Exam 3. Flashcards

(194 cards)

1
Q

hematocrit

A

is the fractional contribution of erythrocytes to the blood which is calculated by determining the percentage of whole blood that consists of erythrocytes

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2
Q

Polycythemia

A

is indicated by a high hematocrit consisting of a higher than normal concentration of erythrocytes in the blood

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3
Q

Complete blood count (CBC)

A

is an analysis of blood that provides much useful information. Consists of a red blood count, hemoglobin and hematocrit measurements, a white blood count, and a differential white blood count

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4
Q

Red blood count (RBC)

A

is the number (expressed in millions) of red blood cells per microliter of blood. The condition called erythrocytosis is an overabundance of red blood cells

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5
Q

Hemoglobin measurement

A

determines the amount of hemoglobin in a given volume of blood, usually expressed as grams of hemoglobin per 100 mL of blood

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6
Q

White blood count

A

measures the total number of white blood cells in the blood

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7
Q

Differential white blood count

A

determines the percentage of each of the five kinds of white blood cells

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8
Q

Prothrombin time measurement

A

expresses how long it takes for the blood to start clotting

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9
Q

Leukopenia

A

is a lower than normal WBC resulting from depression or destruction of the red marrow

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10
Q

Leukocytosis

A

is an abnormally high WBC.

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11
Q

Leukemia

A

often results in leukocytosis, but the white blood cells have an abnormal structure and function as well.

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12
Q

importance of water in plasma

A

provides a dissolving and suspending medium for solutes and formed element

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13
Q

albumins

A
  • most abundant plasma proteins that make a large contribution to the osmotic pressure of plasma
  • synthesized by the liver
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14
Q

globulins

A

-variety of plasma proteins that transport lipids, steroid hormones, and other substances
-play a critical role in forming blood clots
0important in defending against foreign substances

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15
Q

fribinogens

A
  • synthesized by the liver

- key plasma protein in the formation of blood clots

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16
Q

what is serum?

A

-plasma from which fibrinogen and other clotting proteins have been removed

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17
Q

what are the small nutrients present in plasma

A

-glucose, lipids, and amino acids and other materials absorbed from the intestines and used by cells throughout the body

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18
Q

what are the metabolic wastes from plasma

A

consist of urea and lactic acid

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19
Q

what gases are present in the plasma

A

oxygen, carbon dioxide, and nitrogen

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20
Q

what electrolytes are present in the plasma

A

sodium. potassium, and chloride

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21
Q

Erythropoiesis

A

synthesis or new erythrocytes

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22
Q

what are Hematopoietic stem cells

A

blood-forming precursor cells from which all blood cells develop

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23
Q

Hemopoietic growth factor

A
  • cytokines that determine the development of a particular type of blood cell
  • include colony stimulating factors and interleukins
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24
Q

