Exam 1 Flashcards
(372 cards)
1
Q
5 causes of sinus bradycardia
A
sleep
athletic training
hypothyroidism
vagal stimulation
increased intracranial pressure
MI
2
Q
if sinus bradycardia is consistent with SOB, altered mental status, angina, or hypotension then treat with ___ mg of _______ rapid IV and repeat every ____ to ____ minutes until the max dose of ____ mg is given
A
0.5, atropine, 3-5 minutes, 3 mg
3
Q
2 treatments of sinus bradycardia if unresponsive to atropine
A
emergency transcutaneous pacing
catecholamines (dopamine, epi)
4
Q
8 causes of sinus tachycardia
A
acute blood loss
anemia
shock
heart failure
pain
fever
exercise
anxiety
5
Q
stimulants that can cause sinus tachycardia
A
caffeine
nicotine
illicit drugs
6
Q
syndrome that can cause sinus tachycardia
A
postural orthostatic tachycardia syndrome (POTS)
7
Q
if sinus tachycardia is causing hemodynamic instability, treat with _________ _______
A
synchronized cardioversion
8
Q
5 vagal maneuvers that are used to treat sinus tachycardia
A
carotid sinus massage
gagging
bearing down
forceful cough
cold stimuli to the face
9
Q
medication used to treat sinus tachycardia
A
adenosine
10
Q
sinus arrhythmia is when SA node pacing rate changes with _______
A
respirations
11
Q
irregular heart rate caused by atrial foci become irritable and cause spontaneous firing og impulse causing depolarization
A
premature atrial contraction (PAC)
12
Q
PAC causes an early and different __ wave
A
P
13
Q
6 causes of PAC
A
adrenaline
increased sympathetic stimulation
stimulants
hyperthyroidism
anxiety
hyokalemia
14
Q
most common dysrhythmia
A
A fib
15
Q
heart rhythm caused by continuous rapid firing of multiple atrial foci that dont depolarize the atria
A
A fib
16
Q
in A fib you do not see a __ wave
A
P
17
Q
9 risk factors of A fib
A
heart failure
hypertension
diabetes
obesity
valvular heart disease
obstructive sleep apnea
alcohol
hyperthyroidism
post op cardiac surgery
18
Q
atrial and ventricular A fib rate
A
atrial: 300-600
ventricular: 120-200
19
Q
if a patient has A fib and is low stroke risk, treat with ______ _______ mg once daily
A
asprin 75-325 mg
20
Q
if the patient has A fib and has moderate stroke risk treat with oral _______ such as warfarin or _______ ___ inhibitors
A
anticoagulants, factor XA
21
Q
factor XA inhibitors
A
dabigatran (pradaxa)
rivarixaban (xarelto)
apixaban (eliquis)
22
Q
antiarrhythmic medications for A fib
A
beta blockers and calcium channel blockers
23
Q
2 nonpharmacological treatments for A fib
A
electrical cardioversion
catheter ablation therapy
24
Q
atrial flutter is when atrial foci are ______ and fire rapidly
A
irritated
25
atrial flutter atrial and ventricular rate
atrial: 250-400
ventricular: 75-150
26
in atrial flutter the P wave is saw tooth shaped and called __ wave
F
27
physical treatment for atrial flutter
vagal maneuvers
28
medication used to treat atrial flutter
adenosine
29
adenosine is followed by 20 ml _____ flush and elevation of the _____
saline, arm
30
atrial flutter has a lot of the same treatments as _____ _____
atrial fibrillation
31
a syndrome that occurs in A fib when there is congenital tissue in the heart
wolff parkinson white syndrome
32
treatment for wolff parkinson white syndrome
electrical cardioversion
33
_________ phenomenon is intermittent arterial vaso-occlusion or vasospasm on the fingers or toes
Raynauds
34
Raynauds disease is often associated with _______ diseases
autoimmune
35
autoimmune diseases that can cause Raynauds pehnomenon
systemic erythematous lupus
rheumatoid arthritis
scleroderma
36
symptoms of Raynauds may result from a defect in _____ ____ production and decrease the cutaneous blood vessels ability to _______
basal heat, dilate
37
Raynauds disease is associated with ________
smoking
38
variant of Raynauds that is also agitated by stress or extreme cold
Acrocyanosis
39
acrocyanosis and raynauds make the fingers _____ and cause ________
blue, hyperhidrosis
40
in raynauds the fingers turn ______ due to vasoconstriction
pale
41
in raynauds the fingers turn _____ due to deoxygenated blood pooling during vasospasm
blue
42
in raynauds the fingers turn _____ due to exaggerated reflow due to vasodilation after
red
43
medication taken to treat Raynaud's syndrome because it causes vasoconstriction
