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BIOL205 > Final Exam Comprehensive > Flashcards

Final Exam Comprehensive Flashcards

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1
Q

You are instructed to give an injection to the subQ layer of the skin. Into what types of tissue will you be injecting?

A

Adipose and areolar connective tissue

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2
Q

Fingerprints are unique to each person. How are they formed?

A

Dermal papilla

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3
Q

How does skin play a role in temperature regulation?

A
  • By serving as a blood reservoir whose volume can be altered
  • By producing sweat that aids in evaporation and thus cooling
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4
Q

Keratinocytes gone through the process of apoptosis at the upper most layer of the epidermis? True / False

A

True

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5
Q

When removing a mole, a doctor recommends a specific direction for making the incision, why?

A

The doctor is considering lines of cleavage

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6
Q

What contributes to a person’s skin color?

A
  • The amount of melanin produced by their melanocytes
  • The amount of blood flow to their skin
  • The amount of carotenoids found in their skin
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7
Q

What type of cell junctions are particularly involved in binding skin cells together to prevent separation as the skin is pulled and twisted?

A

Desmosomes

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8
Q

A few bacteria find their way down a hair follicle and into your epidermis. Which mechanism(s) will help to defend you against the intruder?

A
  • Langerhans cells

- Sebum produced by oil glands

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9
Q

Which nerve ending perceives pressure in the skin and is located deep within the dermis or subcutaneous layer?

A

Pacinian corpuscle

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10
Q

Sunburn that displays signs of small blisters and pain is a 2nd degree burn, what layers of skin does it affect?

A

Epidermis and Dermis

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11
Q

What are characteristics of the periosteum?

A
  • It has an inner cellular layer
  • It has nerve fibers which produce much of the pain associated with a bone break
  • It serves as an attachment point for tendons and ligaments
  • It assists with fracture repair
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12
Q

How would removing collagen fibers from bone matrix affect the physical properties of a bone?

A

The bone would be less flexible

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13
Q

During endochondral ossification, what is a consequence of the bony collar that forms?

A

Developing chondrocytes are cut off from nutrients and die

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14
Q

You can donate red bone marrow from the diaphysis from your humerus? True / False

A

False

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15
Q

What could be the result of osteoclast activity being greater than osteoblast activity?

A

A decrease in bone density resulting in osteoporosis

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16
Q

Vitamins A and C are both vital for bone growth and maintenance. Why?

A

Vitamin A stimulates osteoblast activity and Vitamin C is vital to collagen structure

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17
Q

What is the significant difference between intramembranous and endochondral bone formation?

A

Endochondral formation includes the formation of a medullary cavity while intramembranous does not

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18
Q

Someone walks with a wobbly gait due to a painful right gait. What might you find displayed at the interior of their femur?

A

The spongy bone arrangement would be different between the two femurs due to the unequal forces placed on these bones

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19
Q

The periosteum is formed of hyaline cartilage. True/ False

A

False

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20
Q

During bone formation, at what point does an osteoblast differentiate into an osteocyte?

A

When collagen fibers surrounding it become calcified

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21
Q

What is a characteristic of canaliculi?

A

Osteocytes communicate with each other in the canaliculi via gap junctions

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22
Q

Both fibroblasts and osteoblasts are involved in forming the bony callus. True / False

A

True

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23
Q

Which type of bone is always produced first, whether during intramembranous ossification, endochondral ossification, or during fracture repair?

A

Spongy bone

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24
Q

What are the characteristics of estrogen changes in the female pelvis?

