Exam 2 Flashcards
1
Q
more than ____ people are affected by DM
A
29
2
Q
in 2050, 1 out of ___ people will have DM
A
3
3
Q
DM cases increase by __% every year
A
5
4
Q
3 things DM is the leading cause of
A
amputations
blindness
end-stage renal disease
5
Q
2 types of prediabetes
A
impaired glucose tolerance (IGT)
impaired fasting glycemia (IFG)
6
Q
DM is the ___ leading cause of death
A
7th
7
Q
4 things you are at risk for with DM
A
coronary artery disease
cerebrovascular accident
hypertension
dyslipidemia
8
Q
3 races most at risk for DM
A
African American
Hispanic
Asian American
9
Q
type of hormone that insulin is
A
anabolic (storage)
10
Q
cells that secrete insulin
A
beta cells
11
Q
where the beta cells are located in the pancreas
A
islets of Langerhans
12
Q
action that effects insulin secretion
A
eating
13
Q
insulin moves glucose to the ______ when levels increase
A
muscles
14
Q
where insulin works
A
muscles
liver
fat cells
15
Q
insulin _______ and _______ glucose for energy
A
transports and metabolizes
16
Q
insulin stimulates the storage of glucose in the liver and muscles in the form of _______
A
glycogen
17
Q
insulin signals the _____ to stop releasing glucose
A
liver
18
Q
insulin accelerates the transport of ______ ____ derived from dietary protein into the cells
A
amino acids
19
Q
insulin inhibits the breakdown of stored ______, _____, and _______
A
glucose, protein, and fat
20
Q
the pancreas secretes insulin during _______ periods
A
fasting
21
Q
______ si released when BS decreases
A
glucagon
22
Q
insulin works with _____ to maintain a constant level of glucose
A
glucagon
23
Q
_____ cells in the pancreas release glucagon
A
alpha
24
Q
the pancreas has stored glucose and it is released in response to _____ secretion
A
insulin
25
after 12 hours with no food, your liver forms glucose through _______
gluconeogenesis
26
genetic causation of type 1 diabetes
human leukocytic antigen gene
27
environmental causation of type 1 diabetes
virus/toxin attacks beta cells
28
breakdown of stored glucose by the liver
glycogenolysis
29
formation of new glucose by the liver by breaking down amino acids
gluconeogenesis
30
postprandial BS over ____ causes kidneys to reabsorb glucose and spill it into the urine
180
31
2 things insulin usually inhibits, but cannot in diabetes because of the destruction of beta cells
glycogenolysis
gluconeogenesis
32
3 P's of diabetes
polyuria
polydipsia
polyphagia
33
fasting plasma glucose (FPG) diagnostic criteria
greater than 126
34
random plasma glucose (RPG) diagnostic criteria
greater than 200
35
postprandial glucose (PPG) diagnostic criteria
grater than 200
36
A1C greater than ___% is diabetic
6.5
37
__% weight loss can dramatically lower blood sugars
5
38
___ - ___% of your food should be carbs
50-60
39
there are ___ calories in 1 gram of carbs
4
40
___-___% of your diet should be protein
10-20
41
there are ___ calories in 1 gram of protein
4
42
____-___% of your diet should be fat
20-30
43
there are ___ calories in 1 gram of fat
9
44
_____% of carbs ingested turn into glucose, bot only ____% of protein ingested turns into glucose
100, 50
45
BMR shows the number of calories you need to eat to _______ your weight
maintain
46
subtract BMR by _____ to lose 1 pound a week and subtract it by _____ to lose 2 pounds a week
500, 1000
47
BMR calculation
10(w) + 6.25 (h) - 5(age) +5 for men - 161 for women
48
avoid exercising if your BS is greater than _____ or less than ____
250, 80
49
self monitoring blood glucose should be done ___ to ___ times daily
2 to 4
50
4 times to self-monitor blood glucose
fasting
before meals
after meals
bedtime
51
the longer you have elevated BS the more glucose binds to _______
hemoglobin
52
albumin in the urine indicates early stage _______ ______
diabetic neuropathy
53
the _____ of insulin is when the patient is most at risk for hypoglycemia
peak
54
rapid acting insulin meets ___ to ____% of insulin needs
50 - 60
55
rapid-acting insulin onset
15 minutes
56
rapid-acting insulin peak
30-60 minutes
57
rapid acting insulin duration
2-4 hours
58