calcium channel blockers
44
people with Raynauds should avoid ______ and ______ because it triggers it
cold, tobacco
45
varicose veins are cause by reflux of venous blood that causes venous _______
stasis
46
varicose veins are causes by ______ or _______ valves
damaged or incompentent
47
dilated intradermal veins that are distended 1-3 mm in diameter and are visible on the skins surface
telangiectasias (spider veins)
48
high _____ states are a risk factor for vericose veins
estrogen
49
with vericose veins the skin may turn _____ due to extravastated veins
brown
50
_______ ultrasound can show where the reflux of vericose veins are and how severe
duplex
51
2 positions of patient when using duplex ultrasound
trendelenberg or standing
52
rarely used diagnostic test for vericose veins that involves IV contrast
venography
53
3 E's to medical management of vericose veins
elastic compression socks
exercise
elevation
54
3 things to avoid with vericose veins
crossing legs, sitting or standing for long, wearing socks that are too tight
55
treatment used for small variscosities
sclerotherapy
56
nonsurgical treatment for varicose veins
thermal ablation
57
acute inflammation of the lymphatic chain usually in the extremity
lymphangitis
58
bacteria that usually causes lymphangitis
hemolytic streptococcus
59
what lymphangitis looks like
red streaks extend up the extremity outlining the course of the lymphatic vessels
60
acute inflammation of the lymph node
lymphadenitis
61
lymphadenitis can become _____ and form an ______
necrotic, abcess
62
3 places lymphadenitis usually affects
groin, axilla, cervical region
63
3 treatments for lymphangitis and lymphadentitis
antibiotics
NSAIDs
compression socks
64
tissue swelling due to increased lymph from obstruction of lymph vessels
lymphedema
65
cause of primary lymphedema
congenital malformations
66
cause if secondary lymphedema
aqcuired obstructions
67
lymphedema is most commonly ______ and occurs in women before the age of ____
primary, 35
68
in lymphedema the swelling is ______ and ______ and then becomes ______ and _____
soft and pitting, hard and nonpitting
69
lymphedema is commonly seen with ______ _____ _____ due to breast cancer
axillary node dissection
70
lymphedema can happen with _____ veins
varicose
71
chronic lymphedema leads to outbursts of ______ that are characterized by fever and chills
infection
72
3 things that happen to the extremity when chronic lymphedema becomes infectious
- chronic fibrosis
- thickening of the subcutaneous tissue
- hypertrophy of the skin
73
type of lymphedema when chronic swelling only slightly goes away with elevation
elephantisias
74
diuretic given to help with lymphedema
Lasix
75
other medication class used with lymphedema
antibiotics
76
surgical management is used for severe lymphedema one of these three things happens
uncontrolled by medical management
mobility id severly impaired
infection persists
77
a patient who undergoes surgical management for lymphedema must avoid _____ _____ and stay out of the ____
heating pads, sun
78
most common infectious cause of limb swelling
cellulitis
79
cellulitis occurs when bacteria enters the ____ and ______ tissues
skin, subcutaneous
80
2 bacteria that mostly cause cellulitis
streptococcus and staphylococcus aureus
81
cellulitis usually has the cardinal signs of inflammation, but can sometimes have systemic signs of a _____
fever
82
in cellulitis, there will be ______ _____ enlargement
lymph node
83
treat cellulitis with oral ______ if mild or IV _______ if severe
antibitoics
84
to treat cellulitis apply ___ packs every 2 to 4 hours until swelling resolves and then switch to ____ packs
cool to warm
85
most common type of heart failure
systolic heart failure
86
a syndrome from functional or structural cardiac disorders so that the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the bodys demands
heart failure
87
heart failure can cause impaired contraction which is a ______ dysfunction or problems filling the heart which is a _______ dysfucntion
systolic, diastolic
88
systolic heart failure is an alteration in ________ _______
ventricular contraction
89
systolic HF is characterized by ______ heart muscle
weakened
90
diastolic HF is characterized by ______ heart muscle
stiff
91
