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Embryology > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

hematopoietic and neuronal stem cells are examples of ____ stem cells.

a. totipotent
b. unipotent
c. pluripotent
d. multipotent
e. hemapotent

A

multipotent

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2
Q

the process termed “instrictive interaction” is initiation of gene expression which ultimately leads to ____ in the reponding cell?

  • capitation
  • differentiation
  • apoptosis
  • chemotaxis
A

differentiation

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3
Q

which applies to paracrine factors?
- no physical contact between adjacent cells is requires for induction
- are capable of diffusing over short distances to be active
- are protein products which must be synthesized
- all of the above

A

all of the above

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4
Q

nucleosomes include all but which one of the following components?

  • histones
  • double bands of DNA
  • enhancers
  • linker proteins
A

enhancers

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5
Q

the ability of a cell to respond to chemical mediators from an inducer is known as _____.

  • controlled
  • compliance
  • complentary
  • competence
A

competence

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6
Q

to recruit acetyl transferases and loosen the histones and nucleosomes requires what?

  • promoter sites
  • polymerase enzymes
  • transcription factors
  • linker proteins
A

transcription factors

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7
Q

the choice below that is correc as a result of somatic nuclear transfer and the cloning of “Dolly” the sheep is option #

  • dolly was similar to the donor somatic nuclei both in genotype and phenotype
  • dolly was similar to the donoe somatic nuceli by phenotype but not genotype
  • dolly was similar to the donoe somatic nuclei by genotype but not phenotype
  • although a live sheep was borm there was a difference in the genotype and phenotype compares to the somatic donor nuclei
A

3: dolly was similar to the donoe somatic nuclei by genotype but not phenotype

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8
Q

negative enchancers do which of the following

  • repress transcription
  • maintain the proper sequence of morphogenesis & organogenesis
  • prevent premature formation of specific proteins and cell types
  • there are no negative enhancers, only positice acting enhancers
  • A,B,C
A

A,B,C

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9
Q

which of the following terms SHOULD NOT be included with the other three?

  • microinjection
  • differential splicing
  • electroporation
  • transfection
A

differential splicing

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10
Q

the ability of blastomeres to compensate for missing pieces or cell types is known as what?

  • autonomy
  • accomodation
  • specification
  • regulation
A

regulation

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11
Q

the ability of blastomeres to compensate for missing pieces or cell types is known as what?

  • autonomy
  • accomodation
  • specification
  • regulation
A

regulation

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12
Q

which of the following is NOT true as it relates to the condition known as polyspermic fertilization?

  • may result in the formation of a triploid organism
  • could possible lead to embryonic anomalies
  • the blastomeres still undergo normal formation
  • is the result of excess sperm cells entering the egg cytoplasm
A

the blastomeres still undergo normal formation

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13
Q

programmed cell death is a normal component of development during gestation. The scientific/medical term for programmed cell death is ____.

  • capacitation
  • tissue refinement
  • apoptosis
  • determination
A

apoptosis

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14
Q

the death or anomalies to the eggs of amphibious species by UV irradiation may be prevented by a melanin type product known as what?

  • mycosporin
  • proteoglycan
  • cytosporin
  • zona pellucida
A

mycosporin

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15
Q

the “temporal” effects on nuclear transfer refer to what component or influence during that process?

  • temperature at the time of transfer
  • the time that has elapsed during the specification of cells
  • the concentraation of ozygen and carbon dioxide surrounding tthe cells
  • the methos of transferring the nucleus from the donor to the recipient
A

the time that has elapsed suring the specification of cells

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16
Q

amoung the 1st to observe the Primary Germ Layers included which of these scientist?

  • Karl Ernst von Baer
  • August Weismann
  • Aristole
  • Dr. Lee
A

Karl Ernst von Baer

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17
Q

the regions of the DNA which code for a protein are known as the ____?

  • inducers
  • introns
  • exons
  • responders
A

exons

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18
Q

which of the choices below is not one of the two primary cell types listed in your notes from which other cells. tissues and organs develop from?

  • somatic cells
  • epithelial cells
  • messenchymal cells
A

somatic cells

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19
Q

the destruction or mutation to the genome specifically in the Inner Cell Mass will lead to the abnorma development of the ____ of the embryo.

  • extra-embryonic membranes such as the placents
  • body parts of the embryo proper
  • there will be no abnormal development b/c of the ICM is not under genetic control
A

body parts of the embryo proper

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20
Q

the extracellular matrix necessary for similar cells to attach to for tissue formation is comprised of all BUT which one of these?

