Flashcards in Final Exam Chapter 10 Deck (58):
1. A nurse is assessing a 12-month-old infant. Which statement best describes the infant’s physical development a nurse should expect to find?
a. Anterior fontanel closes by age 6 to 10 months.
b. Binocularity is well established by age 8 months.
c. Birth weight doubles by age 5 months and triples by age 1 year.
d. Maternal iron stores persist during the first 12 months of life.
Growth is very rapid during the first year of life. The birth weight has approximately doubled by age 5 to 6 months and triples by age 1 year. The anterior fontanel closes at age 12 to 18 months. Binocularity is not established until age 15 months. Maternal iron stores are usually depleted by age 6 months.
2. The nurse is assessing a 6-month-old healthy infant who weighed 7 pounds at birth. The nurse should expect the infant to now weigh approximately how many pounds?
Birth weight doubles at about age 5 to 6 months. At 6 months, a child who weighed 7 pounds at birth would weigh approximately 15 pounds; 10 pounds is too little. The infant would have gone from the 50th percentile at birth to below the 5th percentile; 20 to 25 pounds is too much. The infant would have tripled the birth weight at 6 months.
3. The nurse is doing a routine assessment on a 14-month-old infant and notes that the anterior fontanel is closed. The nurse should interpret this as a(n):
a. normal finding.
b. finding requiring a referral.
c. abnormal finding.
d. normal finding, but requires rechecking in 1 month.
This is a normal finding. The anterior fontanel closes between ages 12 and 18 months. No further intervention is required.
4. A nurse is assessing a 6-month-old infant. The nurse recognizes the posterior fontanel usually closes at which age?
a. 6 to 8 weeks
b. 10 to 12 weeks
c. 4 to 6 months
d. 8 to 10 months
The bones surrounding the posterior fontanel fuse and close by age 6 to 8 weeks; 10 to 12 weeks, 4 to 6 months, and 8 to 10 months are too late. The posterior fontanel is usually closed by age 8 weeks.
5. The parents of a 9-month-old infant tell the nurse that they have noticed foods such as peas and corn are not completely digested and can be seen in their infant’s stools. The nurse’s explanation of this is based on which statement?
a. Child should not be given fibrous foods until digestive tract matures at age 4 years.
b. Child should not be given any solid foods until this digestive problem is resolved.
c. This is abnormal and requires further investigation.
d. This is normal because of the immaturity of digestive processes at this age.
The immaturity of the digestive tract is evident in the appearance of the stools. Solid foods are passed incompletely broken down in the feces. An excess quantity of fiber predisposes the child to large, bulky stools. This is normal for the child and is a normal part of the maturational process; no further investigation is necessary.
6. A 3-month-old infant, born at 38 weeks of gestation, will hold a rattle if it is put in her hands, but she will not voluntarily grasp it. The nurse should interpret this as:
a. normal development.
b. significant developmental lag.
c. slightly delayed development due to prematurity.
d. suggestive of a neurologic disorder such as cerebral palsy.
Holding a rattle but not voluntarily grasping it is indicative of normal development. Reflexive grasping occurs during the first 2 to 3 months and then gradually becomes voluntary. The infant is expected to be able to perform this task by age 3 months. If the child’s age is corrected because of being 2 weeks preterm, the child is at the midpoint of the range for this developmental task and the behavior is age appropriate. No evidence of neurologic dysfunction is present.
7. In terms of fine motor development, what should the infant of 7 months be able to do?
a. Transfer objects from one hand to the other and bang cubes on a table.
b. Use thumb and index finger in crude pincer grasp and release an object at will.
c. Hold a crayon between the fingers and make a mark on paper.
d. Release cubes into a cup and build a tower of two blocks.
By age 7 months, infants can transfer objects from one hand to the other, crossing the midline, and bang objects on a hard surface. The crude pincer grasp is apparent at about age 9 months, and releasing an object at will is seen around 8 months. The child can scribble spontaneously at age 15 months. At age 12 months, the child can release cubes into a cup and build a small tower.
8. At what age can most infants sit steadily unsupported?
a. 4 months
b. 6 months
c. 8 months
d. 10 months
Sitting erect without support is a developmental milestone usually achieved by 8 months. At age 4 months, an infant can sit with support. At age 6 months, the infant will maintain a sitting position if propped. By 10 months, the infant can maneuver from a prone to a sitting position.
