Final Exam Flashcards
(268 cards)
1
Q
Most abundant luekocyte
A
Neutrophils
2
Q
Leukocyte that doesn’t have prominent granules, including monocytes and lymphocytes
A
Agranolocytes
3
Q
Elevate levels of these leukocytes indicates an bacterial of viral infection
A
Neutrophils
4
Q
Phagocytes that engulf and digest microorganisms, abnormal cells, and foreign particles present in blood and tissues (type of leukocyte)
A
Neutrophils
5
Q
Phagocytes that decrease with HIV infection, rheumatoid arthritis and exposure to steroids (type of leukocyte)
A
Monocytes
6
Q
Phagocytes whose main contribution in defense is in attacking parasitic invaders that are too big to be engulfed by the most abundant leukocytes by attaching their bodies and discharging toxic molecules (type of leukocyte)
A
Eosinophils
7
Q
Leukocytes that have prominent protein-containing vesicles in their cytoplasm known as cytoplasmic granules, three of these cell types are neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils
A
Granulocytes
8
Q
Leukocyte developed from lymphoblasts
A
Lymphocytes
9
Q
Leukocyte that releases toxic molecules that can also damage normal tissues and may trigger allergic reactions
A
Eosinophils
10
Q
Type of Leukocyte that has three major types B cells, T cells, and Null cells
A
Lymphocytes
11
Q
Leukocyte that promotes inflammation and their levels are elevated in asthmatics
A
Eosinophils
12
Q
Decreased levels of this leukocyte occur with immunodeficiency, disease, lupus, and increased levels of steroids
A
Lymphocytes
13
Q
Leukocytes that are non-phagocytic, defend the body against larger parasites releasing toxic molecules that damage invaders
A
Basophils
14
Q
Leukocytes that migrate into tissues, where they become larger and develop into very active phagocytic cells known as macrophages
A
Monocytes
15
Q
Leukocyte developed from monoblasts
A
Monocytes
16
Q
Leukocyte that releases histamine, heparin, and other chemicals that contribute significantly to allergic reactions
A
Basophils
17
Q
Lymphocytes that differentiate into plasma cells that secrete antibodies that target the immune response against a specific antigen (Type of Leukocyte)
A
B lymphocytes (B cells)
18
Q
Lymphocytes that include cells that promote immune responses
A
T lymphocytes (T cells)
19
Q
Leukocyte that lacks the cell membrane components, most are natural killer cells
A
Null cells
20
Q
Cytotoxic T cells
A
Destroy abnormal cells
21
Q
Helper T cells
A
Secrete chemicals promoting actions of other leukocytes and cells
22
Q
Suppressor T cells
A
Suppress the immune response
23
Q
Motility
A
Pattern of smooth muscle contraction in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract
24
Q
Absorption
A
Movement of a substance from the external environment to the internal environment by transport across an epithelium
25
Secretion
Movement of a substance from the internal environment to the external environment by transport across the epithelium
26
Digestion
Breakdown of nutrient molecules that are present in food to smaller molecules by enzymes in the lumen of the digestive tract
27
Mastification
Technical word for chewing
28
Defecation
Process where fecal material is removed from the body
29
Emulsification
- Process whereby bile salts breakdown fat globules into smaller droplets.
- Aids in the digestion of fats by increasing the surface area of the fat globule exposed to enzymes.
30
Chief cells
-Secrete pepstinogen into the lumen of the stomach
31
Parietal Cells
- Secrete hydrogen ions (acid) into the lumen of the stomach
| - Produce intrinsic factor
32
Neck cells
-Of the gastric pits secrete mucous into the lumen of the stomach
33
Secretory cells in the Crypts of Lieberkuhn
-Secrete succus entericus, a bicarbonate rich fluid, into the lumen of the small intestine
34
G cells
-Line the lumen of the stomach and secrete gastrin into the bloodstream
35
Carbonic anhydrase is located in and the lumen of the small intestine
Parietal cells
36
When does the zona pellucida develop?