  • fibronectin
  • cadherins
  • proteoglycans
  • myosin
  • integrins
A

myosin

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21
Q

growth factors are an example of ____ in the embryo during cell-cell interaction and induction between neighboring cells.

  • autocrine factors
  • paracrine factors
  • differentiation factors
  • juxacrine factors
A

paracrine factors

22
Q

newly transcribes mRNA was rapidly degraded once it reached the cytoplasm and before it could go through translation at the ribosomes. The most likely reason for this degradation is…?

  • it is lacking the necessary exons
  • the cap and tail pieces are missing
  • nucleosomes were not linked together
  • spliceosomes were allowed access to the mRNA prematurely
  • the introns were not excised out following transcription
A

the cap & tail pieces are missing

23
Q

T/F

when looking at the percentage of embryos which developed normally following nuclear transplant in frogs, a significant increase in success is more likely to be seen at the later stages of potency or timing within the embryo.

A

False

24
Q

T/F

the methods of “selective expression” of gene products leading specific proteins and cell types can only occur within the cytoplasm and by selective translation of mRNA.

A

False

25
Q

T/F

gene expressionn within the “responder” cell can be altered by factors from the “inducer” cell and by changing the gene code in the responder

A

False

26
Q

T/F

the “preformationist” group believed that the spern or egg carried all the information for a new being in the form of a tiny adult referred to as a homunculus

A

true

27
Q

T/F

the concept of syncytial specification occurs in the mammalian species such as mice and even humans as the nuclei divides within the egg and spreads throughout the syncytium

A

false

28
Q

T/F

teratogens are agents which are responsible for disruptions at the receptor and second messenger system level of the affected cell

A

False

29
Q

T/F

during “autonomous specification” cells removed from the blastomere will not develop as normal, however the embryo will still form those structures which would have been formed by the removed cell types

A

false

30
Q

T/F

following translation, the polypeptide must still go through a series of a conformational changes before becoming an active protein product

A

true

31
Q

T/F

paracrine and juxtacrine factors have the ability to bind directly to segments of DNA in the responding cells without having to first bind to receptors

A

false

32
Q

T/F

in the case of a human embryo, the presence of the blastula or blastocyst occurs at approximately 5 days after fertilization?

A

true

33
Q

T/F

enucleated or anucleated eggs are those in which the nucleus has been removed for perhaps experiments where you are transferring in a donor nucleus

A

true

34
Q

T/F

the potency, or ability of the stem cells to differentiate, begins to decrease and be lost in the later stages of nuclear transfer

A

true

35
Q

T/F

apoptosis is a congenital “pathological disease” process that results in loss of normal anatomy and therefore loss of “normal” physiology

A

false

36
Q

T/F

in “permissive interaction” between an inducer and responder cell, the responder is already specified but just requires the proper environment to develop

A

True

37
Q

T/F

one thing that was discovered in the cloning of Dolly the sheep, is the adult vertebrate somatic cells can only be pluripotent

A

false

38
Q

T/F

“determination” refers to cells that differentiate autonomously in-vitro and is a reversible process

A

False

39
Q

T/F

in terms of potency, multipotent stems cells are capable of producing a wider range of cell types than are those that are totipotent

A

false

40
Q

T/F

as the macroscopic events were proven or discredited by the ability to see microscopically, the concept the “preformation” ultimately gave way to “epigenesis”

A

true

41
Q

T/F

following the stages of early division of the blastomeres, post-fertilization, the blastula is seen forming after the morula stage

A

true

42
Q

T/F

as a result of “the human genome project” we now known that the human DNA contains approximately 25,000 protein encoding genes

A

true

43
Q

T/F

the theroy of “mosaic development” is generally associated with “autonomous specification”?

A

true

44
Q

what type of experiment involves removing a portion of the embryo to observe expression of the embryo and the removed section

A

isolation experiment

45
Q

an exchange of regions form different embryos would be…..?

A

transplantation experiment

46
Q

a specific portion of the embryo is sacrificed to observe the phenotypic affect

A

defect experiment

47
Q

exchange of different regions of the same embryo is what type of experiment?

A

recombination experiment

48
Q

the method of allowing DNA fragments to be absorbed into cells

A

transfection

49
Q

the belief that organs form “de novo” is referred to as….?

A

epigenesis

50
Q

the process of differentiated cells organizing into tissues and organs

A

morphogenesis

51
Q

the term is defined as the zygote begnning to divide. forming blastomeres

A

cleavage

Embryology (14 decks)

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