9. The parents of a 3-month-old infant report that their infant sleeps supine (face up) but is often prone (face down) while awake. The nurse’s response should be based on knowledge that this is:
a. unacceptable because of the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS).
b. unacceptable because it does not encourage achievement of developmental milestones.
c. acceptable to encourage fine motor development.
d. acceptable to encourage head control and turning over.
These parents are implementing the guidelines to reduce the risk of SIDS. Infants should sleep on their backs and then be placed on their abdomens when awake to enhance development of milestones such as head control. The face-down position while awake and on the back for sleep are acceptable because they reduce risk of SIDS and allow achievement of developmental milestones. These position changes encourage gross motor, not fine motor, development.
10. By which age should the nurse expect an infant to be able to pull to a standing position?
a. 6 months
b. 8 months
c. 11 to 12 months
d. 14 to 15 months
Most infants can pull themselves to a standing position at age 9 months. Infants who are not able to pull themselves to standing by age 11 to 12 months should be further evaluated for developmental dysplasia of the hip. At 6 months, infants have just obtained coordination of arms and legs. By age 8 months, infants can bear full weight on their legs. Any infant who cannot pull to a standing position by age 1 year should be referred for further evaluation.
11. According to Piaget, the 6-month-old infant should be in which developmental stage?
a. Use of reflexes
b. Primary circular reactions
c. Secondary circular reactions
d. Coordination of secondary schemata
Infants are usually in the secondary circular reaction stage from ages 4 to 8 months. This stage is characterized by a continuation of the primary circular reaction for the response that results. Shaking is performed to hear the noise of the rattle, not just for shaking. The use of reflexes is primarily during the first month of life. Primary circular reaction stage marks the replacement of reflexes with voluntary acts. The infant is in this stage from ages 1 to 4 months. The fourth sensorimotor stage is coordination of secondary schemata. This is a transitional stage in which increasing motor skills enable greater exploration of the environment.
12. A nurse is conducting a teaching session for parents of infants. The nurse explains that which behavior indicates that an infant has developed object permanence?
a. Recognizes familiar face, such as mother
b. Recognizes familiar object, such as bottle
c. Actively searches for a hidden object
d. Secures objects by pulling on a string
During the first 6 months of life, infants believe that objects exist only as long as they can see them. When infants search for an object that is out of sight, this signals the attainment of object permanence, whereby an infant knows an object exists even when it is not visible. Between ages 8 and 12 weeks, infants begin to respond differentially to the mother. They cry, smile, vocalize, and show distinct preference for the mother. This preference is one of the stages that influences the attachment process but is too early for object permanence. Recognizing familiar objects is an important transition for the infant, but it does not signal object permanence. The ability to understand cause and effect is part of secondary schemata development.
13. A parent asks the nurse “at what age do most infants begin to fear strangers?” The nurse should give which response?
a. 2 months
b. 4 months
c. 6 months
d. 12 months
Between ages 6 and 8 months, fear of strangers and stranger anxiety become prominent and are related to the infant’s ability to discriminate between familiar and unfamiliar people. At 2 months, infants are just beginning to respond differentially to the mother. At age 4 months, the infant is beginning the process of separation-individuation when the infant begins to recognize self and mother as separate beings. Twelve months is too late and requires referral for evaluation if the child does not fear strangers at this age.
14. The nurse is interviewing the father of a 10-month-old infant. She is playing on the floor when she notices an electric outlet and reaches up to touch it. Her father says “no” firmly and removes her from near the outlet. The nurse should use this opportunity to teach the father that the infant:
a. is old enough to understand the word “no.”
b. is too young to understand the word “no.”
c. should already know that electric outlets are dangerous.
d. will learn safety issues better if she is spanked.
By age 10 months, children are able to associate meaning with words. The father is using both verbal and physical cues to alert the child to dangerous situations. The child should be old enough to understand the word “no.” The 10-month-old is too young to understand the purpose of an electric outlet. The father is using both verbal and physical cues to teach safety measures. Physical discipline should be avoided.
15. A 4-month-old was born at 35 weeks of gestation. She seems to be developing normally, but her parents are concerned because she is a “more difficult” baby than their other child, who was term. The nurse should explain that:
a. infants’ temperaments are part of their unique characteristics.
b. infants become less difficult if they are not kept on scheduled feedings and structured routines.
c. the infant’s behavior is suggestive of failure to bond completely with her parents.
d. the infant’s difficult temperament is the result of painful experiences in the neonatal period.