When the follicles are in the preantral stage
37
Cumulus oophorus
Granulosa cells that collect the oocyte to the wall of the Graffian follicle
38
Both follicle stimulating hormone and ____________ stimulates follicle growth
estrogens
39
The __________________ is the follicular structure that contains the secondary oocyte
Graafian follicle
40
The ruptured follicle is then transformed into a gland called the ______________, which secretes estrogens, progesterone and inhibin.
Corpus luteum
41
What is the hormonal trigger for menstruation?
Loss of progesterone secretion from the corpus luteum
42
What triggers ovulation in females?
Luteinizing hormone (LH)
43
As a follicle develops into the Graffian follicle, the _____________ continues to increase in size until the fluid's pressure causes the follicle to burst at ovulation
Antrum
44
Ciliary action and _________________ move the oocyte through the uterine tube.
Peristalsis
45
During menopause there is a reduction in estrogen release that results in loss of ____________, decreased breast size, and an increased risk for both heart disease and osteoporosis.
Ovulation
46
The migration of sperm into the uterus, on their way to contact the ovum, is facilitated by What?
The secretion of a thin mucus into the cervical canal
47
During ______________, the follicle with the oocyte is pressed tight against the ovary wall and bursts.
Ovulation
48
The second meiotic division in oogenesis occurs when the ovum has been _____________ yielding an ovum, which receives most of the cytoplasm, and a second polar body, which degenerates.
Fertilized
49
Each oocyte remains under meiotic arrest, the pause in oogenesis that occurs between birth until just before what?
Ovulation
50
What gland secretes a lubricating fluid into the vagina that facilitates the entry of the penis during copulation.
Vestibular (Bartholin's) gland
51
Where does fertilization take place?
Uterine Tubes
52
What forms the birth canal?
Vagina and cervical canal
53
A follicle in its earliest stage of development is called a _______________ and contains an oogonia.
Primordial follicle
54
Myometrium
Smooth muscle making up most of the uterine wall thickness.
55
Perimetrium
Outer layer of the uterus, made up of peritoneal serous coat supported by a thin layer of connective tissue.
56
Each ova is embedded within a _______________ with only a small proportion advancing beyond the primordial follicle.
Follicle
57
Mature ova develop from a pool of ______________ that are fixed at about 2-4 million at birth with a fraction of that number developing into mature ova.
Oogonia
58
Within the ovaries, each follicle contains a single ______________.
Oocyte
59
Androgens are initially synthesized by the _______________ and then converted to a second macromolecule estrogen by the granulosa cells.
Theca cells
60
What stimulates the release of FSH and LH from the anterior pituitary?
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH
61
What provides negative feedback to FSH secretion, but not LH, in both males and females?
Inhibin
62
What stimulates androgen synthesis in both males and females?
luteinizing hormone (LH)
63
What releases androgens in females?
Theca cells
64
Ejaculation involves increases in _______________ nervous activity.
Sympathetic
65
Erectile function requires an increase in ___________________ nervous activity.
Parasympathetic
66
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and _____________ stimulate the growth and development of sperm indirectly by binding to Sertoli cells.
Testosterone
67
What is the neurotransmitter released from parasympathetic nerves to dilate the penile arterioles to increase blood flow to the erectile tissue?
nitric oxide
68
What triggers the secretion of growth hormone from the anterior pituitary?
Testosterone
69
What is the hormone responsible for the secretion of a thick oil by sebaceous gland?
Testosterone
70
The purpose of _____________________ in males is the secretion of androgens form the Leydig cells.
luteinizing hormone (LH)
71
What triggers increased protein synthesis in muscle at puberty?
Testosterone
72
Inhibin is secrete from the sertoli cells and acts to reduce the secretion of __________________ from the anterior pituitary gland.
follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
73
What is the hormone responsible for secondary sex characteristics in males.
