Equine Dentistry and Diseases of the Head Flashcards

(111 cards)

1
Q

What can dental disease result in for horses?

A
  • Oral pain and discomfort
  • Weight loss
  • Predisposition for certain colics
  • Secondary disease process- sinusitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What type of teeth do horses have?

A

Hypsodont- long crowned

Erupt 2mm/year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a horses deciduous and permanent dental formula?

A

Deciduous- [I 3/3, C 0/0, M 3/3] x2 = 24

Permanent- [I3/3, C1/1 or 0/0, PM 3/3 or 4/4, M3/3] x2 = 36-44

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which first number of 1, 2, 3 or 4 identifited which quadrant of a horse mouth with the triadan system?

A

100- upper right /5

200- upper left/ 6

300- lower left/ 7

400- lower right/ 8

/ deciduous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When do horses deciduous and permanent incisors erupt and show wear?

A

Deciduous Incisors-
Central- 1 week
Middle- 6 weeks
Corner- 6-9 months

Central permanent- 2.5 years, in wear 3 years
Middle permanent- 3.5 years, in wear 4 years
Corner permanent- 4.5 years, in wear 5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When do canines and wolf teeth erupt in horses?

A

Canine-
No deciduous precursor
Erupt- 5 years
Males- occasionally females

Wolf teeth-
No deciduous
Erupt- 1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When do horses premolars and molars erupt?

A

Premolars 06, 07 and 08 present at birth no deciduous molars

06- 2.5 years
07- 3.5 years
08- 4 years
09- 1 year
10- 2 years
11- 3.5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What anatomical differences can be identified on different age of horses?

A

The infundibulum

Secondary dentine

Amount and presence depends on age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are each of the arrows pointing too?

How do maxillary and mandibular cheek teeth differ?

A

Arrows-
Top left- enamel
Top right- peripheral cementum
Bottom left- primary dentine
Bottom right- irregular secondary dentine/regular secondary dentine

Maxillary CT- 2 infundibulae, wide ‘square’

Mandibular CT- no infundibulae, narrow ‘rectangular’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are pulp horns?

How many does each cheek tooth have at least, which have more?

A

Pulp horns are an area of pigmented secondary dentine on the occlusal surface, protects underlying pulp

Every cheek tooth have at least 5
06s- have extra rostrally
11s- extra 1-2 caudally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How many roots do maxillary/mandibular cheek teeth have?

Where are the roots found?

What happens if the teeth become infected?

A

Maxillary- 3 roots- 2 lateral, 1 palatal
Mandibular- 2- rostral and caudal

06, 07- root end in maxillary bone
08, 09- rostral maxillary sinus
10, 11- caudal maxillary sinus

Teeth infection- facial swelling/draining tracts, malodorous smell/ nasal discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is anisognathia?

A

Differing upper and lower jaw width

Maxillary cheek teeth are further apart then mandibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are some normal anatomical variations of horses dentistry?

A

Curvature of the maxilla- widest 08-10
Implications- tack, removing buccal overgrowths

Curve of spee- more prononced in Arabs, care removing caudal 11 overgrowths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is needed for a equine dental examination?

A

Appropriate area

+/- sedation

Dental equipment

Gloves

recording sheets

+/- head stand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What should be done in an initial examination of a horse?

A
  • Thorough history- recent weight loss, colic
  • Watch horse eat- normal sounds, both sides, time
  • Clinical exam- underlying disease, swellings, halitosis, nasal discharge
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What dental equipment is needed for oral examination?

A

Gag
Light source
Dental mirror
Dental syringe
Pulpar explorer
Periodontal probe
Diastema forceps
Rasps- motorised tools

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What should be checked for on an incisor then canines and wolf examination?

A

Incisors- without gag

  • Check for abnormal masses/ fractured teeth
  • Check occlusion from side and front
  • Count the teeth

Canines- calculus, fractures, apical infection

Wolf- displacment, blindly erupted, mandibular wolf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When palpating cheek teeth during a oral examination how should it be done?