Erythropoietin

A

is produced in the kidney and stimulates erythrocyte production

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25
iron-deficiency anemia
anemia caused by a lack of iron in the diet | -erythrocytes are smaller than normal due to a decrease in the amount of hemoglobin
26
pernicious anemia
anemia caused by the lack of vitamin B12 - erythrocytes are larger than normal but number decreases - overall increase in the hematocrit
27
folic acid deficiency anemia
anemia that results from a lack of folic acid
28
aplastic anemia
anemia caused by certain drugs or radiation resulting in an inability of stem cells to generate mature blood cells
29
hemolytic anemia
anemia that results when cells rupture at an abnormally high rate
30
what is the most abundant leukocyte
neutrophils
31
what leukocyte does not have prominent granules,but types include monocytes and lymphocytes?
agranulocytes
32
elevated levels of what leukocyte indicates a bacterial or viral infection
neutrophils
33
neutrophils
phagocytes that engulf and digest microorganisms, abnormal cells, and foreign particles present in blood and tissues
34
monocytes
phagocytes that decrease with HIV infection, rheumatoid arthritis and exposure to steroids
35
eosinophils
phagocytes whose main contribution in defense is in attacking parasitic invaders that are too big to be engulfed by the most abundant leukocytes by attaching their bodies and discharging toxic molecules
36
which leukocytes has protein-containing vesicles in their cytoplasm known as cytoplasmic granules
granulocytes
37
what types does granulocytes include
neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils
38
what are lymphocytes developed from
lymphoblasts
39
what does eosinophils release and what does this cause damage to?
release toxic molecules that can also damage normal tissues and may trigger allergic reactions
40
what types of cell does lymphocytes include
B cells, T cells, and Null cells
41
what type of leukocyte promotes inflammation and their levels are elevated in asthmatics
eosinophils
42
when does a decreased level of lymphocyte mean
decreased levels occur with immunodeficiency, disease, lupus, and increased levels of steroid
43
what are basophils
non-phagocytic, defend the body against larger parasites releasing toxic molecules that damage invaders
44
what are monocytes from
monoblasts
45
how do monocytes develop
migrate into tissues, where they become larger and develop into very active phagocytic cells known as macrophages
46
what do basophils release
histamine, heparin, and other chemicals that contribute significantly to allergic reactions
47
what are B cells
lymphocytes that differentiate into plasma cells that secrete antibodies that target the immune response against a specific antigen
48
what are t cells
lymphocytes include cells that promote immune responses
49
cytotoxic T cells
destroy abnormal cells
50
helper T cells
secrete chemicals promoting actions of other leukocytes
51
suppressor T cells
ells that suppress the immune response
52
null cells
lack the cell membrane components, most are natural killer cells
53
In healthy endothelial cells, arachidonic acid is converted to prostacyclin, which inhibits what?
formation of blood clots
54
Fibrinogen is converted by thrombin to form
fibrin
55
Hemophilia is a genetic clotting disorder usually characterized by the absence of
factor VIII
56
Low dosages of aspirin inhibit clotting by blocking the formation of
thromboxane A2
57
High doses of aspirin can stimulate clotting by inhibiting the synthesis of
prostacyclin
58
what is fibrin
chemical forms the meshwork of the blood clot
59
In activated platelets, arachidonic acid is converted to thromboxane A2, which stimulates
formation of blood clot
60
what does protein C inhibit
both the intrinsic and extrinsic clotting pathways?
61
what does factor X activate
prothrombin | -converge point for both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways
62
why is vitamin K required in the diet
to prevent excessive bleeding
63
Type O Blood contains what antigens
neither A nor B antigens on the surface of red blood cells
64
Type A blood contains what antigens
A antigens on the surface of red blood cells
65
Type B blood contains what antigens
B antigens on the surface of red blood cells
66
Type AB blood contains what antigens
both A and B antigens on the surface of red blood cells
67
Type A blood has what antibodies
has anti-B antibodies in the plasma
68
Type B blood has what antibodies
has anti-A antibodies in the plasma
69
Type O blood has what antibodies
has both anti-A nor anti-B antibodies in the plasma
70
Type AB blood has what antibodies
has neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies in the plasma
71
what happens when a person has type A blood
will agglutinate when mixed with anti-A antibodies, but not agglutinate when mixed with anti-B antibodies, because they have A antigens
72
what happens when a person has type B blood
will agglutinate when mixed with anti-B antibodies, but not agglutinate when mixed with anti-A antibodies, because they have B antigens
73
what does external respiration include
-exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between lung air spaces and blood (or tissues and blood) by diffusion
74
what is internal respiration also known as
cellular respiration
75
what is external respiration
exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the atmosphere and body tissues
76
what is respiration
process of gas exchange
77
what does external respiration involve
the respiratory and circulatory systems
78
what is pulmonary ventilation a part of and what does it involve
- external respiration | - involves movement of air into the lungs (inspiration) and out of the lungs (expiration) by bulk flow
79
air into the lung
inspiration
80
air out of the lungs