Hormone
74
Spermatogenesis is directly stimulated by both __________________ and testosterone.
follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
75
During the _______________, estrogen induces the expression of LH receptors on granulosa cells.
Follicular phase
76
The endometrium and the myometrium of the uterus proliferate during the _________________ of the uterine cycle.
Proliferative phase
77
is the phase of the uterine cycle in which there is an enhanced secretion of fluids rich in glycogen.
Secretory phase
78
the onset of differentiation of granulosa cells into the corpus luteum is a response of the dominant follicle to stimulation by luteinizing hormone (LH) during the late
follicular phase
79
the decrease in estrogen secretion by granulosa cells and the secretion of enzymes by the granulosa cells that degrades the follicle wall is a response of the dominant follicle to stimulation by luteinizing hormone (LH) during the late
follicular phase
80
The secretion of paracrine by the granulosa cells that stimulates the completion of meiosis I is a response of the dominant follicle to stimulation by luteinizing hormone (LH) during the late
follicular phase
81
In the absence of the implantation of a fertilized embryo, the ___________________ of the uterine cycle is initiated by the degeneration of the corpus luteum.
menstrual phase
82
The reduction in progesterone and estrogen that occurs at the beginning of the _____________ is responsible for stimulating follicular development through stimulating the release of FSH.
Follicular phase
83
The changes in the uterus that occur during the ___________________ of the uterine cycle are mediated by increased progesterone from the corpus luteum.
Secretory phase
84
In the uterine cycle, the ________________ is promoted by estrogen.
Proliferative phase
85
The elevated plasma concentration of estrogen early in the _____________ has little effect on the secretion of luteinizing hormone because progesterone strongly inhibits LH release.
Luteal phase
86
The secretory activity of the anterior pituitary begins to change during late _______________ such that estrogen reverses its negative feedback control on LH release, changing over to a positive feedback loop which increases the release of luteinizing hormone (LH).
Follicular phase
87
is the phase of the uterine cycle in which there is an increased viscosity of secretions from cervical glands.
Secretory phase
88
is the phase of the ovarian cycle in which one follicle (the dominant follicle) will continue to develop because its cells maintain estrogen secretion in the face of falling FSH levels.
follicular phase
89
is the phase of the uterine cycle in which the endometrium is enriched with more arterial branches
Secretory phase
90
The surge in plasma luteinizing hormone that occurs at the beginning of the _____________ triggers both ovulation and development of the corpus luteum.
Luteal phase
91
is the phase of the uterine cycle following the proliferative phase in which there is even more enlargement of the endometrial glands.
Secretory phase
92
is the phase of the ovarian cycle corresponding with the menstrual and proliferative phases of the uterine cycle.
follicular phase
93
are thin-walled (compared to arteries), fairly muscular, and highly distensible
Veins
94
are thin walled and highly permeable
Capillaries
95
are muscular and well innervated
Arterioles
96
are thin-walled and has some smooth muscle
Venues
97
are muscular and highly elastic
Arteries
98
consist of a layer of endothelial cells and a basement membrane
Capillaries
99
conduct blood away from the heart and toward the body's tissues, the largest is the aorta
Arteries
100
are the primary site where exchange of nutrients and waste products occurs between blood and tissue
Capillaries
101
serve as a passageway for blood to enter the capillaries
Arterioles
102
are considered a pressure reservoir
Arteries
103
Endothelial cells possessing relatively large pores that allow rapid diffusion of small water soluble substances and some large enough to allow proteins to pass through are known as what?
