingencies.
113. Collaborative empiricism.
114. The ABC model.

Answer 28

Correct Answer: 3. Collaborative empiricism.

Feedback: The fundamental process underlying Beck’s Cognitive Behavioral Therapy is collaborative empiricism. In collaborative empiricism (Response 3), the therapist encourages the patient to maintain an open mind and take a rational approach to thoughts and beliefs using principles of logic and the scientific method. One belief-testing strategy is hypothesis testing (Response 1), in which the patient tries to see if a belief (the hypothesis) is true by testing its validity in the real world; however, this is only part of collaborative empiricism. Other collaborative strategies include: guided discovery, supporting through evidence, and looking for alternative theories. The process of modifying behavioral contingencies (Response 2) is a cornerstone of operant conditioning. The ABC model (Response 4) is a key component of Albert Ellis’s theory (Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy) of how behaviors are related to cognitions. According to Ellis first there is the activating event (A), then there is the belief (B) or interpretation of the event, and finally there is a consequence (C) in terms of an emotional or behavioral reaction to the belief.

Question 29

111. A woman brings in her 92-year-old mother, concerned that she may have Alzheimer’s disease. She states that her mother takes longer to respond when the phone rings, is “painfully slow” when cooking, has trouble remembering names, and speaks in a more verbose and repetitious manner. The mother simply says, “I’m fine. She’s just a worry wart.” At this point, your most likely assessment would be that:
112. these symptoms are probably normal changes associated with aging.
113. these symptoms are probably signs of early Alzheimer’s disease.
114. these symptoms are probably signs of a neurocognitive disorder due to vascular disease.
115. these symptoms are probably signs of pseudodementia.

Answer 29

Correct Answer: 1. these symptoms are probably normal changes associated with aging.

Feedback: For a woman of 92 years of age, all of the symptoms listed are normal changes associated with aging (Response 1, correct answer) and shouldn’t raise suspicion of a neurocognitive disorder either due to Alzheimer’s disease (Response 2) or due to vascular disease (Response 3). Pseudodementia (Response 4) occurs when the associated features of a depression mimic symptoms of a dementia. Typically, individuals with pseudodementia present as somewhat depressed, complain of memory problems and may even have an exaggerated fear of cognitive decline.

Question 30

114. Behavior occurs in a random fashion. If a behavior is followed by a pleasurable consequence, it is strengthened. If a behavior is followed by a negative consequence, it is less likely to occur in the future. This theory was proposed by:
115. Tolman.
116. Watson.
117. Skinner.
118. Thorndike.

Answer 30

Correct Answer: 4. Thorndike.

Feedback: These statements describe Thorndike’s Law of Effect. Thorndike later revised this law by dropping the last part regarding negative consequences. Tolman (Response 1) proposed that behavior is purposive and can occur without reinforcement. He also stated that learning can occur without being manifest in outward behavior (latent learning). Watson (Response 2) proposed that all human behavior stems from classical conditioning. He is famous for his work with Little Albert. Skinner (Response 3) believed that all behavior is shaped, caused, and maintained by consequences. His theory followed Thorndike’s Law of Effect.

Question 31

120. A psychologist would like to conduct a case study on a woman who is institutionalized and has a conservator. Before conducting the study, the psychologist must:
121. get the consent of the conservator and explain the nature of the research to the patient.
122. get the consent of the conservator and assent from the institution.
123. get the consent of the conservator and the patient’s assent.
124. get consent from the patient and the conservator’s assent.

Answer 31

Correct Answer: 3. get the consent of the conservator and the patient’s assent.

Why?

• When a person does not have the legal capacity to give informed consent (like someone on conservatorship), the psychologist must obtain consent from the legal guardian and assent from the patient.
• Response 4 is inaccurate because the patient lacks the legal capacity necessary for informed consent.
• Responses 1 and 2 are incomplete since they do not include obtaining the patient’s assent.
• Response 2 is also incorrect because the researcher would not obtain assent from the institution but rather permission.

“Assent” is a specific term used when people who lack legal capacity agree to therapy or participation in research.

Question 32

123. The M’Naghten Rule is most directly related to
124. incompetence to stand trial.
125. the insanity defense (b/c feels the most ‘familiar’)
126. abuse of minors.
127. involuntary hospitalization.

Answer 32

Correct Answer: 2. the insanity defense.

Feedback: In re M’Naghten (1843), the insanity defense was used successfully. M’Naghten, who had schizophrenia, believed there was a plot against him. He shot and fatally wounded the secretary of England’s Prime Minister, under the belief that he was actually shooting the Prime Minister. When M’Naghten reached trial, his attorneys pleaded that he should be acquitted because he was obviously insane and did not understand what he was doing. This ruling still provides the basis for the insanity defense in most states in the U.S.

Question 33

124. According to Gestalt therapy, introjection results in:
125. unexamined values and beliefs.
126. suspiciousness.
127. lack of awareness of conflicts.
128. possible self-harming behaviors.

