Final Flashcards
(157 cards)
1
Q
Name the purines
A
Adenine and Guanine
2
Q
Name the pyrimidines
A
Thymine, Cytosine, and Uracil
3
Q
molecular make up of DNA and RNA
A
one or more phosphate groups, sugar, nitrogenous bases
4
Q
difference between RNA and DNA
A
DNA: deoxyribose, double stranded, adenine pairs with thymine
RNA: ribose, single stranded, adenine pairs with uracil
5
Q
There is normal biota in the
A
upper respiratory and GI tract
6
Q
There are no biota in the
A
Accessory digestive organs/glands, lower respiratory, nervous and cardiovascular systems
7
Q
process of replication
A
basically consists of a series of enzymes that separate the strands of the DNA molecule, copy one strand, and produce two daughter molecules
8
Q
This enzyme will break the hydrogen bonds holding the two strands together, resulting in two separate strands (unzips the DNA)
A
helicase
9
Q
This enzyme binds to each single strand of DNA to keep them apart
A
Single stranded binding protein
10
Q
initiation of DNA synthesis requires a jump start or short RNA template manufactured by
A
RNA polymerase
11
Q
adds nucleotides to the primer sequence and starts synthesizing new strands of DNA
A
DNA polymerase III
12
Q
removes primer sequence through enzymatic action (cuts out RNA and replaces it with DNA)
A
DNA polymerase I
13
Q
Joins or glues the Okazaki fragments together
A
ligase
14
Q
synthesized from DNA to direct the synthesis of polypeptide chains (proteins)
A
mRNA
15
Q
forms ribosomal subunits that together make up the ribosome
A
rRNA
16
Q
functions to transfer amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosomes for placement in a protein molecule
A
tRNA
17
Q
Beginning and end products of replication, transcription, and translation.
A
replication: DNA -> DNA, transcription: DNA -> mRNA, translation: mRNA -> protein
18
Q
what is lysozyme?
A
enzyme in tears and saliva that break down the peptidoglycan in the cell wall of bacteria
19
Q
How can the skin be inhibitory to microbes?
A
high lactic acid content of sweat and acidic pH and fatty content
20
Q
How does the stomach defend against bacteria?
A
gastric juices that have a pH of about 1 - 3
21
Q
general purpose phagocyte that are 1st in the inflammation process and primary component of pus
A
neutrophils
22
Q
travel in the blood as phagocytes
A
monocytes
23
Q
after monocytes leave the bloodstream they are transformed by various inflammatory mediator into these
A
macrophages
24
Q
phagocytes recognize microorganisms as foreign by these
A
pathogen associated molecular patterns or PAMPs
25
these are used by host cells to recognize PAMPs
pattern recognition receptors or PRRs
26
first line of defense is
non-specific; barriers that block entry: skin and mucous membranes
27
second line of defense
non-specific; system of protective cells and fluids: inflammation, phagocytosis, and fever
28
third line of defense is
specificity and memory; acquired as each pathogen is encountered: B-cells and T-cells
29
what is a fever?
a systemic rise in body temperature; clinical def. = 100.5
30
body temperature is controlled by the
hypothalamus
31
what chemical causes a fever to occur?
pyrogens stimulate the hypothalamus to raise the bodies temp
32
benefits of a fever: (5)
lessens growth, inactivate microbe enzymes, increase phagocytosis, increase lysosome breakdown, make you feel like resting
33
dilation and permeability of blood vessels causing warmth, redness, and swelling
vasodilation
34
increase in leukocytes in blood at infection site
leukocytosis
35
when antibodies are passed from mother to offspring via the placenta or breast milk
naturally acquired passive immunity
36
produced when a person has and recovers from a disease
naturally acquired active immunity
37
when a person is vaccinated, they have this
artificially acquired active immunity
38
when antibodies are given to a person, for example, antibiotics
artificially acquired passive immunity
39
3 functions of helper T cells
they activate macrophages, B cells, and cytotoxic T cells
40
cytotoxic T cells lead to the destruction of
virus infected cells and cancer cells
41
cytotoxic T cells has which co-receptor and binds to which complex?
CD8 and binds to MHC I
42
helper T cells has which co-receptor and binds to which complex?
CD4 and binds to MHC II
43
2 types of progeny of B cells
plasma cells and memory cells
44
what cells release antibodies into the tissues and blood?
plasma cells
45
What cells are responsible for activating T helper cells?