Infant temperament has a strong biologic component. Together with interactions with the environment, primarily the family, the biologic component contributes to the infant’s unique temperament. Children perceived as difficult may respond better to scheduled feedings and structured caregiving routines than to demand feedings and frequent changes in routines. The infant’s temperament has been created by both biologic and environmental factors. The nurse should provide guidance in parenting techniques that are best suited to the infant’s temperament.
16. Which information could be given to the parents of a 12-month-old child regarding appropriate play activities?
a. Give large push-pull toys for kinetic stimulation.
b. Place cradle gym across crib to facilitate fine motor skills.
c. Provide child with finger-paints to enhance fine motor skills.
d. Provide stick horse to develop gross motor coordination.
The 12-month-old child is able to pull to standing and walk holding on or independently. Appropriate toys for a child this age include large pull toys for kinesthetic stimulation. A cradle gym should not be placed across the crib. Finger-paints are appropriate for older children. A 12-month-old child does not have the stability to use a stick horse.
17. The nurse is discussing development and play activities with the parent of a 2-month-old. Recommendations should include giving a first rattle at about which age?
a. 2 months
b. 4 months
c. 7 months
d. 9 months
It is recommended that a brightly colored toy or rattle be given to the child at age 4 months. Grasping has begun as a deliberate act, and the infant grasps, holds, and begins shaking to hear a noise; 2 months is too young. The infant still has primarily reflex grips; 7 to 9 months is too old for the first rattle. The child should be given toys that provide for further exploration.
18. Which is an appropriate play activity for a 7-month-old infant to encourage visual stimulation?
a. Playing peek-a-boo
b. Playing pat-a-cake
c. Imitating animal sounds
d. Showing how to clap hands
Because object permanence is a new achievement, peek-a-boo is an excellent activity to practice this new skill for visual stimulation. Pat-a-cake and showing how to clap hands will help with kinetic stimulation. Imitating animal sounds will help with auditory stimulation.
19. Which would be the best play activity for a 6-month-old infant to provide tactile stimulation?
a. Allow to splash in bath.
b. Give various colored blocks.
c. Play music box, tapes, or CDs.
d. Use infant swing or stroller.
The feel of the water while the infant is splashing will provide tactile stimulation. Various colored blocks would provide visual stimulation for a 4- to 6-month-old infant. Music box, tapes, and CDs provide auditory stimulation. Swings and strollers provide kinesthetic stimulation.
20. At what age should the nurse expect an infant to begin smiling in response to pleasurable stimuli?
a. 1 month
b. 2 months
c. 3 months
d. 4 months
At age 2 months, the infant has a social, responsive smile. A reflex smile is usually present at age 1 month. The 3-month-old can recognize familiar faces. At age 4 months, the infant can enjoy social interactions.
21. At what age does an infant start to recognize familiar faces and objects, such as a feeding bottle?
a. 1 month
b. 2 months
c. 3 months
d. 4 months
The child can recognize familiar objects at approximately age 3 months. For the first 2 months of life, infants watch and observe their surroundings. The 4-month-old infant is able to anticipate feeding after seeing the bottle.
22. A parent asks the nurse “when will my infant start to teethe?” The nurse responds that the earliest age at which an infant begins teething with eruption of lower central incisors is _____ months.
Teething usually begins at age 6 months with the eruption of the lower central incisors; 4 months is too early for teething. By age 8 months, the infant has the upper and lower central incisors. At age 12 months, the infant has six to eight deciduous teeth.
23. The nurse is guiding parents in selecting a daycare facility for their infant. Which is especially important to consider when making the selection?
a. Health practices of facility
b. Structured learning environment
c. Socioeconomic status of children
d. Cultural similarities of children
Health practices should be most important. With the need for diaper changes and assistance with feeding, young children are at increased risk when hand washing and other hygienic measures are not adhered to. A structured learning environment is not suitable for this age child. The socioeconomic status of children should have little effect on the choice of facility. Cultural similarities of children may be important to the families, but the health care practices of the facility are more important.
24. Austin, age 6 months, has six teeth. The nurse should recognize that this is:
a. normal tooth eruption.
b. delayed tooth eruption.
c. unusual and dangerous.
d. earlier-than-normal tooth eruption.
Six months is earlier than expected. Most infants at age 6 months have two teeth. Although unusual, it is not dangerous.