What are you feeling for?

A
  1. Occlusal surface of every tooth
  2. Edges of teeth- buccal maxillary, lingual mandibular
  3. Every inter-dental space
  4. Buccal mucosa
  5. Tongue adjacent to teeth
  • Dental overgrowths- sharp points, soft tissue trauma
  • Diastemata
  • Dental fractures
  • Displacment
  • Supernumary teeth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When doing a visual oral examination what should be done?

A

Look- wihout mirror-
Count, overgrowths, soft tissue trauma, fractures

Look with mirror-
count again, all surfaces, interdigital spaces

Probe- pulp horns, assess depth of diastemata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does oral endoscopy allow?

What is routine floating?

A

Better evaluation of occlusal surface, diastema and periodontium

Hand rasping- 3-4 hand rasps, full examinatino, sedation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What further diagnostic imaging can be used for equine dentistry?

A

Radiograph

Sinoscope

Computed tomography

Schintigraphy

MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the two equine dental paraprofessionals and what is the difference?

A

BAEDT- passed BEVA exam, CAT 1 and 2 procedures

Others- Attended a course but not examined- only CAT 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are CAT 1 procecures?

A
  • Examinations
  • Removal or sharp points with manual rasps
  • Removal of small dental overgrowths- manual rasps
  • Rostral profiling of first cheek teeth
  • Removal of loose deciduous caps
  • Removal of supragingival calculuc
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are CAT 2 procedures?

