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Flashcards in Exam 1 - 2nd Semester Deck (82)
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1

Acute Phase response (i.e. systemic inflammation) effects include:

A.An elevation of core body temperature
B.Increased metabolism
C.Increased white blood cell count
D.All of the above

D. all of the above

2

Which of the following serves as the primary intracellular cue for the release of interferon by a virus infected cell?

A.The presence of MHC I
B.The presence of double-stranded RNA
C.The presence of single stranded DNA
D.The presence of intracellular viral protein

B.The presence of double-stranded RNA

3

As part of a systemic inflammatory response, the cytokines: _____, _____, and______ act on the ______ to increase the production of acute phase response proteins such as C-reactive protein and Mannose-binding lecithin.

A.IL-1, IL-6, and TNF- act on the liver
B.IL-1, IL-6, and TNF- act on the spleen
C.IL-12, IL-8, and interferon act on the liver
D.IL-1, IL-6, and interferon act on helper T cells

A.IL-1, IL-6, and TNF- act on the liver

4

Which of the following cytokines when released systemically, in high enough concentrations, is primarily responsible for bringing about a state of septic shock?

A.IL-12
B.IGF-beta
C.interferon-alpha
D.TNF-alpha

D.TNF-alpha

5

The effects of interferon α and β include:

A.Promotes the degradation of viral RNA
B.Increases production of MHC I
C.Activates surrounding NK cells
D.All of the above

D.All of the above

6

Acute phase response proteins such as CRP and MBL contribute to innate immunity by:

A.Activating macrophages
B.Direct phagocytosis
C.Contributing to activation of the Complement System
D.Acting as self-antigens

C. Contributing to activation of the Complement System

7

Which class of MHC is present on all cells (except for erythrocytes) and recognized by CD8 T cells and NK lymphocytes?

A.MHC I
B.MHC II
C. MHC III
D.None of the above

A.MHC I

8

Which of following can lead to chronic inflammation?

A.a superficial traumatic injury
B.elevated blood pressure during intense exercise
C.habitual cigarette smoking
D.eating a meal high in cholesterol

C.habitual cigarette smoking

9

In the process of the generation of clonal diversity (of B and T lymphocytes), successful “clonal deletion” is necessary for the development of:

A.Central Tolerance

B.Autoimmunity

C.Peripheral Tolerance

D.Alloimmunity

A.Central Tolerance

10

Immunoglobulins are secreted into circulation by which of the following cell types?

A.Helper T cells

B.Naïve B lymphocytes

C.Cytotoxic T cells

D.Plasma cells

D.Plasma cells

11

The avidity of antibodies refers to:

A.The strength of the bond between the antibody and the antigen
B.The number of binding sites between the antibody and the antigen
C.The speed with which antibodies are released
D.All of the above

B.The number of binding sites between the antibody and the antigen

12

The clinically designated “grade” of a cancer corresponds to:

A.The cancer’s degree of malignancy/aggressiveness
B.The rate of cell turnover in the tumor
C.The degree of anaplasia observed in the tumor
D.All of the above

D.All of the above

13

Which of the following routes of mutagenesis involves an exogenous source of oncogenes?

A.Gene-environment interactions
B.Inherited cancer genes
C.Direct mutagenesis by oncogenic viruses
D.Mutagenesis by oncogenic bacteria

C.Direct mutagenesis by oncogenic viruses

14

A loss of functional fibronectin is in part responsible for which of the following traits of cancer cells?

A.Mitotic division rate inhibited by tissue cell density

B.Greater cell motility

C.Loss of differentiation

D.Enzyme production

B.Greater cell motility

15

Compared to normal cells, cancer cells:

A.Have a more symmetrical shape
B.Have more amorphous shape with greater intracellular disorganization
C.Are smaller in shape
D.Have a more uniform morphology in tissue

B.Have more amorphous shape with greater intracellular disorganization

16

Which of the following are common characteristics of a malignant tumor?

A.Tumor cells fully encapsulated
B.Homogenous cells that correspond in type and organization to surrounding tissue
C.Expansive growth which displaces surrounding tissue
D.None of the above

D.None of the above

17

Which of the following statements is true about the development of antibiotic resistance?

A.The more wide-spread the use of an antibiotic is, the more resistance to that antibiotic we will observe.
B.Bacteria that develop resistance to an antibiotic can transmit those resistance genes to other bacteria.
C.The development of some degree of resistance is an inevitable consequence of the use of antibiotics.
D.All of the above

D.All of the above

18

A bacterial infection that cannot be treated with antibiotics can lead to:

A.Sepsis
B.Shock/multi-organ failure
C.Death
D.All of the above

D.All of the above

19

In what highly reputable medical journal did Dr. Andrew Wakefield publish his 1998 study suggesting a link between autism and the MMR vaccine?

A.The New England Journal of Medicine
B.The Lancet
C.JAMA
D.None of the above

B.The Lancet

20

Which of the following best describes the demographics of US regions with the highest rates of vaccine non-compliance (voluntary refusal to vaccinate)?

A.Low socio-economic status and poor access to healthcare
B.less likely to have completed higher levels of education
C.higher socio-economic status, highly levels of education completed
D.socially conservative and strictly religious

C.higher socio-economic status, highly levels of education completed

21

Currently in most states across the country parents can gain exception from mandated vaccinations for children attending public schools based on which of the following reasons.

A.Religious beliefs
B.Medical exception - ex immune-compromised or allergy
C.Person beliefs
D.all of the above

D.all of the above

22

Compare and contrast how the CDC VS WHO classify HIV infection.

Similarities: Both define HIV infection as including 1) a positive result on a HIV antibody test confirmed by a positive result on a second, different HIV antibody test AND/OR 2) a positive virologic test confirmed by a second virological test.

Differences: CDC case definition also classifies HIV infection based on the absolute CD4 cell count as stage 1 (CD4 cell count >500 cells/microL), 2 (CD4 cell count 200 to 499), or 3 (CD4 cell count

23

What is the Mode of acquisition for HIV?

usually acquired through sexual intercourse, exposure to infected blood, or perinatal transmission

24

What are the risk factors for HIV transmission?

high viral load
certain sexual behaviors
presence of ulcerative sexually transmitted infections
lack of circumcision
host and genetic factors

25

Describe the clinical presentation of acute retroviral syndrome.

fever
lymphadenopathy
sore throat
rash
myalgia/arthralgia
headache

note: proportion of patients with early HIV infection will be asymptomatic

In early HIV infection, the viral RNA level is typically very high (eg, >100,000 copies/mL) and the CD4 cell count can drop transiently

26

What is “Seroconversion”?

the development of detectable antibodies against HIV antigens

most HIV-infected patients have documented seroconversion during early infection, ie, within the first six months after infection.

27

What is the “viral set point”?

When the plasma viremia has reached a steady state level by approx. 6 months

closely associated with the rate of disease progression in the absence of antiretroviral therapy

28

What defines AIDS (i.e. defining conditions)?

AIDS-defining conditions are opportunistic illnesses that occur more frequently or more severely because of immunosuppression

These opportunistic illnesses typically occur when the CD4 cell count has decreased

29

What are “Long-term nonprogressors”?

A minority of HIV infected patients who are not on antiretroviral therapy (ART) do not develop clinical progression and have stable CD4 cell counts and low levels of detectable viremia (

30

What are “Elite Controllers”?

a subset of long-term nonprogressors who have no detectable viremia, even on ultrasensitive diagnostic testing