Final Flashcards
1
Q
what is an endocrine gland?
A
a gland that secretes a hormone or hormones directly into the bloodstream to influence the functions of distant target cells
2
Q
what is an exocrine gland?
A
a gland that secretes a product through a duct to the external surface of the body or into the respiratory, gastrointestinal, and/or genitourinary tract
3
Q
what is tropin?
A
a hormone that induces the secretion of other hormones
4
Q
Thyrotopin-releasing hormone:
- abbrevation
- source
- target
- primary effects
A
- TRH
- hypothalamus
- anterior pituitary
- stimulates the release of TSH
5
Q
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
- abbrevation
- source
- target
- primary effects
A
- GnRH
- hypothalamus
- anterior pituitary
- stimulates the release of LH & FSH
6
Q
Growth hormone-releasing hormone
- abbrevation
- source
- target
- primary effects
A
- GHRH
- hypothalamus
- anterior pituitary
- stimulates the release of GH
7
Q
Follicle-stimulating hormone
- abbrevation
- source
- target
- primary effects
A
- FSH
- anterior pituitary
- male gonades, female gonads
- production of factors that bind and concentrate testosteone; production of estrogens, maturation of ovarian follicles
8
Q
Luteinizing hormone
- abbrevation
- source
- target
- primary effects
A
- LH
- anterior pituitary
- male gonads, female gonads
- male: development of gonads, testosterone production
- female: development of gonads, production of estrogen and progesterone, ovulation
9
Q
thyroid-stimulating hormone
- abbrevation
- source
- target
- primary effects
A
- TSH
- anterior pituitary
- thyroid gland
- growth and development of the thyroid gland; synthesis of thyroid hormones
10
Q
adrenocorticotopic hormone
- abbrevation
- source
- target
- primary effects
A
- ACTH
- anterior pituitary
- adrenal cortex
- growth and developement of adrenal cortices; release of adrenal steroids and catecholamines
11
Q
prolactin
- source
- target
- primary effects
A
- anterior pituitary
- mammary gland
- development of mammary glands; milk production
12
Q
growth hormone
- abbrevation
- source
- target
- primary effects
A
- GH
- anterior pituitary
- liver, adipose tissue, bone, muscle, cartilage
- gluconeogenesis, lipolysis, protein breakdown, production of IGF
13
Q
antidiuretic hormone
- abbrevation
- source
- target
- primary effects
A
- ADH
- posterior pituitary
- kidneys & brain
- water reabsorption from the kidney tubules; increases blood volume
14
Q
oxytocin
- source
- target
- primary effects
A
- posterior pituitary
- uterus & mammary gland
- uterine contractions; milk let-down reflex
15
Q
melatonin
- source
- target
- primary effects
A
- pineal gland
- reticular formation of the brainstem
- regulates thee sleep/wake cycle, promotes sleep
16
Q
thyroid hormone
- abbrevation
- source
- target
- primary effects
A
- T3 & T4
- thyroid gland (follicle cells)
- nearly every cell in the body
- ser the basal metabolic rate, thermoregulation, growth and development, synergism with the SNS
17
Q
calcitonin
- source
- target
- primary effects
A
- thyroid gland (parafollciular cells)
- osteoclasts
- inhibits osteoclasts activity under certain conditions, which transientyly decreases the blood calcium ion concentration
18
Q
parathyroid horome
- abbrevation
- source
- target
- primary effects
A
- PTH
- parathyroid gland (chief cells)
- bone, kidney, intestines
- increases calcium ion reabsorption form the fluid in the kidneys, increase calcium ion absoprtion from the contents of the small intestine, indirectly increases osteoclast activity, all effects lead to an increase in blood calcium ion concentration
19
Q
aldosterone (mineralcorticoids)
- source
- target
- primary effects
A
- adrennal gland
- tubules of the kidenys
- increases sodium ion retention directly and water retention indirectly, increase potassium ion loss in the urine, increases hydrogen ion loss in the urine, regulates blood pressure
20
Q
cortisol (glucocorticoids)
- source
- target
- primary effects
A
- adrenal gland
- liver, muscle, adipose, white blood cells
- increase gluconeogenesis in the liver, increases protein breakdown in muscle, increases lpolysis in adipose tissue, inhibits the inflammatory repsonse
21
Q
what causes type 1 diabetes mellitus?
A
the destruction of the insulin-producing beta cells of the pancreas by the immune system
22
Q
what causes type 2 diabetes mellitus?
