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Microbiology > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

Name the purines

A

Adenine and Guanine

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2
Q

Name the pyrimidines

A

Thymine, Cytosine, and Uracil

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3
Q

molecular make up of DNA and RNA

A

one or more phosphate groups, sugar, nitrogenous bases

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4
Q

difference between RNA and DNA

A

DNA: deoxyribose, double stranded, adenine pairs with thymine
RNA: ribose, single stranded, adenine pairs with uracil

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5
Q

There is normal biota in the

A

upper respiratory and GI tract

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6
Q

There are no biota in the

A

Accessory digestive organs/glands, lower respiratory, nervous and cardiovascular systems

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7
Q

process of replication

A

basically consists of a series of enzymes that separate the strands of the DNA molecule, copy one strand, and produce two daughter molecules

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8
Q

This enzyme will break the hydrogen bonds holding the two strands together, resulting in two separate strands (unzips the DNA)

A

helicase

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9
Q

This enzyme binds to each single strand of DNA to keep them apart

A

Single stranded binding protein

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10
Q

initiation of DNA synthesis requires a jump start or short RNA template manufactured by

A

RNA polymerase

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11
Q

adds nucleotides to the primer sequence and starts synthesizing new strands of DNA

A

DNA polymerase III

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12
Q

removes primer sequence through enzymatic action (cuts out RNA and replaces it with DNA)

A

DNA polymerase I

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13
Q

Joins or glues the Okazaki fragments together

A

ligase

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14
Q

synthesized from DNA to direct the synthesis of polypeptide chains (proteins)

A

mRNA

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15
Q

forms ribosomal subunits that together make up the ribosome

A

rRNA

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16
Q

functions to transfer amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosomes for placement in a protein molecule

A

tRNA

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17
Q

Beginning and end products of replication, transcription, and translation.

A

replication: DNA -> DNA, transcription: DNA -> mRNA, translation: mRNA -> protein

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18
Q

what is lysozyme?

A

enzyme in tears and saliva that break down the peptidoglycan in the cell wall of bacteria

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19
Q

How can the skin be inhibitory to microbes?

A

high lactic acid content of sweat and acidic pH and fatty content

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20
Q

How does the stomach defend against bacteria?

A

gastric juices that have a pH of about 1 - 3

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21
Q

general purpose phagocyte that are 1st in the inflammation process and primary component of pus

A

neutrophils

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22
Q

travel in the blood as phagocytes

A

monocytes

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23
Q

after monocytes leave the bloodstream they are transformed by various inflammatory mediator into these

A

macrophages

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24
Q

phagocytes recognize microorganisms as foreign by these

A

pathogen associated molecular patterns or PAMPs

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25
Q

these are used by host cells to recognize PAMPs

A

pattern recognition receptors or PRRs

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26
Q

first line of defense is

A

non-specific; barriers that block entry: skin and mucous membranes

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27
Q

second line of defense

A

non-specific; system of protective cells and fluids: inflammation, phagocytosis, and fever

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28
Q

third line of defense is

A

specificity and memory; acquired as each pathogen is encountered: B-cells and T-cells

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29
Q

what is a fever?

A

a systemic rise in body temperature; clinical def. = 100.5

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30
Q

body temperature is controlled by the

A

hypothalamus

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31
Q

what chemical causes a fever to occur?

A

pyrogens stimulate the hypothalamus to raise the bodies temp

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32
Q

benefits of a fever: (5)

A

lessens growth, inactivate microbe enzymes, increase phagocytosis, increase lysosome breakdown, make you feel like resting

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33
Q

dilation and permeability of blood vessels causing warmth, redness, and swelling

A

vasodilation

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34
Q

increase in leukocytes in blood at infection site

A

leukocytosis

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35
Q

when antibodies are passed from mother to offspring via the placenta or breast milk

A

naturally acquired passive immunity

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36
Q

produced when a person has and recovers from a disease

A

naturally acquired active immunity

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37
Q

when a person is vaccinated, they have this

A

artificially acquired active immunity

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38
Q

when antibodies are given to a person, for example, antibiotics

A

artificially acquired passive immunity

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39
Q

3 functions of helper T cells

A

they activate macrophages, B cells, and cytotoxic T cells

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40
Q

cytotoxic T cells lead to the destruction of

A

virus infected cells and cancer cells

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41
Q

cytotoxic T cells has which co-receptor and binds to which complex?

A

CD8 and binds to MHC I

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42
Q

helper T cells has which co-receptor and binds to which complex?

A

CD4 and binds to MHC II

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43
Q

2 types of progeny of B cells

A

plasma cells and memory cells

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44
Q

what cells release antibodies into the tissues and blood?

A

plasma cells

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45
Q

What cells are responsible for activating T helper cells?

A

APC

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46
Q

What cells are responsible for activating T cytotoxic cells?

A

T helper cells

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47
Q

what are the antigen presenting cells?

