Final Exam Flashcards

(374 cards)

1
Q

T/F

Hemostasis is the production of formed elements of blood

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

T/F

Blood viscosity stems mainly from electrolytes and monomers dissolved in plasma.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

T/F

Lymphoid hemopoiesis occurs mainly in the bone marrow.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

T/F

Circulatory shock is any state in which cardiac output is insufficient to meet the body’s metabolic needs

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

T/F

Pressure sensors, chemical receptors, and activity receptors are located in various area of the body to regulate our heart rate.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

T/F

Oxygen and carbon dioxide bind to different parts of hemoglobin.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

T/F

The liver stores excess iron.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

T/F

The cardiac center is located in the medulla oblongata and is part of the brain steam.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

T/F

15% of blood pumped by the heart is pumped to the heart itself through the coronary circulation to sustain its strenuous workload.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

T/F

Three-fourths (¾) of the the body’s capillaries are shut down at a given time.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

T/F

A person develops anti-A antibodies only after he is exposed to antigen A, and anti-B antibodies only after he is exposed to antigen B.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

T/F

Incompatibility of one person’s blood with another results from the action of plasma antibodies against the RBCs’ (red blood cells) antigens.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

T/F

Rh incompatibility between a sensitized Rh+ woman and an Rh- fetus can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

T/F

Circulating WBCs spend most of their lives in the bloodstream

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

T/F

Lymphocytes secrete antibodies, coordinate action of other immune cells, and serve in immune memory.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

T/F

Monocytes differentiate into large phagocytic cells names macrophages.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

T/F

Clotting deficiency can result from thrombocytopenia or hemophilia.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

T/F

White blood cells are divided into two categories known as agranulocytes and granulocytes.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

T/F

The pulmonary circuit is supplied by both the right and the left sides of the heart.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

T/F

The systemic circuit contains oxygen-rich blood only (clean blood).

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

T/F

The heart has 6 chambers and 3 valves.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

T/F

Erythrocytes (RBC’s) have large nuclei and very little cytoplasm.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

T/F

If the SA node is damaged, nodal (AV node) rhythm is sufficient to sustain life.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