rapid-acting insulin helps with _________ hyperglycemia
postprandial
59
3 rapid-acting inulin examples
Humalog
Novolog
Apidra
60
short-acting insulin onset
30 - 60 minutes
61
short-acting insulin peak
2-3 hours
62
short-acting insulin duration
4-6 hours
63
reassess patient ___ minutes after administering __________ insulin
20, short-acting
64
2 short acting insulin examples
Humulin R
Novolin R
65
Humulin R peak
2-3 hours
66
novolin R peak
30 minutes - 2 hours
67
insulin used mainly for sliding scale dosing
short-acting
68
short-acting insulin is usually given ____ minutes before a meal
15
69
intermediate-acting insulin onset
2-4 hours
70
intermediate-acting insulin peak
4-12 hours
71
intermediate-acting insulin duration
16-20 hours
72
food should be taken around the time of the peak and onset of _______ insulin
intermediate-acting
73
intermediate acting insulin examples
NPH
Humulin N
Novolin N
74
___ to ___% of total body insulin requirements is basal
40-50
75
long-acting insulin onset
1-6 hours
76
long-acting insulin peak
NONE
77
long-acting insulin duration
24 hours
78
long-acting insulin is used for ______ dosing
basal
79
long-acting insulin examples
Lantus/Toujeo
Levemir
Tresiba
80
BS 141-180 give __ units
2
81
BS 181-200 give ___ units
3
82
BS 201-240 give ___ units
4
83
BS 241-280 give ___ units
5
84
BS 281-320 give ____ units
6
85
BS greater than _____ means you should notify the physician
320
86
you can use sliding scale for BS between _____ and ____
140 and 350
87
progressive rise in BS from bedtime to morning (throughout the night)
Insulin Waning
88
Insulin Waning is treated by increasing the evening dose of _______ or ______ acting insulin OR instituting a dose of insulin before the evening meal if not already doing so
long or intermediate
89
relatively normal BS until early morning hours; BS rises
Dawn Phenomenon
90
Dawn Phenomenon is treated by changing the time of their injection of intermediate-acting insulin from ______ time to ______ time
dinner, bed
91
normal or elevated BS at bedtime, early morning hypoglycemia, and a subsequent increased BS caused by the production of counter-regulatory hormones
Somogyi Effect
92
Somogyi Effect is treated by decreasing evening dose of _______ acting insulin or increasing bedtime snack
intermediate
93
NEVER mix _____-acting insulin with any other insulins in the same syringe
long
94
rapid and short-acting insulins are always ______ and Intermediate-acting insulins are always _______
clear, cloudy
95
always pull up _____ insulin 1st, and then _____
clear, cloudy
96
the preferred injection site of insulin because it has the most injection sites and the fastest absorption rate
abdomen
97
rotating injection sites is important to prevent loss of _____ tissue
fatty
98
loss of fatty tissue from insulin injections - leaves a spongy swelling area
lipoatrophy
99
insulin may be kept at room temp for ___ days to reduce irritation at injection site
28
100
only insulin that must be refrigerated at all times
Glargine (lantus)
101
prefilled syringes are stable for up to ___ days in the fridge
30
102
store prefilled syringes with needles pointed _____ to that particles do not clog the needle
up
103
second-generation sulfonylureas action
stimulate beta cells to secrete insulin
104
second-generation sulfonylureas are often used with ________
metformin
105
second-generation sulfonylureas have a high risk for ________ about 4-6 hours after a meal
hypoglycemia
106
second-generation sulfonylureas can cause hypoglycemia more frequently in ______ and patients with ________ impairment
elderly, renal
107
second-generation sulfonylureas interactions
NSAIDs
Sulfa
Coumadin
108
biguanides action
inhibits the production of glucose by the liver and increases sensitivity to insulin
109
biguanides can cause ______ ____
lactic acidosis
110
Biguanides contraindications
renal impairment
liver impairment
alcohol
IV contrast dye
111
alpha-glucosidase inhibitors action
delay absorption of complex carbs in the intestines and slows entry of glucose
112
alpha-glucosidase inhibitors must be taken with...