Fenestrated capillaries
104
are used to measure blood pressure
Arteries
105
are intermediate vessels between arterioles and capillaries, they consist of a continuous layer of smooth muscle, and serve as bypass channels or shunts by directly connecting arterioles to venules
Arterioles
106
are the smallest blood vessels
Capillaries
107
are best known as the site where resistance to blood flow is regulated
Arterioles
108
have the largest total cross-sectional area and lowest velocity of flow
Capillaries
109
act as points of control for regulating resistance to blood flow, by serving two functions: controlling blood flow to individual capillary beds and regulating mean arterial pressure
Arterioles
110
Endothelial cells joined together by tight junctions with spaces between them called intercellular clefts that are permeable to small water soluble substances through diffusion and easily penetrable lipid-soluble substances are known at what?
Continuous capillaries
111
are a volume reservoir as they can accommodate a large increase in blood volume with little change in blood pressure, which makes them good at storing volume
Veins
112
What are carbs transported as in the bloodstream
glucose
113
What are proteins transported as in the bloodstream
amino acids
114
What are lipids transported as in the bloodstream
lipoproteins
115
When ______________ are consumed, they can be used to produce energy or converted to glycogen for storage.
Carbs
116
Lipoprotein lipase in an enzyme located on capillary endothelial cells that breaks down triglycerides which are a form of ________________.
Lipids
117
The storage of _______________ mainly occurs in adipocytes.
Lipids
118
What provides an energy storage that is used primarily in times of starvation and are not metabolized by nervous tissue?
Protein
119
In the ____________________ energy input exceeds output and thus is stored in macromolecules
absorptive state
120
In the __________________ energy input is less than output and thus is released from the breakdown of macromolecules.
Postabsorptive state
121
In the _________________ glucose is synthesized by gluconeogenesis and glycolysis and is spared for use by the nervous system.
Postabsorptive state
122
During the ____________________, the primary source for most of the body cells is glucose recently absorbed into the blood stream.
Absorptive state
123
The liver synthesizes triglycerides and packages them into lipoproteins during the
Absorptive state
124
In the _______________________ most cells utilize fatty acids (lipids) instead of glucose for energy, sparing the glucose for the central nervous system.
Postabsorptive state
125
During the _____________________ breakdown of glycogen stores in the liver is required for the maintenance of blood glucose.
Postabsorptive state
126
In the __________________ plasma insulin levels increase.
Absorptive state
127
In the ______________________ plasma glucagon levels increase.
Postabsorptive state
128
In the ____________________ glucose is stored as glycogen in liver and skeletal muscle.
Absorptive state
129
In the __________________ glucose is "spared" for use by the central nervous system
Postabsorptive state
130
In the ___________________ the liver converts amino acids into fatty acids.
Absorptive state
131
In the _____________________ the liver is packages lipids into very low density lipoproteins to transport lipids to adipose tissue.
Absorptive state
132
In the _______________________ the liver converts fatty acids to ketones.
Postabsorptive
133
In the _________________ most body cells use glucose for energy.
Absorptive state
134
In the _____________________ carbohydrates are converted to fat.
Absorptive state
135
In the _______________________ glycerol is converted by the liver to glucose.
Postabsorptive state
136
In the ______________________ glucose transport into most body cells increases.
Absorptive state
137
Hematocrit
is the fractional contribution of erythrocytes to the blood which is calculated by determining the percentage of whole blood that consists of erythrocytes.
138
Polycythemia
Is indicated by a high hematocrit consisting of a higher than normal concentration of erythrocytes in the blood
139
Complete blood count (CBC)
is an analysis of blood that provides much useful information. Consists of a red blood count, hemoglobin and hematocrit measurements, a white blood count, and a differential white blood count.
140
Red blood count (RBC)
is the number (expressed in millions) of red blood cells per microliter of blood. The condition called erythrocytosis is an overabundance of red blood cells.
141
Hemoglobin measurement
determines the amount of hemoglobin in a given volume of blood, usually expressed as grams of hemoglobin per 100 mL of blood.
142
White blood count
measures the total number of white blood cells in the blood.
143
Differential white count
determines the percentage of each of the five kinds of white blood cells.
144
Prothrombin time measurement
expresses how long it takes for the blood to start clotting
145
Leukopenia
is a lower than normal WBC resulting from depression or destruction of the red marrow.