T/F

Agglutination happens when antibodies bind to antigen during blood incompatibility.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
T/F Circulatory system and cardiovascular system terms are used interchangeably ***_because they are the same_***.
False
26
T/F Papillary muscles prevent the AV valves from prolapsing (bulging) excessively into the atria when the ventricles contract.
True
27
T/F Pulmonary and systemic are the name of the two circuits pathways of the heart.
True
28
T/F Erythrocyte production can be influenced by hypoxemia of the kidney's and negative feedback.
True
29
T/F Veins have valves to prevent the back flow of blood.
True
30
T/F Hemopoiesis is the study of blood.
False
31
T/F The **_pulmonary circuit_** is the only route in which _arteries carry less oxygen than veins._ (**Hint:** _think about the type of blood carried by each circuit)_
True
32
T/F Arterial flow to the lower limb comes from the external iliac artery
True
33
T/F Erythrocytes (RBC’s) are the *_ONLY_* formed elements that make up blood.
False
34
Identify X and Y in the diagram of the heart shown.
X = left ventricle Y = pulmonary artery
35
The outermost wall of an artery or vein is called the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Tunica externa
36
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ was a blood-banking pioneer, and the first black person to use plasma rather than whole blood during transfusions.
Charles Drew
37
Most of the blood is in the (refer to the distribution of blood diagram)
Veins
38
These are all possible circulatory routes from the heart ***_except_*** 1. heart → arteries → capillary bed → veins → heart 2. heart → arteries → capillary bed → vein → capillary bed → arteries → heart 3. heart → arteries → arterial anastomosis → capillary bed → veins → heart 4. heart → arteries → arterial anastomosis → capillary bed → venous anastomosis → veins → heart
2. heart → arteries → capillary bed → vein → capillary bed → arteries → heart
39
Which of the following statements are true concerning Sickle Cell Disease? 1. Cells clump together and block blood vessels causing intense pain 2. Recessive allele disease that most occur in people of African descent 3. When individuals are in a crisis their RBC change into a banana/crescent shape. 4. This is an infectious/contagious disease. 5. A - C
5. A - C
40
In people who stand for long periods, blood tends to pool in the lower limbs and this may result in varicose veins. Varicose veins are caused by 1. an aneurysm or weak point in an artery 2. an aneurysm or weak point in a vein 3. failure of the venous valves 4. failure of the lymphatic valves 5. a ruptured aneurysm in a vein
3. failure of the venous valves
41
The speed of blood flow decreases when 1. Thickness increases 2. Blood pressure increases 3. Vessels radius increases 4. Afterload increases 5. Vasomotion
1. Thickness increases
42
Use the diagram below to identify the right atrium.
E
43
Use the diagram below to identify the left ventricle.
C
44
Use the diagram below to identify the pulmonary artery.
A
45
Use the diagram below to identify the aorta.
B
46
Use the diagram below to identify the pulmonary veins.
D
47
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ has the most important effect on blood velocity 1. Blood viscosity 2. vessel radius 3. Blood osmolarity 4. Hemocrit
2. vessel radius
48
Hypertension is commonly considered to be a chronic resting blood pressure higher than 1. 180/90 mmHg 2. 180/90 3. 130/60 4. 140/100 mmHg 5. 200/90 mmHg
4. 140/100 mmHg
49
Place the movement of blood in order from first to last. 1. Pressure builds in the right atrium forcing the tricuspid valve to open and blood to rush into the right ventricle. 2. Blood travel through the pulmonary trunk to the pulmonary arteries and into the lungs to unload CO2 and pick up O2 3. Blood return from the body to the right atrium of the heart via the superior and inferior vena cava. 4. Pressure build in the right ventricle forcing the pulmonary semilunar valve open. a. I, II, III, IV b. IV, III, I, II c. III, I, II, IV d. III, I, IV, II e. II, IV, I, III
d. III, I, IV, II
50
Place the movement of blood in order from first to last. 1. Blood enters the left atrium via the pulmonary veins. 2. As blood fills the left ventricle pressure increases. Eventually, the pressure causing the aortic semilunar valve to open. 3. Pressure build in the left atrium forcing the bicuspid/mitral valve to open and blood to flow into the left ventricle 4. Blood return from the body to the right atrium of the heart via the superior and inferior vena cava and the cardiac cycle begin again. 5. Blood leaves the aorta and is distributed to all organs and tissue of the body. 1. I, III, II, V, IV 2. III, I, V, II, IV 3. IV, III, I, V, II 4. V, IV, III, II, I 5. I, II, III, IV, V
1. 1) I, III, II, V, IV
51
These are all mechanisms of movement through the capillary wall ***_except_*** 1. Reabsorption 2. Filtration 3. Secretion 4. Transcytosis 5. Diffusion
3. Secretion
52
In the ABO blood system, you normally can be type: 1. A 2. B 3. ABO 4. A, B, AB, or O 5. All of the above
4. A, B, AB, or O
53
Use the diagram below to identify the left atrium.
D
54
Use the diagram below to identify the right ventricle.
B
55
Use the diagram below to identify the tricuspid valve.
A
56
Use the diagram below to identify the bicuspid (mitral) valve.
C
57
Use the diagram below to identify the inferior vena cava.
E
58
**\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ shock occurs when _bacterial toxins_ trigger vasodilation and increase capillary permeability** 1. Compensated 2. Anaphylactic 3. Neurogenic 4. Cardiogenic 5. Septic
5. Septic
59
How many **_pulmonary arteries**_ empty into the right atrium of the heart? (_**HINT:_** Think about the flow of blood throughout the heart.) 1. 0 2. 1 3. 2 4. 4 5. 7
1. 1. 0
60
Mother-fetus Rh blood type incompatibility problems can occur if the mother is _____ and her fetus is _____ . 1. Rh positive; Rh positive 2. Rh positive; Rh negative 3. Rh negative; Rh positive 4. Rh negative; Rh negative
3. Rh negative; Rh positive
61
The two main cardiac circuit are _________ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 1. pulmonary and septic 2. systemic and septic 3. pleural and pulmonary 4. systemic and pulmonary 5. systemic and pleural
4. Systemic and Pulmonary
62
Which of the following statements is true regarding the ABO blood system? 1. People who have the A antigen normally would not produce the anti-A antibody (A antibodies). 2. People who are type AB normally produce both anti-A and anti-B antibodies (A & B antibodies). 3. The only ABO type blood that normally **_does not have_** either A or B ***_antigens_*** is AB. 4. No answer text provided.
1. People who have the A antigen normally would not produce the anti-A antibody (A antibodies).
63
What is the function of pericardial fluid? 1. To reduce the heart rate 2. The increase the heart rate 3. To reduce friction 4. To increase friction
3. To reduce friction
64
The ________________ performs the work of the heart (**_HINT:_** The muscle layer does all the work). 1. fibrous skeleton 2. pericardial cavity 3. endocardium 4. myocardium 5. epicardium
4. Myocardium
65
The universal blood donor for the ABO system are type: 1. A 2. B 3. O 4. AB
3. O
66
The tricuspid valve regulates the opening between 1. the right atrium and the left atrium 2. the right atrium and the right ventricle 3. the right ventricle and the left ventricle 4. the left atrium and the left ventricle 5. the left ventricle and the right ventricle
2. The right atrium and the right ventricle
67
Oxygen-poor blood passes through 1. the right AV (tricuspid) valve and pulmonary valve 2. the right AV (tricuspid) valve only 3. the left AV (bicuspid/mitral) valve and aortic valve 4. the left AV (bicuspid/mitral) valve only 5. the pulmonary and aortic valve
1. The right AV (tricuspid) valve and pulmonary valve
68
Opening and closing of the heart valves is caused by 1. breathing 2. gravity 3. valves contracting and relaxing 4. pressure gradients
4. Pressure gradients
69
The ________________ is the pacemaker that initiates each heart beat. 1. sympathetic division of the nervous system 2. autonomic nervous system 3. sinoatrial (SA) node 4. atrioventricular (AV) node 5. cardiac conduction system
3. Sinoatrial (SA) node
70
Which of these is not part of the cardiac conduction system? 1. The sinoatrial (SA) node 2. The tendinous cords (TC) 3. The atrioventricular (AV) node 4. The atrioventricular (AV) bundle (bundle of his) 5. The Purkinje fibers
2. The tendinous cords (TC)
71
Any abnormal cardiac rhythm is called a(n) 1. ectopic focus 2. sinus rhythm 3. nodal rhythm 4. heart block 5. arrhythmia
5. Arrhythmia
72
When the left ventricle contracts, the _____ valve closes and the _____ valve is pushed open 1. Mitral (bicuspid); pulmonary semilunar 2. Tricuspid; pulmonary semilunar 3. Tricuspid; aortic semilunar 4. Mitral (bicuspid); aortic semilunar 5. Aortic semilunar; pulmonary semilunar
4. Mitral (bicuspid); aortic semilunar
73
Mitral valve stenosis causes blood to leak back into the ___________ when the ventricles contract 1. Left atrium 2. Right atrium 3. Aorta 4. Pulmonary trunk 5. Pulmonary arteries
1. Left atrium
74