25. The nurse notices that a 10-month-old infant being seen in the clinic is wearing expensive, inflexible, high-top shoes. The nurse should explain that:
a. soft and flexible shoes are generally better.
b. high-top shoes are necessary for support.
c. inflexible shoes are necessary to prevent in-toeing and out-toeing.
d. this type of shoe will encourage the infant to walk sooner.
The main purpose of the shoe is protection. Soft, well-constructed, athletic-type shoes are best for infants and children. High-top shoes are not necessary for support but may help to keep the child’s foot in the shoe. Inflexible shoes can delay walking and can aggravate in-toeing and out-toeing and impede development of the supportive foot muscles.
26. The nurse should teach parents that which age is safe to give infants whole milk instead of commercial infant formula?
a. 6 months
b. 9 months
c. 12 months
d. 18 months
The American Academy of Pediatrics does not recommend the use of cow’s milk for children younger than 12 months. At 6 and 9 months, the infant should be receiving commercial infant formula or breast milk. At age 18 months, milk and formula are supplemented with solid foods, water, and some fruit juices.
27. A mother tells the nurse that she is discontinuing breastfeeding her 5-month-old infant. The nurse should recommend that the infant be given:
a. skim milk.
b. whole cow’s milk.
c. commercial iron-fortified formula.
d. commercial formula without iron.
For children younger than 1 year, the American Academy of Pediatrics recommends the use of breast milk. If breastfeeding has been discontinued, then iron-fortified commercial formula should be used. Cow’s milk should not be used in children younger than 12 months. Maternal iron stores are almost depleted by this age; the iron-fortified formula will help prevent the development of iron-deficiency anemia.
28. What is the best age for solid food to be introduced into the infant’s diet?
a. 2 to 3 months
b. 4 to 6 months
c. When birth weight has tripled
d. When tooth eruption has started
Physiologically and developmentally, the 4- to 6-month-old infant is in a transition period. The extrusion reflex has disappeared, and swallowing is a more coordinated process. In addition, the gastrointestinal tract has matured sufficiently to handle more complex nutrients and is less sensitive to potentially allergenic food. Infants of this age will try to help during feeding; 2 to 3 months is too young. The extrusion reflex is strong, and the child will push food out with the tongue. No research indicates that the addition of solid food to a bottle has any benefit. Infant birth weight doubles at 1 year. Solid foods can be started earlier. Tooth eruption can facilitate biting and chewing; most infant foods do not require this ability.
29. Which information should the nurse give a mother regarding the introduction of solid foods during infancy?
a. Solid foods should not be introduced until 8 to 10 months, when the extrusion reflex begins to disappear.
b. Foods should be introduced one at a time, at intervals of 4 to 7 days.
c. Solid foods can be mixed in a bottle to make the transition easier for the infant.
d. Fruits and vegetables should be introduced into the diet first.
One food item is introduced at intervals of 4 to 7 days to allow the identification of food allergies. Solid foods can be introduced earlier. The extrusion reflex usually disappears by age 6 months. Mixing solid foods in a bottle has no effect on the transition to solid food. Iron-fortified cereal should be the first solid food introduced into the infant’s diet.
30. The parents of a 4-month-old infant tell the nurse that they are getting a microwave oven and will be able to heat the baby’s formula faster. What should the nurse recommend?
a. Never heat a bottle in a microwave oven.
b. Heat only 10 ounces or more.
c. Always leave bottle top uncovered to allow heat to escape.
d. Shake bottle vigorously for at least 30 seconds after heating.
Bottles cannot be heated safely in microwave ovens even if safe guidelines are followed and regardless of the amount to be heated due to uneven heating and possible burns.
31. Parents tell the nurse that their 1-year-old son often sleeps with them. They seem unconcerned about this. The nurse’s response should be based on which statement?
a. Children should not sleep with their parents.
b. Separation from parents should be completed by this age.
c. Daytime attention should be increased.
d. This is a common and accepted practice, especially in some cultural groups.
Co-sleeping, or sharing the family bed, in which the parents allow the children to sleep with them, is a common and accepted practice in many cultures. Parents should evaluate the options available and avoid conditions that place the infant at risk. Population-based studies are currently under way; no evidence at this time supports or condemns the practice for safety reasons. Co-sleeping is a cultural practice. One year is the age at which children are just beginning to individuate. Increased daytime activity may help decrease sleep problems in general, but co-sleeping is a culturally determined phenomenon.