146
Leukocytosis
is an abnormally high WBC.
147
Leukemia
often results in leukocytosis, but the white blood cells have an abnormal structure and function as well.
148
when air is no longer moving through the respiratory tract and the airway is open to the environment, the pressure within the lung is equal to
atmospheric pressure
149
the difference between atmospheric and this pressure drive air into and out of the lungs
Intra-alveolar pressure
150
air moves out of the lung when __________ exceeds atmospheric pressure
Intra-alveolar pressure
151
intra-alveolar pressure and ______________ varies rhythmically with respiration
Intrapleural pressure
152
measures the distending force across the lungs
Transpulmonary pressure
153
is the difference between intraplural pressure and intra-alveolar pressure
Transpulmonary pressure
154
as the lungs expand, ______________ decreases and air moves into the lungs
Intra-alveolar pressure
155
as the volume of the lung increases, _________________ will not change
Atmospheric pressure
156
contraction of the diaphragm causes an increase in the volume of the thoracic cavity, and therefore, a decrease in
Intra-alveolar pressure
157
as the volume of the chest wall increases, the concomitant expansion of the lungs is due to an increase in
Transpulmonary pressure
158
during inspiration both intra-alveolar and ______________ are lower than during expiration
Intrapleural pressure
159
Is created by the elastic recoil of the lungs and chest wall
Intrapleural pressure
160
Is constant during the respiratory cycle
Atmospheric pressure
161
the difference between _________________ and atmospheric pressure drives the air into and out of the lungs
Intra-alveolar pressure
162
changes with the phases of respiration but is always negative
Intrapleural pressure
163
equals atmospheric pressure during a pneumothorax, causing the lungs to collapse
Intrapleural pressure
164
changes with the phases of respiration from a negative value during inspiration and a positive value during expiration
Intra-alveolar pressure
165
is determined by the quantity of air in the alveolus and the volume of the alveoli
Intra-alveolar pressure
166
includes the process of exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between lung air spaces and blood by diffusion
External respiration
167
is also known as cellular respiration
Internal respiration
168
is the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the atmosphere and body tissues
External respiration
169
is the process of gas exchange
Respiration
170
involves both the respiratory and circulatory systems
External respiration
171
is a part of external respiration that involves the movement of air into the lungs (inspiration) and out of the lungs (expiration) by bulk flow
pulmonary veins
172
includes the process of transportation of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the blood and tissues by diffusion
External respiration
173
is the use of oxygen within mitochondria to generate ATP by oxidative phosphorylation, and the production of carbon dioxide as a waste product
Internal respiration
174
includes the process of exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the blood and tissues by diffusion
External respiration
175
The regulation of sodium and water balance in the kidneys occurs primarily through the unique action of ___________ in the distal tubules and collecting ducts
Principal cells
176
The regulation of acid-base balance in the kidneys occurs primarily through the unique action of _______________ in the distal tubules and collecting ducts
Intercalated disks
177
Hypovolemia
Is a below normal plasma volume
178
Hypervolemia
Is a greater plasma volume than normal
179
Normovolemia
Is a state of normal blood volume
180
If a person is normvolemic and consumes a large quantity of a hyperosmotic solution (salt water), it will cause cells to __________ due to an increase in the osmolarity of extracellular fluid
Shrink
181
If a person is normvolemic and consumes a large quantity of a hypoosmotic solution (deionized water), it will cause cells to ____________ due to a decrease in the osmolarity of extracellular fluid
Swell
182
Under this condition cell volume does not change and the osmolarity in both extracellular and intracellular fluids remain the same
Osmotic equilibrium
183
Hypernatremia
Is associated with increase in plasma sodium levels to greater than normal
184
hyperkalemia
Is associated with increase in plasma potassium levels to greater than normal
185
hypokalemia
Is associated with a decrease in plasma potassium levels to less than normal
186
Hyponatremia
Is associated with a decrease in plasma sodium levels to less than normal
187
Hypercalemia
Is associated with an increase in plasma calcium levels to greater than normal
188
Hypocalcemia
Is associated with a decrease in plasma calcium levels to less than normal
189
Renin is released by ____________ of the afferent arteriole.