A
  • Examinatino, evaluation and recording of dental abnormalities
  • Removal of loose teeth/fragments- negligible periodontal attachments
  • Removal of erupted, non-displaced wolf teeth under vet supervision
  • Palliative rasping of fractures and adjacent teeth
  • Motorised dental insturments to reduce overgrowths and sharp enamel points only
  • Horses sedated unless safe without, consent from owner
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Who can perform category 3 procedures?
Qualified veterinary surgeons Diastemata widening Unerrupted wolf tooth removal
26
What is the consequence of brachygnathism and prognathism in horses?
Brachygnathism- Ulceration behind upper incisors Maxillary rostral 06 overgrowths and mandibular 11 overgrowths which will need lifelong attention Prognathism- Fewer incisor problems, overgrowths of lower 06 and upper 11 overgrowths
27
What is campylorrhinus lateralis?
'wry nose' Deviation of the entire maxilla, invilving incisive region, nasal septum and nasal bones Varying degree of severity- from minor occlusal problems to severe and breathing problems Surgical correction can be attempted but complex
28
What is malocclusion secondary to? What is slant mouth?
Secondary to problems involving the cheek teeth Slant mouth or diagonal bite is indicative that the horse is eating predominantely one one side
29
1) How does retained deciduous teeth in horses ususally present? 2) How is it treated? 3) What is done with supernumerary incisors?
1) Usually rostral to permanent tooth 2) Treatment- loose: remove with forceps, firmly attached: remove with dental elevators 3) usually cause little problem, often best not to remove
30
What can cause incisor fractures? What indicates extraction?
Trauma, caught on objects, cribbiting Determine if pulp affected- extraction required
31
What is incisor diastemata? What is valve diastemata? What should be done?
Spaces between adjacent teeth Valve- narrower at occlusal aspect, wider at gingival margin, traps food near gingiva Food should be removed from the spaces with a toothbrush on a twice weekly basis
32
What is Equine Odontoclastic Tooth Resorption and Hypercementosis (EOTRH)? How is it managed?
Swelling and/or draining tracts over multiple mandibular and maxillary incisors- pain Diagnosis- visual, radiograpy Extraction of the loose incisiors is curative Disease is progressive in some cases spreading from tooth to tooth May have to remove incisors- horses cope well
33
How is equine oral neoplasia classified?
According to the tissue of origin Dental Bone Soft tissue According to behaviour- benign/malignant
34
What oral neoplasias are from dental tissue origin?
Ameloblastoma- older horses, mandibles, causes bony swelling Benign- surgical excision Cementoma Odontoma Temporal teratoma
35
What equine oral neoplasias are of soft tissue origin?
Squamous cell carcinoma Sarcoid Epulis Melanoma Oral papilloma Ossifying fibroma Fibroma Myxoma/myxosarcoma
36
What canine abnormalities can affect horses?
Rarely cause problems Calculus around lower canines most common- remove with dental forceps, owner can clean periodontal pockets Apical infection/fracture- endodontic treatment, removal can be challenging- long and curved roots
37
Why are wolf teeth commonly removed? When is removal indicated?
Due to owner/trainer preference/tradition Do not cause problems with normal shape, position- is removal justified? Indications- biting problems/ulceration, blindly erupted May become molarised- look like a molar, always radiograph
38
What is used for wolf teeth removal? What are the potential complications?
* Specialised kits do exist, alternatively a long handled elevator or small animal tooth luxator and forcep * Standing sedation and speculum * Local anaesthesia- infra-orbital/maxillary * Blindly erupted- incise gingiva over top with no 11/15 scalpel * Remove once loose with forceps * 2 weeks bit rest Complications: Fracture of tooth Fracture of bone Trauma to palatine artery
39
When should dental checks be done for horses?
Ideally examine cheek teeth briefly in first week- check for cleft palate Yearly checks as the cheek teeth begin to erupt The earlier you begin working on a horses mouth the more tolerant it will be It is usuaul to have to perform any routine rasping before 2 yo
40
41
What are retained caps?
Remnants of deciduous teeth- normally shed during eruption Loose/retained caps can cause oral pain Usually attached to gingiva in one place- causes pain Easily removed with forceps
42
What can cause cheek teeth displacments? What problems can it lead to
Overcrowding during eruption- often bilateral Can lead to rotation and trauma Diastemata can lead to periodontal disease
43