32. The parent of a 2-week-old infant, exclusively breastfed, asks the nurse if fluoride supplements are needed. The nurse’s best response should be:
a. “She needs to begin taking them now.”
b. “They are not needed if you drink fluoridated water.”
c. “She may need to begin taking them at age 4 months.”
d. “She can have infant cereal mixed with fluoridated water instead of supplements.”
Fluoride supplementation is recommended by the American Academy of Pediatrics beginning at age 4 months if the child is not drinking adequate amounts of fluoridated water. The amount of water that is ingested and the amount of fluoride in the water are taken into account when supplementation is being considered.
33. A parent asks the nurse whether her infant is susceptible to pertussis. The nurse’s response should be based on which statement concerning susceptibility to pertussis?
a. Neonates will be immune the first few months.
b. If the mother has had the disease, the infant will receive passive immunity.
c. Children younger than 1 year seldom contract this disease.
d. Most children are highly susceptible from birth.
The acellular pertussis vaccine is recommended by the American Academy of Pediatrics beginning at age 6 weeks. Infants are at greater risk for complications of pertussis. The vaccine is not given after age 7 years, when the risks of the vaccine become greater than those of pertussis. The infant is highly susceptible to pertussis, which can be a life-threatening illness in this age group.
34. A mother tells the nurse that she does not want her infant immunized because of the discomfort associated with injections. The nurse should explain that:
a. this cannot be prevented.
b. infants do not feel pain as adults do.
c. this is not a good reason for refusing immunizations.
d. a topical anesthetic, EMLA, can be applied before injections are given.
Several topical anesthetic agents can be used to minimize the discomfort associated with immunization injections. These include EMLA (eutectic mixture of local anesthetic) and vapor coolant sprays. Pain associated with many procedures can be prevented and minimized by using the principles of atraumatic care. With preparation, the injection site can be properly anesthetized to decrease the amount of pain felt by the infant. Infants have the neural pathways to feel pain. Numerous research studies have indicated that infants perceive and react to pain in the same manner as do children and adults. The mother should be allowed to discuss her concerns and the alternatives available. This is part of the informed consent process.
35. The parents of a 12-month-old child ask the nurse whether the child can eat hot dogs. The nurse’s reply should be based on which statement?
a. Child is too young to digest hot dogs.
b. Child is too young to eat hot dogs safely.
c. Hot dogs must be sliced into sections to prevent aspiration.
d. Hot dogs must be cut into small, irregular pieces to prevent aspiration.
Hot dogs are of a consistency, diameter, and round shape that may cause complete obstruction of the child’s airway. If given to young children, the hot dog should be cut into small irregular pieces rather than served whole or in slices. The child’s digestive system is mature enough to digest hot dogs. To eat the hot dog safely, the child should be sitting down, and the hot dog should be appropriately cut.
36. The clinic is lending a federally approved car seat to an infant’s family. The nurse should explain that the safest place to put the car seat is:
a. front facing in back seat.
b. rear facing in back seat.
c. front facing in front seat with airbag on passenger side.
d. rear facing in front seat if an air bag is on the passenger side.
The rear-facing car seat provides the best protection for an infant’s disproportionately heavy head and weak neck. The middle of the back seat is the safest position for the child. The infant must be rear facing to protect the head and neck in the event of an accident. Severe injuries and deaths in children have occurred from air bags deploying on impact in the front passenger seat.
Which has had the greatest impact on reducing infant mortality in the United States?
a. Improvements in perinatal care
b. Decreased incidence of congenital abnormalities
c. Better maternal nutrition
d.Improved funding for health ca
Improvements in perinatal care, particularly respiratory care and care of the mother-baby dyad before delivery have had the greatest impact.
There has been a decrease in some congenital anomalies such as spina bifida, but this is not the greatest factor, because much of the decrease can be attributed to improvements in perinatal care.
Better maternal nutrition has had a positive influence but has not had the greatest overall impact.
Changes in funding have not had the greatest impact.
According to Piaget, at what stage of development do children typically solve problems through trial and error?
a. Sensorimotor Stage
b. Preoperational Stage
c. Formal Operational Stage
d. Concrete operational stage
During the sensorimotor stage, infants and young toddlers develop a sense of cause and effect.
Relational problem solving is characteristic of the preoperational stage.
Adolescents, in the formal operations stage, can test hypotheses.
Children in the concrete operations stage solve problems in a tangible, systematic fashion.