first bite of food
113
alpha-glucosidase inhibitors can cause _____ if not taken with food
flatulence
114
non-sulfonylurea insulin secretagogues/meglitinide analogs action
stimulates pancreas to secrete insulin
115
non-sulfonylurea insulin secretagogues/meglitinide analogs have a ______ action and _____ half-life
rapid, short
116
non-sulfonylurea insulin secretagogues/meglitinide analogs interacts with ______
antifungals
117
thiazolidinediones action
makes body tissue sensitive to inulin and stimulates receptor sites to lower BS
118
thiazolidinediones contraindications
Heart failure and cardiovascular disease
119
sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitors action
prevent kidneys from reabsorbing glucose back into blood and releases it in the urine
120
sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitors common side effect
UTI
121
sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitors can increase _____ and ____
LDL and HDL
122
dipeptidyl peptidas-4 inhibitors DDP-4 action
increases and prolongs incretin nd increases insulin release
123
a hormone that increases insulin release and decreases glucagon levels
incretin
124
dipeptidyl peptidas-4 inhibitors DDP-4 have a risk of ________
pancreatitis
125
3 uncommon side effects of dipeptidyl peptidas-4 inhibitors DDP-4
upper respiratory infection
sore throat
126
glucagon-like peptide-1 agonists action
enhances glucose-dependent insulin secretion and slows gastric emptying
127
glucagon-like peptide-1 agonists can cause ________
pancreatitis
128
glucagon-like peptide-1 agonists is contraindicated in _________
gastroparesis
129
GLP-1/glucose-dependent insulinotropic polypeptide action
- enhances glucose dependent insulin secretion
- slaws gastric emptying
- increases insulin sensitivity
- decreases food intake
130
GLP-1/glucose-dependent insulinotropic polypeptide enhances _____ and ____ phases of insulin sensitivity
first and second
131
GLP-1/glucose-dependent insulinotropic polypeptide cause an increased risk for _____ cancer
thyroid
132
GLP-1/glucose-dependent insulinotropic polypeptide contraindications
gastroparesis
renal injury
133
macrovascular diseases increase chance of _____ _____
early death
134
MI is __ to ___ times more likely with DM
2-3
135
risk for stroke is ___ to ___ times greater with DM
2-4
136
peripheral vascular disease is ___ to ____ times more likely in DM patients
2-3
137
most common reason for amputations
DM
138
3 things to control with micro and macrovascular diseases
blood pressure
lipids
blood sugar
139
BP should be less than _____ to reduce prevalence of micro/macrovascular diseases
140/80
140
LDL should be less than ______ and HDL should be greater than _____ to reduce the prevalence of micro/macrovascular diseases
100, 40
141
triglycerides should be under _____ to reduce the prevalence of micro/macrovascular diseases
150
142
A1C of ___% is considered well-controlled if you have DM
7
143
A1C of ___ to ___ %is considered pre-diabetic
6-6.4
144
leading cause of blindness
diabetic retinopathy
145
retinopathy is ___ times more likely in DM
25
146
diabetic retinopathy is strongly related to how long you have had DM, so if you have has DM fo over ___ years, you ar almost guaranteed to have retinopathy
20
147
diabetic retinopathy is characterized by _______ eye vessels and ______ int he retina
busted, swelling
148
in retinopathy, there are few ______ until vision loss occurs
manifestations
149
diabetic retinopathy causes ______ vision loss
central
150
2 things you are at risk for with diabetic retinopathy
glaucoma and cataracts
151
pathological change in kidneys where they cannot filter and function caused by diabetes
diabetic nephropathy
152
diabetic nephropathy leads to ______ _____
kidney failure
153
2 things diabetic nephropathy is the leading cause of
chronic kidneys disease
end-stage renal disease
154
you should test _________ in the urine to identify diabetic neprhopathy
albumin
155
serum _____ _____ levels will be elevated in diabetic nephropathy
uric acid
156
2 drugs that are used with diabetic nephropathy because they protect the kidneys from microvascular changes
ARBs
Ace inhibitors
157
diabetic neuropathy effects nerves and causes destruction of the _____ _____
myelin sheath
158
3 types of nerves diabetic neuropathy affect
peripheral
autonomic
spinal
159
_____% of people effected by diabetic neuropathy will not initially have symptoms
50
160
only test to assess not confirm diabetic neuropathy
sharp and dull
161
2 types of diabetic neuropathy
sensorimotor poly neuropathy/peripheral
autonomic
162
peripheral neuropathy mainly effects _____ extremities