What is developmental diastemata? What can it lead to?
Opposing angulation causes the compression of occlusal sufaces of the teeth together in rostro-caudal direction- should If this doesnt haeppen teeth develop too far appart Leads to- Spaces developing Food accumulating Fermentation Periodontal disease
44
What is done if there is a supernumerary cheek tooth?
May result in periodontal disease- extraction indicated If they occlude normally with the other teeth can be left in situ but may require regular rasping
45
What causes enamel overgrowths and where are they found? When are they more pronounced? What can exacerbate the problem? What are the clinical signs? How are they managed?
Anisognathism- leads to enamel points- buccal of upper, lingual of lower More pronounced where horses fed more concentrated Tack can exacerbate the problem Clinical signs- quidding, pain when eating Rasp on routine dental
46
What are some disorders of wear? When are they more commonly seen?
Wavemouth- marked undulation to occlusal surface, dominant areas can be sequentially reduced Strepmouth- may occur when a focal overgrowth occurs, can be reduced in stages More commonly seen in horses without regular dental care
47
What is shear mouth? What causes it? How is it managed?
Increased occlusal angle of entire cheek tooth row Usually secondary ro diastemata formation/dental fracture If bilateral suspect temporomandibular joint arthropathy Managment- Treat primary problem Gradual reduction of the angle
48
What does this image show? What is done to treat this?
Exaggerated transverse ridges- large overgrowth Hand or power rasp in stages Excessive can lead to pulp exposure, thermal damage and risk apical infection High risk sites- rostral 06 and caudal 11s
49
What is 'bit seating'
Rostral profiling- to prevent bit impingment- misconception Uneccessary can cause pulp horn exposure
50
What are dental caries when does it occur?
Caries can affect the peripheral cementum of the maxillary and mandibular cheek teeth and the infundibulae of the maxillary cheek teeth Occurs when food material becomes stagnated in pits in the peripheral cementum: Fermentation, drop in pH of the environment, demineralisation, pits bigger and blackening Cementum becomes eroded first, may spread to peripheral enamel
51
What are the two types of caries in horses? What causes them? How can they be managed?
Infundibular caries * Common- grade 1-4 * Developmental predisposition- cemental hypoplasia, food acumulated in infundibulum, fermentation- decay * Progressive, irriversible, predisposes to fracture * Can be managed with infundibular restoration Peripheral caries * Common * Increased sugars- haylage * Managment- palliative rasping of the roughened cementum, removal of excess sugars
52
How does diastemata treatment vary?
Depends on severity of periodontal disease Without PD Cleaned out completelt- pick then lavage Remove ETRs on opposite arcade Pack with impression material With PD Widen with burr- lidocaine Pack with impression material Dietary managment- short fibre
53
What are the three main types of cheek teeth fractures?
Buccal slab Midline saggital- through infundibulum Occlusal fissure
54
What is smooth mouth?
Senile change- cheek teeth and enamel largely worn away Softer dentine and cementum become smooth Dietary manage- feedings chopped forage
55
How does the presentation of buccal slab fractures vary?
May be incidental Quidding behaviour- slab can damage gingiva Usually not associated with apical infection, pulp horn seals off, extraction may be required
56
What teeth most commonly have midline sagittal fractures? What can it result in?
Most common 109 and 209 Pathologoical fracture through infundibulum Results in apical infection- with or without sinusitis, extraction required
57
What do the clinical signs of an apical infection depend on? Give examples
Depends on which teeth are involved Location in relation to paranasal sinuses Facial swelling +/- draining tract- Maxillary 06, 07, occasionally 8 Unilateral nasal discharge- maxillary 09, 10, 11 Bony mandibular swelling- all mandibular cheek teeth
58
What are the causes of apical infections? What is the pathogenesis?
Causes- Anachoresis Fracture Periodontal spread Pulpar exposure Path- Pulpitis- pulpar oedema, vascular occlusion, necrosis
59
How is apical infection diagnosed?
Clinical signs Oral examination- fracture, pulpar exposure Imaging- radiograph- poor sensitivity CT- gold standard
60
What are the methods of cheek tooth extraction?
Oral extraction Modified transbuccal extraction Lateral buccotomy Repulsion
61
What are the steps to oral teeth extraction?