Which characteristic best describes the fine motor skills of a 5-month-old infant?
a, tranfers objects from one hand to another
b. crude pincer grasp
c. able to build a tower of two cubes
d. able to grasp an object voluntarily
The ability to grasp objects voluntarily is an appropriate fine motor skill for a 5-month-old infant.
Transferring objects from one hand to another is an appropriate fine motor skill for a 7-month-old.
A crude pincer grasp is an appropriate fine motor skill for an 8- to 9-month-old.
The ability to build a tower of two cubes is an appropriate fine motor skill for a 15-month-old.
The nurse is assessing a 6-month-old infant who smiles, coos, and has strong head lag. Based on the nurse’s knowledge of growth and development, the nurse recognizes that
a. this is normal development for a 6-month-old.
b, the child is probably mentally retarded.
c. a developmental and neurologic evaluation is needed.
d. the parent needs to work with the infant to stop the head lag.
The head lag should be almost gone by 4 months of age. This child requires further evaluation to determine whether there is a developmental or neuromuscular deficit that needs to be addressed.
Smiling and cooing should have developed by 4 to 5 months of age. A 6-month-old should be imitating sounds, babbling, and vocalizing to toys and a mirror image.
Without further evaluation, no determination of mental retardation can be made based on three assessment findings alone.
Teaching the parents muscle strengthening exercises may be an intervention of choice once further evaluation is completed.
According to Erikson, infancy is concerned with acquiring a sense of
The task of infancy is the development of trust. If the infant is not successful with this task, then mistrust develops.
Industry versus inferiority is the developmental task of school-age children.
Initiative versus guilt is the developmental task of preschoolers.
Separation occurs during the sensorimotor stage, as described by Piaget.
A parent of a 10-month-old infant tells the nurse that the baby cries and screams whenever the infant is left with the grandparents. Based on the nurse’s knowledge of growth and development, the nurse’s response is
a. the infant is most likely spoiled.
b. stranger anxiety is common for an infant of this age.
c. separation anxiety should have disappeared between 4 and 8 months of age.
d. the grandparents are not responsive to infant.
The infant is experiencing stranger anxiety, which is expected for an infant of this age. Stranger anxiety usually develops by between 6 and 8 months of age and begins to disappear at about 1 year of age.
The behavior the infant is exhibiting is normal and not indicative of a spoiled child.
Separation anxiety is common between 6 and 8 months of age.
There are no data to support the conclusion that the grandparents are not responsive to the infant.
At what age would the nurse expect an infant to be able to say "mama" and "dada" with meaning?
a. 4 months
b. 6 months
c. 10 months
d. 14 months
At 10 months of age, infants say sounds with meaning.
Consonants, such as n, k, g, p, and b, are made by an infant at 4 months of age.
Babbling resembling one-syllable sounds occurs at 6 months of age.
Age 14 months is late for the development of sounds with meaning. Between the age of 1 and 2 years, the number of words should increase from approximately 4 words to 300 words.
The parents of a 9-month-old infant tell the nurse that they are worried about their baby's thumb-sucking. What should the nurse’s reply be based on?
a. A pacifier should be substituted for the thumb.
b. Thumb-sucking should be discouraged by age 12 months.
c. Thumb-sucking should be discouraged when permanent teeth begin to erupt.
d. There is no need to restrain nonnutritive sucking during infancy.
Thumb-sucking reaches its peak at 18 to 20 months of age; it should be discouraged if it persists beyond 4 to 6 years of age.
Evidence is inconclusive over whether a pacifier or a thumb better satisfies sucking needs and what the impact of either is on tooth eruption.
Thumb-sucking reaches its peak at 18 to 20 months of age; it should be discouraged if it persists beyond 4 to 6 years of age.
Nonnutritive sucking reaches its peak at about 18 to 20 months of age. Most toddlers give up nonnutritive sucking on their own.
Which is the most appropriate recommendation for relief of teething pain?
a. Rub the gums with aspirin to relieve inflammation.
b. Apply hydrogen peroxide to the gums to relieve irritation.
c. Give the child a frozen teething ring to relieve inflammation.
d. Have the child chew on a warm teething ring to encourage tooth eruption.
Cold reduces inflammation and should be used for relief of teething irritation.
Aspirin and aspirin products should never be used in infants and children for inflammation or pain relief.
Hydrogen peroxide will not be effective and may irritate the gums more.
Cold, not warm, reduces inflammation; therefore, heat is not effective for teething pain.