APC
46
What cells are responsible for activating T cytotoxic cells?
T helper cells
47
what are the antigen presenting cells?
B cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells
48
these cells internalize and process antigens, presenting MHC II receptors that activate T helper cells
APC
49
Which cells express MHC I?
all nucleated cells have this complex. When infected with a virus, a cell will process it and send it to the MHC I.
50
difference between antigen and antibody
antigen is any foreign substance and antibodies are proteins produced in response to antigens
51
microorganisms that live on or in the human body
normal/resident biota
52
the generally good effect microbes have against intruder microbes
microbial antagonism
53
relationship that normal biota have with humans
commensal or mutualistic
54
exotoxins that lyse red blood cells
hemolysins
55
exotoxins that damage white blood cells especially neutrophils and macrophages
leukocidins
56
exotoxins that act on tissues of the nervous system to prevent muscle contraction or relaxation
neurotoxins
57
exotoxins that act on tissues of the gut
enterotoxins
58
toxic enzyme produced by Gram + bacteria and secreted into host tissue
exotoxins
59
Lipopolysaccharides that are part of the cell wall of gram negative bacteria are released when the cell dies or divides. this is an example of what?
endotoxins
60
5 stages of infectious disease
incubation, prodromal, invasive, decline, convalescence
61
Stage of infectious disease between infection and appearance of signs and symptoms
incubation period
62
Stage of infectious disease that is the short period during which nonspecific, often mild, symptoms occur
prodromal phase
63
Stage of infectious disease during which the individual experiences signs and symptoms
invasive phase
64
Stage of infectious disease during which host defenses overcome the pathogen
decline phase
65
Stage of infectious disease in which tissues are repaired and healing takes place, yet host is still contagious
convalescence period
66
The causative agent of both chicken pox and shingles
Varicella Zoster Virus
67
characteristic of a disease that can be observed by examining the patient
sign
68
characteristic of a disease that can be felt only by the patient
symptom
69
combo of signs and symptoms that are indicative of a disease
syndrome
70
2 main routes of transmission
contact and vehicle
71
3 types of contact transmission and example
direct-infected by something, indirect-fomites, droplet-mucous droplets
72
3 types of vehicle
air, food, water
73
AB blood has what type of antigens and antibodies?
A and B antigens and not antibodies
74
AB can donate to and receive from?
AB, all
75
A blood has what type of antigens and antibodies?
A, B
76
A can donate to and receive from?
A and AB, A and O
77
B blood has what type of antigens and antibodies?
B, A
78
B can donate to and receive from?
B and AB, B and O
79
O blood has what type of antigens and antibodies?
none, A and B
80
What causes primary immunodeficiencies?
they are present at birth
81
What causes secondary immunodeficiencies?
infectious agents, malignancies, or immunosuppressants
82
primary immunodeficiency where there is an absence or immaturity of the thymus gland resulting in sever T cell deficiency
DiGeorge syndrome
83
primary immunodeficiency where there is a disfunction in both B and T lymphocyte systems
Severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCIDS)
84
Secondary immunodeficiency that targets and damages T helper cells which have CD4 molecules on their surface
Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
85
how does shingles develop?
after chicken pox, VZV becomes latent in the central nerve ganglion. Activated when immunity drops, moving down the nerves
86
which type of viruses commonly establish latency
Herpes virus
87
serious eye infection can be caused by many microorganisms but is most commonly caused by herpes simplex virus 1 that has been misdirected
herpetic keratitis
88
Serious, highly contagious, rash disease caused by the Rubeola virus characterized by a red, raised, rash
Measles
89
milder rash disease characterized by a pink, flat, rash that may go undetected
Rubella
90
what causes scalded skin syndrome and what is it?
Staphylococcus aureus; skin peels of in leaf like sheets
91
what causes Pseudomonas dermatitis and what is it?
Pseudomonas species; rash that occurs for about 2 weeks
92
what causes impetigo and what is it?
Streptococcus pyogenes; isolated pustules that become crusted and rupture
93
what causes otitis externa and what is it?
