Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

fire location %:
head, face, neck, upper chest, airway

A

65%

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2
Q

Surgeries that require “open oxygen delivery”: use less than ____% O2

A

less than 30% O2

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3
Q

standard V

A

positioning

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4
Q

standard VIII

A

safety

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5
Q

_______ position carries some degree of risk

A

Every position carries some degree of risk

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6
Q

Erect to supine leads to ___________ venous return

A

INCREASED venous return

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7
Q

Increased MAP leads to:
stimulation of _____________

A

baroreceptors

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8
Q

Stimulation of baroreceptors leads to:
_____________ HR, SV, CO (decreased SNS, increased PNS)

A

DECREASED HR, SV, CO
(decreased SNS, increased PNS)

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9
Q

Stimulation of ______ and __________ mechanoreceptors leads to:
____________ SNS to muscle and vascular beds

A

stimulation of atrial and ventricular mechanoreceptors leads to DECREASED SNS to muscle and vascular beds

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10
Q

Atrial reflexes leads to:
changes in ____ activity

A

RAA activity

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11
Q

MAP is maintained within a narrow range during postural changes in a ___________________ setting

A

MAP maintained in non-anesthetized setting

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12
Q

volatiles cause

A

vasodilation and dependent pooling

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13
Q

NMBs cause

A

abolished muscle tone (decreased venous return and pooling)

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14
Q

MAP decreases __ mmHg per _____ change between the heart and a body region

A

MAP decreases 2 mmHg per inch

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15
Q

Decreased compliance and increased resistance from shifting organs & positioning devices?

A

decreased FRC and lung capacity

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16
Q

______ position change may cause ETT migration

A

ANY change

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17
Q

what is common to all nerve injuries

A

ischemia (due to perfusion issues)

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18
Q

Length of procedure that commonly can cause nerve injury

A

> 4 hours

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19
Q

NMB leads to _____________ mobility and stretching

A

NMB leads to increased mobility and stretching

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20
Q

ulnar nerve comes from what cord

A

medial

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21
Q

ABDUCT arms _____ degrees

A

< less than 90 degrees

(try to keep arms closer to the body)

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22
Q

make sure head is turned _________ the arm that is extended

A

toward

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23
Q

venous air emboli is common with which position

A

sitting

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24
Q

AVOID hyperflexion of the neck

if necessary, use ___ fingerbreadths between chest and chin

A

2 fingerbreadths

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25
Q

Common nerve injuries

ether screen, retractor pole

A

radial or circumflex

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26
Q

Common nerve injuries

lateral position, dependent arm with shoulder circumducted

A

suprascapular

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27
Q

Common nerve injuries

inadequate padding supine or sitting

A

sciatic

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28
Q

Common nerve injuries

lithotomy stirrups, bar, knee support

A

Common Peroneal
Posterior tibial
Saphenous

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29
Q

Common nerve injuries

lithotomy with excessive hip flexion

A

Obturator

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30
Q

Common nerve injuries

traction against perineal post of fracture table

A

pudendal

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31
Q

most common postop vision loss (accounts for 89% prone, spinal cases)

A

Ischemic Optic Neuropathy (ION)

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32
Q

risk factors for Ischemic Optic Neuropathy (ION)

A

big back cases
prone
spinal
long cases
HTN, male, CV dx, DM, obesity

Patients should be aware of risks!

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33
Q

how does ION occur

A

watersheds are highly vulnerable

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34
Q

ION:
_____________ perfusion with ___________ intraocular pressure

A

DECREASED perfusion with INCREASED intraocular pressure

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35
Q

OPP ocular perfusion pressure =

A

MAP – intraocular pressure IOP

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36
Q

What does NOT cause ION

A

globe pressure!

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37
Q

what is second most common postop vision loss

A

Central Retinal ARTERY Occlusion (CRAO)

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38
Q

postop vision loss:
HYPERtension, CV disease, obesity, glaucoma, Sickle Cell anemia

A

Central Retinal VEIN Occlusion

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39
Q

postop vision loss:
CP bypass, HYPOtension, increased extraocular pressure

A

Central Retinal ARTERY Occlusion (CRAO)

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40
Q

postop vision loss:
Results from ischemia or trauma from emboli, CP bypass, decreased perfusion

A

Corticol blindness

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41
Q

postop vision loss:
L-arginine deficiency leads to accumulated ammonia leads to vision loss (very rare syndrome)

A

glycine toxicity

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42
Q

1 positional cause of compartment syndrome

A

lithotomy

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43
Q

what gas is associated with VAE

A

nitrogen gas

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44
Q

when can VAE occur (2 things)