A
- heredity & obesity
- generally beta cells are still capable of producing insulin but these beta cells do not respond to normal increases to blood glucose, other target cells are less responsibe to insulin (insulin resistant)
23
Q
what cell secrete insulin?
A
beta cells
24
Q
what cells secrete glucagon?
A
alpha cells
25
glucagon
- source
- target
- primary effect
- pancreas
- most cells, including those of the liver, skeletal and cardiac muscle, and adipocytes
- stimulate glucose uptake by most target cells, glycogenesis, adn lipogenesis
26
estradiol
- source
- target
- primary effects
- ovaries
- female reproductive organs
- development of female secondary sex characteristics, regulate the menstrual cycle
27
progesterone
- source
- target
- primary effects
- ovaries
- multuple other target tissues
- prepare the body for pregnancy, support fetal development
28
inhibin
- source
- target
- primary effects
- gransulosa cells
- ovaries
- inhibits FSH secretion
29
testosteron
- source
- target
- primary effects
- testes
- male reproductive organs, multipleother target tissues
- androgenic & anabolic effects
30
inhibin
- source
- target
- primary effects
- sertoli cells
- testes
- inhibits FSH secretion
31
erythropoietin
- source
- target
- primary effects
- kidneys
- red bone marrow
- increases rate at which erythrocytes are formed
32
atrial natriuretic peptide
- abbrevation
- source
- target
- primary effects
- ANP
- heart
- smooth muscle cells in blood vessel walls, kidney tubules
- relaxes smooth muscle cells in blood vessel, causing vasoconstriction; promotoes natriuresis and fluid loss in the kidneys, decreasing blood volume; lowers blood pressure as a result of above effects
33
describe the pulmonary circuit
arteries carry deoxygenated blood and veins transport oxygenated blood
34
descirbe the systemic circuit
arteries carry oxygenated blood and veins transport deoxygenated blood
35
what are the two AV valves?
- right AV valve or tricupsid
- left AV valve or bicupsid/mitral
36
where is the tricupsid valve located?
between the right atrium and the right ventricle
37
where is the bicupsid/mitral valve located?
between the left atrium & the left ventricle
38
what are the two SL valves?
- pulmonary valve
- aortic valve
39
where is the pulmonary valve located?
betwwen the right ventricle & the pulonary trunk
40
where is the aortic valve located?
between the left ventricle & the aorta
41
when does S1 occur?
during closing of AV valves
42
when does S2 occur?
during the closing of SL valves
43
what do intercalated discs do?
join adjacent cardiac muscle cell; join pacemaker cells to contractile cells, and contractile cell to one another
44
what occurs at the P wave?
atrial depolarization
45
what occurs at the QRS complex?
ventricular depolarization
46
what occurs at the T wave?
ventricular repolarization
47
what is atrial systole?
- when the atrial side of the heart is contracting
- occurs durign ventricular filling
48
what is ventricular systole?
- when the ventral side of the heart is contracting
- occurs during isovolumetric contraction & ventricular ejection
49
what is diastole?
- a period of relaxation
- atrial occurs during isovolumetric contraction & ventricular ejection
- ventiruclar occurs uring isovolumetric relaxation
50
what is caridac output?
the amount of blood pumped into th epulmonary and system circuits in one minute
51
what is stroke volume?
the amount of blood pumped in one heartbeat
52
what is ESV?
the amount of blood that remains in the ventricle
53
when does ESV occur?
isovolumetric relaxation phase
54
what is EDV?
ventricular volume at the end of ventricular diastole
55
when does EDV occur?
isovolumetric contraction phase
56
what are the three layers of the blood vessels walls?
- tunica externa
- tunica media (smooth muscule)
- tunica intima (endothelium)
57
what are the three types of arteries?
- elastic arteries
- muscular arteries
- arterioles
58
what is a key feature of elastic arteries?
they recoil because they have internal and external elastic lamina on either side of tunica media
59
what do precapillary sphincters do?
control the amount of blood flow into the capillaries
60
what are the three types of capillaries?
- continuous
- fenestrated
- sinusoid
61
what is special about continuoud capillaries?
they have tight junctions
62
what is special about fenestrated capillaries?
they have fenestrations
63
what is special about sinusoid capillaries?
they have irregular lamina and contain large pores and spaces between endothelial cells
64
what do veins do?
carry blood towards the heart
65
what are dural sinuses?
the set of venous channels that are located between two layers of dura mater and drain the cerbral veins
66
what is the hepatic portal system?
allows the liver to have "first dibs" on this venous blood and hte nutrients and chemicals it contains
67
what are the three types of anastomosis?