expiration
81
internal respiration
use of oxygen within mitochondria to generate ATP by oxidative phosphorylation, and the production of carbon dioxide as a waste product
82
muscles used for inspiration
diaphragm and external intercostals
83
muscles used for expiration
internal intercostals, abdominal muscles, sternocleidomastoids, scalenes
84
occurs when sympathetic stimulation causes relaxation of the smooth muscles and increases the radius of bronchioles
bronchodialation
85
occurs when parasympathetic stimulation causes contraction of smooth muscle and decreases the radius of bronchioles
bronchoconstirction
86
minute ventilation
the volume of air moved into the lungs every minute
87
alveolar ventilation
the volume of air that reaches the respiratory zone each minute
88
is distinguished by decreased lung compliance, peak expiratory flow rate, forced vital capacity, total lung capacity and vital capacity
restrictive pulmonary disorder
89
- chronic inflammatory pulmonary disorder - reversible obstruction of the airways (increased airway resistance, secretion of mucus, inflammatory response and histamine release) - treated by corticosteroids in order to reduce inflammation of the airways
athsma
90
distinguished by increased in airway resistance, residual volume and total lung capacity, as well as decreased forced expiratory volume and peak expiratory flow rate
obstructive pulmonary disorder
91
Carbamino effect
Describes a change in the confirmation of hemoglobin that is induced by an increase in CO2
92
Bohr effect
Refers to a decrease in pH which decreases the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen
93
Haldane Effect
Describes the increase in the affinity of hemoglobin for CO2 in the presence of a lowered PO2
94
respiratory acidosis can occur during what
hypoventilation
95
what will cause changes in PCO2 that are directed by the chemoreceptors which causes a decrease in breathing rate and depth of breathing
hyperventilation
96
what is anemia
is a decrease in the oxygen carrying capacity of blood
97
condition where the uptake of oxygen and unloading of carbon dioxide is reduced as a consequence of a thickening of the diffusion barrier by fluid accumulation in the alveoli, typically caused by left heart failure
pulmonary edema
98
what is hypocapnia
is a deficiency of carbon dioxide in the blood
99
what is hypercapnia
is an excess of carbon dioxide in the blood
100
what is hypoxemia
is a deficiency of oxygen in the blood
101
what is hypoxia
is a deficiency of oxygen in the tissues
102
what is hypoventilation
is a condition in which ventilation is insufficient to meet the metabolic demands of the body
103
what is hyperventilation
is a condition in which ventilation exceeds the metabolic demands of the body
104
what is apnea
is a temporary cessation of breathing
105
what is dyspnea
is labored or difficulty breathing
106
what is tachypnea
is rapid, shallow breathing
107
what is eupenea
is normal quiet breathing
108
what is hyperpnea
is an increase in ventilation to meet an increase in the metabolic demands of the body
109
what would hypoventilation lead to
a decrease in PO2 and increase in PCO2 within the systemic arteries
110
what would hyperventilation lead to
an increase in PO2 and decrease in PCO2 within the systemic arteries
111
vitamin D3
important factor in regulating blood calcium and phosphate levels
112
what is renin necessary for
production of angiotensin II to regulate salt and water balance for long-term control of blood pressure
113
filtration factor
GRF/renal plasma flow
114
filtered load
GRF x plasma concentration
115
clearance
Excretion rate/plasma concentration | or (urine concentration x urine flow rate)/plasma concentration
116
excretion rate
Urine concentration x urine flow rate
117
if a substance is neither reabsorbed nor secreted, then its excretion rate is equal to the
filtered load
118
what does glomerular capillary osmotic pressure favor
absorption
119
what does Bowman's capsule osmotic pressure favor
filtration
120
what does glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure favor
filtration
121
what does Bowman's capsule hydrostatic pressure favor
absorption
122
hormone that stimulates sodium reabsorption by binding to receptors in the tubular epithelial cells of the collecting duct and distal tubule
aldosterone
123
hormone that stimulates water reabsorption by binding to receptors in the tubular epithelial cells of the collecting duct and distal tubule
ADH
124
substance which is not produced in the body but must be injected in order to provide a measure of glomerular filtration rate through clearance
inulin
125
what do principle cells regulate and where does this occur
sodium and water balance in the kidneys | -distal tubules and collecting ducts
126
what do intercalated cells regulate and were does this occur
gulation of acid-base balance in the kidneys | -distal tubules and collecting ducts
127
hypervolemia
Is a greater plasma volume than normal
128
hypovalemia
is a lower plasma level than normal
129
normovalemia
Is a state of normal blood volume
130
Under this condition cell volume does not change and the osmolarity in both extracellular and intracellular fluids remain the same
osmotic equilibrium
131
hypernatremia
Is associated with increase in plasma sodium levels to greater than normal
132
hyperkalemia
is associated with increase in plasma potassium levels to greater than normal
133
hypokalemia
Is associated with a decrease in plasma potassium levels to less than normal
134
hyponatrimia
Is associated with a decrease in plasma sodium levels to less than normal
135
hypercalcemia
Is associated with an increase in plasma calcium levels to greater than normal
136
hypocalcemia
Is associated with a decrease in plasma calcium levels to less than norma
137