diastolic HF makes it hard for the ____ _____ to fill
left ventricle
92
both types of HF are identified by assessment of the _____ _____ function with an ______
left ventricle, echocardiogram
93
ultrasound of the heart that shows us ejection fraction
echocardiogramp
94
calculation of how much blood is being ejected from the heart during systole
ejection fraction
95
normal ejection fraction
55% - 65%
96
people with HF with have a ______ ejection fraction
lower
97
an ejection fraction lower than ____% is indicative of a heart transplant
15
98
class __ HF is no limitations of physical activity, ordinary activity does not undue fatigue, palpitations, or dyspnea
1
99
class __ HF where there is slight limitations of physical activity, comfortable at rest, but ordinary physical activity causes fatigue, palpitations, or dyspnea
2
100
class __ HF is marked limitation of physical activity, comfortable at rest, but less than ordinary activity causes fatigue, palpitations, or dyspnea
3
101
class ___ HF is unable to carry out any physical activity without discomfort, symptoms of cardiac insufficiency at rest, physical activity increased discomfort
4
102
HF occurs over time and is _______
progressive
103
5 common causes of HF
MI
HTN
cardiomyopathy
valvular heart disease
renal failure
104
in left sided HF the blood will back up to the ______
lungs
105
left sided HF can cause _____ which is difficulty breathing when laying flat
orthopnea
106
left sided HF can cause ______ _____ _____ which is a sudden attack of dyspnea at night
paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
107
left sided HF causes a _______ cough
nonproductive
108
with left sided HF you can hear _____ in the lungs
crackles
109
in left sided HF you will hear ___ heart sound
S3
110
left sided HF causes weak ______ pulses and tachycardia
peripheral
111
right sided HF is usually _______ to left sided HF
secondary
112
right sided HF increases venous pressure which causes ______ _____ _____
jugular vein distention
113
right sided HF will cause edema in the _____ exrtremities
lower
114
right sided HF can cause enlargement of the liver known as ________
hepatomegaly
115
right sided HF can lead to fluid accumulation in the abdomen known as ______
ascites
116
ejection fraction less than ___% is HF
55
117
blood test that measures cardiac filling pressures and can diagnose HF
B-type Natriuretic peptide (BNP)
118
normal BNP range
0.5
119
2 things used to determine if HF is caused by coronary artery disease or ischemia
cardiac stress test
cardiac catheritization
120
first-line therapy drug for heart failure
ACE inhibitors
121
2 examples of ACE inhibitors
lisinopril
enalapril
122
ACE inhibitors and ARBs promote ______ and _____ thus decreasing afterload and preload
vasodilation, diuresis
123
ACE inhibitors and ARBs may increase _____ levels
potassium
124
ACE inhibitors can often cause a _____ and is the reason most people do not take them
cough, renal
125
ACE inhibitors and ARBs often decrease _____ function
renal
126
2 examples of ARBs
valsartan
losartan
127
combo therapy of _____ and _____ ____ is often used for people who cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors
hydralazine, isosorbide
128
isosorbide dinitrate is a nitrate and causes _______, which decreased preload
vasodilation
129
hydralazine decreases _______ ____ ______ which decreased after-load
systemic vascular resistance
130
first line therapy used in combo with ACE inhibitors for CHF
beta blockers
131
beta blockers relax _____ ____, lowers ____ _____, decreases _______ as well as workload
blood vessels, blood pressure, afterload
132
beta blockers improve ________ capacity
exercise
133
observe for decreased ____ ___ with beta blockers
heart rate
134
beta blockers may cause _______ and ________
dizziness and fatigue
135
beta blockers needs to be used carefully with lung diseases because they cause ________
bronchoconstriction
136
example of loop diuretic
lasix
137
loop diuretics inhibit ______ and ______ reabsorption in the ascending loop of Henle
sodium, chloride
138
loop diuretic increase _____ excretion
potassium
139
first line diuretic therapy for HF
loop diuretic
140
3 things to monitor with loop diuretics and thiazides
hypokalemia
hypotension
kidney injury
141