- arterial anastomosis
- venous anastomosis
- arteriovenous anastomosis (shunt)
68
what is perfusion?
blood flow per area of tissue
69
where is blood flow the fastest? where is it the slowest?
fastest - arteries
slowest - capillaries
increases in veins but still slower then arteries
70
what is systolic blood pressure?
the blood pressure in the arteries when the ventricles are in systole
71
what is diastolic blood pressure?
the blood pressure in the arteries when the ventricles are in diastole
72
what is hypertension?
high blood pressure; systolic pressure of 140 mmHg or higher and/or a diastolic pressure of 90 mmHg or higher
73
what is hypotension?
low blood pressure; systolic pressure lower than 90 mmHg and/or a diastolic pressure lower than 60 mmHg
74
what is pressure the highest? lowest?
- highest: arteries
- lowest: veins
75
what determines blood pressure?
- cardiac output
- blood volume
- resistance
76
what is peripheral resistance?
any impedance to blood flow found in the periphery of the vasculature
77
what is viscosity?
the thickness of a liquid; the resistance that all liquids have to flow
78
how does vessel length effect peripheral resistance?
the longer the blood vessel, the greater the resistance
79
how does the vessel radius effect peripheral resistance?
vessel radire increases (vessel dilates), the resistance to blood flow decreases
80
what is vasoconstriction?
the narrowing of a blood vessel due to contraction of vascular smooth muscle
81
what is vasodilation?
the opening of a blood vessel due to relaxation of vascular smooth muscle
82
what effects does the sympathetic nervous system have?
- causes an increase in heart rate and contracility, which increases cardiac output
- causes vasoconstriction of all types of vessels, but especially arterioles, which increases peripheral resistance
- total effect: increase in blood pressure
83
what effects does the parasympathetic nervous system have?
- slows the heart rate and has a mild effect on contractility
- decreases cardiac output and blood pressure
- vasodilation & decrease peripheral resistance
84
what is renin?
a precursor for angiotensin II
85
what is angiotensin II?
very powerful vasoconstrictor that sharply increases peripheral resistance and blood pressure
86
what is aldosterone?
causes the retention of sodium ions and water from the kidneys, increasing blood volume
87
what is ADH?
- triggers thirst and increases the amount of water retained by the kidneys
- raises blood volume and blood pressure
88
what is ANP?
- produced by the atria in response to increased blood volume
- causes vasodilation, especially of the vessels supplying the kidney
- causes: mild decrease in peripheral resistance and blood pressure
89
what happens in filtration?
blood hydrostatic pressure drives fluid out of the capillary
90
what happens in reabsorption?
- blood collois osmotic pressure pulls fluid into the capillary
91
what composes plasma?
matrix of blood; contains plasma proteins *albumins, globulins, fibrinogen), nutrietns, dissolved gases and electrolytes
92
what is hemotocrit?
the percenage of blood that is RBCs
93
what stimualtes erythropoiesis?
low oxygen levels or erythropoietin release
94
what is known as the graveyarf for RBCs?
the spleen
95
what are the four blood types?
- type A
- type B
- type AB
- type O
96
what are the three types of granulocytes?
- neutrophils
- esoinophils
- basophils
97
what do neutrophils do?
phagocytosis of bacteria
98
what do eosinophils do?
increased in allergies
99
what do basophils do?
release inflammatory mediators
100
what are the two types of agranulocytes?
- lymphocytes
- monocytes
101
what is leukopoiesis?
production of WBCs
102
what is thrombopoiesis?
platelet production
103
what are the steps to hemostasis?
- vascular spasm
- platelet plug formation
- coagulation
104
what occurs in vascular spasm?
- occurs when a blood vessel in injured and blood leaks into the ECF, two immediate responses occur:
- vasoconstriction & increased tissue pessure
- both decrease the blood vessel diamete which decreases blood pressure & blood flow, minimizing blood loss from the injured vessel
105
what is a platelet plug?
a group of aggregated platelets that collect over an injured blood vessel to prevent blood loss
106
what does thrombin do?
converts fibrinogen to fibrin
107
what is a thrombus?
a blood clot; a collection of platelets, erythrocytes, fibrin, and other clotting proteins that prevent further loss of blood from a blood vessel
108
what are the functions of the lymphatic system?