1. Interdental spreading- placed in the interdental space infront and behind, closed gradually to stretch peridontal ligament- can cause further fracture 2. Molar forcep application- wiggling- lateral strain- different types 3. Apply fulcrum- lever the tooth out
62
What instrument are these?
Interdental spreaders
63
What are these instruments?
Molar forceps Different depending on the tooth shape
64
When is minimially invasive transbuccal extraction indicated?
Used when crown fractures specialist equipment Chisels to breakdown ligament, reserve crown drilles, hole tapped, extraction screw inserted Preserves alveolar bone
65
What is repulsion?
Blunt instrument to drive tooth into mouth High potential for complications
66
What is lateral buccotomy?
Incision through cheek, removal of lateral alveolar bone Often GA Potential damage to facial nerve and parotid duct High morbidity rate- iatrogenic trauma, wound breakdown
67
What are the 7 functions of the URT in a horse?
1. Conduit- air to and from lung 2. Filtering- mucus 3. Protection 4. Olfaction 5. Phonation- vocalising 6. Swallowing 7. Thermoregulation
68
At rest what is the normal respiratory rate, tidal volume and therefore minute ventilation of a 500kg horse? What is the increase of minute ventilation at excercise? How is it coupled with gait?
At rest- 15 breaths per minute 1L per 100kg- 5L Minute ventilation- 75L Excercise- 20x increase- 1500L Coupled with gait at when FL hit the ground pressure from abdominal organs moving forwards helps breath out, HL hit ground and abdomen pressure backwards, breath in
69
Why is URT function very important in horses?
Horses cannot switch to mouth breathing Anything that narrows airway of lumen- increases airflow resistance, increases negative pressure, causes unsuported structure collapse, URT obstruction leading to noise and reduced O2 delivery URT disease is common and can be life threatening and cause poor performance
70
What are the clinical signs of URT disease?
* Respiratory noise/distress * Dysphagia * Coughing * Excercise intollerance * Nasal discharge- blood, purulent material, ingesta * Facial deformity * Neurological signs
71
What histrory should be taken from a horse with suspected URT disease?
General- signalment, use, duration of ownership, general health, duration, managment, dental prophylaxis, any other horses, eating/drinking Specific- * Nasal discharge * Respiratory noise * Excercise intollerance * Cough * Bilateral nasal airflow * Previous medical treatment
72
What should be noted about a nasal discharge?
Bilateral- behind nasal septum- guttural pouch, larynx, pharynx Unilateral- rostral to nasal septum- sinus/nasal passage Duration Nature- serous, blood, putulent, food Evidence of trauma
73
What history of respiratory noise should be obtained?
* Severity of obstruction- noise * When- rest, excercise * Inspiratory/Expiratory * What does the noise sound like- whistle, roar, gurgle, snoring * Continuous/intermittent * Performance effects- does the horse stop/slow
74
How is the respiratory system examined at rest?
Look, listen palpate General physical examination​- all systems, concurrent disease, RR and character, Nostril flare, Auscultation of thorax/trachea, rebreating- bag over heat Assess other causes of poor performance- lameness, cardiac disease
75
What should be examined about a horses head?
Symmetry Nasal/occular discharge Airflow from both nostrils Percussion of sinuses Palpation of larynx Previous surgical scars
76
What noises at excercise are normal? What should be noted about abnormal sounds?
Snorting, 'high blowing', Sheath noise, Thick wind When- throughout/pushed/tired Quality/pitch Stride phase
77
What diagnostic imaging can be used for the head?
* Endoscopy * Radiography * Sinoscopy * CT * Ultrasonography * MRI * Scintigraphy- less so * Sound analysis- spectral analysis
78
What are the advantages of resting endscopy for URT disease? When is it indicated?
Widely available, affordable Minimally invasive Directly visualise regions Options for treatment- laser removal or fenestration Indications- Nasal discharge/malodour Respiratory noise Dysphagia
79
Why is excercising endoscopy useful? What can be identified here that cannot be elsewhere? What are the advantages of dynamic respiratory endoscopy?
Important for assessment of poor performance at excercise- more accurate assessment of dynamic airway function at excercise Many cases of URT obstruction only occur at excercise and can only be identified here DRE- Affordable and widespread, unqique design, attaches to bridle, wireless pictures, real time examination
80
What is head radiography traditionally the gold standard for? What are its Adv and Dis? What are the standard and additional radiographic views?