The mother of a 3-month-old breastfed infant asks about giving the baby water because it is summer and very warm. The nurse should recommend that
a. Fluids in addition to breast milk are not needed
b. Water should be given if the infant seems to nurse longer than usual
c. Water once or twice a day will make up for losses due to environmental temperature
d. Clear juices would be better than water to promote adequate fluid intake
The child will nurse according to its needs. Additional fluids are not necessary for a breastfed baby.
Water is not a replacement for breast milk. Infants should take as much breast milk as they desire, and this will meet their fluid requirements.
Breast milk will provide the fluids that the infant requires. Supplementation with water is not necessary.
Clear juices should not be given to 3-month-old infants. Breast milk will provide the necessary calories and fluid intake that they require, even in the warm summer months.
The parent of a 12-month-old says to the nurse, "He pushes the teaspoon right out of my hand when I feed him. I can't let him feed himself; he makes too much mess." The most appropriate response by the nurse is
a. "It's important not to give in to this kind of temper tantrum at this age."
b. "Maybe you need to try a different type of spoon, one designed for children."
c. "It's important to let him make a mess. Just don't worry about it so much."
d. "He is at the age when he should begin to feed himself. Let's think of ways to make the mess more tolerable."
At 12 months, children should be self-feeding. Because they eat primarily finger foods, providing some concrete strategies for the parent as to how to minimize the mess would be helpful.
The child is developmentally ready for self-feeding, and his behavior reflects his desire to be autonomous. Infants between the ages of 9 and 12 months begin to self-feed; therefore this behavior should be encouraged.
The child is developmentally ready for self-feeding, and this behavior should be encouraged. Most infants begin self-feeding with finger foods, so the use of a spoon is generally not required, limiting the "mess."
"It's important to let him make a mess. Just don't worry about it so much." minimizes the parents' concerns about the mess created by self-feeding, blocks communication, and misses a teaching–learning opportunity.
The parents of a 5-month-old child complain to the nurse that they are exhausted because the infant still wakes up as often as every 1 to 2 hours during the night. When the child awakens, they change the diaper and the mother nurses the child back to sleep. Which should the nurse suggest to help the parents deal with this problem?
a. Put the child in the parents' bed to cuddle.
b. Start putting the infant to bed while still awake.
c. Allow the infant to cry for 30 minutes, and then rock the infant back to sleep before putting the infant back in the crib.
d. Give the infant a bottle of formula instead of breastfeeding so often at night.
Parents need to develop bedtime rituals that involve putting the child in bed when awake. This will allow the infant to become accustomed to falling asleep somewhere besides the parent's arms or in the parent's presence.
The issue of a child sleeping with the parents should be discussed fully. Having the infant in bed with them may still interfere with their sleep and increases the risk of injury to an infant of this age.
The extinction of crying episodes should be done progressively, beginning with checking on the infant every 5 minutes during the first night and extending this interval by 5 minutes on subsequent nights. This will allow the infant to learn to self-soothe.
Providing formula in a bottle at night will contribute to bottle-mouth caries. Additionally, 5-month-old infants generally do not wake up during the night to feed but rather to be soothed. Using feeding as a mechanism to soothe begins a pattern that may lead to eating problems later in childhood.
Parents of a 4-month-old infant bring the infant to the clinic for a well-baby checkup. Which instruction should the nurse include at this time about injury prevention?
a. "Never shake baby powder directly on the infant because it can be aspirated into the lungs."
b. "Do not permit the child to chew paint from window ledges, because the child might absorb too much lead."
c. "When the child learns to roll over, you must offer supervision whenever the child is on a surface from which the child might fall."
d. "Keep doors of appliances closed at all times."
Rolling over from the abdomen to the back occurs between 4 and 7 months of age. This statement is the appropriate anticipatory guidance for this age related to the prevention of injuries.
"Never shake baby powder directly on the infant because it can be aspirated into the lungs" is appropriate guidance for a first-month well-baby checkup related to injury prevention.
Information on lead, and lead sources, should be included at the 9-month visit when the child is beginning to crawl and pull himself or herself to a standing position.
Guidance regarding appliances and keeping doors of appliances closed should be included at the 9-month visit when the child is beginning to crawl and pull himself or herself to a standing position.
Which infant is at risk for developing vitamin D–deficient rickets?
b. Those who are breastfed exclusively
c. Those using yogurt as a primary source of milk
d. Those exposed to daily sunlight
Yogurt may not be supplemented with vitamin D; therefore, the infant may be at risk for the development of rickets.