Congestive heart failure (CHF) of the right ventricle can cause? (**_HINT:_** The right side of the heart fails causing the left side to work harder.) 1. Can cause pulmonary edema 2. Can cause systemic edema 3. Increases the ejections fraction of the right ventricle 4. Reduces the ejection fraction of the left ventricle 5. Increases cardiac output in both ventricles
2. Can cause systemic edema
75
The volume of blood ejected by each ventricle in one minute is called 1. the cardiac reserve 2. the preload 3. the afterload 4. the stroke volume 5. the cardiac output
5. The cardiac output
76
Blood ***_does not_*** 1. Transport a variety of nutrients 2. Help to stabilize pH of extracellular fluid 3. Participate in initiation of blood clotting 4. Produce plasma hormones 5. Help to regulate body temperature
4. Produce plasma hormones
77
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is not found in plasma. 1. Glycogen 2. Fibrinogen 3. Glucose 4. Urea 5. Albumin
1. Glycogen
78
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a protein not commonly found in plasma. 1. Albumin 2. Hemoglobin 3. Transferrin 4. Prothrombin 5. Fibrinogen
2. Hemoglobin
79
Myeloid hemopoiesis in adults happens in the 1. Thymus 2. Spleen 3. Red bone marrow 4. Yellow bone marrow 5. Liver
3. Red bone marrow
80
Which of the following statements best describe arteries? 1. All arteries carry oxygenated blood towards the heart 2. All arteries contain valves to prevent the back-flow of blood 3. All arteries carry blood away from the heart 4. Only large arteries are lined with endothelium 5. All of the above
3. All arteries carry blood away from the heart
81
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is more likely to cause anemia than any of the other factors below 1. High altitude 2. Air pollution other than carbon monoxide 3. Renal disease 4. Smoking 5. Any factor that create a state of hypoxemia
3. Renal disease
82
Anemia has these potential consequences ***_except_*** 1. Blood viscosity is increased 2. The individual is lethargic 3. Blood osmolarity is reduced 4. Blood resistance to flow is reduced 5. More fluid transfer from the blood stream to the intercellular spaces
1. Blood viscosity is increased
83
The left side of the heart pumps 1. deoxygenated blood 2. oxygenated blood
2. Oxygenated blood
84
The right side of the heart pumps 1. deoxygenated blood 2. oxygenated blood
1. Deoxygenated blood
85
Which of the following are valves of the heart? 1. Tricuspid (right atrioventricular) valve 2. Bicuspid/Mitral (left atrioventricular) valve 3. Pulmonary (right semilunar) valve 4. Aortic (left semilunar) valve 5. All of the above
5. All of the above
86
The ABO blood group is determined by _____________ in the plasma membrane of RBCs. 1. Antigens on the surface 2. Glycoproteins on the surfaces 3. Antibodies 4. Antigen-antibody complexes 5. Agglutinins
1. Antigens on the surface
87
The right and left coronary artery both branches off the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 1. Aorta 2. Renal artery 3. Pulmonary artery 4. Left/right ventricle 5. Left/right artia
1. Aorta
88
Arteries carry blood \_\_\_\_\_\_\_, veins carry blood _______ and capillaries \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 1. Away from the heart; back to the heart; connect arteries to veins 2. Connect arteries to veins; away from the hear; carry blood back to the heart 3. Back to the heart; Away from the heart; connect arteries to veins 4. Back to the heart, connect arteries to veins, carry blood towards the heart
1. Away from the heart; back to the heart; connect arteries to veins
89
Which layer is thicker in arteries than in veins? 1. Tunica externa 2. Tunica media 3. Tunica interna
2. Tunica media
90
Which of the following have no effect on stroke volume? 1. preload 2. contractility 3. cardiac output 4. afterload
3. Cardiac output
91
Which of the following is not part of the ventricular filling phase? 1. systole 2. rapid ventricular filling 3. diastasis 4. atrial systole
1. Systole
92
Place the steps of the conduction system in order from first to last. 1. AV node fires 2. Excitation spread through the atrial myocardium 3. SA node fired 4. Purkinje fibers distribute excitation through ventricular myocardium 5. Excitation spreads down Bundle of His. 1. I, II, III, IV, V 2. V, IV, III, II , I 3. III, II, I, V, IV 4. IV, I, III, V, II 5. II, V, III, I, IV
3. III, II, I, V, IV
93
Cardiac output is the 1. amount of blood ejected by the ventricle in 1 min 2. amount of blood ejected by the ventricle in 10 mins 3. amount of blood ejected by the ventricle in 60 mins 4. amount of blood ejected by the ventricle in 30 mins
1. Amount of blood ejected by the ventricle in 1 min
94
Pulse is the surge of pressure produced by each heart beat that can be felt by palpating a superficial artery with the fingertips. Why should you never use your thumb when taking a pulse? 1. The sensation of the thumb is not as good as it is in the middle two fingers 2. The width of the thumb impedes an accurate feel for the pulse 3. There is more dexterity in the fingers than there is in the thumb 4. The thumb has a pulse and can be confused with the patient's pulse
4. The thumb has a pulse and can be confused with the patient's pulse
95
When a hematocrit test is completed on a patient, blood is centrifuged, and separated by density. How would you expected the following components of blood to settle in the test tube? 1. WBC, Plasma, RBC 2. RBC, WBC, Plasma 3. WBC, Plasma, RBC 4. Plasma, WBC, RBC 5. Plasma, RBC, WBC
4. Plasma, WBC, RBC
96
Hypoproteinemia is a deficiency of plasma proteins, some common causes include all ***_except_*** 1. Thin arms and legs 2. Extreme starvation 3. Liver or kidney disease 4. Severe burns
1. Thin arms and legs
97
Mature erythrocytes (RBC) 1. Lack all organelles 2. Are bi-concaved (shaped like a donut) 3. Have 4 alpha heme groups 4. A & B 5. A - C
4. A & B
98
Which WBC do you expect to increase in numbers if you're suffering from a bacteria infection? 1. Neutophils 2. Eosinophils 3. Basophils 4. Monocytes
1. Neutophils
99
All of the following are hemostatic mechanisms to control bleeding ***_except_*** 1. Vascular spasms 2. Hemorrhage 3. Platelet plug formation 4. Blood clotting (coagulation)
2. Hemorrhage
100
Which WBC do you expect to increase in numbers if your suffering from a chickenpox? 1. Neutrophils 2. Eosinophils 3. Basophils 4. Monocytes
3. Basophils
101
Hemophilia is family of hereditary diseases characterized by deficiency of any clotting factor. Which of the following diseases is not sex-linked. 1. Hemophilia A 2. Hemophilia B 3. Hemophilia C
3. Hemophilia C
102
Which WBC do you expect to increase in numbers if you're suffering from a parasitic infection? 1. Neutrophils 2. Eosinophils 3. Basophils 4. Monocytes
2. Eosinophils
103
Most strokes and heart attacks are caused by the abnormal clotting of blood in an unbroken vessel. Moreover, a piece of the ____________ (clot) may break loose and begin to travel in the bloodstream as a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ 1. Thrombus; embolus 2. Embolism; thrombus 3. Plaque; thrombus 4. Thrombosis; plaque 5. Plaque; embolus
1. Thrombus; embolus
104
The parasympathetic nerves and the sympathetic nerves work together to regulate the heart rate. The parasympathetic nerves \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_; whereas the sympathetic nerves \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 1. increase the heart rate; increase the heart rate 2. increase the heart rate; decrease the heart rate 3. decrease the heart rate; decrease the heart rate 4. decrease the heart rate; increase the heart rate
4. Decrease the heart rate; increase the heart rate
105
Blood pressure is recorded as 1. Diastole/systole 2. Systole/diastole 3. Systole/diastole 4. Systole/systole 5. Diastole/diastole
2. Systole/diastole
106
Diastole measures the 1. Atrial or ventricular contraction 2. Atrial or ventricular relaxation
2. Atrial or ventricular relaxation
107
Mitral valve prolapse is the insufficiency in which one or both mitral valve cusps bulge into atria during ventricular contraction. Individual affected by this disorder has valve complications in the 1. Pulmonary circuit 2. Systemic circuit
2. Systemic circuit
108
Auscultation is the scientific term for listening to sounds the body make. The heart typically makes two sounds: 1. Lubb (S1) and 2. Dubb (S2). The lubb occurs because \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, and the dubb occur because \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 1. The AV valves are closing (tricuspid/bicuspid); the semilunar valves are closing (aortic/pulmonary) 2. The AV valves are closing (tricuspid/bicuspid); the AV valves are closing (tricuspid/bicuspid) 3. The semilunar valves are closing (aortic/pulmonary); the semilunar valves are closing (aortic/pulmonary) 4. The semilunar valves are closing (aortic/pulmonary); the AV valves are closing (tricuspid/bicuspid)
1. The AV valves are closing (tricuspid/bicuspid); the semilunar valves are closing (aortic/pulmonary)
109
If a patient has tachycardia they have \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_; whereas a person with bradycardia have \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 1. high heart rate; high pulse 2. low heart rate; low pulse 3. high heart rate; low heart rate 4. low pulse; high pulse
3. high heart rate; low heart rate
110