lower
163
neuropathy related joint changes
Charchot's joint
164
3 systems autonomic neuropathy affects
cardiac
gastrointestinal
renal
165
5 medications that will help control symptoms and pain associated with diabetic neuropathy
Cymbalta
Neurontin
Lyrica
Tegretol
Mexitil
166
____ to ___% of amputations due to DM are preventable
50-75
167
best treatment for diabetic foot-related issues
prevention
168
most common medical emergency with DM
hypoglycemia
169
hypoglycemia typically occurs ___ times a week with DM
2
170
6 common causes of hypoglycemia
too much insulin
bad timing of insulin
oral hypoglycemic agents
too little food
increased exercise
weight loss
171
mild hypoglycemia is BS less than ___
60
172
moderate hypoglycemia is BS less than _____
40
173
mild hypoglycemia treatment
15 x 15 rule
174
always double check that moderate hypoglycemia is not a ______ because they present very similar
stroke
175
moderate hypoglycemia treatment
15-30 grams of carbs followed by milk or cheese 10-15 minutes later
176
severe hypoglycemia is BS below ___
20
177
3 signs of severe hypoglycemia
seizures
loss of consciousness
coma
178
with severe hypoglycemia administer 1mg ______ IM or IV OR give ____ _____ IV
glucagon, 50% dextrose
179
causation of DKA
uncontrolled hyperglycemia
180
4 causes of DKA
missed/incorrect dose of insulin
illness/infection
physical stressors
undiagnosed/untreated DM
181
DKA can cause you to urinate up to __ liters an hour
2
182
someone is DKA will have very _____ and _____ respirations
deep and rapid
183
in DKA the BS is between _____ and _____
300-1000
184
for DKA rehydrate with ________ rapidly over 2-3 hours to flush glucose out the kidneys
1/2 NS
185
in DKA, when BS gets back down to 300, add ______ and water to keep BG from bottoming out
dextrose 5%
186
when rehydrating in DKA, watch for ________
hypokalemia
187
CHF patient in HHS have a ___% mortality rate
20
188
causation of HHS
insulin deficiency
189
3 things that can cause insulin deficiency to cause HHS
illness
thiazides
dialysis
190
in HHS the BG will be between _____ and ____
600 to 1200
191
HHS will cause high ______ ______
serum osmolarity
192
2 patients that needs to be careful rehydrating in HHS
older patients
CHF patients
193
serum and urine ketones are present in _____, not _____
DKA, HHS
194
HHS and DKA both cause elevated _____ and _____
BUN and creatinine
195
DKA has a _____ mortality rate than HHS
lower
196
2 ethnic groups obesity if higher in
African american
hispanic
197
gender that is more obese
women
198
stomach hormone of hunger
ghrelin
199
small intestine hormone of hunger
NPY
200
3 hormones of satiety
insulin
somatostatin
cholecytokinin
201
hormone of adipose store
leptin
202
normal BMI
18-24.9
203
overweight BMI
25-29.9
204
class I obesity BMI
30-34.9
205
class II obesity BMI
35-39.9
206
class III (morbid) obesity BMI
greater than 40
207
low BP causes the release of ______
ADH
208
decrease in ADH causes _______ _______
diabetes insipidus
209
diabetes insipidus causes increased amounts of _______ urine
diluted
210
medication for diabetes insipidus
desmopressin
211
increases ADH leads to _______
SIADH
212
SAIDH causes low levels of _____
sodium
213
treat SIADH with _______
lasixs
214
thyroid hormone in charge of rapid metabolism
T3
215
thyroid hormone in charge of keeping metabolism steady
T4
216
thyroid hormone that lowers serum calcium levels
calcitonin
217
4 other functions besides metabolism of the thyroid gland
brain development
cholesterol levels
vascular resistance
growth
218
the ______ makes a protein that binds to thyroid hormones and transfers them where they need to go
liver
219
T__ is more potent and a better indicator for hyperthyroidism
3
220
test done to see how much T3 is circulating and how many open sites there are for binding
T3 resin uptake
221
more than ___% on the T3 resin uptake is hyperthyroidism
35
222
less than ____ on the T3 resin uptake means hypothyroidism
25
223
on a radioactive iodine uptake scan, if the the area is red then it means ________
hyperthyroidism
224
on a radioactive iodine uptake scan, if the area is blue then it means ______
cancer
225
allergy that usually has a cross allergy with iodine and should be asked before performing diagnostic tests
shellfish
226
thyroid antibodies check for _________ disorders
autoimmune
227
2 disorders that have a 100% thyroid antibody test
Hashimoto
graves disease
228
serum _______ is elevated in recurrent thyroid cancer
thyroglobulin
229
most common cause of hypothyroidism
hashimoto
230
4 other reasons for hypothyroidism
radioiodine treatment for hyperthyroidism
antithyroid meds