- fluid recovery
- immunity
- lipid absorption
109
what is lymph?
the watery liquid located within lymphatic vessels; composition is similiar to that of interstitial
110
what are the lymphatic cells?
- natural killer cells
- T lymphocytes (T cells)
- B lymphocytes (B cells)
- macrophages
111
what do B cells differentiate into?
plasma cells
112
what do plasma cells produce?
antibodies
113
what are the lymphatic organs?
- red bone marrow
- thymus
- lymph nodes
- tonsils
- spleen
114
what is the majority of lympahtic tissue?
mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT)
115
what are the functions of the respiratory system?
- gas exchange
- speech
- regulation of pH
- hormone production
- aid in flow of venous blood and lymph
116
what is the conducting zone?
the portion of the respiratory tract that conducts air toward and away form the alveoli
117
what is the respiratory zone?
the portion of the respiratory tract that conducts air toward and away from the alveoli
118
what type of epithelium is respiratory epithelium?
ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium
119
what are the functions of the nose?
- warm
- cleanse
- humidify air
- smell
- resonating chamber for speech
120
what are the parts of the pharynx?
- nasopharynx
- oropharynx
- laryngopharynx
121
what is the purpose of the larynx?
keeps food and drink out of the airway
122
what is the path through the bronchial tree?
- primary bronchi
- secondary bronchi
- tertiart bronchi
- bronchioles
- alveolar sacs
123
what are type 1 alveolar cells?
squamous cells that allow for rapid gas diffusion
124
what are type 2 alveolar cells?
produce surfactant, which reduces surface tesnion
125
what do alveolar macrophages do?
phagocytize particles
126
what are the three major parts of the respiratory membrane?
- squamous alveolar cells
- endothelial cell of capillary
- shared basal lamina
127
what is the visceral pleura?
continuous with the surface of the lobes of the lungs and dives into each of the lung's fissures
128
what is the parietal pleura?
- outer pleural membrane
- fused to the structures surrounding the lungs, including the rib cage and the diaphragm
129
what is the pleural cavity?
potential space between pleurae; contains pleural fluid to reduce friction
130
what is the primary mover for pulmonary ventilation?
diaphragm
131
what are some factors that influence pulmonary ventilation?
- diameter of airway has major influence on airflow
- alveolar surface tension
- pulmonary compliance
132
what are some factors that influence pulmonary ventilation?
- diameter of airway has major influence on airflow
- alveolar surface tension
- pulmonary compliance
133
what is tidal volume?
air inhaled during quiet breathing (or exhaled)
134
what is inspiratory reserve volume?
air inhaled after tidial inhalation during forced inhalation
135
what is expiratory reserve volume?
air inhaled after tidal exhalation during forced exhalation
136
what is residual volume?
air remaining in lungs after max exhalation
137
what is vital capacity?
max air that can be ehaled following forced inspiration
138
what is inspiratory capacity?
total amount of air that can be inhaled
139
what is functional residual capacity?
amount of air remaining in lungs after a tidal exhalation
140
what is the total lung capacity?
6000 mL
141
how does a larger pressure gradient influence the rate of exchange?
increases
142
how does a thicker membrane influence the rate of exchange?
decrease
143
how does decreased surface area influence the rate of exchange?
decrease
144
what occurs in alveolar gas exchange?
the blood unloads CO2 and loads O2
145
what occurs in systemic gas exchange?
the blood loads CO2 and unloads O2
146
what is the most common way oxygen is transported?
bound to a heme group on hemoglobin
147
what is the most common way CO2 is transported?
as a bicarbonate ion
148
what part of the brian controls breathing rate?
medulla oblongata
149
how would breathing rate be altered if there was high PCO2 or high H+?
hyperventilation
150
how would breathing rate be altered if there was low PCO2 or low H+?
hypoventilation
151
what are the functions of the urinary system?
- waste elimination
- regulates blood pressure, blood volume, osmolarity, pH
- secretes renin and erythropoietin
152
what is the glomerular capsule?
surrounds the glomeruli of the kidneys; encloses the capsular space
153
what are the three layers of the glomerular capsule?