Coronary artery disease (CAD) is the constriction of the coronary arteries, usually the result of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ 1. Atherosclerosis 2. Hypertension 3. Virus 4. Dibetes 5. All of the above
5. All of the above
111
Place the following arteries in order from largest to smallest 1. Distributing arteries, conducting arteries, metarterioles, resistance arteries 2. Conducting arteries, metarterioles, resistance arteries, distributing arteries 3. Metarterioles, resistance arteries, distributing arteries, conducting arteries 4. Conducting arteries, distributing arteries, resistance arteries, metarterioles
4. Conducting arteries, distributing arteries, resistance arteries, metarterioles
112
All the following are conducting (large) arteries **_except_** 1. Aorta 2. Pulmonary trunk 3. Renal 4. Carotid
3. Renal
113
What percentage of capillaries are shut down at any given time? 1. 12% 2. 30% 3. 55% 4. 75% 5. 93%
4. 75%
114
This is the most common site for blood pressure to be taken? 1. Brachial vein 2. Carotid artery 3. Brachial artery 4. Femoral artery 5. Subclavian artery
3. Brachial artery
115
Blood flow changes depending on a person’s activity level. When exercising 1. A person will have increased perfusion of lungs, myocardium, and skeletal muscles 2. A person will have decreased perfusion of lungs, myocardium, and skeletal muscles 3. A person will have decreased perfusion of kidneys and digestive tract 4. A person will have increased perfusion of kidneys and digestive tract 5. A & C
5. A & C
116
Capillaries reabsorb about _____ of the fluid they filter. 1. 12% 2. 30% 3. 55% 4. 85% 5. 93%
4. 85%
117
Edema is the accumulation of excess fluid in a tissue. It occurs when fluid filters into a tissue faster than it is absorbed. Some primary causes included 1. Increased capillary filtration - kidney failure, histamine release, old age, poor venous return 2. Reduced capillary absorption - hypoproteinemia, liver disease, dietary protein deficiency 3. Obstructed lymphatic drainage - surgical removal of lymph nodes 4. All of the above
4. All of the above
118
Stroke and myocardial infractions are both due to 1. Sudden death of tissue 2. Lack of oxygen to tissue 3. Severe blood loss 4. All of the above 5. None of the above
All of the above
119
Internal jugular vein receives most of the blood from 1. the brain 2. the heart 3. the liver 4. the external structures of the head 5. upper limbs
1. the brain
120
Branches of external jugular vein drain 1. the brain 2. the heart 3. the liver 4. the external structures of the head 5. Upper limbs
4. The external structures of the head
121
The cardiovascular system include all of the following ***_except_*** 1. Heart 2. Blood 3. Blood vessel
2. Blood
122
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is drained by subclavian vein 1. the brain 2. the heart 3. the liver 4. the external structure of the head 5. upper limbs
5. upper limbs
123
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ shock is a severe immune reaction to antigen, histamine release, generalized vasodilation, increased capillary permeability 1. Compensated 2. Anaphylactic 3. Neurogenic 4. Cardiogenic 5. Septic
2. Anaphylactic
124
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ shock is a loss of vasomotor tone, vasodilation, caused from emotional shock to brainstem injury. 1. Compensated 2. Anaphylactic 3. Neurogenic 4. Cardiogenic 5. Septic
3. Neurogenic
125
Systole measures the 1. Atrial or ventricular contractions 2. Atrial or ventricular relaxation
1. Atrial or ventricular contractions
126
T/F The lymphatic system is an active system involving a pump.
False
127
T/F The vessels of the lymphatic system work in the same direction as venous blood flow.
True
128
T/F CO2 often compete with oxygen when binding to hemoglobin.
False
129
T/F Haptens and antigens are the same, both cause an intense immune reaction.
False
130
T/F The lymphatic system work parallel to the circulatory system.
True
131
T/F The right lymphatic duct receives lymph from right arm, right side of head and thorax; it also empties into left subclavian vein.
False
132
T/F The thymus plays a critical role in immunity during childhood, but shrink and has a less critical role as one grows up.
True
133
T/F HIV invades helper T cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells by tricking them to internalize viruses by receptor-mediated endocytosis.
True
134
T/F Protein, cell debris, bacteria, viruses, and cancer cells which do not enter the blood, are also unable to enter lymph fluid.
False
135
T/F Tiny hair/projections called fimbriae keep mucus and dirt out of your lungs.
False
136
T/F The immune system is composed of a cell population that inhabits all organs and defends the body from agents of disease.
True
137
T/F The diaphragm's main function is to pump oxygen out of the lungs and pull carbon dioxide into the lungs.
False
138
T/F C-shaped hyaline cartilage reinforce the larynx walls.
False
139
T/F The thoracic duct is longer and larger than the right lymphatic duct.
True
140
T/F The vessels of the lymphatic system work in the same direction as arterial blood flow.
False
141
T/F B lymphocytes mature in the thymus.
False
142
T/F There’s an autorhythmic pacemaker cells for respiration, that has a similar function to the SA node in the heart.
False
143
T/F Both T-lymphocytes and B-lymphocytes have a memory functions.
True
144
T/F Natural killer cells (NK cells) release perforins and granzymes.
True
145
T/F Alveoli are unique sac in each of our lungs. We have about 150 million alveoli in each lung, providing about 70 meter square of surface for gas exchange. The gas exchange include removing oxygen from blood and depositing carbon dioxide.
False
146
T/F Alveolar macrophages allow the alveoli be permeable to debris.
False
147
T/F Hypersensitivity (allergy) is an excessive immune reaction against antigens that most people tolerate.
True
148
The alternative pathway is associated with the ________________ system. 1. Interferon 2. Complement
2. Complement
149
T/F The exact mechanism for setting the rhythm of respiration remains unknown.
True
150
Generalized protection is associated with the ________________ system. 1. Interferon 2. Complement
1. 1. Interferon
151
T/F Balances maintained by the collective action of the urinary, respiratory, digestive, integumentary, endocrine, nervous, cardiovascular, and lymphatic systems.
True
152
T/F The digestive system processes food, extracts nutrients, and eliminates the residue.
True
153
T/F High LDL is a warning sign that cholesterol levels are high and is depositing in arteries.
True
154
T/F Neurotransmitters stimulate desire for different types of food.
True
155
T/F Gastric peristalsis partly stimulate hunger.
True
156
T/F The enteric nervous system regulates much of the digestive activity but its action depends on the central nervous system.
False
157
T/F Both chemical and mechanical digestion start in the mouth and continue in the stomach.
True
158
T/F The small intestine begins with the duodenum, which is its longest segment.
False
159
T/F The large intestine absorbs water, fats, and salts.
False
160
T/F Mental state does not affect metabolic rate.
False
161
T/F Hypothermia may be fatal if the core body temperature reaches 74°F or lower.
True
162
T/F The large intestine is longer than the small intestine.
False
163
T/F Homo sapiens (humans) have an incomplete digestive system.
False
164
T/F Body weight is stable when average daily energy intake and output are equal.
True
165
T/F Norepinephrine stimulates cravings for carbohydrates, whereas endorphins stimulate cravings for proteins.
True
166
T/F Absorption of many nutrients starts in the stomach.
False
167
T/F The heat-promoting center is located in the hypothalamus, which triggers shivering.
True
168
T/F Insulin has a greater effect on appetite than leptin.
False
169
T/F Monosaccharides such as glucose, galactose, fructose arise from digestion of starch and disaccharides.
True
170
T/F The absorptive state lasts about fifteen minutes after a meal.
False
171
Which is the first anti-HIV drug to inhibit reverse transcription? 1. Nonoxynol-9 2. Azidothymidine 3. Soma 4. Protease
2. Azidothymidine
172
Which best describes a lymph node? 1. A type of pathogen that attacks the immune system 2. A special kind of immune cell that is found in the lymph 3. A "dead end" where a lymphatic vessel comes to an end 4. A capsule in the lymph vessels that are filled with B cells and T cells 5. Any organ that is being attacked by pathogens
4. A capsule in the lymph vessels that are filled with B cells and T cells
173
Lymph fluid is 1. Composed of aggregates of lymphocytes and macrophages that populate many organs in the body 2. Fluid that is separated from surrounding organs by connective tissue capsules 3. Defense cells are especially concentrated in these organs 4. Fluid continually filters from the blood capillaries into the tissue spaces; excess tissue fluid carried by lymphatic vessels
4. Fluid continually filters from the blood capillaries into the tissue spaces; excess tissue fluid carried by lymphatic vessels
174
The integumentary system (skin) is a part of our body’s _____ line of defense. 1. 1st 2. 2nd 3. 3rd 4. 4th
1. 1st
175
Functions of the pleural fluid include 1. Preventing the spread of infections 2. Reducing friction 3. Increasing pressure allowing the lungs to deflate 4. A & B 5. A - C