2 examples of thiazide diuretics
metolazone
hydrochlororhiazide
142
thiazides inhibit ________ and ________ reabsorption in the early distal tubules
sodium and chloride
143
thiazides increase ______ excretion
potassium
144
thiazides can be used in combo with _____ diuretics
loop
145
aldosterone antagonists are ________ ______ diuretics
potassium sapring
146
example of aldosterone antagonists
spirolactone
147
aldosterone antagonists block the effect of ______ in the distal tubule and collecting duct
aldosterone
148
with potassium sparing diuretics monitor for _______ and serum _____
hyperkalemia, creatine
149
digitalis example
digoxin
150
digitalis improves cardiac _______
contractability
151
digitalis may cause ________
bradycardia
152
must check ______ pulse before giving digoxin
apical
153
monitor serum potassium levels with digitalis because _______ enhances the effects of it
hypokalemia
154
5 signs of digitalis toxicity
anorexia
nausea
visual changes
confusion
bradycardia
155
2 IV infusions used for HF
milirone and dobutamine
156
milirone increases myocardial cell ________
contractability
157
milirone promotes ______ and decreases overall workload of the heart
vasodilation
158
monitor for ______ and ______ _____ with milirone
hypotension, cardiac dysrhythmias
159
dobutamine stimulates _______ ______ receptors
beta-1 adrenergic
160
dobutamine increases cardiac ______ and ____ perfusion
contractibility, perfusion
161
potassium level
3.5-5.0
162
potassium is found in the _________ fluid
intracellular
163
potassium helps with _______ and ______ muscle contraction
skeletal and cardiac
164
___% of potassium is excreted by the renal system and ___% is excreted through the bowel/skin
80, 20
165
the ______ do not conserve potassium well
kidneys
166
IV administration of ____ ______ can help with hyperkalemia
sodium bicarbonate
167
2 things to monitor for with sodium bicarbonate administration
fluid overload
hypernatremia
168
oral treatments for hyperkalemia
glucose/insulin therapy
loop diuretics
169
treatment for hyperkalemia if renal function is compromised
dialysis
170
dietary intake of ___ to ___ meq of potassium a day can help hypokalemia
40-80
171
sodium level
135-145
172
sodium is most common in the _______ fluid
extracellular
173
sodium is the most important in controlling _______ distribution
water
174
3 things that regulate sodium
ADH
Thirst
renin-aldosterone system
175
sodium is important for _______ contraction and ______ impulse
muscle, nerve
176
sodium controls the 3 Bs
blood volume
blood pressure
pH balnce
177
3 very important late and profound signs for hypernatremia
swollen dry tongue
nausea/vomiting
increased muscle tone
178
hypernatremia should be reduced gradually no faster than ___ to ___ meq
0.5-1
179
if you try to overcorrect hyponatremia too fast it can cause ______ damage
neurological
180
do not increase sodium serum levels more than __ meq in 24 hours
12
181
if neurological problems are present you will need to administer small amounts of _____ solution of decrease cerebral edema
hypertonic
182
chloride levels
97-107
183
chloride is an anion in the _______ fluid
extracellular
184
chloride is found in _______ and ______ fluid
interstitial and lymph
185
chloride is found in ____ secretions and ______ juices
GI, pancreatic
186
chloride is reabsorbed and excreted by the ________
kidneys
187
chloride serum level is directly related to _____ serum levels
sodium
188
chloride assists in _______ contraction and _____ impulse
muscle, nerve
189
chloride controls the 3 Bs
blood volume
blood pressure
pH balance
190
3 treatments for hyercholermia
hypotonic solution
lasix
oral diuretics
191
fluid treatment for hypocholermia
normal saline
192
magnesium levels
1.3-2.1
193
magnesium is abundant in the _______ fluid
intracellular
194
magnesium is an activator or many intracellular ______ ______
enzymes systems
195
magnesium plays a role in _____ and _____ metabolism
protein, carb
196
magnesium is needed for ______ and vitamin ______ absorption
calcium, vitamin D
197
magnesium is important in ________ function
neuromuscular
198
magnesium inhibits the release of __________
acetylcholine
199
magnesium causes vaso______ and decreased _______ ______ resistance
dilation, peripheral vascular
200