Granular cells
190
stimulates lipolysis and gluconeogenesis, it also increases blood fatty acid levels and ketone production.
Epinephrine
191
is a chemical messenger that induces the sensation of feeling full (satiety)
Insulin
192
Angiotension II
acts on thirst centers in the anterior hypothalamus to trigger polydipsia
193
Hemoglobin
non-enzymatic glycosylation protein marker used for measuring the one-to-three-month average of blood glucose levels
194
Symptoms of Ketoacidosis
dehydration, fruity odor to breath, polyuria, and electrolyte imbalance
195
Symptoms of Hypoglycemia
blurred vision, hunger, tingling sensation, anxiety, and confusion
196
Sorbitol
Glucose pylol
197
Polyuria
term for excessive urination
198
Polydipsia
term for excesive thirst
199
Polyphagia
term for excessive eating
200
Hexokinase
first enzyme of glycolysis that has a great affinity for glucose
201
Advanced Glycosylation Products (AGE)
proteins that have been glycosylated through a non-enzymatic process known as glycosylation
202
Ketogenesis
production of ketones
203
Cardiomyopathy
disease of the cardiac muscle that weakens the heart, it is characterized by a reduction in the contractility of the cardiac muscle which leads to a decreased stroke volume
204
Silent Myocardial Ischemia
Heart attack without pain
205
High-Density lipoproteins (HDL) are decreased by what
diabetes
206
Type of DM may result in hyperglycemia
Type 1 and 2
207
Type of DM may result in polyuri
Type 1 and 2
208
Type of DM is caused by damage to beta cells of the pancreas
Type 1
209
Type of DM is most common form of diabetes mellitus
Type 2
210
What cells are not affected by diabetes
alpha cells
211
Type of DM is caused by inadequate insulin secretion
Type 1
212
Type of DM can occur secondary to obesity, while obesity can also occur secondary to it
Type 2
213
Type of DM in which the age of onset has traditionally been thought to be in people over 40 years of age, but occurrence in children is found to be increasing, indicating a reduction in the average age of onset
Type 2
214
Type of DM is caused by a decreased response in tissues to insulin
Type 2
215
subclass of type 1 DM that is an autoimmune disorder that attacks beta cells of the pancreas
Type 1a
216
subclass of type 1 DM that attacks antigens of proinsulin, glutamic acid decarboxylase, tyrosine phosphorylase-like protein, zinc transporter 8, and other proteins in the islets of Langerhans
Type 1a
217
subclass of type 1 DM that is also called idiopathic type 1 DM, it is the form that involves destruction of pancreatic beta cells
Type 1b
218
Renal process in which molecules are selectively removed from the tubule lumen, moved into the interstitial space, and removed from the kidneys by the peritubular capillaries and the vasa recta
Reabsorption
219
movement from glomerular capillaries into Bowman's capsule
Filtration
220
movement from peritubular capillaries into the renal tubules
Secretion
221
elimination of urine from the body
Excretion
222
Most _____________ occurs in the proximal tubule and is not regulated
Reabsorption
223
Substances can enter the renal tubules by what ?