A

B cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells

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48
Q

these cells internalize and process antigens, presenting MHC II receptors that activate T helper cells

A

APC

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49
Q

Which cells express MHC I?

A

all nucleated cells have this complex. When infected with a virus, a cell will process it and send it to the MHC I.

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50
Q

difference between antigen and antibody

A

antigen is any foreign substance and antibodies are proteins produced in response to antigens

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51
Q

microorganisms that live on or in the human body

A

normal/resident biota

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52
Q

the generally good effect microbes have against intruder microbes

A

microbial antagonism

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53
Q

relationship that normal biota have with humans

A

commensal or mutualistic

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54
Q

exotoxins that lyse red blood cells

A

hemolysins

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55
Q

exotoxins that damage white blood cells especially neutrophils and macrophages

A

leukocidins

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56
Q

exotoxins that act on tissues of the nervous system to prevent muscle contraction or relaxation

A

neurotoxins

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57
Q

exotoxins that act on tissues of the gut

A

enterotoxins

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58
Q

toxic enzyme produced by Gram + bacteria and secreted into host tissue

A

exotoxins

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59
Q

Lipopolysaccharides that are part of the cell wall of gram negative bacteria are released when the cell dies or divides. this is an example of what?

A

endotoxins

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60
Q

5 stages of infectious disease

A

incubation, prodromal, invasive, decline, convalescence

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61
Q

Stage of infectious disease between infection and appearance of signs and symptoms

A

incubation period

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62
Q

Stage of infectious disease that is the short period during which nonspecific, often mild, symptoms occur

A

prodromal phase

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63
Q

Stage of infectious disease during which the individual experiences signs and symptoms

A

invasive phase

64
Q

Stage of infectious disease during which host defenses overcome the pathogen

A

decline phase

65
Q

Stage of infectious disease in which tissues are repaired and healing takes place, yet host is still contagious

A

convalescence period

66
Q

The causative agent of both chicken pox and shingles

A

Varicella Zoster Virus

67
Q

characteristic of a disease that can be observed by examining the patient

A

sign

68
Q

characteristic of a disease that can be felt only by the patient

A

symptom

69
Q

combo of signs and symptoms that are indicative of a disease

A

syndrome

70
Q

2 main routes of transmission

A

contact and vehicle

71
Q

3 types of contact transmission and example

A

direct-infected by something, indirect-fomites, droplet-mucous droplets

72
Q

3 types of vehicle

A

air, food, water

73
Q

AB blood has what type of antigens and antibodies?

A

A and B antigens and not antibodies

74
Q

AB can donate to and receive from?

A

AB, all

75
Q

A blood has what type of antigens and antibodies?

A

A, B

76
Q

A can donate to and receive from?

A

A and AB, A and O

77
Q

B blood has what type of antigens and antibodies?

A

B, A

78
Q

B can donate to and receive from?

A

B and AB, B and O

79
Q

O blood has what type of antigens and antibodies?

A

none, A and B

80
Q

What causes primary immunodeficiencies?

A

they are present at birth

81
Q

What causes secondary immunodeficiencies?

A

infectious agents, malignancies, or immunosuppressants

82
Q

primary immunodeficiency where there is an absence or immaturity of the thymus gland resulting in sever T cell deficiency

A

DiGeorge syndrome

83
Q

primary immunodeficiency where there is a disfunction in both B and T lymphocyte systems

A

Severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCIDS)

84
Q

Secondary immunodeficiency that targets and damages T helper cells which have CD4 molecules on their surface

A

Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome

85
Q

how does shingles develop?

A

after chicken pox, VZV becomes latent in the central nerve ganglion. Activated when immunity drops, moving down the nerves

86
Q

which type of viruses commonly establish latency

A

Herpes virus

87
Q

serious eye infection can be caused by many microorganisms but is most commonly caused by herpes simplex virus 1 that has been misdirected

A

herpetic keratitis

88
Q

Serious, highly contagious, rash disease caused by the Rubeola virus characterized by a red, raised, rash

A

Measles

89
Q

milder rash disease characterized by a pink, flat, rash that may go undetected

A

Rubella

90
Q

what causes scalded skin syndrome and what is it?

A

Staphylococcus aureus; skin peels of in leaf like sheets

91
Q

what causes Pseudomonas dermatitis and what is it?

A

Pseudomonas species; rash that occurs for about 2 weeks

92
Q

what causes impetigo and what is it?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes; isolated pustules that become crusted and rupture

93
Q

what causes otitis externa and what is it?

A

Pseudomonas species; infection of the external auditory meatus

94
Q

measles complications can include

A

measles encephalitis, subacute sclerocing panencephalitis

95
Q

rubella complications can include

A

congenital rubella, deafness

96
Q

causative agent smallpox

A

variola virus

97
Q

causative agent warts

A

human papilloma virus

98
Q

causative agent measles

A

rubeola virus

99
Q

causative agent rubella

A

rubella virus

100
Q

What are the normal biota of the nervous system?