- parietal layer
- visceral layer
- capsular space
154
what type of epithelium is the parietal layer?
squamous epithelium
155
what is the visceral layer made up of?
podocytes
156
what is the proximal tubule?
the ifrst segment of the renal tubule in which water, electrolytes, and organic nutrients are reabsorbed
157
what is the nephron loop?
the second segment of the renal tubule in which water & electrolytes are reabsorbed; consists of a descending limb and ascending limb
158
is the ascending or descending limb thick?
ascending limb
159
is the ascending or descending limb thin?
descending
160
what is the distal tubule?
the final segment of the renal tubule in which filtrate modification is controlled by hormones to fine-tune fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balance
161
what is the macula densa?
cells in the renal tubule that detect salinity of tubular fluid
162
what are the juxtaglomerular cells?
modified smooth muscle in the afferent arteriole and efferent arteriole can constrict or dilate arteriole based on isgnlas from macula densa cells; secrete renin
163
what does most reabsorption occur?
n the proximal tubule
164
what is the descending limb permeable to?
- water
- NOT NaCl
- water leaves the loop, and tubular fluid becomes very concentrated
165
what is the ascending limb permeable to?
- Na, K, Cl are pumped out
- impermeable to water
166
what is the vasa recta?
blood supply to medulla without removing solutes because of the pathway of the vasa recta and its hairpin turn
167
when is dilute urine produced?
- when there are few aquaporins in the collecting duct
- tubular fluid is dilute at the end of the nephron loop and is not concentrated by collecting duct but can be excreted from the body as dilute urine
168
what causes the production of concentrated urine?
- ADH leads to insertion of aqauporins in collecting suct
- water leaves collecting duct and concentrated urine is produced
169
what does renin do?
converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin-I
170
what does ACE do?
converts angiotensin-I to angiotensin-II
171
what does angiotensin-II do?
- promotes reabsorption of Na+ (and water follows) from the proximal tubules
- potent vasoconstrictor (raises BP)
- stimulates release of aldosterone
- stimulates thirst and leases to release of aldosterone
172
what are the fluid compartments?
- intracellular fluid (ICF)
- extracellular fluid (ECF)
- water moves between compartments (osmosis)
173
what is tonicity?
a comparison of the ability of two solutions to cause water movement by osmosis
174
what does hypotonic mean?
- causes a cell to gain water
- ECF has a lower osmotic pressure than the cytosol and so a lesser ability to cause water movement by osmosis
175
what does hypertonic mean?
- causes the cell to lose water
- ECF has a higher osmotic pressure than that of the cytosol and so has a greater ability to cause water movement by osmosis
176
what regulates thirst?
the hyptohalamus
177
what are osmoreceptors?
neurons in the thirst center of the hypothalamus that detect hte osmolarity of the ECF
178
what is dehydration? what effect does it have on osmolarity?
- total body water declines
- osmolarity increases
179
what is overhydration? what effect does it have on osmolarity?
- total body water increases
- osmolarity decreases
180
what is edema?
- increase of interstitial fluid that is isosmotic
181
what effects does high hydrostatic pressure have?
- hypertension
- decreased venous return
- excess sodium ion retention
182
what does low colloid osmotic pressure cause?
- lack of protein in the diet
- liver disease
183
what does impaired lymphatic function cause?
- removal of lympahtics during surgery
- blocked lymphatic vessels
184
what is the majority of the ICF made up of?
potassium
185
what is the majority of the ECF made up of?
sodium, chloride
186
what is the pH of blood?
7.35-7.45
187
what is pH?
a measure of hydrogen ion concentration (does not change becuase of changes in concentration of sodium or other ions - unless they bind or release hydrogen ions
188
what is a buffer?
resist change in pH (buffers in the body help to keep the pH near 7.4 and help stabilize a fluid pH
189
what are two examples of physiological buffers?
urinary system & respiratory system
190
what are some examples of chemical buffers?
- bicarbonate
- phosphate
- protein
191
what is acidosis?
pH below 7.35
192
what is rspiratory acidosis?
if ventilation is ineffective and carbon dioxide builds up
193
what is metabolic acidosis?
- excess acid production
- loss of bases
- prolonged diarrhea
194
what is alkalosis?
pH above 7.45
195
what is respiratory alkalosis?
- hyperventilation
- urinary system can help compensate
196
what is metabolic alkalosis?
- consuming excessive antacids
- respiratory compensation = retain carbon dioxide (hypoventilation)
- renal compensation = retain hydrogen ions & secrete bicarbonate ions
197
what are the basic functions of the digestive system?
- ingestion
- secretion
- propulsion
- digestion
- absorption
- defacation
198
what are some of the accessory organs of the digestive system?