A
  • Estrogen is responsible for closing the growth plate in the pelvis
  • Estrogen is responsible for the widening of the pelvis during puberty to accommodate a baby during the later but process
  • Estrogen causes certain regions of the pelvis to grow faster than others
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25
The typical sequence of information transfer in the nervous system goes from sensory neuron to interneuron to motor neuron. True / False?
True
26
Why are neurons unable to undergo mitosis?
They lack centrioles
27
Which two cells have similar functions to neuroglia but are found in different locations?
satellite cells and astrocytes
28
Damage to astrocytes could result in _____?
A breakdown of the blood-brain barrier
29
Two years post-wrist surgery, a patient still has numbness at the incision site. What are possible reasons why?
- Schwann cells associate with the sensory neurons were too damaged to form a regeneration tube - Schwann cells formed a regeneration tube, but the developing axon failed to find it
30
In a neuron, where are voltage gated potassium channels located?
In the membrane that covers axons
31
Why does sodium rush into a nerve cell during depolarization?
It moves down its concentration gradient and moves toward negative charges in the cell
32
Why do potassium channels play a large role in establishing resting membrane potential?
There are more potassium leak channels than sodium leak channels
33
Explain the all-or-non principle
All stimuli great enough to bring the membrane to threshold will produce identical action potentials
34
What allows salutatory conduction to be faster than continuous conduction?
Depolorization of the membrane only occurs at nodes of Ranvier
35
You manufacture a drug that blocks voltage gated calcium channels. What would be the result in a neuron?
The neuron would not be able to release its neurotransmitter.
36
Excitatory postsynaptic potentials are local _________ that can vary in magnitude.
depolarizations
37
The condition/amount of myelin present in the nervous system accounts for the jerky movements of both infants and persons with MD. True / False
True
38
Supposing two graded potentials arrive at the axon hillock at the same time. One has a depolarizing value of +20mV and the other has a hyper polarizing value of -30mV. Assuming normal resting membrane and threshold values for a typical neuron, what will happen?
There will be a net hyperpolarization and no action potential produced.
39
If a reaction equation has an arrow on both ends (instead of just one), what kind of reaction does it represent?
Reversible reaction
40
A scientist analyzes adipose tissue. What vitamin might he find?
Vitamin A (betacarotene)
41
In the control of body temperature, skeletal muscle that shovers in response to a decreased body temperature is function as the ________.
effector
42
When mechanisms to homeostasis fail, what will an individual experience symptoms of?
Illness/disease
43
Insulin is released from the pancreas in response to increased levels of glucose in the blood. If this hormone is part of a negative feedback loop, what effect would insulin have on blood glucose levels?
Blood glucose levels would decrease
44
What structures are located in the pelvic cavity?
Portions of the large intestine and the bladder
45
What is another word for "buttocks"?
gluteal
46
Blood pressure is not controlled by a positive feedback system. True / False
True
47
If you were to drop potassium chloride in water, the resulting potassium ions would ______.
Be attracted to the side of the water molecule that is slightly negative
48
Building ATP from ADP + P is an endergonic reaction (it absorbs energy). What is the most common source of energy that gets put into this reaction?
From the breakdown of glucose
49
Enzymes are consumed during the reaction. True / False
False
50
A body temperature that rises above 105 degrees is dangerous because ________.
Enzymes can lose their shape in high temperatures.
51
The building of maltose from its monomers (glucose and glucose) is an example of _______.
dehydration synthesis
52
What combination of molecules is needed to form a triglyceride?
1 glycerol + 3 fatty acid molecules
53
What are two characteristics of cholesterol molecules?
- They provide rigidity to the membrane that would otherwise be too fluid. - They are amphipathic molecules.
54
Diffusion through the plasma membrane is a passive process. What are two things that would result in an increase in the rate of diffusion through the membrane?
- An increase in the steepness of the concentration gradient | - An increase in temperature
55
The liver functions to detoxify our blood from drugs we ingest. Because of this, which organelle should be prominent in liver cells?
Smooth ER
56
Why is secondary active transport considered active transport?
It uses the concentration gradient for sodium set up by the sodium/potassium pump
57
The process of pinocytosis involves engulfing liquids into the cell via vesicles. True / False
True
58
Membrane proteins serve as cell nutrients. True / False
False
59
If the golgi apparatus is removed from a cell, what can it no longer do?
It cannot modify proteins and direct them to their proper location
60
What is a common function of RNA?
Transfer information for protein synthesis
61
What is the primary function of the sodium/potassium pump?
Moves 3 sodium ions out of the cell and 2 potassium ions into the cell
62
The particular amino acid sequence in a protein determines the shape of the protein because _________.
Charges associated with the amino acids attract or repel each other
63
The cytoskeleton is made of sugars formed into long chains. True / False
False
64
If blood cells are crenated, what can be concluded about blood plasma?
blood plasma was hypertonic due to dehydration
65
Solution A (2% glucose solution) and solution B (13% glucose solution) are separated by a semi-permeable membrane impermeable to glucose. What will water do in this situation?
Water will move from the lower glucose solution (A) to the higher glucose solution (B) because the higher glucose solution (B) is hypertonic. *Water follows solute
66
Glycoproteins in the cell membrane function to _______
provide flags that mark the identity of the cell
67
Phagocytosis and receptor mediated endocytosis are similar because ________
both require the use of ATP
68
Some cells remain in the G0 phase of the cell cycle permanently. In other words, they never enter interphase or mitosis. What is an example of a cell that does this?
Cardiac muscle cells
69
What type of tissue produces serous fluid (which can be found in the pleural cavity)?
simple squamous epithelium
70
Simple epithelia covers surfaces subjected to mechanical or chemical stress. True / False
False
71
Why is the pericardium strong even when pulled in many different direction?
The collagen fibers running many different direction within the tissue.
72
Connective tissue fibers are produced mainly by _______
fibroblasts
73
A torn lateral meniscus affects what type of cartilage?
fibrocartilage
74
A tissue that is stretchy and recoils to its original shape, what protein is most abundant in that tissue?
elastin
75
Epidermis is a connective tissue. True / False?
False
76
What connective tissue provides structure in the spleen and other non-hollow organs?
Reticular connective tissue
77
Where can you find smooth muscle?
Iris of the eye and the uterus.
78
Describe the sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle.
It is the storage and release site for calcium ion
79
At rest the tropomyosin molecule is held in place by _________ molecules.
troponin
80
Triggering of the muscle action potential occurs after ________________
acetylcholine binds to chemically gated channels in the motor end plate membrane
81
How would the loss of acetylcholinesterase from the motor end plate affect skeletal muscle?
It would cause spastic paralysis (muscles are contracted and unable to relax)
82
During excitation-contraction coupling, the muscle cell can be stimulated or inhibited by acetylcholine. True / False?
False
83
During the contraction phase of a muscle twitch, the z-lines of the sarcomere are getting closer. True / False?
True
84
Compared to lifting a coffee cup, lifting a 25 pound barbell requires __________
recruiting larger motor units that can produce more tension
85
What motor units have the fewest muscle fibers?
Muscles that have the most fine motor skills such as the muscles that control hand and finger movements
86
When sitting in A&P lecture
question 10 ex 3

BIOL205 (9 decks)

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