4. A & B
176
Which is not a function of the lymphatic system. 1. Transport clean fluid back to the blood 2. Deposit debris from cell of body 3. Transport fat from digestive system 4. Drain excess fluid from tissue
2. Deposit debris from cell of body
177
The lymphatic system is considered passive because 1. It is pumpless 2. Lymph flows because of the milking actions of skeletal muscles 3. It has to work against gravity 4. A & C 5. A - C
5. A - C
178
Lymph moves towards the heart because of 1. Milking of skeletal muscles 2. Rhythmic contraction of smooth muscle in vessel walls 3. Gravity effects movement 4. Contraction from the systems pump 5. A - C
5. A - C
179
Identify the function of the lymphatic system. 1. Drain excess fluid from tissue 2. Transport clean fluid from the blood 3. Transport fat from the digestive system 4. A & B 5. A & C
5. A & C
180
What percentage of water and plasma protein enters the lymphatic system before returning the blood? 1. 85% 2. 12% 3. 15% 4. 30%
3. 15%
181
The two major lymphatic ducts are 1. Cervical duct and right lymphatic duct 2. Right lymphatic duct and left lymphatic duct 3. Left lymphatic duct and thoracic duct 4. Thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct
4. Thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct
182
What happens when the lymphatic system malfunction or function poorly? 1. Build up of fluid in various regions of the body 2. Lymphedema may develop 3. Poor circulation due to decrease venous blood return 4. All of the above
4. All of the above
183
Where do B cells originate from? 1. Thymus 2. Bone marrow 3. Macrophages 4. Lymphoid tissue
2. Bone marrow
184
The collecting ducts of the lymphatic system are 1. Right lymphatic duct and left lymphatic duct 2. Right lymphatic duct, thoracic duct, and left lymphatic duct 3. Thoracic duct and left lymphatic duct 4. Thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct
4. Thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct
185
In what organ does T cells mature? 1. Thymus 2. Bone marrow 3. Macrophages 4. Lymphoid tissue
1. Thymus
186
How does the respiratory system work? Arrange the following events in the correct order. 1. Air moves to the bronchi tubes as it enters the lungs 2. Carbon dioxide passes from the blood into the alveoli and then exhaled 3. Air that flow from the mouth or nasal cavity travels through the pharynx and moves down the trachea 4. Once the air gets in the lungs the air enters separate branches called the bronchiole. 1. 3, 1, 4, 2 2. 3, 1, 2, 4 3. 3, 2, 4, 1 4. 3, 2, 1, 4
1. 3, 1, 4, 2
187
How does the respiratory system work? Arrange the following events in the correct order. 1. Cells get and use oxygen as fuel 2. Oxygen travels from your lungs through the bloodstream to the cells in all parts of your body 3. Waste is carried by the bloodstream back to the lungs to be exhaled 4. Cells give off carbon dioxide as waste. a) 4, 2, 1, 3 b) 2, 1, 4, 3 c) 1, 2, 4, 3 d) 4, 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 1, 4, 3
188
Match the following lymphoid tissue organs with the statement based on their location/function in the body ~ Trap and remove bacteria and other foreign materials entering the throat 1. Peyer's patchs 2. Tonsils 3. Thymus 4. Spleen
2. Tonsils
189
Match the following lymphoid tissue organs with the statement based on their location/function in the body ~ Lymphatic mass overlaying the heart 1. Peyer's patchs 2. Tonsils 3. Thymus 4. Spleen
3. Thymus
190
Match the following lymphoid tissue organs with the statement based on their location/function in the body ~ This organ dispose of RBC, produce blood in fetus, act as a blood reservoir 1. Peyer's patchs 2. Tonsils 3. Thymus 4. Spleen
4. Spleen
191
Match the following lymphoid tissue organs with the statement based on their location/function in the body ~ Capture and destroy bacteria in the intestine (purpose is to prevent bacteria from entering the intestinal wall) 1. Peyer's patchs 2. Tonsils 3. Thymus 4. Spleen
1. Peyer's patchs
192
Dead space volume is 1. The maximum quantity of air in one breath 2. Air that remains in conducting zone and never reaches alveoli 3. Maximum amount lungs can hold 4. Normal breath – movement if about 500 mL of air with each breath
2. Air that remains in conducting zone and never reaches alveoli
193
Tidal volume is 1. The maximum quantity of air in one breath 2. Air that remains in conducting zone and never reaches alveoli 3. Maximum amount lungs can hold 4. Normal breath – movement if about 500 mL of air with each breath
4. Normal breath – movement if about 500 mL of air with each breath
194
Lymph nodes populate which of the following areas (select all that apply) 1. Lumbar 2. Popliteal 3. Abdominal 4. Axillary
2. Popliteal 3. Abdominal 4. Axillary
195
The _________ pulp of the spleen is made up of lymphocytes and macrophages. 1. Cortex 2. Red 3. White 4. Medulla
3. White
196
Mucous membranes line all of the following except: 1. Digestive 2. Circulatory 3. Urinary 4. Reproductive
2. Circulatory
197
Surfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing by 1. Humidifying the air before it enters 2. Warming the air before it enters 3. Interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid 4. Protecting the surface of alveoli from dehydration and other environmental variations
3. Interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid
198
Which of the choices below is not a functional process performed by the respiratory system? 1. Pulmonary ventilation 2. Transport of respiratory gases 3. Pulmonary respiration 4. External respiration
2. Transport of respiratory gases
199
All of the following are lymph nodes ***_except_*** 1. Abdominal lymph nodes 2. Lumbar lymph nodes 3. Popliteal lymph nodes 4. Cervical lymph nodes
2. Lumbar lymph nodes
200
The respiratory system is made up of the trachea, the lungs, and the: 1. Liver 2. Diaphragm 3. Esophagus 4. Pancreas
2. Diaphragm
201
Passive immunity is when \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, active immunity is when \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 1. Antibodies are obtained from the serum of an immune human or animal; B cell encounter antigens and produce antibodies against them. 2. B cell encounter antigens and produce antibodies against them; antibodies are obtained from the serum of an immune human or animal. 3. Antibodies are obtained from the serum of an immune human or animal; antibodies are obtained from the serum of an immune human or animal. 4. B cell encounter antigens and produce antibodies against them; B cell encounter antigens and produce antibodies against them.
1. Antibodies are obtained from the serum of an immune human or animal; B cell encounter antigens and produce antibodies against them.
202
Little air sac in your lungs where gas exchange happens is known as the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 1. Bronchioles 2. Alveoli 3. Bronxoli 4. Ravioli
2. Alveoli
203
Respiratory control centers are located in the 1. Midbrain and medulla 2. Medulla and pons 3. Pons and midbrain 4. Upper spinal cord and medulla
2. Medulla and pons
204
Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs and through all cell membranes by 1. Osmosis 2. Diffusion 3. Filtration 4. Active transport
2. Diffusion
205
Which of the following is not found on the right lung? 1. Middle lobe 2. Cardiac notch 3. Horizontal fissure 4. Oblique fissure
2. Cardiac notch
206
Which of the disorders below is characterized by destruction of the walls of the alveoli producing abnormally large air spaces that remain filled with air during exhalation? 1. Pneumonia 2. Tuberculosis 3. Emphysema 4. Coryza
3. Emphysema
207
The flap over the trachea that keeps out food and anything else that could clog the trachea out is called the 1. Epiglottis 2. Larynx 3. Pharynx
1. Epiglottis
208
These are the names of the lymph tissue and lymph nodes that protect the body from infection 1. Adenoids and tonsils 2. Alveoli and sinuses 3. Bronchi and trachea
1. Adenoids and tonsils
209
The process of breathing in and out us called 1. Exhalation 2. Ventilation 3. Inhalation 4. Emphysema
2. Ventilation
210
Each lung is divided into lobes. The right lung has _____ lobes, and the left lung has ___ lobes. 1. 4; 3 2. 3; 2 3. 2; 3 4. 4; 4
2) 3; 2
211
The _______________ received lymph from the right arm, right side of the head and thorax, and empties into the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 1. Thoracic duct; left subclavian vein 2. Right lymphatic duct, left subclavian vein 3. Thoracic duct; right subclavian vein 4. Right lymphatic duct; right subclavian vein
4. Right lymphatic duct; right subclavian vein
212
Identify #4
Trachea
213
Identify #1
Epiglottis
214
Identify #16
Diaphragm
215
Identify #2
Thyroid cartilage
216
Which of the following is not a major stage in the fever process? 1. Stage 2. Onset 3. Defervescrence 4. Stadium
1. Stage
217
Natural killer cells (NK cells) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.(select all that apply) 1. Destroy bacteria 2. Destroyed transplanted cells 3. Release perforins and granzymes 4. Removes debris
1. Destroy bacteria 2. Destroyed transplanted cells 3. Release perforins and granzymes
218