A

sitting position
surgical site above right atrium (air vacuum)

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45
Q

patent foramen ovale in ____ of patients

A

1/3

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46
Q

paradoxical air embolism occurs through the _____ when ____>____ pressure

A

PFO
RA>LA

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47
Q

what is gold standard monitoring for VAE

A

TEE

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48
Q

what is most common monitoring for VAE

A

precordial doppler
3rd – 6th intercostal space, RIGHT of sternum

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49
Q

airway complications are usually due to what problem

A

lymphatic flow obstruction

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50
Q

airway complications are usually caused by:

A

ETT displacement
mainstem intubation
kinking
disconnects
esophageal stethoscopes
oral airway

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51
Q

pregnancy: use ______ _____________ uterine displacement

A

LEFT LATERAL

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52
Q

T-burg helps to __________ venous return during hypotension

A

increase venous return

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53
Q

when MAP is NORMAL, it leads baroreceptors to _____________ CO, PVR, HR, BP

A

MAP normal= decreased CO, PVR, HR, BP

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54
Q

shoulder braces: center above the acromioclavicular joint

should you use IMPROPER placement?

A

YES, use improper placement (otherwise brachial plexus risk)

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55
Q

reverse t-burg is often used for

A

laparoscopic procedures

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56
Q

when MAP, CO, preload is DECREASED, it leads to ___________ HR, SNS, PVR

A

MAP decreased= increased HR, SNS, PVR

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57
Q

Lithotomy
increased risk of _________ so do NOT use LMA

A

aspiration

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58
Q

often the position used for renal surgery, thoracic, ortho

A

lateral decubitus

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59
Q

use ______________ arm for pulse ox

A

dependent arm

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60
Q

issues with lateral decubitus

A

ears hurting
rhabdo
V/Q mismatch

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61
Q

what is the worst position

A

sitting

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62
Q

eye issues are common with what position

A

prone

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63
Q

position for LONG spinal procedures (scoliosis)

A

Jackson Table

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64
Q

hypothalamus uses both ________ and _________ feedback

A

positive AND negative feedback

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65
Q

requires nearly constant internal body temp

A

homeothermic

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66
Q

organism takes on the temperature of the surrounding environment

A

poikilothermic

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67
Q

what 3 body parts are part of the core temp

A

abdomen, thorax, head

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68
Q

dispersion of heat

A

thermolysis

(Conduction, Evaporation, Radiation, Convection)

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69
Q

production of heat

A

thermogenesis

(shivering, nonshivering, diet, BMR)

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70
Q

what can change body temp

A

o Circadian rhythm (peaks at 6pm)
o Exercise
o Food intake
o Infection
o Thyroid function
o Age
o Anesthesia, sedatives, alcohol
o Obesity (increased BMR)

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71
Q

temperature sensors are ___ferent

A

afferent

72
Q

WARM temp
UNmyelinated
small
DULL pain

A

C fibers

73
Q

COLD temp
myelinated
small
SHARP pain

A

A delta fibers

74
Q

1st mechanism to respond during heat conservation

A

vasoconstriction

energy efficient

75
Q

energy INefficient

A

shivering
2x-5x O2 consumption

76
Q

newborns and premature infants ___ ____ shiver

A

DO NOT shiver

77
Q

stimulates lipolysis with heat release

doubles heat production in infants

A

non-shivering thermogenesis

78
Q

most important insulator against heat loss

A

intact skin

79
Q

peaks at age 2; for each 1-degree F change, THIS changes by ___%

A

Basal metabolic rate
7% difference

80
Q

> 36ºC

A

normothermia

81
Q

34ºC - 35.9ºC

A

mild

82
Q

32ºC - 33.9ºC

A

moderate

83
Q

< 32ºC

A

severe

84
Q

Anesthesia: induces ___________ allows core heat to flow _______________

A

induces vasodilation
peripherally
core compartment gets bigger

85
Q

Electromagnetic heat waves emanate from all surfaces

A

radiation

86
Q

biggest heat loss type

A

radiation

87
Q

bair hugger/forced air convection unit: good for BOTH ____________ + ____________

A

both convection + radiation

88
Q

Loss of heat via water loss from the skin, mucous membranes, open wound

A

evaporation

89
Q

Loss of heat to air currents (i.e., wind)