A

there are none

101
Q

Causative agent of meningitis

A

Neisseria meningitides

102
Q

Causative agent of polio

A

Poliovirus

103
Q

Causative agent of CJD

A

prions

104
Q

Causative agent of rabies

A

Rabies Virus

105
Q

Causative agent of Tetanus

A

Clostridium tetani

106
Q

Causative agent of botulism

A

Clostridium botulinum

107
Q

Tetanus and botulism are both

A

endospore forming anaerobes

108
Q

C. tetani produces a powerful neurotoxin called

A

tetanospasmin

109
Q

Symptoms of tetanus

A

clenching of the jaw, extreme arching of the back, flexion of the arms and extension of the legs

110
Q

C. botulinum releases a neurotoxin called botulinum that results

A

in paralysis and loss of ability to contract muscles

111
Q

causative agent of malaria

A

Plasmodium genus

112
Q

causative agent of AIDS

A

HIV virus

113
Q

causative agent of acute endocarditis

A

Staphylococcus aureus

114
Q

causative agent of plague

A

Yersinia pestis

115
Q

causative agent of lyme disease

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

116
Q

causative agent of anthrax

A

Bacillus anthracis

117
Q

causative agent of infectious mononucleosis

A

Epstein Barr Virus

118
Q

causative agent of subacute endocarditis

A

alpha-hemolytic streptococci

119
Q

Vector for the plague

A

fleas

120
Q

viremia

A

presence of virus in the blood

121
Q

fungemia

A

presence of fungi in the blood

122
Q

bacteremia

A

presence of bacteria in the blood

123
Q

septicemia

A

bacteria flourish and grow in the bloodstream

124
Q

vector of Lyme disease

A

tick

125
Q

difference between antigenic shift and drift

A

a drift are small mutations that result in changes in spikes; seasonal flu outbreaks
a shift is a swapping of RNA genome strands, leads to epidemics and pandemics

126
Q

causative agent of flu

A

influenza virus (A,B,C)

127
Q

causative agent of cold

A

Rhinovirus, Coronavirus, Adenovirus

128
Q

causative agent of tuberculosis

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

129
Q

causative agent of pneumonia

A

Streptococcus pneumonia

130
Q

causative agent of whooping cough (Pertussis)

A

Bordetella pertussis

131
Q

causative agent of pharyngitis

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

132
Q

Type of tuberculosis: Bacteria inside the alveoli, formation of tubercles, neutrophils break them down into caseous lesions

A

Primary tuberculosis

133
Q

Type of tuberculosis: violent coughing, blood sputum, chest pain caused by reactivated bacteria, 60% mortality rate

A

secondary (reactivation) tuberculosis

134
Q

Type of tuberculosis: infection outside the lungs (common in immunosuppressed patients and young children) 30-50% mortality rate

A

extrapulmonary tuberculosis

135
Q

consist of a central core containing TB bacteria in macrophages; function to prevent the spread of disease

A

tubercles

136
Q

tubercles that have been broken down by enzymes released by neutrophils and are gradually replaced by calcium deposits

A

caseous lesions

137
Q

condition in which fluid fills the alveoli in the lungs

A

pneumonia

138
Q

2 types of pneumonia

A

community acquired - experienced by general pop

healthcare-associated - acquired by patients in healthcare facilities and hospitals

139
Q

Problems with C. diff are usually due to

A

broad spectrum antibiotics wiping out the normal biota the keep it in check

140
Q

causative agent of gastritis and stomach ulcers

A

Helicobacter pylori

141
Q

H. pylori can survive in stomach acid due to

A

urease

142
Q

2 types of Hepatitis that is spread orally

A

A & E

143
Q

3 types of Hepatitis spread by blood and bodily fluids

A

B, C, D

144
Q

Hep A and E are usually associated with what symptoms?

A

Food poisoning type symptoms

145
Q

This Hep is may become cancerous and necrotic

A

Hep B

146
Q

This Hep is likely to become cancerous and necrotic; most serious

A

Hep C

147
Q

This Hep is only dangerous if you have Hep B

A

Hep D

148
Q

Accessory organs of the GI tract

A

salivary glands, liver, gallbladder, pancreas

149
Q

Can cause septicemia/typhoid fever if severe but normally causes vomiting and diarrhea

A

Salmonella

150
Q

Diarrhea commencing in late antibiotic therapy; colon gradually sloughs off

A

C. diff

151
Q

abrupt symptoms of vomiting followed by copious water feces

A

Vibrio cholerae

152
Q

Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, C. Perfringens exotoxins cause what?

A

food poisoning (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea

153
Q

pathogenic protozoan found in feces; abdominal pain, diarrhea, greasy malodorous stools, no fever

A

Giardia lamblia

154
Q

causative agent of mumps

A

Mumps virus

155
Q

fever, nasal discharge, muscle pain, malaise; inflammation of the parotid salivary glands

A

mumps

156
Q

Play

A

Jeopardy!

157
Q

O can donate to and receive from?

A

all, O

Microbiology (7 decks)

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