Pseudomonas species; infection of the external auditory meatus
94
measles complications can include
measles encephalitis, subacute sclerocing panencephalitis
95
rubella complications can include
congenital rubella, deafness
96
causative agent smallpox
variola virus
97
causative agent warts
human papilloma virus
98
causative agent measles
rubeola virus
99
causative agent rubella
rubella virus
100
What are the normal biota of the nervous system?
there are none
101
Causative agent of meningitis
Neisseria meningitides
102
Causative agent of polio
Poliovirus
103
Causative agent of CJD
prions
104
Causative agent of rabies
Rabies Virus
105
Causative agent of Tetanus
Clostridium tetani
106
Causative agent of botulism
Clostridium botulinum
107
Tetanus and botulism are both
endospore forming anaerobes
108
C. tetani produces a powerful neurotoxin called
tetanospasmin
109
Symptoms of tetanus
clenching of the jaw, extreme arching of the back, flexion of the arms and extension of the legs
110
C. botulinum releases a neurotoxin called botulinum that results
in paralysis and loss of ability to contract muscles
111
causative agent of malaria
Plasmodium genus
112
causative agent of AIDS
HIV virus
113
causative agent of acute endocarditis
Staphylococcus aureus
114
causative agent of plague
Yersinia pestis
115
causative agent of lyme disease
Borrelia burgdorferi
116
causative agent of anthrax
Bacillus anthracis
117
causative agent of infectious mononucleosis
Epstein Barr Virus
118
causative agent of subacute endocarditis
alpha-hemolytic streptococci
119
Vector for the plague
fleas
120
viremia
presence of virus in the blood
121
fungemia
presence of fungi in the blood
122
bacteremia
presence of bacteria in the blood
123
septicemia
bacteria flourish and grow in the bloodstream
124
vector of Lyme disease
tick
125
difference between antigenic shift and drift
a drift are small mutations that result in changes in spikes; seasonal flu outbreaks
a shift is a swapping of RNA genome strands, leads to epidemics and pandemics
126
causative agent of flu
influenza virus (A,B,C)
127
causative agent of cold
Rhinovirus, Coronavirus, Adenovirus
128
causative agent of tuberculosis
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
129
causative agent of pneumonia
Streptococcus pneumonia
130
causative agent of whooping cough (Pertussis)
Bordetella pertussis
131
causative agent of pharyngitis
Streptococcus pyogenes
132
Type of tuberculosis: Bacteria inside the alveoli, formation of tubercles, neutrophils break them down into caseous lesions
Primary tuberculosis
133
Type of tuberculosis: violent coughing, blood sputum, chest pain caused by reactivated bacteria, 60% mortality rate
secondary (reactivation) tuberculosis
134
Type of tuberculosis: infection outside the lungs (common in immunosuppressed patients and young children) 30-50% mortality rate
extrapulmonary tuberculosis
135
consist of a central core containing TB bacteria in macrophages; function to prevent the spread of disease
tubercles
136
tubercles that have been broken down by enzymes released by neutrophils and are gradually replaced by calcium deposits
caseous lesions
137
condition in which fluid fills the alveoli in the lungs
pneumonia
138
2 types of pneumonia
community acquired - experienced by general pop
| healthcare-associated - acquired by patients in healthcare facilities and hospitals
139
Problems with C. diff are usually due to
broad spectrum antibiotics wiping out the normal biota the keep it in check
140
causative agent of gastritis and stomach ulcers
Helicobacter pylori
141
H. pylori can survive in stomach acid due to
urease
142
2 types of Hepatitis that is spread orally
A & E
143
3 types of Hepatitis spread by blood and bodily fluids
B, C, D
144
Hep A and E are usually associated with what symptoms?
Food poisoning type symptoms
145
This Hep is may become cancerous and necrotic
Hep B
146
This Hep is likely to become cancerous and necrotic; most serious
Hep C
147
This Hep is only dangerous if you have Hep B
Hep D
148
Accessory organs of the GI tract
salivary glands, liver, gallbladder, pancreas
149
Can cause septicemia/typhoid fever if severe but normally causes vomiting and diarrhea
Salmonella
150
Diarrhea commencing in late antibiotic therapy; colon gradually sloughs off
C. diff
151
abrupt symptoms of vomiting followed by copious water feces
Vibrio cholerae
152
Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, C. Perfringens exotoxins cause what?
food poisoning (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
153
pathogenic protozoan found in feces; abdominal pain, diarrhea, greasy malodorous stools, no fever
Giardia lamblia
154
causative agent of mumps
Mumps virus
155
fever, nasal discharge, muscle pain, malaise; inflammation of the parotid salivary glands
mumps
156
Play
Jeopardy!
157
O can donate to and receive from?
all, O
