Periop Flashcards

(75 cards)

1
Q

______ surgery determines the origin or cause of disorder

A

diagnostic

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2
Q

______ surgery resolves health problems by repairing or removing cause

A

curative

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3
Q

______ surgery improves patient’s functional ability

A

restorative

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4
Q

_____ surgery relieves symptoms of disease process, but does no cure it

A

pallative

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5
Q

_____ surgery alters/enhances personal appearance

A

cosmetic

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6
Q

_____ surgery is when the patients should have surgery or else the consequences can be catastrophic

A

elective

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7
Q

_____ surgery is in needs of prompt attention within 24-30 hours

A

urgent

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8
Q

______ surgery is immediate attention without delay

A

emergent

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9
Q

when does the preoperative phase begin and end

A

when the pt. is scheduled for surgery to when they are transferred to the surgical suite

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10
Q

the nurse must report an imbalance in ______ during the preop phase immediately

A

potassium

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11
Q

hypokalemia increases risk for _____ toxicity

A

digoxin

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12
Q

hyperkalemia increases risks for ______ especially with anesthesia

A

arrythmias

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13
Q

hypokalemia slows recovery from _______

A

anesthesia

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14
Q

hypokalemia increases ____ irritability

A

cardiac

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15
Q

pt. should stop smoking ___ weeks before surgery

A

6

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16
Q

pt. should stop ASA or anticoagulants __ weeks before surgery

A

2

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17
Q

allergy to shellfish has a cross allergy with _____

A

iodine

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18
Q

fruits such as avocados, strawberries, and bananas have a cross allergy with ______

A

latex

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19
Q

eggs, peanuts, and soy allergies have a cross allergy with ______ which is used to induce and maintain anesthesia

A

Diprivan

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20
Q

elevated _______ lab values are a contraindication of surgery

A

coagulation

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21
Q

pt. should shower with ______ _____ 1-2 days and nights before surgery

A

chlorohexadine gluconate

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22
Q

who is responsible for having the informed consent signed

A

surgeon

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23
Q

3 meds that facilitate anesthesia induction and reduce the amount needed

A

Ketamine (ketamine HCL)
Sublimaze (fentanyl citrate)
Codeine sulfate

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24
Q

antiemetic med that reduces N/V

A

zofran

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25
H2 receptor agonist that is prophylactic for aspiration
Famotidine (pepcid)
26
gastrokinetic agent given to prevent gastroparesis in diabetics
reglan
27
PO medications given "on call" are given ___ to ___ minutes before transport
60-90
28
IM medications are usually given ___ to ___ minutes before transport
30-60
29
IV medications are usually not given until the patient is in the _____ ____ area
preop holding
30
patients with a history of _____, ____, or _____ heart disease need prophylactic antibiotics
congenital, rheumatic, or valvular
31
pt. undergoing eye surgery needs eye drop every __ mins during pre-op
5
32
medications for _____, _____, or ____ can be given pre-op 2 hours before anesthesia if the patient needs them
cardiac, respiratory, seizure
33
reduce doses of _____ and ____ insulin for surgery
long, intermediate
34
divide doses of _____ insulin for surgery
regular
35
insulin pumps will remain on person at _____ rate
basal
36
thiazide diuretics may cause _____ _____ during surgery
respiratory depression
37
________ may increase the hyposensitivity action of anesthetics
phenothizines
38
_______ increase the hypotensive effects of anesthetics
MAOIs
39
always start an IV with ____ before giving insulin
dextrose
40
antibiotics ending in MYCIN and curariform combined will cause _____
apnea
41
long term use of _____ may alter the patients response to analgesic agents
opioids
42
fast meds can be given __ hour post op
1
43
clear liquids can be given ___ hours postop
2
44
breast milk can be given ____ hours post op
4
45
nonhuman milk or formulas can be given ____ house post op
6
46
light meal can be given ___ hours postop
6
47
regular meal can be given ___ hours postop
8
48
who marks the surgical site
nurse
49
monitored anesthesia care (MAC) is a _____ anesthetic combined with ______
local, analgesic
50
MAC is administered by _____
CRNA
51
3 complications of anesthesia
hypoxia hypothermia malignant hyperthermia
52
in malignant hyperthermia there will be dark _____ urine
brown
53
malignant hyperthermia will increase body temp quickly to ____ or higher
105
54
in malignant hyperthermia the pt. may have an _______ HR and increased ______ _____ levels
irregular, carbon dioxide
55
genetic testing for malignant hyperthermia looks for the _____ gene
RYR1
56
reversal agent for malignant hyperthermia
datrolene
57
other anesthesia complication that is reversible
disseminated intravascular coagulation
58
a PACU nurse should assess VS every ___ minutes
15
59
if the O2 sat drops ___% from baseline or below ___% post-op the PACU nurse should call the rapid response team
10,95
60
______ shock is due to blood loss
hypovolemic
61
class I hypovolemic shock is loss of _____ml or ____% of total volume
750, 15
62
class II hypovolemic shock is loss of ____ to ___ ml or ____ to ___% of total volume
750 to 1000, 15-30
63
class III hypovolemic shock is loss of ______ to _____ ml or ___ to ___% of total volume
1500-2000, 30-40
64
class IV hypovolemic shock is loss of more than _____ ml or more than ____% of total volume
2000, 40
65
the systolic BP during hypovolemic shock will range from ____ to _____
60-80
66
in hypovolemic shock the HR will be ____ or higher
140
67
in hypovolemic shock the RR will be ____ or higher
35
68
you want HCT to get back to ___% in hypovolemic shock
32
69
MAP should be between ____ and ____ after treating hypovolemia shock
70-105
70
cardiac index should be between ____ and ____ l/min/m2 when treating hypovolemic shock
2.5-4
71
in addition to blood products, administer _____ and ______ for hypovolemic shock
colloids, crystacolloids
72
who changes the 1st surgical dressing
member of surgical team
73
separation of surgical wound
dehiscence
74
separation of surgical wound with intestines protruding through
evisceration
75
a ____ ____ is the person most likely to administer blood products in the operating suite
circulating nurse