A

convection

90
Q

Transfer of heat between two adjacent surfaces with direct contact

A

conduction

91
Q

2nd most common heat loss type

A

evaporation

92
Q

3rd most common heat loss type

A

convection

93
Q

4th most common heat loss type

A

conduction

94
Q

____ anesthetics produce hypothermia

A

ALL anesthetics

95
Q

how do anesthetics produce hypothermia (4 ways)

A
  1. Skeletal muscle relaxation (no shivering)
  2. Vasodilation
  3. DECREASED BMR (20%-40%)
  4. Impaired non-shivering thermogenesis
96
Q

steep, fast drop in temp (usually 1 to 2 degrees) in the first hour

Core temp going to periphery

A

phase I

97
Q

gradual, slower decline in temp in the next 2 to 3 hours

Continued heat loss to the environment exceeding heat production

A

phase II

98
Q

longest, steady, equilibration state

Metabolic heat production matches heat loss

A

phase III

99
Q

what causes the biggest drop in temp AND never reaches phase III

A

combined general anesthesia + epidural

100
Q

anesthesia causes:
Interthreshold range __________ ____ to____ times, margins get larger

A

increases 10-20x

101
Q

________ do NOT have thermoregulatory control

A

elderly!
blunted vasoconstrictor response
decreased BMR
decreased muscle mass for shivering

102
Q

treatment for shivering

A

25 mg demerol (meperidine)
75 ug clonidine
supplemental O2

103
Q

platelet ____________ is the issue for hypothermia

A

functioning

104
Q

even _____ hypothermia increases circulating norepi by ____x

A

mild hypothermia (1 C)
5x

105
Q

occurs at the junction of QRS-ST segments

height is directly proportional to the degree of hypothermia

80% of patients with temp <35 C

A

J wave=osbourne wave

106
Q

what can hypothermia cause

A

dyshythmias
unstable angina, MI, cardiac arrest
increased PVR (acidotic)
increased blood viscocity (thick)
bradycardia in infants
J wave

107
Q

hypothermia:
____x incidence of surgical wound infections

A

3x

108
Q

____x incidence of morbid cardiac outcomes

A

3x

109
Q

hypothermia
prolonged PACU stays (___ days)

A

2 days/20% increase

110
Q

Drug: __________ stays hypothermic longer due to quick and profound vasodilation

A

propofol

111
Q

Drug: _____________ gradual vasodilation, greater chance of recovery

A

sevoflurane

112
Q

most effective means (not in the body) of heat conservation

A

bair hugger

113
Q

give warm fluids if giving patient greater than > ___liters/hour

A

2 Liters/hour

114
Q

greatest area of heat loss

A

extremities

115
Q

3 benefits of hypothermia

A

-less trigger of malignant hyperthermia
-protection against spinal cord ischemia
-multiple sclerosis

116
Q

rapid induction, quick awakening drug
used for peds, inhalation, induction
“fast on, fast off”

A

sevoflurane

117
Q

yellow bottle

A

sevoflurane

118
Q

blue bottle

A

desflurane

119
Q

purple bottle

A

isoflurane

120
Q

burnt orange bottle

A

halothane

121
Q

Can react with CO2 absorbents to form nephrotoxic compound A

A

sevo

122
Q

good drug for maintenance

A

des

123
Q

Requires specially designed, electrically heated vaporizer

A

des

124
Q

only gas that can be refilled without turning the vaporizer off

A

des

125
Q

during induction, must combine this drug with IV agents

A

des

126
Q

drug can cause tachycardia (caution with CAD)

A

des

127
Q

Rapid elimination results in QUICKEST awakening

A

des

128
Q

drug gold standard for neurosurgery

A

isoflurane

129
Q

drug significant peripheral vasodilation can cause hypotension

A

iso

130
Q

drug coronary artery steal syndrome: arteries dilate to the point that perfusion is an issue for other areas

A

iso

131
Q

drug emergence is slowest on and off of all gases

A

halothane

132
Q

drug no longer used

Major hemodynamic issues
Potent bronchodilator (so, it is good for asthma)
Causes hepatitis
Increased risk of dysrhythmias (especially with catecholamines)

A

halothane

133
Q

NOT a volatile agent (used to SUPPLEMENT)

A

nitrous oxide

134
Q

sympathomimetic activity

diffuses into air-filled spaces rapidly (increases pressure)

diffusion hypoxia

A

nitrous oxide

135
Q

drug good for OB, bradycardia, hemodynamic compromise

A

nitrous oxide

136
Q

a device for converting liquid volatile anesthetic agent into breathable vapor

A

vaporizer

137
Q

Concentration-calibrated dials between _____ ________ and ______

A

between flow meters and CGO

138
Q

Gaseous molecules from a substance that is LIQUID at room temp AND at 1 atm (760)