Answer 33

Correct Answer: 1. unexamined values and beliefs.

Feedback: The Gestalt therapists Polster and Polster have delineated several boundary disturbances.

• Introjection involves taking in what others say whole, without one’s own critical analysis. It results in naiveté, and unexamined values and beliefs.
• Projection results in suspiciousness (Response 2).
• Confluence results in lack of awareness of conflicts (Response 3)
• Retroflection involves turning on oneself the behavior and emotions one wants to inflict on others, which can include self-harm (Response 4).

Question 34

141. A parent tells his child, “Clean up your toys,” to which she responds, “Clean up your toys.” This is an example of:
142. echopraxia.
143. echolalia.
144. echokinesis.
145. palilalia.

Answer 34

Correct Answer: 2. echolalia.

Feedback: Echolalia is defined as the parrot-like repetition of words or phrases spoken by others.

• occurs as part of language development in typical children, and can also be a symptom of autism.
• Palilalia (Response 4) refers to the repetition of one’s own words, sounds, or phrases.
• Echopraxia (Response 1) and echokinesis (Response 3) are both defined as imitating or repeating the movements of another person.

Question 35

144. According to the DSM-5, which of the following is true about autism spectrum disorder?
145. Its onset is in the early developmental period, prognosis is best with functional language before age 5, and it is two times more common in males.
146. Its onset is in the early developmental period, prognosis is best with absence of intellectual impairment, and it is four times more common in males.
147. Its onset is prior to age 3, prognosis is best with functional language before age 5, and it is two times more common in males.
148. Its onset is prior to age 3, prognosis is best with absence of intellectual impairment, and it is four times more common in males.

Answer 35

Correct Answer: 2. Its onset is in the early developmental period, prognosis is best with absence of intellectual impairment, and it is four times more common in males.

Why?

• Autism spectrum disorder (ASD) is a new disorder in the DSM-5 that encompasses autistic disorder, Asperger’s disorder, and childhood disintegrative disorder. The essential features of autism spectrum disorder include:
  a) persistent deficits in social communication and social interaction across multiple contexts
  b) restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior, interests, or activities.
• symptoms must be present in the early developmental period (no age is specified)
• prognosis is best with an absence of intellectual impairment and functional language by age 5
• male to female ratio is 4:1

Question 36

157. A woman who was in treatment with a psychology intern becomes involved in a legal proceeding. The woman’s treatment records are subpoenaed. Who exercises privilege in this situation?
158. The client.
159. The psychology intern.
160. The supervisor.
161. The court.

Answer 36

Correct Answer: 1. The client.

Why?

• The term privilege refers to the CLIENT’S RIGHT to keep confidential information from being released in legal proceedings.
• CLIENT= HOLDER OF PRIVILEGE unless client is a minor or under legal conservatorship.
• client EXERCISES privilege- decides whether confidential info should be released

Intern does not hold the privilege so cannot exercise privilege. BUT the intern can ASSERT PRIVILEGE ON THE CLIENT’S behalf (ask to be released from the subpoena on the basis of the client’s right of privilege). (Response 2)

When privilege is asserted, the court (Response 4) holds a hearing to determine if privilege should be upheld. Court has the authority to OVERRULE the client’s privilege rights. If the court issues a court order for the release of the records, the psychology intern has to comply.

In this situation, the supervisor’s (Response 3) only role would be to provide supervision to the psychology intern.

Question 37

161. Which of the following approaches is indicated when treating African American clients?
162. Multi-systems.
163. Object relations.
164. Cognitive-behavioral.
165. Structural family therapy.

Answer 37

Correct Answer: 1. Multi-systems.

Why?

• Some theorists recommend a multi-systems approach when treating African Americans.
• This approach takes into consideration that there are many intersecting systems that affect the lives of African Americans (e.g., family, political process, social services, etc.).
• In particular, it ensures an appreciation for political and sociocultural variables.

Question 38

165. All of the following are sources of resilience, the ability to overcome adversity and lead a positive life, except:
166. Sociability.
167. Internal locus of control.
168. A large immediate family.
169. Support outside the family.

Answer 38

Correct Answer: 3. A large immediate family.

Why?

• Resilience = ability to avoid negative outcomes despite being at risk for psychopathology (e.g., growing up in poverty).
• Research has found that resilience is largely linked to the resources and strengths of the individual, the family, the school and community.
• INDIVIDUAL resources sociability (Response 1), good reasoning ability, autonomy, internal locus of control (Response 2).
• FAMILIAL factors- structure, clear rules, and routine, as well as smaller family size and at least two years between siblings.
• COMMUNITY- support outside the family (Response 4), such as a supportive neighbor, elder, relative, teacher, or clergy.