Individuals who follow this diet include milk and its products and therefore receive vitamin D.
Breast milk provides sufficient vitamin D to the infant if the mother is not deficient in this vitamin.
Lack of sunlight contributes to vitamin D–deficient rickets.
Macrominerals refer to those minerals with daily intake requirements greater than 100 mg. Which is a macromineral?
d. Vitamin D
Calcium is a macromineral.
Iron is a micromineral.
Fluoride is a micromineral.
Vitamin D is a micromineral.
Which food combination will generally provide the appropriate amounts of essential amino acids for an individual who is a vegetarian?
a. Grains and legumes
b. Grains and vegetables
c. Legumes and vegetables
d. Milk products and fruit
Grains and legumes form complete proteins when eaten together, providing appropriate amounts of essential amino acids.
Grains should be eaten with milk products or legumes to provide appropriate amounts of essential amino acids.
Legumes should be eaten with grains or seeds to provide appropriate amounts of essential amino acids.
Milk products should be eaten with grains to provide appropriate amounts of essential amino acids.
Which is the most descriptive of kwashiorkor?
a. Kwashiorkor has a multifactorial etiology.
b. Kwashiorkor occurs primarily in breastfed infants.
c. Kwashiorkor results from excessive amounts of vitamin K.
d. Kwashiorkor is related to inadequate calories, not adequate protein.
Cultural, environmental, and infectious components contribute to kwashiorkor, a deficiency of protein with an adequate supply of calories.
Kwashiorkor occurs in infants and children who are beyond the age of breastfeeding.
There is no correlation between excessive amounts of vitamin K and kwashiorkor.
Kwashiorkor is a disorder in which there are adequate calories but a deficiency of protein.
A 3-month-old bottle-fed infant is allergic to cow's milk. Which is the best substitute to teach the parents to use?
a. Goat's milk
b. Soy-based formula
c. Skim milk diluted with water
d. Casein hydrolysate milk formula
The milk protein is broken down in casein hydrolysate milk formulas, making them a safe alternative for the infant who has an allergy to cow's milk.
The milk protein in goat's milk cross-reacts with cow's milk protein, and goat’s milk is therefore not a safe alternative.
Soy-based formulas are avoided due to the cross-reaction with cow's milk protein; they are not a safe alternative.
Cow's milk protein is contained in skim milk, making it an unsafe alternative.
Which statement best describes colic to parents who are inquiring as to whether their infant is experiencing this alteration?
a. The infant will experience periods of abdominal pain, which result in weight loss.
b. Periods of abdominal pain and crying occur in infants primarily over age 6 months.
c. Infants with colic have paroxysmal abdominal pain or cramping manifested by episodes of loud crying.
d. Colic is usually the result of poor or inadequate mothering.
Colic, or paroxysmal abdominal pain, occurs primarily in infants under the age of 3 months and is manifested by episodes of excessive crying and the infant drawing the legs up toward the abdomen.
The infant with colic experiences abdominal pain but gains weight and usually thrives.
Colic most commonly occurs in infants under 3 months of age.
There is no identified relationship between mothering behavior and the development of colic.
Which intervention lowers the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)?
a. Keeping the window open if one is smoking near the infant.
b. Placing the infant in the supine position for sleeping.
c. Letting the infant sleep with the parents instead of alone in the crib.
d. Making certain the infant is kept very warm while sleeping.
The Back to Sleep Campaign is credited with reducing the rate of SIDS in the United States.
Smoking increases the risk of SIDS by exposing the infant to pulmonary irritants.
Having the infant sleep with the parents (cosleeping) increases the risk of SIDS.
Overheating increases the risk of SIDS.
The nurse is instructing a group of parents about head injuries in children. The nurse should explain that infants are particularly vulnerable to acceleration-deceleration head injuries because the
a. anterior fontanel is not yet closed.
b. nervous tissue is not well developed.
c. scalp of head has extensive vascularity.
d. musculoskeletal support of head is insufficient.
The relatively large head size coupled with insufficient musculoskeletal support increases the risk to infants of acceleration-deceleration head injuries.
The lack of closure of the anterior fontanel is not relevant to the development of acceleration-deceleration head injuries in infants.
The lack of well-developed nervous tissue is not relevant to the development of acceleration-deceleration head injuries in infants.
The vascularity of the scalp is not relevant to the development of acceleration-deceleration injuries in infants.