- teeth
- tongue
- salivary glands
- liver
- gallbladder
- pancreas
199
what are the tissue layers?
- mucosa
- submucosa
- muscularis externa
- serosa
200
what are mesenteries?
double folds of visceral peritoneum located around certain abdominal organs, such as the small and large intestines
201
what is the greater omentum?
- consists of four layers of folded visceral peritoneum
- covers the abdominal organs like an apron
202
what is the lesser omentum?
extends from the medial surface of the stomach to the liver
203
what is the enteric nervous system?
a self-contained branch of the autonomic nervous system that extends from the esophagus to the anus and regulates secretion and motility of the digestive organs
204
what is the labial frenulum?
a narrow band of mucosa that attaches the internal surface of the upper and lower lips to the gums on the midline
205
what is the vestibule?
the narrow space between the teeth and gums and the internal surfaces of the lips and cheeks
206
what epithelium makes up the mouth?
stratified squamous epithelium
207
what makes up the hard palate?
- maxillae bones
- palatine bones
208
what makes up the soft palate?
uvula
209
what is the uvula?
a portion of the soft palate suspended in the posterior oral cavity; seals off the nasopharynx during swallowing to prevent food and liquid from entering the nasal cavity
210
what are the major parts of the tongue?
- lingual frenulum
- papillae
- extrinsic muscles
- intrinsic muscles
211
what is the lingual frenulum?
- attaches the tongue to the floor of the oral cavity
- prevetns the tongue from moving too far posteriorly
212
what are papillae?
finger-like protrusions on the surface of the tongue, some of which contain taste buds
213
what do the extrinsic muscles do?
control the position of the tongue
214
what do the intrinsic musles do?
control the shape and size of the tongue
215
what is the purpose of salivary amylase?
- first digestive enzyme that ingested fod encounters
- catalyzes the beginning of carbohydrate digestion, breaking down large polysaccharides into smaller polysaccharides
216
what is the purpose of lysozymes?
- catalyzes the perforation of bacterial plasma membranes
- allows bacteria-killing substances in the saliva to enter and kill the bacteria
217
what are the three salivary glands?
- parotid
- submandibular
- sublingual
218
what is the parotid gland?
large salivary gland located over the lateral mandible that secrete watery saliva
219
what is the submandibular gland?
small salivary glands that are located on the medial side of the mandible
220
what is the sublingual gland?
salivary glands that are located under the tongue that secrete mucus-rich saliva
221
what is the upper esophageal sphincter?
junction of the pharynx and the esophagus
222
what is the lower esophageal sphincter?
- regulates the passage of the bolus into the sotmach
- prevents the contents of the stomach from re-entering the esophagus
223
what are the phase of deglutition (swallowing)
- voluntary phase
- pharyngeal phase
- esophageal phase
224
what is the greater curvature of the stomach?
the concave side
225
what is the lesser curvature of the stomach?
convex side
226
what does the pyloric sphincter do?
regualtes the flow of materials between the stomach and the small intestine
227
what epithelium is the stomach?
simple columnar epithelium
228
what are gastric pits?
deep structures of mucosa of the stomach that is heavily indented
229
what do parietal cells secrete?
- HCl
- intrinsic factor
230
what do chief cells secrete?
- gastric lipase
- pepsinogen
231
what are the parts of the small intestine?
- duodenum
- jejunum
- ileum
232
what are circular folds?
increase surface area but also slow down the transit of chyme through the small intestine, which gives the nutrients more time to be digested, and the enterocytes more time to absorb nutrients
233
what is segmentation?
- intestinal churning
- involves contractions of only the circular layer of smooth muscle, which produces a squeezing motion
- mechanical digestion
234
what is peristalsis?
- alternating contractions of the longitudinal and circular layers of smooth muscle in the muscularis externa
- propel chyme toward the ileum
235
what are some functions of the large intestine?
- secretion
- propulsion
- defacation
236
what is the cecum?
a blind pouch that is the first portion of the large intestine
237
what is the appendix?
a blind-ended extension from the cecum of the large intestine that contains lymphatic nodules
238
what are the parts of the colon?
- ascending
- transverse
- descending
- sigmoid
239
what are taenia coli?
the longitudinal layer that is gathered into three bands or ribbons of muscle
240
what is a haustra?
pockets that are createed due to the constant tension of taenia coli which bunches up parts of the colon
241
what is the rectum?
the portion of the large intestine between the sigmoid colon and the anal canal; located along the sacrum
242
what is the anal canal?
the terminal portion of the latge intesting that contains sphincters to regulate the passage of feces during defefcation
243
is the internal anal sphincter voluntary or involuntary?