IV _______ _______ is treatment for hypermagnesium that is severe
calcium gluconate
201
avoid administration of magnesium with patient who have ______ problems/injury
kidney
202
IV magnesium must be given slowly to not cause ______ ____
heart block
203
calcium levels
8.6-10.2
204
___% of calcium is in the bone
99
205
3 Bs calcium controls
bone, blood, beats
206
calcium is controlled by ____ and _______
PTH and clacitonin
207
primary anion in ICF
potassium
208
phosphorus levels
2.5-4.5
209
phosphorus helps with ______ regulation
calcium
210
aggressive treatment for hyperphosphatemia
IV calcitriol
211
arterial baroreceptors regulate _______ and _______ to either increase or decrease BP
vasoconstriction, vasodilation
212
the kidneys regulate ______ to increase or decrease BP
fluid
213
the more fluid volume the ______ BP
higher
214
the release of renin causes a reduced blood supply to the ______ to decrease BP
kidneys
215
angiotensin I combines with _____ to create angiotensin II
renin
216
angiotensin II is a potent _________
vasoconsrictor
217
aldosterone causes reabsorption of _____ and _____ to decrease BP
sodium and water
218
vascular autoregulation controls the ______ of the blood to change BP
viscostiy
219
the thicker the blood the ______ the BP
higher
220
normal BP category
less than 120/80
221
elevated BP category
120-129/less than 80
222
High BP stage 1
130-139/80-89
223
high BP stage 2
140+/90+
224
hypertensive crisis
180+/120+
225
most common type of HTN
essential (primary)
226
3 causes of essential hypertension
PVR, atherosclerosis, arteriosclerosis
227
secondary hypertension is caused by ______ or _______ failure
kidney, heart
228
_______ HTN is caused by abruptly stopping hypertension meds
rebound
229
________ HTN has multiple factors or an idopathic cause
malignant
230
3 symptoms with malignant HTN
HA
visual disturbances
uremia
231
_______ syndrome is a risk factor for HTN
metabolic
232
_______ conditions and _______ conditions are risk factors for secondary HTN
kidney, adrenal
233
to reduce risk of HTN you should consume less than ______ mg of sodium a day
2400
234
4 common symptoms of HTN
HA
Flushing
dizziness
fainting
235
orthostatic HTN is confirmed if systolic BP decreased by ___ and diastolic decreases by ____ when standing
20, 10
236
have patient lay on ____ side and listen in the _____ intercostal space for extra heart sounds
left, 5th
237
S__ if a common heart sound heard with hypertension and is caused by a stiff _____ _____
4, left ventricle
238
if a hypertension patient has tachycardia with sweating and pallor it can indicate ___________
pheochromocytoma (adrenal medulla tumor)
239
inspect the _____ _____ on HTN exam for changes to the retina
optic fundus
240
abdominal bruits can indicate _____ _____ or an _______ that are caused by hypertension
renal stenosis, aneurysms
241
if creatine clearance rate is LOW then renal impairment is _______
high
242
HTN can cause retinal ________ that causes retinal ischemia
hemmorage
243
HTN can cause ________ which is swelling around the optic nerve and disc which indicates high intracranial pressure
papilledema
244
most common ophthalmic issue caused by arteriosclerosis crossing over the venule and compressing it
AV nicking
245
diet for HTN that is fruit, veggies, lean meats, low salt, and whole grains
DASH diet
246
the DASH diet increases _____ which is an antioxidant that boosts the immune system
CoQ10
247
1st line diuretic for HTN
thiazide diuretic
248
4 classes of drugs fro HTN
thiazide diuretics
calcium channel blockers
ACE inhibitors
ARBs
249
thiazides diuretics act on the ______ _____
distal tubule
250
3 things thiazides promote the excretion of
potassium, bicarbonate, magnesium
251
thiazide diuretics may decrease _______ excretion
calcium
252
2 things loop diuretics may cause
ototoxicity and hypocalcemia
253
calcium channel blockers interfere with the movement of calcium ions and result in __________
vasodilation
254
calcium channel blockers block SA and AV node ______, therefore ______ the HR
conduction, decrease
255
some CCB react with ______ juice and it enhances the effect of them
grapefruit
256
do not administer CCB if HR is lower than ___ or if systolic BP is less than _____
60, 100
257
ACE inhibitors block the conversion of what to what?