Identify the three major processes of inflammation in the correct order (what happens 1st, 2nd, and 3rd). 1. tissue clean-up and repair 2. mobilization of body defenses 3. containment and destruction of pathogens 1. 3, 1, 2 2. 2, 1, 3 3. 1, 2, 3 4. 2, 3, 1
4) 2, 3, 1
219
Normal body pH should be between 1. 7.25 - 7.35 2. 7.35 - 7.45 3. 7.45 - 7.55 4. 7.55 - 7.65
2) 7.35 - 7.45
220
Which vocabulary term best fits this description ~ Maximum quantity of air in one breath 4500-5500 mL 1. Tidal volume 2. Total lung capacity 3. Dead space volume 4. Vital capacity 5. Expiratory reserve volume
4. Vital capacity
221
Which vocabulary term best fits this description ~ Volume of air inhaled and exhaled in one cycle during quiet breathing (500 mL) 1. Tidal volume 2. Total lung capacity 3. Dead space volume 4. Vital capacity 5. Expiratory reserve volume
1. Tidal volume
222
Which vocabulary term best fits this description ~ Air in excess of tidal volume that can be exhaled with maximum effort (1,200 mL) 1. Tidal volume 2. Total lung volume 3. Dead space volume 4. Expiratory reserve volume
4. Expiratory reserve volume
223
Which vocabulary term best fits this description ~ Maximum amount lungs can hold; 4650-6400 mL 1. Tidal volume 2. Total lung capacity 3. Dead space volume 4. Vital capacity 5. Expiratory reserve volume
2. Total lung capacity
224
Which vocabulary term best fits this description ~ Air that remains in conducting zone and never reaches alveoli (~150mL) 1. Tidal volume 2. Total lung capacity 3. Dead space volume 4. Vital capacity 5. Expiratory reserve volume
3. Dead space volume
225
Identify which immunity cell has a limited immune response 1. Memory T cells 2. Regulatory T cells 3. Helper T cells 4. Cytotoxic T cells
2. Regulatory T cells
226
Identify which immunity cell carries out attacks 1. Memory T cells 2. Regulatory T cells 3. Helper T cells 4. Cytotoxic T cells
4. Cytotoxic T cells
227
Identify which immunity cell provided immunity from future exposure to antigens. 1. Memory T cells 2. Regulatory T cells 3. Helper T cells 4. Cytotoxic T cells
1. Memory T cells
228
Identify which immunity cell help promote Tc cells and B cells action and nonspecific defense mechanisms 1. Memory T cells 2. Regulatory T cells 3. Helper T cells 4. Cytotoxic T cells
3. Helper T cells
229
Which molecule competes with oxygen when binding to hemoglobin. 1. CO2 2. PO4 3. CO 4. HCO3
3. CO
230
The _____________ system and the ________ system collaborate (work together) to regulate the body’s acid-base balance. 1. Urinary; digestive 2. Respiratory; urinary 3. Reproductive; respiratory 4. Urinary; reproductive 5. Respiratory; integumentary
2. Respiratory; urinary
231
Which of the following is not a meaning of respiration? 1. Ventilation of the lungs (breathing) 2. The exchange of gases between the air and blood, and between blood and the tissue fluid 3. The use of oxygen in cellular metabolism 4. All of the phrases are meanings for respiration
4. All of the phrases are meanings for respiration
232
Pneumothorax is the 1. Presence of air in the pleural cavity 2. Collapse of part or all of a lung 3. Reduced pulmonary ventilations 4. Permanent cessation of breathing
1. Presence of air in the pleural cavity
233
Emphysema is a type of 1. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease 2. Restrictive disease 3. Obstructive pulmonary disease 4. Chronic restrictive disease
1. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
234
Histotoxic hypoxia is 1. Hypoxia due to anemia resulting from the inability of the blood to carry adequate oxygen 2. Metabolic poisons such as cyanide prevent the tissues from using oxygen delivered to them 3. State of low arterial PO2 4. Hypoxia due to inadequate circulation of blood such as congestive heart failure
2. Metabolic poisons such as cyanide prevent the tissues from using oxygen delivered to them
235
These are all accessory organs of the digestive system except 1. Gallbladder 2. Esophagus 3. Pancreas 4. Salivary glands 5. Spleen
2. Esophagus
236
Infants have ________________ deciduous teeth, whereas adults have ________________ permanent teeth. 1. 20; 32 2. 16; 20 3. 28; 20 4. 32; 20 5. 32; 32
1. 20; 32
237
These of these are usually found in the saliva and help break down starch. 1. Mucus 2. Lysozyme 3. Amylase 4. Lipase 5. Protease
3. Amylase
238
The ______________ gland is an extrinsic salivary gland, whereas the ______________ gland is an intrinsic salivary gland. 1. lingual; labial 2. submandibular; lingual 3. submandibular; sublingual 4. sublingual; parotid 5. lingual; sublingual
2. submandibular; lingual
239
The swallowing center is located in 1. The mouth 2. The oropharynx 3. The esophagus 4. The medulla oblongata 5. The enteric nervous system
4. The medulla oblongata
240
Acid reflux into the esophagus ("heartburn") is normally prevented by 1. Pharyngeal constrictors 2. The upper esophageal sphincter 3. The lower esophageal sphincter 4. Esophageal glands 5. Pharyngeal and buccal sphincters
3. The lower esophageal sphincter
241
Identify #3 1. Gastic rugae 2. Antrum 3. Pyloric sphincter 4. Fundic region 5. Cardiac region
1. Gastic rugae
242
The organ that stores excess glucose and releases it later into the blood is 1. the pancreas 2. the stomach 3. the liver 4. the spleen 5. the small intestines
3. the liver
243
The digestive system is _____ meters long, from mouth to anus. 1. 12 meters 2. 3 meters 3. 6 meters 4. 9 meters 5. 36 meters
4. 9 meters
244
After the ______________ synthesizes bile it is stored in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 1. duodenum; pancreas 2. ileum; gallbladder 3. gallbladder; liver 4. pancreas; liver 5. liver; gallbladder
5. liver; gallbladder
245
Pancreatic enzymes are secreted in response to the hormone 1. Insulin 2. Cholecystokinin (CCK) 3. Secretin 4. Glucagon 5. Gastrin
2. Cholecystokinin (CCK)
246
The small intestine has a very large absorptive surface associated with all these structures except 1. Intestinal length 2. microvilli 3. villi 4. rugae
1. Intestinal length
247
Identify the esophagus
D
248
Identify the small intestines
B
249
Identify the gallbladder
E
250
T/F The course of pregnancy is divided into “four intervals” called trimesters.
False
251
T/F Ectopic pregnancy is a synonymous (same as) tubal pregnancies.
False
252
T/F Sexual reproduction entails the union of two gonads to form a zygote.
False
253
T/F The sperm of a male determines the sex of the unborn child.
True
254
T/F The bulbourethral (cowper) gland protects the sperm by neutralizing the alkalinity of residual urine in the urethra.
False
255
T/F The only test available to screen for prostate cancer is a digital rectal exam (DRE).
False
256
T/F The scrotum contains the testes and spermatic cords.
True
257
T/F The blood–testis barrier (BTB) is formed by loose junctions between sustentacular cells.
False
258
T/F Vas deferens is a 45cm muscular tube transporting urine from the scrotum to the urethra.
False
259
T/F Testosterone stimulates development of the secondary sex characteristics, spermatogenesis, and libido.
True
260
T/F Fluid released from the seminal vesicles account for majority of what is ejaculated (60%).
True
261
T/F Mesonephric (wolffian) duct develop into female reproductive tract.
False
262
T/F Testicular nerves come from spinal cord segments T10 and T11.
True
263
T/F In the female fetus, the absence of testosterone results in the development of the external genitalia into clitoris, labia minora, and labia majora.
True
264
T/F The uterus is a thick muscular chamber inferior to the urinary bladder.
False
265
T/F The vagina has no glands but it is moistened by mucus from glands in the cervical canal.
True
266
T/F Although two breast cancer genes are known, most cases are nonhereditary.
True
267
T/F The ovarian cycle typically lasts about 28 days, with day 1 considered to be the first day after ovulation.
False
268
T/F During the excitement and orgasmic phase a woman uterus tilt forwards/stands vertically, and returns to normal position after climax.
True
269
T/F Braxton Hicks contractions are relatively weak contractions of the uterus over the course of gestation – normally referred to as false labor.
True
270
T/F Ampulla is the middle and longest part of the uterine “fallopian” tubes.
True
271
T/F Seminal vesicles produce the thin, milky white fluid of semen.
False
272
T/F Respiratory acidosis/ alkalosis results from changes in partial pressure of CO2 in systemic arterial blood.
True
273
T/F Water is by far the largest single component of the body making up 45-75% of total body mass.
True
274
T/F Majority of the daily water loss is done via evaporation from the skins
False
275
T/F In a state of water balance, average daily fluid gains and losses are equal.
True
276
T/F Urea is the main component of urine.
True
277
T/F Minor calyx formed by convergence of two or three minor calyces.
False
278
T/F The renal artery arise from the thoracic aorta.
False
279
T/F The right kidney is positioned lower on the abdominal wall because of the position of the liver.
True
280
T/F The *_kidneys_* secrete ADH in response to dehydration.
False
281
T/F The kidney's received 21% of the cardiac output.
True
282
T/F The thick segment of the Nephon loop (loop of Henle) is made of simple cuboidal epithelium and is heavily engaged in the active transport of salts and have many mitochondria.
True
283