Traditionally the gold standard for assessing bony/dental structures Adv- Images can be obtained with portable machines, easy to perform standard views Dis- complex anatomy, 2D image Standard- Latero-lateral, Lateral-oblique, Dorso-ventral Additional- Intra-oral, open mouth oblique, tangenital views
81
What are the following views useful for assessing?: Latero- lateral view Lateral oblique Dorso-ventral Intra-oral
Latero-lateral- good for assessing paranasal sinused, guttural pouches, pharynx. Cassette on affected side Lateral- oblique- assess the periapical regions of cheek teeth for evidence of infection. 30 degree angulation maxillary arcades, 45 degree angulation mandibular arcades Dorso-ventral- assessment of paranasal sinuses, nasal septum and teeth. Helps to determine if lesions uni/bilateral Intra-oral- assessment of incisor teeth and associate bone, fractures of incisor teeth/associated bone EORTH
82
How we doing big man? This seems useful to have a general look at but doesn't seem worrying about
Keep it up. Remember be the best person you can.
83
What are the Adv and Dis to sinoscopy?
Adv- minimally invasive means of visualizing the paranasal sinuses, enables surgical treatmenr and ongoing monitoring of sinuses Dis- more invasive than routine endoscopy- standing sedation with local
84
What limits head ultrasonography? What are some important uses?
Bony skill limits its use in assessment of some areas of the head Some important uses: * Opthalmic * Soft tissue swellings * Assessment of skull bones * Larynx
85
What are the advantages of CT? When is it indicated?
* Gold standard * Affordable and cost effective- not sure personally * Cross sectional images, superior resolution, tissue density measurement Indications- * Dental disease * Masses withing paranasal sinuses/ nasal passages * Trauma
86
What are the two CT sytems used for horses? What are the advantages of each? How is CT interpretated?
GA- less movement from patient (better images) Standing sedation- avoids GA, stabilise patient prior to surgery, pre-surgical planning Using hounsfield unit tissues have different values (density)- higher density higher number- enamel, bone... air
87
Why are equine head MRIs rarely performed?
Limited to only a few facilities Requires GA Expensive Time Uncommonly indicates- brain lesions, neoplasia
88
What are the indications for scintigraphy? What has superseded it?
Indications- differentiation between primary/secondary sinusitis Identification of correct tooth Suspected TMJ disease Superseded by CT
89
1. What does the soft palate separate? 2. What allows pharyngeal collapse? 3. What are the 3 functions of the pharynx?
1. Nasopharynx and oropharynx 2. Lacks rigid support by bone/cartilage 3. Passage of air- to larynx and lower airways Passage of ingesta- oral cavity to oesophagus during swallowing Airway protection
90
Describe the anatomy of the pharynx
* Muscular tube * Relient on neuromuscular function for stability * Intrinsic/extrinsic musculature * Innervation- cranial nerves V, X, XI and cervical nerves V- trigeminal X- Vagus XI- accessory
91
1. What are the main functions of the larynx? 2. What cartilage structures are associated? 3. When does abduction take place, muscle-insertion and innervation? 4. When does adduction take place, muscle- insertion and innervation?
1. Breathing, protect LRT, vocalisation 2. Cricoid cartilage, thyroid cartilage, epiglottis, paired arytenoid cartilages 3. Excercise, cricoidarytenoideus dorsalis muscle (CAD), cricoid cartilage to arytenoid cartilage, recurrent laryngeal nerve 4. Closure- swallowing, cricoarytenoideus lateralis muscle (CAL), RLN innervation
92
1. What are the key presenting signs of larynx/pharnx disease? 2. What should be clinically examined
1. Respiratory noise, excercise intolerance, poor performance 2. Palpation of the larynx- muscular process of arytenoid, cricothyroid articulation Observation during excercise
93
What imaging modalities can be used for diagnosis of larynx and pharynx disease?
* Endocsopy- rest, excercsie * Ultrasound * Radiography * CT * MRI
94
What are the clinical signs of pharynx disease? List the key disorders?
Clinical signs- poor performance, respiratory noise, dysphagia, respiratory distress, nasal discharge, coughing Key disorders- DDSP- intermittent, persistent Naso-pharyngeal collapse Pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia Cleft palate Foreign body Pharyngeal mass
95
What is iDDSP and persistent DDSP?
Intermittent dorsal displacment of the soft palate Dynamic condition- during intense excercise Soft palate displaces- expiratory obstruction, gurgling Returns to normal on swallowing Persistent DDSP- Soft palate permanently displaced Often secondary- epiglottic entrapment, sub-epiglottic ulcer/cyst May have dysphagia