angiotensin I to angiotensin II
258
ACE inhibitors decrease _____ and ______ retention
sodium, water
259
ACE inhibitors lower _______
PVR
260
do not give ACE inhibitors if systolic BP is less than ____
100
261
when taking ARBs, avoid food high in ________
potassium
262
3 second-line treatments for hypertension
aldosterone receptors antagonists
beta blockers
renin inhibitors
263
aldosterone receptor antagonists block aldosterone to inhibit ______ reabsorption
sodium
264
aldosterone receptor antagonists can cause high _______ and ______ levels BUT low _______ levels
triglycerides and potassium, sodium
265
2 things that enhance the action of ARAs that should be avoided
St. John Warts
Grapefruit
266
example of ARA
Eplerenone
267
beta blockers decrease _____ ____ and ______ ______
heart rate, myocardial contractability
268
drug of choice with ischemic heart disease
beta blockers
269
beta blockers may cause ________ dysfunction
sexual
270
beta blockers can mask the signs of ________ so diabetics should be careful
hypoglycemia
271
medication used for mild to moderate HTN
renin inhibitors
272
renin inhibitor example
Aliskiren
273
renin inhibitors may cause ______ and _____
cough, diarrhea
274
thickening of the artery that is usually associated with aging
arteriosclerosis
275
arteriosclerosis causes problems with arteries ______
constricitng
276
when lipid build up in the arteries and cause a blockage or narrowing
atherosclerosis
277
most common cause of cardio vascular disease
atherosclerosis
278
3 things atherosclerosis is associated with
diabetes
obesity
high cholesterol
279
any dysfunction of the heart or blockages of the heart
coronary artery disease
280
periodic chest pain brought about by ischemia
angina pectoris
281
______ angina is chest pain that is caused by exertion
stable
282
stable angina is relieved with _________
nitroglycerin
283
________ angina is chest pain not related to exertion
unstable
284
________ angina is more dangerous
unstable
285
6 things that make up metabolic syndrome
insulin resistance
central obesity
dyslipidemia
HTN
proinflammatory state
prothrombotic state
286
proinflammatory state is elevated _______ protein levels
C-reactive
287
prothrombotic state is being at risk for _____
clots
288
LDL should be under ____ or under ____ if high risk
100, 70
289
HDL should be greater than __ in males and ___ in females
40, 50
290
total cholesterol should be below _____
200
291
triglycerides should be under ____
150
292
angina pectoris is usually cased by _________
atherosclerosis
293
______ angina is severe chest pain that happens before MI
intractable/refractory
294
______ angina goes between unstable and stable
variatn
295
variant angina is usually caused by _______
vasospasm
296
when the patient feels no pain but the EKG shows ischemia
silent ischemia
297
medication used with angina
nitrates
beta blockers
calcium channel blockers
antiplatalets
anticoagulents
298
first line drug fro angina
nitrates (NTG)
299
3 nitrates
nitroglycerin
isosorbide
ranolazine
300
NTG relieves pain in __ minutes
3
301
take a NTG every __ minutes and on the __ one call 911
5, 3
302
beta-blockers reduce myocardial ________ consumption
oxygen
303
beta blockers cna cause a __________ mood
depressed
304
2 conditions that are contraindicated with beta blockers
AV block
acute heart failure
305
if you stop beta blockers abruptly it can cause ____
MI
306
CCB decrease SA node and AV node conduction and automaticity to decreas the _____ _____
heart rate
307
CCB have a negative inotropic effect which _______ the force of contractions
weaken
308
meds that decrease platelet aggregation and thrombosis
antiplatelets
309
medication that prevents the formation of new clots
unfractionated heparin
310
unfractionated heparin is used to treat ______ angina to reduce the chance of MI
unstable
311
antibody-mediated response to heparin that may cause thrombosis
HIT
312
in HIT you would see decreased _________ counts
platalete
313
unfractionated heparin is therapeutic if PTT is ___ to ___ times normal value
2-2.5
314
3 types of acute coronary syndromes
unstable angina
nonSTEMI
STEMI
315
sudden constriction of the artery that can lead to MI
vasospasm
316
2 ECG changes seen in MI/ACS
T wave inversion
ST segment elevation
317
abnormal ____ wave develops 1-3 days after MI
Q
318
abnormal Q wave without T wave or ST segment changes indicates an ____ MI
old
319
________ _____ has the clinical manifestations of MI but not the ECG and biomarkers
unstable angina
320
ST segment elevation in 2 leads = _____