thyroidectomy
lithium
231
hypothyroidism is most common in elderly ______
women
232
emergent hypothyroidism
myxedema
233
myxedema can cause _____ ____ dysfunction
left ventricle
234
treatment for hypothyroidism
thyroid replacement
235
thyroid replacement medication
synthroid
levothyroxine
levoxyl
236
take thyroid replacement on a ______ stomach
empty
237
treatment my myxedema coma
IV T3 and T4
238
medication given for hypothyroidism if there is adrenal insufficiency
glucocorticoids
239
2 other medications given for hypothyroidism
cholesterol
antiarrythmic
240
hypnotics and sedatives decrease ______ with hypothyroidism
respirations
241
medication that decreases absorption of hypothyroidism medications
magnesium antacids
242
medication that lowers the effect of hypothyroid medication
digitalis
243
heating pads can cause _______ ______ in hypothyroidism which draws blood away from central organs and is dangerous
peripheral vasodilation
244
primary hypothyroidism is problems with the ______
thyroid
245
secondary/central hypothyroidism is problems with the _______ _____
anterior pituitary
246
tertiary hypothyroidism is problems with the ________
hypothlamaus
247
hyperthyroidism increased metabolism and increased response to ________ and _________
norepi and epi
248
most common cause for hyperthyroidism
Graves disease
249
another common cause for hyperthyroidism
goiter
250
hyperthyroidism is most common in ______ 20-40
women
251
hyperthyroidism can cause premature ________
osteoporosis
252
_______ and ________ are some of the most common signs of hyperthyroidism
nervousness and apprehension
253
hyperthyroidism can cause bulging eyes called ________
exopthalmos
254
check for _____ or _____ with goiter
bruit or thrill
255
______ ______ therapy is used for hyperthyroidism
radioactive iodine
256
things to avoid when doing radioactive iodine therapy
pregnancy
lactation
sex
close contact
sharing things
257
2 things to watch for with radioactive iodine therapy
thyroid storm
iodine toxicity
258
medications used for hyperthyroidism
propylthiouracil (PTU)
Methimazole (MMI/trapazole)
sodium/potassium iodine solutions
saturated solutions of potassium iodine (SSKI)
beta blockers
259
medication given with hyperthyroidism if there is adrenal insufficiency
dexamethasone
260
with PTU, check ______ enzymes and _____ before administering
liver, WBC
261
3 things to avoid with PTU
walnuts
soybeans
fiber
262
methimazole is ______ toxic than PTU but very similar
more
263
PTU must be taken _____
orally
264
give sodium iodine __ hour after PTU or methimazole
1
265
3 things to watch for with sodium iodine
edema
hemorrhage
GI upset
266
3 things to watch for with PTU
rash
N/V
agranulocytosis
267
discontinue iodine potassium if there is a _____
rash
268
mix SSKIs with milk or juice and give via _____
straw
269
extreme hyperthyroidism
thyroid storm
270
avoid ______ with thyroid storm because it increased hypermetabolic state
aspirin
271
IV fluid given in thyroid storm to replenish sugar stores in the liver
dextrose
272
______ is given in thyroid storm because it decreased T4
iodine
273
treatment choice for thyroid cancer
thyroidectomy
274
with thyroidectomy, watch for ______ related to injury of the parathyroid gland
hypoglycemia
275
parathyroid hormone (PTH) increased blood ______ levels and decreased blood ________ levels
calcium, phosporus
276
PTH helps in the conversion of vitamin ____
D
277
most patients who have hyperparathyroidism have _____ symptoms
no
278
3 things you are at risk for with high calcium levels caused by hyperparathyroidism
kidney stones
peptic ulcer
pancreatitis
279
decreased calcium in the bones caused by hyperparathyroidism can cause ______ and _____ pain
osteoporosis and back pain
280
medication to avoid with hyperparathyroidism because it can cause calcium retention
thiazide diuretics
281
you should increase _______ to treat hyperparathyroidism
hydration
282
watch for ______ post parathyroidectomy
tetany
283
emergency crisis that occurs with hyperparathyroidism
hypercalcemic crisis
284
hypercalcemic crisis results in _____, _____, and _____ problems that can be life threatening
neurological, cardiovascular, and kidney
285
in hypercalcemic crisis rapidly rehydrate with ______ fluids to exchange the calcium with sodium
isotonic
286
administer IV _______ in hypercalcemic crisis
calcitonin
287
medication given in hypercalcemic crisis that increases bone absorption of calcium
biphosphonates - fosamax
288
IV calcitonin increases renal _______ of calcium and increased _______ of calcium into the bones
excretion, reabsorption
289
deficiency of vitamin ____ can cause hypoparathyroidism