- Secretion
| - Filtration
224
The amount of a substance ______________ from the kidneys is calculated by filtration + secretion - reabsorption
Excretion
225
Solutes that enter the lumen of the renal tubules are excreted unless they are
Rreabsorption
226
If the amount of solute excreted per minute is greater than the filtered load, then the NET effect on the solute is __________ into the renal tubules
Secretion
227
The basement membrane of the Bowman's capsule acts as the primary ____________ barrier for proteins
Filtration
228
Starling forces that Favors absorption
- Bowman's capsule hydrostatic pressure
| - glomerular capillary osmotic pressure
229
Starling forces that Favor secretion
- glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure
| - Bowman's capsule osmotic pressure
230
Twitch
the mechanical response of an individual muscle cell, a motor unit or a whole muscle to a single action potential
231
Latent period
time between a stimulus and the beginning of a response; is the delay of a few milliseconds that occurs between the action potential in a muscle cell and the start of contraction, when the cell first begins to generate force
232
Contraction phase
Starts at the end of the latent period and ends when muscular tension peaks
233
Relaxation phase
longest of the three phases, it is the time between peak tension and the end of the contraction, when tension returns to zero
234
Isotonic phase
twitch during which a muscle shortens and lifts a constant load; the load is less than the force generated by the muscle
235
Isometric phase
twitch during which a muscle shortens and lifts a constant load; the load is less than the force generated by the muscle
236
Treppe
occurs at a frequency of muscle stimulation where independent twitches follow one ano
237
Summation
the adding together of twitches that occur when a muscle is stimulated at high frequency
238
Tetanus
occurs in a muscle being stimulated at a high frequency, the plateau phase of the contraction, during which the tension is relatively constant
239
Systole
period of ventricular contraction
240
Diastole
period of ventricular relaxation
241
Venous return
return of blood from the veins to the heart
242
Ventricular filling
phase of blood entering the ventricle
243
Isovolumetric contraction
the contraction of the ventricles with all heat valves closed, such that the volume of blood contained within the ventricles is constant; occurs early in systole
244
Ventricular ejection
exit of blood from the ventricles
245
Isovolumetric relaxation
relaxation of the ventricles with all heart valves closed, such that the volume of blood contained within the ventricles is constant; occurs early in diastole
246
end-diastolic volume
volume of blood contained within each ventricle at the end of diastole
247
end-systolic volume
volume of blood in each ventricle at the end of systole
248
stroke volume
the volume of blood ejected from each ventricle during a single heartbeat
249
Ejection fraction
is the fraction of end-diastolic volume ejected during a heartbeat
250
Cell body (soma)
contains the cell nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum, golgi apparatus, and most of the free ribosomes; carries out most of the functions such as protein synthesis and cellular metabolism
251
Dendrites
extensions from the cell body that receive input from other neurons through the synapse
252
Axon/Nerve fiber
extensions from the cell body that receive input from other neurons through the synapse
253
Axon hillock
the site where the axon originates from the cell body; where action potential is generated
254
Axon terminal
specialized to release neurotransmitter on arrival of an action potential
255
Collaterals
branches of an axon or dendrite that allows for additional communication with other cells
256
Postsynaptic cell
usually a dendrite or cell body of another neuron or cells of an effector organ that receives the neurotransmitter molecule
257
Presynaptic cell
neuron whose axon terminal is releasing the neurotransmitter molecule
258
Axonal transport
transport mechanism by which neurons transmit information between the cell body and the axon terminal
259
Myelin sheath
surrounds axons to reduce a membrane's ion permeability
260
Referred to as the craniosacral division of the autonomic nervous system because the preganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system either originate in the brainstem or the sacral spinal cord
Parasympathetic Nervous system
261
Sometimes called the thoracolumbar division
Sympathetic Nervous system
262
More active during periods of excitation or physical activity
Sympathetic Nervous system
263
More active during resting conditions
Parasympathetic Nervous system
264
"fight-or-flight response"
Sympathetic Nervous system
265
Enhancing digestion and absorption of nutrients (stimulates the digestive organs)
Parasympathetic Nervous system
266
Decreasing heart rate (inhibit cardiovascular system)
Parasympathetic Nervous system
267
Rate and force of the heartís contraction increase
Sympathetic Nervous system
268
Blood flow shits from the gastrointestinal organs to skeletal and cardiac muscles, and energy stores are mobilized
Sympathetic Nervous system