Renal autoregulation is the ability of the nephrons to adjust their own blood flow and GFR without external control. Which type of renal autoregulation would stabilize the GFR based on the tendency of smooth muscle to contract when stretched. 1. Myogenic mechanism 2. Tubuloglomerular feedback
Myogenic mechanism
284
T/F The thin segment of the Nephron loop (loop of Henle) is made of simple squamous epithelium and is very permeable to water.
True
285
T/F Majority of the water gain by the body is done by metabolic synthesis of water during cellular respiration and dehydration synthesis.
False
286
T/F The uterus is a thick muscular chamber inferior to the urinary bladder.
False
287
The male penis homologous structure in females is known as the \_\_\_\_\_ 1. Labia majora 2. Labia minora 3. Mons pubis 4. Clitoris 5. Urethra
4. Clitoris
288
The female labia majora homologous structure in males is known as the \_\_\_\_\_. 1. Scrotum 2. Labia minora 3. Mons pubis 4. Clitoris 5. Urethra
1. 1. Scrotum
289
The male urethra is considered an integral part of both the urinary system and reproductive system. This structure has three distinct regions, which of the following is not a region of the urethra? 1. Prostatic 2. Spongy 3. Cavernosum 4. Membranous
3. Cavernosum
290
Both eggs and sperm cells both undergo meiosis. The sex cells are the end of meiosis is considered _______ and have ___ chromosomes. 1. Diploid; 46 2. Haploid; 46 3. Diploid; 23 4. Haploid; 23 5. Haploid; 28
4. Haploid; 23
291
Which of the following represent the correct order of meiosis (the first cycle)? 1. Interphase, Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase, Cytokinesis 2. Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase, Cytokinesis, Interphase, Prophase 3. Interphase, Prophase, Telophase, Cytokinesis Metaphase, Anaphase 4. Interphase, Prophase, Anaphase, Telophase, Metaphase, Cytokinesis 5. Interphase, Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Cytokinesis, Telophase
1. Interphase, Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase, Cytokinesis
292
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is/are generally accepted as a secondary sex characteristic. 1. The uterus 2. The vagina 3. The prostate gland 4. The presence of testes 5. The enlargement of breast
5. The enlargement of breast
293
Male copulatory organ is the _________ and the female copulatory organ is the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 1. Penis; ovaries 2. Testis; vagina 3. Testis; ovaries 4. Penis; uterine "fallopian" tubes 5. Penis; vagina
5. Penis; vagina
294
Circumcision is a common surgery in which a male has _________ removed from his penis. 1. Smegma 2. Root 3. Shaft 4. Prepuce (foreskin) 5. Erectile tissue
4. Prepuce (foreskin)
295
All is true about the skin on the scrotum *_except_*: 1. Has sebaceous glands 2. Have sparse hair 3. Poor sensory innervation 4. Darker pigmentation than skin elsewhere 5. Rich sensory innervation
TBD
296
Acrosome role in sperm is to 1. Contains haploid set of chromosomes 2. Contain an enzyme cap that contains enzymes needed to penetrate the egg 3. Provide a base for the flagellum to attach 4. Contains mitochondria 5. Produces ATP for flagellar movement
2. Contain an enzyme cap that contains enzymes needed to penetrate the egg
297
The gene that codes for the testis-determining factor (TDF) is found in or on 1. The Y chromosome 2. The X chromosome 3. The gonadal ridges 4. The fetal testes 5. The mesonephros
1. The Y chromosome
298
The _____________ is the gonad and the ___________ is the gamete. 1. Testis; ovary 2. Testis; semen 3. Testis; sperm 4. Sperm; sperm 5. Semen; sperm
3. Testis; sperm
299
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ stimulates the descent of the testes. 1. The presence of the Y chromosome 2. The presence of the X chromosome 3. The absence of the X chromosome 4. Testosterone 5. Estrogen
4. Testosterone
300
#4
Epididymis
301
#1
Vas deferens
302
#5
Scrotum
303
When it is cold, the _____________ contracts and draws the testes closer to the body to keep them warm. 1. Cremaster muscle 2. Pampiniform plexus 3. Corpus spongiosum 4. Perineum 5. Corpus cavernosum
1. Cremaster muscle
304
The countercurrent heat exchanger that prevents arterial blood from overheating the testes is 1. The rete testis 2. The epididymis 3. The pampiniform plexus of veins 4. The blood-testis barrier 5. The scrotal portal system
3. The pampiniform plexus of veins
305
Why would an enlarged prostate gland interfere with urination? 1. It inhibits urine production 2. It develops calcified deposits that block the urethra 3. It produces thicker prostatic secretions that block the urethra 4. It inhibits the micturiton reflex 5. It compresses the urethra
5. It compresses the urethra
306
The acrosome contains enzymes used to 1. Dissolve the mucosa of the vagina 2. Dissolve the mucosa of the uterus 3. Dissolve the stickiness of the semen 4. Penetrate the vagina 5. Penetrate barriers surrounding the ovum (egg)
TBD
307
As blood fills the __________ and ____________ the penis will become erect. Blood will drain the penis via _______ causing the penis to become flaccid. 1. Deep artery, dorsal artery; deep dorsal vein 2. Deep artery, deep dorsal vein; dorsal artery 3. Dorsal artery, deep dorsal vein; deep artery 4. Shallow dorsal vein, shallow artery; deep artery 5. Deep artery, shallow dorsal artery; deep dorsal vein
1. Deep artery, dorsal artery; deep dorsal vein
308
The uterus is a pear-shaped organ that tilts forward over the urinary bladder. The three regions of the uterus are: 1. Fundus, tote, and body 2. Cervix, body, and handle 3. Cervix, fundus, and tote 4. Body, cervix, and fundus 5. Tote, handle, and chamber
4. Body, cervix, and fundus
309
The _______________ is an example of the female external genitalia. 1. Scrotum 2. Clitoris 3. Uterine tube 4. Seminal vesicle 5. Vagina
2. Clitoris
310
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is an important source for the embryo until the placenta is formed, if removed too soon a woman will undergo a spontaneous abortion or miscarry. 1. Corpus luteum 2. Estrogen 3. Decidual cells 4. Blastocyst 5. Follicle
1. Corpus luteum
311
Uterine artery arises from each 1. Internal iliac artery 2. External iliac artery 3. Common iliac artery 4. Iliac vein 5. Femoral vein
1. Internal iliac artery
312
All of the following hormones strongly influence pregnancy, but which are secreted by the placenta? 1. Estrogens 2. Progesterone 3. Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) 4. Human chorionic somatomammotropin (HCS) 5. All are secreted by the placenta
TBD
313
The internal female genitalia include the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 1. Vagina 2. Clitoris 3. Labia majora 4. Labia minora 5. Mammary gland
1. Vagina
314
After puberty, the vaginal lining goes through metaplasia transforming from simple cuboidal epithelium to _________ epithelium. 1. Simple squamous 2. Stratified squamous 3. Transitional 4. Simple columnar 5. Simple cuboidal
2. Stratified squamous
315
The ____________ is the site of attachment of the embryo. 1. Endometrium 2. Perimetrium 3. Myometrium 4. Uterine tube 5. Vagina
1. Endometrium
316
Which of these is not found in the (vaginal) vestibule? 1. Urinary orifice 2. Mons pubis 3. Vaginal orifice 4. Labia minora 5. Clitoris
2. Mons pubis
317
#3
Uterine "fallopian" tube
318
#4
Ovary
319
#5
Urinary bladder
320
Mammary glands develop within the breasts primarily 1. During the last week of fetal development 2. At birth 3. During infancy 4. During puberty 5. During pregnancy
5. During pregnancy
321
Breast size is determined by 1. The amount of adipose tissue 2. The amount of collagenous fiber 3. The size of lactiferous sinuses 4. The amount of mammary gland tissue 5. Muscle tone
1. The amount of adipose tissue
322
The appearance of pubic and axillary hair is a stage specifically called 1. Puberty 2. Climacteric 3. Thelarche 4. Pubarche 5. Menarche
5. Pubarche
323
The basis of pregnancy test kits is the presence of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, which is secreted by the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 1. human chorionic somatomammotropin; endometrium and myometrium 2. human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG); blastocyst and placenta 3. progesterone; corpus luteum and corpus albicans 4. progesterone; blastocyst and embryo 5. estrogens; blastocyst and placenta
2. human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG); blastocyst and placenta
324
The _________________ provides fetal nutrition and secretes hormones that regulate pregnancy and fetal development. 1. Uterus 2. Myometrium 3. Endometrium 4. Blastocyst 5. Placenta
5. Placenta
325
There are three stages of labor, which occur first 1. Dilation 2. Expulsion 3. Placental stage 4. Primipara 5. Mulipara
1. Dilation
326
Milk ejection occurs as a result of stimulation of nerve endings in the ____________ , which leads to the release of ______________ from the pituitary. 1. Mammary acini; oxytocin 2. Mammary acini; prolactin 3. Nipple and areola; oxytocin 4. Nipple and areola; prolactin 5. Nipple and areola; progesterone
3. Nipple and areola; oxytocin
327
Which of the following is a method of contraception to prevent pregnancy? 1. Intrauterine device (IUD) 2. Surgical sterilization 3. Birth control pills 4. Abstinence 5. All of the above
5. All of the above
328