D
290
5 symptoms of hypoparathyroidism
tetany
chvostek sign
trousseau sign
paresthesias
prolonged QT interval
291
in hypoparathyroidism you want to increase calcium levels to ___ to ___ mg
9 to 10
292
emergency IV medication for hypoparathyroidism
IV calcium gluconate
293
calcium gluconate is a ________, which means it can eat away at the skin if the IV is infiltrated
vesicant
294
3 vitamins/minerals to give in hypoparathyroidism
magnesium
vitamin D2
vitamin D3
295
in hypoparathyroidism give ________ to decrease neuromuscular irritability
pentobarbital
296
in hypoparathyroidism give _____ ______ to decrease serum phosphate
phosphate binders
297
_________ may be administered with hypoparathyroidism, but you have to be careful for allergic reactions
parathormone
298
the adrenal ______ functions as part of the autonomic nervous system
medulla
299
the adrenal medulla secretes _______ such as norepinephrine and epinephrine
catecholamines
300
catecholamines secreted by the adrenal medulla increase _______ and _______
metabolism and glucose
301
the adrenal cortex secretes ________ such as cortisol and _________ such as aldosterone
glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids
302
cortisol secreted by the adrenal cortex increases ______ and _______
glucose and metabolism
303
chronic use is glucocorticoids can lead to _______ _______
adrenal insufficiency
304
aldosterone secreted by the adrenal cortex causes _______ and _______ reabsorption (retain)
sodium and water
305
excess _______ increased the action of aldosterone
potassium
306
aldosterone causes you to lose ______
potassium
307
benign tumor of the adrenal medulla
pheochromocytoma
308
pheochromocytoma causes boluses of ________ and ______
epinephrine and norepinephrine
309
5 H's of pheochromocytoma
hypertension
headache
hyperhidrosis
hypermetabolism
hyperglycemia
310
pheochromocytomas usually occur between age ____ and ____
40 and 50
311
a 24 hour catecholamine test shows how many ____ they are getting
boluses
312
6 things you can not eat when you are doing a 24 hour catecholamine test
coffee
tea
banana
chocolate
vanilla
aspirin
313
in the clonidine suppression test, if the clonidine does not suppress catecholamines then it is __________
pheochromocytoma
314
pheochromocytoma has an ______ onset with a _____ decline
abrupt, slow
315
3 medication classes taken to control pheochromocytoma temporary
alpha blockers
beta-blockers
calcium channel blockers
316
you should have a high _____ diet with pheochromocytoma because the medications can alter BP a lot
sodium
317
before surgery for pheochromocytoma, have head of the bed elevated to ___ degrees
30
318
post op of pheochromocytoma surgery the patient may need _________
corticosteroids
319
postop pheochromocytoma watch for _______ changed
EKG
320
addison's disease is the main cause of adrenocortical __________
insufficiency
321
4 medications that can cause adrenocortical insufficiency
exogenous steroids over use
anticoagulants
anticonvulsants
antibiotics (TB meds)
322
adrenocortical insufficiency will cause ____ sodium levels, ____ blood sugar, and _____ potassium levels
low, low, high
323
addisonian crisis is caused by severe _______
dehydration
324
lower serum ______ in the morning indicates addison's disease or adrenocortical insufficiency
cortisol
325
ACTH will be super ______ in Addisons or adrenocortical insufficiency
high
326
early morning ACTH and cortisol levels help distinguish _______ vs. _______ adrenocortical insufficiency
primary vs. secondary
327
in Addisons, the decreased glucose and increased potassium causes a high ______
WBC
328
to treat Addison's (adrenocortical insufficiency) administer IV ________ followed by _______ and potentially ______
hydrocortisone
D5NS
vasopressors
329
vasopressors _______ BP
increase
330
3 things that needs to be high in someones diet who has Addison's
sodium
carbs
portien
331
mineralocorticoid administered for Addisons disease to prevent shock
Florinef
332
Cushing's syndrome is caused by adrenocortical ________
overactivity
333
medication that can also cause adrenocortical overactivity
corticosteroids
334
if serum cortisol is not ____ in the morning or ____ at night like it should be then it is Cushing's
high, low
335
24 hour urinary cortisol screening will be __x higher in Cushing"s
3
336
if cortisol is greater than ____ in the morning after dexamethasone suppression given before bed, then it is Cushing's
5
337
in Cushing's there will be ____ sodium, ____ glucose, and ____ potassium
high, high, low
338
medication used to treat Cushing's
adrenal enzyme inhibitors (metopirone)