STEMI
321
STEMI causes _______ damage and more damage than NSTEMI
significant
322
_______ has elevated biomarkers but no definite ECG evidence of acute MI
NSTEMI
323
best biomarker for MI
troponin
324
high troponin can be detected within a few hours of MI or up to __ weeks after
2
325
3 isoenzymes tests for MI
troponin
creatine kinase
myoglobin
326
creatine isoenzymes specific to heart
CK-MB
327
CK-MB peaks within the first ___ hours of MI
24
328
myoglobin peaks within ____ hours
12
329
STEMI calls for emergency ____
PCI
330
balloon-tipped catheter used to open blocked vessels
PTCA
331
______ artery is commonly used for PCTA
femoral
332
______ catheters are used for PCTAs
hollow
333
_______ _____ ______ prevents re-stenosis after PTCA
coronary artery stent
334
after coronary artery stent you have to take ______ for a year and then ______ for life
Plavix, asprin
335
surgery that re-routes the blood flow to the heart and is used if there are multiple blockages
CABG
336
CABG patients must take ________ agent after surgery
GPIIB/IIIa
337
mechanical compression device used after femoral sheath is removed
C-clamp
338
pneumatic compression device used after femoral sheath is removed
FemoStop
339
venous vascular disorders are caused by ______ or ______ valves
spasms or incompetent valves
340
arterial vascular disorders are caused by _______ or ______ arteries due to atherosclerosis
narrowing or blocked
341
gender that is more at risk for peripheral arterial occlusive disease
females
342
people with peripheral arterial occlusive disease often have pain with walking that is relived with rest called ________ ______
intermittent claudication
343
the rest pain with peripheral arterial occlusive disease gets worse at _____ and is not relived with ______
night, opioids
344
with peripheral arterial disease the legs are cool and pale when ______- but ruddy and cyanotic when _________
elevated, dependent
345
with peripheral arterial occlusive disease the pulses are ______ and _____
diminished, unequal
346
2 medications that someone with peripheral arterial disease can take to help with claudication
trental and pletal
347
2 medications someone with peripheral arterial disease can take to prevent clot formation
ASA or Plavix
348
_______ are a medication taken with peripheral arterial disease that helps improve endothelial function
statins
349
after surgical management of peripheral arterial disease the patient should lay _____ for 6 hours after surgery
supine
350
2 hours after peripheral arterial disease surgery, you can raise the head of the bed to ___ degrees
45
351
virchow's triad (peripheral venous disorders)
altered coagulation
venous stasis
endothelial damage
352
4 characteristics of superficial veins on peripheral venous disorders
pain
tenderness
redness
wramth
353
3 characteristics of deep veins in peripheral venous disorders
edema
warmth
tednerness
354
2 medical management therapies for peripheral venous disease
anticoagulation therapy
thrombolytic therapy
355
before giving heparin you must check _____ levels
PTT
356
normal PTT is ___ to ____ seconds
22-26
357
heparin and lovenox antidote
protamine sulfate
358
warfarin antidote
vitamin K
359
obstruction or reflux of the blood through the valves in the legs often a result of DVT
chronic venous insufficiency
360
_______ ulcers are smaller, deeper, dryer, and more painful
arterial
361
______ ulcers are larger, more superficial, and have exudate
venous
362
thoracic aorta aneurysms are often ________
asymtpomatic
363
if thoracic aortic aneurysms are symptomatic then they will have these 4 symptoms
constant abdominal pain
hoarseness
cough
dyspagia
364
thoracic aortic is a common site for _________ aneurysm
dissecting
365
____% of people with abdominal aortic aneurysms have symptoms
40
366
4 symptoms of abdominal aortic aneurysm
severe back or abdominal pain
hypotension
low hematocrit
s/s of CHF
367
there will be a mass that is seen plapating with an abdominal aortic aneurysm and you will hear a _____ over it
bruit
368
6 P's of arterial embolism and thrombosis
pallor
pulses diminished/absent
perishing cold
pain
paresthesia
paralysis
369
2 surgical management for thrombosis or embolisms
thrombectomy
embolectomy
370
2 therapies used for thrombosis or embolism
anticoagulant therapy
thrombolytic therapy
371
do not use heating or cooling pads for patients with ______ or _____
thrombosis, embolism
372
6 contraindications for thrombolytic therapy
active internal bleeding
CV hemorrhage
recent surgery
HTN
preganancy
recent head injury