A

vapor

139
Q

increasing temp _________ vaporization

A

increases

DIRECTly related

140
Q

Increasing vaporization:
____________ temp of the liquid BELOW

A

decreases liquid below (freezing)

141
Q

equilibrium pressure of a vapor above its liquid or solid

A

vapor pressure

142
Q

when equilibrium is met at a certain temperature

A

saturated vapor pressure

143
Q

vapor pressure is dependent only on ______ AND _______________

A

Dependent only on AGENT and TEMP

144
Q

Temp at which vapor pressure equals atm pressure

A

boiling point

145
Q

decreasing atm = ___________ boiling point

A

decreases boiling point

DIRECTLY related

146
Q

Calories needed to convert 1g of liquid to vapor WITHOUT TEMP CHANGE in the remaining liquid

A

latent heat of vaporization

147
Q

Calories needed to increase the temperature of 1g of a substance by 1°C

A

specific heat

148
Q

you want a vaporizer with a ______ specific heat

A

high

149
Q

Alveolar concentration that prevents movement in 50% of patients in response to surgical stimuli (incision)

A

MAC

150
Q

MEASURED-FLOW Vaporizers: operator controls FLOW bubbled through agent from 2nd O2 flowmeter
FLOW ONLY

A

copper kettle

151
Q

high specific heat + high thermal conductivity

A

copper

152
Q

Carrier gas/total gas

A

splitting ratio

153
Q

Gas entering the vaporizing chamber is carrier gas (oxygen, air, or nitrous)

A

variable bypass

154
Q

Splitting ratio determined by: _________ resistance to FLOW (controlled by vaporizer dial) and TEMP ____________ mechanism (inside vaporizer)
FLOW + TEMP

A

variable bypass

internal resistance to FLOW
and TEMP compensating mechanism

155
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
Saturated gas combines with fresh gas at vaporizer outlet to consistently produce final desired concentration regardless of total fresh gas flow

A

true

No matter how much fresh gas flow (0.5 liters vs 5 liters), and what the temp in the room is; what you have set on the dial is what is coming right from the vaporizer is the same %

156
Q

2 different metals welded together; each metal responds differently to temp change

A

temp compensation

157
Q

Vapor Blender vaporizer

A

electronic/TEC 6

158
Q

why can des not be used with normal vaporizer

A

Cooling due to vaporization would overwhelm conventional vaporizer (it would freeze, be unable to maintain constant temp)

159
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
NOTHING from the flow meters goes into the desflurane (no carrier gases)

A

true

160
Q

what does T stand for on the vaporizer

A

transport

161
Q

one central electronic control mechanism for all agents

A

aladdin

variable bypass (des does NOT require added heat)

162
Q

what would happen?
sevoflurane (VP: 157) vaporizer was filled with isoflurane (VP: 240)?

A

OVER dose

SMALLER vapor pressure filled with LARGER vapor pressure

163
Q

what would happen?
isoflurane (VP: 240) vaporizer was filled with isoflurane (VP: 157)?

A

UNDER dose

LARGER vapor pressure filled with SMALLER vapor pressure

164
Q

Concentration dial increases when rotated __________________ for all vaporizers

A

counterclockwise

165
Q

a vaporizer tilting >45° vertical may need flushing and/or recalibration to prevent overdose

A

tipping

166
Q

breath to breath analysis should not be substituted for preventive maintenance

A

out of calibration

167
Q

negative pressure check should be done during daily machine check

A

leaks

168
Q

back pressure into vaporizer causes increased concentration into circuit

A

pumping

169
Q

increased incidence of ulnar nerve injury

A

Male
Preexisting neuropathy
Prolonged hospital stays
Extreme body habitus (skinny or obese)

170
Q

Positioning Devices Risk
Arm boards: ___________ _____

A

Arm boards: falling off

171
Q

Positioning Devices Risk
Shoulder braces: _______ __________

A

Shoulder braces: steep T-burg (robotics)

172
Q

Positioning Devices Risk
Sternal retractors: _________ ____________

A

Sternal retractors: cardiac surgery

173
Q

Increasing temp:
____________ vapor pressure

A

increasing temp = increasing vapor pressure
DIRECTLY related

174
Q

Copper Kettle
If TEMP REMAINS STABLE, 100 ml = increases anesthetic concentration by __%

A

1% for 100 ml

175
Q

Electronic (Des) vaporizer
compensates for ______ + _____

A

FLOW + atm