Renin is released by ____________ of the afferent arteriole.
granular cells
138
released from the adrenal cortex in response to increases in plasma potassium.
aldosterone
139
primary function is to increase sodium secretion thereby decreasing sodium reabsorption.
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
140
converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin I
renin
141
converts angiotensin I into angiotensin II
Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)
142
acts directly in the hypothalamus to stimulate an increase in thirst.
angiotensin II
143
release is triggered by low blood pressure.
renin
144
is synthesized by the live
Angiotensinogen
145
is released in response to the distension of the atrial wall due to an increase in plasma volume
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
146
is released by granular cells of the afferent arteriole
renin
147
causes principal cells to decrease the number of open sodium channels in the apical membrane
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
148
stimulates the release of aldosterone
Angiotensin II
149
increases the number of potassium channels in the principal cells of the apical membrane
aldosterone
150
Is a decrease in pH (increase in hydrogen ion concentration to less than 7.35
acidosis
151
Is an increase in pH (decrease in hydrogen ion concentration to greater than 7.45
alkalosis
152
The activity of the _________________ can increase pH by a hyperventilation-induced decrease in PCO2
respiratory system
153
Can result from high-protein diet through the production of phosphoric acid and sulfuric acid
metabolic acidosis
154
Can result from heavy exercise through the production of lactic acid
metabolic acidosis
155
Can result from high-fat diet through the breakdown of fat into fatty acids
metabolic acidosis
156
Can result from severe diarrhea through the loss of bicarbonate
metabolic acidosis
157
Can result from excessive vomiting through the loss of hydrogen ions
metabolic alkalosis
158
A decrease in PCO2 within the lung will result in a weak vasodilation in the pulmonary vasculature and a _________________in the bronchioles
bronchconstriction
159
A local ______________within the alveolus will result in an increase in the ventilation-perfusion ratio in that region
bronchodialation
160
A _______________ of pulmonary arteriole diameter will result in an increase in the ventilation-perfusion ratio in that region
vasoconstriction
161
The primary effect of increased PO2 in the lungs is to cause ___________ which decreases the ventilation-perfusion ratio back to a normal level
vasodialation
162
The primary effect of increased PCO2 in the lungs is to cause _____________ which increases the ventilation-perfusion ratio back to a normal level
bronchdialation
163
the volume of air present in the lungs when the lungs are at rest (between breaths)
functional residual capacity
164
when elastic recoil of the lungs is balanced by the elastic recoil of the chest walls, the lung volume is said to be equal to
functional residual capacity
165
is the volume of air remaining in the lungs following a max expiration
residual volume
166
is the volume of air exchanged with the environment during an unforced breath
tidal volume
167
is the max volume of air that can be inspired following a resting inspiration
inspiratory reserve volume
168
is the max volume of air that can be inspired following a resting expiration
inspiratory capacity
169
is the max volume of air that can be expired following a max inspiration
vital capacity
170
is the max volume of air that can be expired following a resting expiration
expiratory reserve volume
171
is the volume of air in the lungs following a max inspiration
total lung capacity
172
is equal to tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume
inspiratory capacity
173
is equal to residual volume + expiratory reserve volume
functional residual capacity
174
is equal to tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume + expiratory reserve volume
vital capacity
175
is equal to tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume + expiratory reserve volume + residual volume
total lung capacity
176
is responsible for the presence of a negative intrapleural pressure at max expiration
residual volume
177
is a measurement that cannot be determined by spirometer
residual volume
178
substance reabsorbed in the proximal tubule
Na, Cl, K, Ca, HCO3, water, glucose, amino acids, vitamins, urea, choline
179
substance secreted in the proximal tubule
H ions
180
substances reabsorbed in the descending loop of henle
water
181
substances reabsorbed in the ascending loop of henle
Na, Cl, K, Mg, Ca
182
substances reabsorbed in the distal tubule
Na, Ca, Cl, water
183
substance secreted in the distal tubule
K, H ions
184
substances reabsorbed in the collecting duct
Na, K, Cl, Ca, HCo2, H ions, urea, water
185
substance secreted in the collecting duct
K and H ions
186
movement from glomerular capillaries in to Bowmans capsule
filtration
187
movement from peritublar capillaries in renal tubules
secretion
188
what mostly occurs in the proximal tubule and isn't regulated
reabsorption
189
substances can enter the renal tubules by filtration and what?
secretion
190
is calculated by filtration + secretion - reabsorption
excretion
191
solutes that enter the lumen of the renal tubules are excreted unless?
they are reabsorbed
192
if the amount of solute secreted per minute is greater than the filtered load, then the NET effect on the solutes is
secretion into the renal tubules
193
the basement membrane of the Bowmans capsule acts as the primary what for proteins
filtration ( for proteins)
194
renal process in which molecules are selectively more from tubule lumen into the interstitial space and removed from kidneys by peritubular capillaries and vasa recta
reabsorption