- involuntary
- supplied by the parasympathetic NS
244
is the external anal sphincter voluntary or involuntary?
- voluntary
- composed of skeletal muscle
245
what are two types motility?
- haustral contractions
- mass movements
246
what are mass movements?
- multiple haustra undergo peristalsis which propels their content toward the distal large intenstine
- occurs 3-4 times per day
- appear to be trigger by food consumption
247
what are feces?
the collection of indigestible or undigested food, bacteria, and water in the large intestine that is eliminated via defecation
248
what are the endocrine functions of the pancreas?
secrete insulin & glucagon
249
what are the exocrine functions of the pancreas?
enzymes secreted primarily by clusters of acinar cells
250
what is pancreatic juice?
a liquid ocnsisting of water, bicarbonate ions, and enzymes produced by pancreatic acinar cells and released a liquid consisting of water, bicarbonate ions, and enzymes produced by pancreatic acinar cells are released
251
what separates the right and left lobes of the liver?
falciform ligament
252
what are some functions of hepatocytes?
- absorb glucose and other nutrinets from the blood after digestion
- removes and degrades hormones, toxins and drugs
- produces albumin and clotting factor then secretes them into the blood
- glycogenolysis
253
what makes up the hepatic triad?
- hapatic artery
- hepatic portal vein
- bile ductule
254
what is glycogenesis?
the formation of glycogen from glucose monomers
255
what is glycogenolysis?
the breakdown of glycogen to release glucose monomers into the blood
256
what is gluconeogenesis?
the formation of new glucose from noncarbohydrate precursors, including glucogenic amino acids and glycerol
257
what are some functions of the liver?
- glycogenesis, glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis
- produces VLDLs, HDLs, rids body of excess cholestrol
- produces urea after breakdown of amino acids, produce nonessential amino acids
- synthesizes plasma proteins
- produces bile
- detoxifies alcohol and many other drugs
258
what are some functions of the gallbladder?
- stores and concentrates bile
- cystic duct
- bile release stimulated by CCK
259
what is salivary amylase?
- catalyzes the reactions that break long polysaccharides into shorter oligosaccharides
- located in the mouth
260
what is pancreatic amylase?
- catalyzes the reactions that break the remaining polysaccharides into oligosaccharides
- located in the small intestine
261
what is gastric lipase?
- starts lipid digestion in the stomach
- catalyzes the reactions that remove one fatty acid from triglycerides, leaving some free fatty acids and diglycerides
262
what is pancreatic lipase?
- catalyzes lipid breakdown
- triglycerides are digested into monoglycerides and free fatty acids
263
what is emulsification?
breaking fat into smaller droplets
264
what are micelles?
ferry lipids from intestinal lumen to absorptive cell so that the lipids can be absorbed
265
what are chylomicrons?
triglycerides fromed in absorptive cells are packages into chylomicrons
266
what is lacteal?
the chylomicrons are too large to enter blood capillaries and are absorbed into the lacteals (lacteals are lymphatic capillaries found in the core of the villus)
267
what are fat-soluble vitamins?
- fat is required for absorption of these vitamin s
- A, D, E, and K
268
what are water soluble vitamins?
B complex and C
269
what is glycolysis?
breakdown of glucose
270
what is lipogenesis?
production of lipids
271
what is lipolysis?
breakdown of lipids
272
what is an essential amino acid?
- must be supplied by the diet
- total of 9 of them
273
what is a nonessential amino acid?
- can be synthesized from carbon skeletons
- total of 11 of them
274
what is a complete protein?
supplies all the essential amino acids
275
what is an incomplete protein?
lack one or more in supply of essential amino acids
276
what are chylomicrons?
- similar to micelles in that their nonpolar lipids face the inside and their polar portions face the outside
- lipids are reassembled into triglycerides and packaged into chylomicrons
- can travel with the polar water molecules in blood
277
what is VLDL?
- produced in the liver
- it transports triglycerides to adipose tissue, once triglycerides are removed it becomes LDL
278
what is LDL?
- low density lipoprotein
- delivers cholestrol to cells
- cells need cholestrol for steroid hormone production and cell membranes
- termed "bad" cholestrol - is NOT cholesterol, but a lipoprotein that delivers cholestrol to cells
279
what is HDL?