96
What is the proposed pathogenesis of iDDSP?
Neuromuscular dysfunction Thyroideus muscle pulls larynx forward into pharynx Innervated by pharyngeal brach of vagus Maybe caused by inflammation in guttural pouch or pharnx Lower airway disease Structural abnormalities
97
How is DDSP diagnosed?
History and Clinical examination * Excercise intolerance * Gurgling * Rider reports * Dysphagia- permanent Endoscopy * Resting- assess structural abnormalities, diagnostic pDDSP * Excercising- gold standard, replicate conditions when disease occurs
98
How can DDSP be treated?
iDDSP- conservative: Maturity- common in youngsters Get fit- muscles that support pharynx Change tack- keep mouth closed Tongue tie- stop caudal movement Treat inflammation Throat support- cornell collar Surgical- Tie forwards- sutures between basihyoid and thryoid cartilage Palatoplasty- thermal/laser or stiffen Staphylectomy- questionable Myectomy- rarely performed
99
What is pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia? When is it common?
Enlargment of lymphoid follicles on the walls and roof of nasopharynx Common in young horses little clinical significance
100
What are the two types of nasopharyngeal collapse?
Nasopharyngeal dysfunction- Neonates- dysphagia Self-resolves Dynamic pharyngeal collapse Lateral or dorsal walls Yearlings/2 yo- +/- other disease Sport horses- exacerbated by neck flexion
101
What is cleft palate? What are its DDXs? How is it diagnosed and treated?
Congenital defect DDXs- pharyngeal dysfunction, guttural pouch tymphany Diagnosis- oral examination/endoscopy Surgical repair often not attempted
102
What are the clinical signs of larynx disorders? List the laryngeal disorders
Respiratory noise, Poor performance, Dysphagia, Coughing, Respiratory distress * Recurrent laryngeal neuropathy * Fourth branchial arch defect * Dynamic laryngeal disorders * Arytenoid chronditis * Epiglottic abnormalities
103
What is recurrent laryngeal neuropathy? Describe the pathophysiology How is it diagnosed?
Left unilateral paresis/paralysis of the arytenoid cartilage Pathophysiology- progressive loss of large myelinated nerve fibres of recurrent laryngeal nerve, neurogenic atrophy of intrinsic laryngeal muscles, loss of adduction/abduction Diagnosis History- abnormal inspiration noise at excercising, poort performance Atrophy of CAD on palpation Endoscopy
104
When doing endoscopy for RLN what is assessed? How is it graded? How is it managed?
Gold standard- avoid sedation Assessment- symmetry, synchrony, maintenance of abduction Different grading systems- Resting function- Havermeyer I-IV Dynamic function- Havermeyer A, B or C Managment depends on- findings, use of horse, age, degree, owner expectations, economic * Prosthetic laryngoplasty- standing/GA- 'tie back' * Ventriculo-cordectomy * Laryngeal re-innervation- nerve graft * Arytenoidectomy
105
What are the DDXs of laryngeal paralyis?
Unilateral- Perivascular injection Guttural pouch mycosis Previous surgery Bilateral- Hepatic disease Toxicity- organophosphate, lead Post anaesthetic Equine protoxoal myeloencephalitis- not UK
106
What can cause laryngeal dysplasia?
Congenital- abnormal development of laryngeal cartilages Laryngeal dysfunction- limited right arytenoid abduction, rostral displacement of palatopharyngeal arch, cricopharngeus muscle affected
107
What can detect vocal cord collapse? How does it present? How is it treated?
Only detected by overground scope Inspiratory whistle- produces lots of noise Treatment- vocalcordectomy
108
What is medial deviation of aryepiglottic folds? How does is present? What is it associated with? How is it treated?
Collapse of the aryepiglottic folds Inspiratory, thick noise Associated with DDSP Treatment- laser resection of folds
109
What is epiglottic entrapment? What are the clinical signs? How is it diagnosed and treated?
Loose sub epiglottic tissue wraps over and entraps epiglottic cartilage- intermittent or persistent Prevents normal function Clinical signs- respiratory noise, coughing during eating, sometimes poor performance Diagnosis- endoscopy Treatment- laser resection
110
What causes sub-epiglottic cysts? What are the clinical signs? Diagnosis and treatment?
Likely congenital Clinical signs- respiratory noise, dysphagia, excercise intolerance Diagnosis- endoscope Treatment- laser or snare excision
111
What is arytenoid chondritis? What are the clinical signs? How is it diagnosed and treated?
Inflammation/infection of arytenoid cartilage- mucosal ulceration, progressive and painful Clinical signs- respiratory noise/obstruction, respiratory distress Diagnosis- endoscope Treatment- topical and systemic AB Patrial resectoin Aryenoidectomy Permanent tracheostomy