Oxytocin causes this cartilage to dissolve at the end of pregnancy to aid in labor. 1. Ramus of pubis 2. Ileum 3. Pubic symphysis 4. Iliac crest 5. Sacrum
3. Pubic symphysis
329
Puberty begins when which hormone is secreted by the hypothalamus? 1. LH 2. FSH 3. GnRH 4. HCG
TBD
330
In both sexes, the area between the thighs that is circumscribed by the pubic symphysis, ischial tuberosities, and coccyx is called the 1. Perineum 2. Urogential triangle 3. Anal triangle 4. Pubic region
1. Perineum
331
Ovulation is induced only when there is a peak in secretion of which hormone? 1. LH 2. FSH 3. Estrogen 4. Progesterone
1. LH
332
What are the three tunics of the uterus, from external to internal? 1. Endometrium, myometrium, perimetrium 2. Perimetrium, myometrium, endometrium 3. Stratum basalis, stratum functionalis, endometrium 4. Myometrium, stratum basalis, stratum functionalis
2. Perimetrium, myometrium, endometrium
333
Estrogen is secreted by which of the following? 1. Ovarian follicles (before ovulation) 2. Corpus luteum (after ovulation) 3. Placenta (during pregnancy) 4. All of the above
4. All of the above
334
The spermatic cord contains which of the following? 1. Vas (ductus) deferens 2. Testicular artery and nerve 3. Pampiniform plexus 4. All of the above
All of the above
335
The epididymis functions to 1. Secrete one of the three major components of seminal fluid 2. Isolate old and defective sperm so that they ca be expelled from the body 3. Store sperm until they are fully mature and capable of being motile 4. All of the above
All of the above
336
In the testes, sperm are produced within the highly convoluted \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, while androgens are produced by the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 1. Retes testies; lobules 2. Seminiferous tubules; interstitial cells 3. Efferent ductules; mediastinum testis 4. Seminiferous tubules; sustentacular cells
2. Seminiferous tubules; interstitial cells
337
Which part of the penis is removed during circumcision? 1. Crus 2. Prepuce 3. Corpus cavernosum 4. Corpus spongiosum
2. Prepuce
338
#2
Clitoris
339
#3
Labia minora
340
#1
Mons pubis
341
#4
Vaginal orifice
342
Match the words to the following statements. ~ Site of sperm storage 1. Interstitial cells 2. Seminiferous tubules 3. Tunica albuginea 4. Epididymis 5. Pampiniform plexus
4. Epididymis
343
Match the words to the following statements. ~ Cools arterial blood to keep the testes below core temperature 1. Interstitial cells 2. Seminiferous tubules 3. Tunica albuginea 4. Epididymis 5. Pampiniform plexus
5. Pampiniform plexus
344
Match the words to the following statements. ~ Fibrous capsule of the testes and ovaries 1. Interstitial cells 2. Seminiferous tubules 3. Tunica albuginea 4. Epididymis 5. Pampiniform plexus
TBD
345
Match the words to the following statements. ~ Make testosterone 1. Interstitial cells 2. Seminiferous tubules 3. Tunica albuginea 4. Epididymis 5. Pampiniform plexus
1. Interstitial cells
346
Match the words to the following statements. ~ Site of sperm production in the testes 1. Interstitial cells 2. Seminiferous tubules 3. Tunica albuginea 4. Epididymis 5. Pampiniform plexus
2. Seminiferous tubules
347
Match the words to the following statements. ~ House and form the female gametes 1. Fallopian tube 2. Fimbriae 3. Uterus 4. Vagina 5. Ovaries
5. Ovaries
348
Match the words to the following statements. ~ Receives, retains, and nourishes a fertilized ovum 1. Fallopian tube 2. Fimbriae 3. Uterus 4. Vagina 5. Ovaries
3. Uterus
349
Match the words to the following statements. ~ Generally the site of fertilization of the ovulated oocyte 1. Fallopian tube 2. Fimbriae 3. Uterus 4. Vagina 5. Ovaries
1. Fallopian tube
350
Match the words to the following statements. ~ Finger-like projections that brush over the ovary 1. Fallopian tube 2. Fimbriae 3. Uterus 4. Vagina 5. Ovaries
2. Fimbriae
351
Match the words to the following statements. ~ Thin walled structure that connects the uterus to the body exterior 1. Fallopian tube 2. Fimbriae 3. Uterus 4. Vagina 5. Ovaries
4. Vagina
352
The purpose of the urethra in males is to 1. carry only urine 2. carry only semen 3. carry a mixture of semen and urine 4. carry both semen and urine but not at the same time
4. carry both semen and urine but not at the same time
353
A process in which sperm laden semen leaves the male body. 1. Ovulation 2. Gestation 3. Ejaculation
3. Ejaculation
354
A set of coiled tubes that connect to the vas deferens. 1. Fallopian tubes 2. Epididymis 3. Urethra
2. Epididymis
355
Most of the body water is in 1. The intracellular fluid (ICF) 2. The extracellular fluid (ECF) 3. Tissue (interstitial) fluid 4. Blood plasma and lymph 5. The transcellular fluid
1. The intracellular fluid (ICF)
356
Osmosis from one fluid compartment to another is determined by 1. the temperature difference between compartments 2. the relative concentration of solutes in each compartment 3. the relative volume in each compartment 4. the relative size of each compartment 5. blood pressure
2. the relative concentration of solutes in each compartment
357
Which does not play a role in homeostatic balance 1. Water balance 2. Acid balance 3. Electrolyte balance 4. Acid-base balance
2. Acid balance
358
In which of these compartments would fluid accumulate in edema? 1. Intracellular fluid (ICF) 2. Transcellular fluid 3. Tissue (interstitial) fluid 4. Blood plasma 5. Lymph
3. Tissue (interstitial) fluid
359
Most body water comes from \_\_\_\_\_, whereas most body water is lost via \_\_\_. 1. Metabolic waste; cutaneous transpiration 2. Metabolic water; sweat 3. Drinking; urine 4. Drinking; cutaneous transpiration and expired air 5. Drinking; radiation
3. Drinking; urine
360
\_\_\_ represents the complete chemical reaction for the bicarbonate buffer system. 1. CO2 + H2O ----\> H2CO3 -----\> HCO3- + H+ 2. CO2 + H2O -----\> HCO3- + H+ + H2CO3 3. H2CO3 -----\> CO2 + H2O + HCO3- + H+ 4. H2CO3 -----\> HCO3- + H+ 5. CO2 + H2O ------\> HCO3- + H+
1. CO2 + H2O ----\> H2CO3 -----\> HCO3- + H+
361
This is the most abundant cation of the intercellular fluid (ICF) 1. Ca2+ 2. Na+ 3. K+ 4. Cl- 5. Pi
3. K+
362
This is the principal cation of the extracellular fluid (ECF) 1. Ca2+ 2. Na+ 3. K+ 4. Cl- 5. Pi
2. Na+
363
Tissue fluid normally has a pH of 1. 6.95 - 7.05 2. 7.05 - 7.15 3. 7.15 - 7.25 4. 7.25 - 7.35 5. 7.35 - 7.45
5. 7.35 - 7.45
364
Which organ system does not excrete waste? 1. Urinary system 2. Cardiovascular system 3. Integumentary system 4. Digestive system 5. Respiratory system
2. Cardiovascular system
365
The urinary system maintains the internal environment by performing which of the following functions? 1. Excretory 2. Regulatory 3. Secretory 4. All of the above
4. All of the above
366
Which of these correctly traces blood flow from the renal artery into the renal cortex (capillaries)? (focus on atrial flow) 1. arcuate a. → interlobar a. → afferent arteriole → interlobular a 2. interlobar a. → interlobular a. → segmental a. → arcuate a. 3. aorta. → renal a. → arcuate a. → afferent a. 4. afferent arteriole → interlobular a. → arcuate a. → interlobar a. 5. segmental a. → arcuate a. → interlobar a. → interlobular a.
TBD
367
have a tendency to retain water during part of the menstrual cycle because estrogen mimics the action of 1. ADH 2. Aldosterone 3. Atrial natriuretic hormone 4. Oxytocin 5. Prolactin
2. Aldosterone
368
Urine is produced in three phases. The secretion and absorption phase moves fluid from the proximal convoluted tubule through the distal convoluted tubule. During this phase substance’s have been removed or added by tubular cells. What is the fluid in this phase know as? 1. Plasma 2. Glomerular filtrate 3. Renal filtrate 4. Tubular fluid 5. Medullary filtrate
4. Tubular fluid
369
There are two kinds of cells in the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts. Indicate if the statement is describing principal cells, intercalated cells or both. ~ Involved in acid-base balance 1. Intercalated cells 2. Principal cell 3. Both
TBD
370
There are two kinds of cells in the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts. Indicate if the statement is describing principal cells, intercalated cells or both. ~ Involved in salt and water balance 1. Intercalated cells 2. Principal cells 3. Both
TBD
371
There are two kinds of cells in the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts. Indicate if the statement is describing principal cells, intercalated cells or both. ~ Have receptors for hormones 1. Intercalated cells 2. Principal cells 3. Both
2. Principal cells
372
There are two kinds of cells in the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts. Indicate if the statement is describing principal cells, intercalated cells or both. ~ Secrete H+ into tubules lumen and reabsorbs K+ 1. Intercalated cells 2. Principal cells 3. Both
1. Intercalated cells
373
There are two convoluted tubules that make up a nephron. Indicate if the statement is describing the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) or distal convoluted tubule (DCT). ~ Arises from the glomerular capsule 1. PCT 2. DCT
1. PCT
374
There are two convoluted tubules that make up a nephron. Indicate if the statement is describing the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) or distal convoluted tubule (DCT). ~ Cuboidal epithelium with microvilli 1. PCT 2. DCT
1. PCT