- high density lipoprotein
- empty shell produced in the liver that picks up cholesterol then takes it to the liver to be eliminated in bile
- termed "good" cholesterol - is NOT cholestrol, but a lipoprotein that removes excess cholesterol
280
what are the male gonads?
testicles
281
what do the testicles produce?
- gametes
- sperm
282
what are the secondary sex characteristics of males?
- pubic, facial, axillary hair
- voice changes
283
what are the secondary sex characteristics of females?
- pubic, facial, axillary hair
- breast development
284
what is the gener that creates the Y chromosomes?
SRY gene that leads to testosterone production
285
what binds the perineum?
- pubic symphysis
- ischial tuberosities
- coccyx
286
what is the scrotum?
pouch containing testicles
287
what is the spermatic cord made up of?
- ductus deferns
- lymphatics
- testicular artery
- pampiniform plexus
- cremaster muscle
- testicular nerve
288
what does the cremaster muscle do?
controls height of the testes
289
what does the dartos muscle do?
contracts to wrinkle the scrotal skin
290
what is the pampiniform plexus?
the coller blood that passes through the testis
291
what is spermatogenesis?
production of sperm in seminiferous tubules
292
what is spermiogenesis?
spermatids develop into spermatoxoa
293
what occurs in the epididymis?
sperm maturation and storage
294
what occurs in the ductus deferens?
ampulla - wide portion at the terminal end
295
what is the ejaculatory duct?
passes through the prostate gland, empties into urethra
296
what does the prostate gland produce?
thin, white secretion
297
what does the bulbourethral gland produce?
small amount of lubricating fluid
298
what makes up semen?
sperm & seminal fluid
299
what is the fuel for sperm?
fructose
300
what are prostaglandins?
chemical messengers for the female
301
what neutralizes acidic conditions in the vagina?
bicarbonate
302
what are the parts of the penis?
- root = internal portion
- shaft = external portion
- glans = terminal portion
- prepuce = foreskin
- erectile tissue = engore with blood duirng ejaculation
303
what makes up the erectile tissue?
- corpus spongiosum - encloses spongy urethra
- corpora cavernosa
304
what does GnRH do?
stimulates the release of FSH & LH
305
what does FSH do?
stimulates release of androgen-binding protein (ABP) - it binds androgens (testosterone)
306
what does ABP stimulate?
spermatogenesis
307
does LH stimulate?
interstitial cells to produce testosterone
308
what does inhibin do?
inhibits FSH
309
what are the female gonads?
ovaries
310
what is ovulation?
the process by which the ovary expels a secondary oocyte
311
what is fimbriae?
- located at the end of the infundibulum
- ciliated, finger-like projections
- drape over the ovary and "catach" an oocyte that is released from an ovary during ovulation
312
what is a uterus?
organ in which a conceptus implants and develops until birth
313
what are the parts of the uterus?
- fundus
- body
- cervix
314
what is the cervix?
the narrow neck, or outlet, of the uterus that projects into the vagina inferiorly
315
what is the perimetrium?
outermost serous layer and is an extension of the parietal peritoneum
316
what is the myometrium?
the thick middle layer, composed of bundles of smooth muscle
317
what is the endometrium?
the innermost tissue layer of the uterus composed of simple columnar epithelium on a layer of connective tissue called the lamina propria
318
what is the hymen?
an incomplete partition formed by the mucosa near the distal vaginal orifice
319
what is the vulva?
the collective term for external genitalia
320
what are the phases of the ovarian cycle?
- follicular phase
- ovulation
- luteal phase
321
what happen sin the follicular phase?
growht of follicles, which produce estrogen
322
what happens during ovulation?
- release of secondary oocyte and cells
- surge in LH
323
what happens during ovulation?
- release of secondary oocyte and cells
- surge in LH
324
what happens in the luteal phase?
corpus luteum secretes progesterone and estrogen (hormone levels drop off at end of phase due to corpus luteum involution ofrming corpus albicans)
325
what are the phases of the uterine cycle?
- menstrual phase
- proliferative phase
- secretaory phase
326
what happens during the menstrual phase?
discharge of menstrual fluid from vagina
327
what happens during the proliferative phase?
- cell division in stratum basalis builds up the stratum funtionalis
- estrogen from developing follicles
328
what happens during the secretaory phase?
- thickening of endometrium due to secretion and fluid accumulation
- progesterone from corpus luteum
- corpus luteum involutes at the end of this phase and progesterone levels drop off