Question 39

169. The parents of your nine-year-old client report that their daughter has a major illness, one which is not known to her pediatrician but which could affect her treatment with you. What would be the most appropriate course of action?
170. Tell the parents that they must inform the pediatrician about her illness.
171. Notify the pediatrician.
172. Obtain a release of information and talk to the pediatrician.
173. Tell the parents you cannot provide any further treatment unless the girl gets treatment for her condition.

Answer 39

Correct Answer: 3. Obtain a release of information and talk to the pediatrician.

Why?

• very best answer is not provided, but would be to explore with the parents why they have not told the pediatrician about their daughter’s illness, and to discuss with them why it would be beneficial to inform the pediatrician about her condition.
• Of the responses provided, the best is Response 3, obtaining the parents’ permission to talk to the pediatrician.
• It is generally inadvisable to tell clients or parents of clients what they must do (Response 1).
• No indication of immediate dange (e.g. child abuse or suicidality), so cannot breach confidentiality by Notifying the pediatrician (Response 2) without a release of information.
• Refusing to provide further treatment (Response 4) would constitute abandonment, and would not be in the best interest of the child.

Question 40

170. When a worker enjoys the type of work that he does, one would most likely expect to see:
171. increased work quantity.
172. improved work quality.
173. decreased tardiness and missed days.
174. improved working relationships.

Answer 40

Correct Answer: 3. decreased tardiness and missed days.

Feedback: The research has shown that there is a moderate negative relationship between satisfaction and absenteeism and turnover (-.40); that is, when satisfaction is high, absenteeism is low. In this question, the worker enjoys his work, or is satisfied with it, therefore, you can expect that he will be absent or late less often. Work quantity and quality (Responses 1 and 2) are measures of work performance. The relationship between satisfaction and performance is weak (.17) and smaller than that between satisfaction and absenteeism and tardiness. Even though a worker who is happy with his job may indeed have good peer relationships (Response 4), improved peer relationships is not the variable most strongly correlated with job satisfaction.

Question 41

172. A researcher would use LISREL, a form of structural equation modeling, in an attempt to:
173. test a causal model of relationships among variables.
174. derive a causal model of relationships among variables.
175. determine whether underlying variables are latent or manifest.
176. determine the non-linear relationship between multiple IVs and multiple DVs.

Answer 41

Correct Answer: 1. test a causal model of relationships among variables.

Why?
LInear Structural RELations (LISREL), is a computer program that can determine whether a given causal model of relationships among variables is correct.
-It does not generate a causal model (Response 2).
- Although LISREL does make distinctions between latent (unobserved) and manifest (observed) variables, it is not used to determine whether a specific variable is latent or manifest. The experimenter must make this determination as part of the causal model.
- Response 4 is wrong because LISREL = LINEAR Structural RELations… only analyzes linear relationships. It is able, however, to look at direct and indirect effects, as well as both unidirectional and bi-directional paths.

Question 42

176. The Kappa coefficient would be used to express:
177. interrater reliability.
178. test-retest reliability.
179. parallel forms reliability.
180. internal consistency reliability.

Answer 42

Correct Answer: 1. interrater reliability.

Why?
Kappa coefficient is a measure of interrater reliability (degree of agreement between raters on an instrument that is subjectively scored). Other measures of interrater reliability include:
percent agreement between raters, Pearson r between scores given by the raters, and Yule’s Y.
- Test-retest reliability (Response 2) is typically expressed by the coefficient of stability.
- Parallel forms reliability (Response 3) is typically expressed by the coefficient of equivalence.
- Internal consistency reliability (Response 4) is measured by Kuder-Richardson and Cronbach’s coefficient alpha

Question 43

187. Which of the following statements regarding Organizational Development (OD) is not true?
188. OD interventions are based on systems theory.
189. OD interventions focus on relationships.
190. OD interventions are designed to help employees adapt to unanticipated organizational changes.
191. A goal of OD is increased performance.

Answer 43

Correct Answer: 3. OD interventions are designed to help employees adapt to unanticipated organizational changes. Feedback: Organizational development (OD) focuses on systematic ways to bring about planned change; its purpose is not to help employees adapt to unanticipated changes. OD uses a systems approach to organizational problems, and its interventions focus on total organizational change (Response 1). OD looks at such factors as communication, interaction, and team building, which address relationships among employees (Response 2). One goal of OD is increased task performance (Response 4). Other goals include improved decision-making, communication, and interactions among employees.

Question 44

193. A child is playing with toy dinosaurs. One of the dinosaurs falls off the table, and the child asks if the dinosaur is hurt and in pain. The child’s reaction is an example of:
194. phenomenalistic causality.
195. animation.
196. egocentricity.
197. animism.

Answer 44

Correct Answer: 4. animism.

Why?
Animism= endowing inanimate objects with human attributes.
- Phenomenalistic causality (Response 1) is a type of magical thinking in which events that occur together are thought to cause one another.
- Egocentricity (Response 3) involves the child’s inability to take the perspective of another person.
- Animation (Response 2) = making cartoons and is not a concept in Piaget’s theory.