final exam past q Flashcards by Gabby Wolfe

Which of the following statements best represents Residual Volume?
(a) Volume of air remaining after a normal exhalation.
(b) Volume of air left in the lungs after a forced exhalation.
(c) Total volume of air in the lungs after a maximal inspiration.
(d) Amount of air that can be exhaled after a normal exhalation

(b) Volume of air left in the lungs after a forced exhalation.

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Blood flow through the lungs increases as cardiac output increases. Which of the
following is NOT a mechanism supporting the accommodation of this extra blood flow?
(a) Increasing number of open capillaries
(b) Distending all pulmonary capillaries
(c) Increasing pulmonary vasculature resistance
(d) Increasing the pulmonary arterial pressure.

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Which of the following factors will shift the oxygen haemoglobin curve to the right?
(a) A decrease in pH.
(b) A decrease in body temperature.
(c) A decrease in 2,3 DPG (Diphosphoglycerate).
(d) A decrease in PCO2.

(a) A decrease in pH.

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What is the value of carbon dioxide concentration in the arterial blood in the systemic
circulation?
(a) 46 mmHg.
(b) 0 mmHg.
(c) 44 mmHg.
(d) 40 mmHg.

(d) 40 mmHg.

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Which of the following parameters can be measured in the field to assess the aerobic
capacity of an individual?
(a) VLa4 (Velocity at which blood lactate reaches 4 mmol/L).
(b) MAOD (Maximum accumulated oxygen deficit).
(c) V200 (Speed at which the heart rate reaches 200 bpm).
(d) V̇ O2peak (Peak oxygen consumption).

(d) V̇ O2peak (Peak oxygen consumption).

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At very high exercise intensities, which of the following is NOT observed in horses?
(a) Hypoxemia.
(b) Hypercapnia.
(c) Hypovolaemia.
(d) Lactatemia.

UNSURE

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Coronary artery circulation in the carnivore is characterized by:
(a) The left coronary artery supplying the paraconal branch and the right coronary artery
supplying the subsinuosal branch.
(b) The left coronary artery supplying the paraconal and subsinuosal branches, with the right coronary artery supplying the right circumflex branch.
(c) The left coronary artery supplying the paraconal right circumflex branches and the
right coronary artery supplying the subsinuosal branch.
(d) The left coronary artery supplying the subsinuosal branch and the right coronary artery supplying the paraconal branch.

(b) The left coronary artery supplying the paraconal and subsinuosal branches, with the right coronary artery supplying the right circumflex branch.

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Which of the following statements about arteriovenous anastomoses is INCORRECT?
(a) They shunt blood directly from an arteriole to a venule.
(b) They are present in tissues that vary with activity e.g. gastric mucosa.
(c) They are present in tissues with a high metabolic activity e.g. liver.
(d) They are important in thermoregulation in the tongue of the dog.

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Which of the following is NOT a function of the respiratory system?
(a) Oxygenation of blood.
(b) Control of blood pH.
(c) Phonation.
(d) Delivery of oxygen to tissues of the body.

(d) Delivery of oxygen to tissues of the body.

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The difference between the hyoid apparatus of the dog and horse is that:
(a) The dog has separate stylohyoid and epihyoid while they are fused together in the
horse.
(b) The horse has a lingual process on its keratohyoid and the dog does not.
(c) The horse does not have a stylohyoid but the dog does.
(d) The thyrohoid in the horse connects to the epiglottis rather than the thyroid cartilage
as it does in the dog.

(a) The dog has separate stylohyoid and epihyoid while they are fused together in the
horse.

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Which of the following statements about the trachea is NOT true
(a) The tracheal mucosa has both goblet cells and cilia.
(b) In domestic animals, the cartilages of the larynx extend almost completely around the
trachea, but are incomplete dorsally.
(c) The tracheal muscle extends completely around the trachea under the cartilage in carnivore and outside the cartilage in herbivores.
(d) The diameter of the trachea can change.

(c) The tracheal muscle extends completely around the trachea under the cartilage in carnivore and outside the cartilage in herbivores.

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Which statement about bronchioles is NOT true?
(a) The combined cross-sectional area of bronchioles is greater than any other part of
the airway.
(b) Air flow resistance is very high in bronchioles because they are very narrow.
(c) Bronchioles are the last part of the conducting airway.
(d) Bronchioles are supported by thin sections of cartilage.

(d) Bronchioles are supported by thin sections of cartilage.

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Which of the following statements about the dorsal conchae of the dog is NOT correct?
(a) The dorsal conchae are covered entirely by respiratory mucosa.
(b) The dorsal conchae are a simple, single bony scroll or ridge.
(c) The dorsal conchae continue rostrally as the straight fold of mucosa.
(d) The dorsal conchae increase the surface area of mucosa in the nasal cavity.

(a) The dorsal conchae are covered entirely by respiratory mucosa.

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Which component of the vasculature provides the most resistance to flow?
(a) Arteries.
(b) Arterioles.
(c) Capillaries.
(d) Veins.

(b) Arterioles.

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Which of the following best describes the visceral pleura?
(a) A mucous membrane that covers the lobes of the lungs and is connected with the
pleura of the mediastinum at the hilum of the lungs.
(b) A membrane that lines the thorax and covers the lungs.
(c) A serous membrane that lines the thoracic cavity and forms the mediastinum.
(d) A serous membrane that covers the lobes of the lungs and is continuous with the
pleura of the mediastinum at the hilum of the lungs.

(d) A serous membrane that covers the lobes of the lungs and is continuous with the
pleura of the mediastinum at the hilum of the lungs.

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Which best describes the layout of the lung lobes of the sheep?
(a) Left cranial and caudal lobes (with cranial having cranial and caudal parts); right cranial, middle, caudal and accessory lobes.
(b) Left cranial (with cranial and caudal parts) and caudal lobes; right cranial (with cranial and caudal parts), middle, caudal and accessory lobes.
(c) Right cranial and caudal lobes; left cranial, middle, caudal and accessory lobes.
(d) Left cranial and caudal lobes (with cranial having cranial and caudal parts); right
cranial, caudal and accessory lobes.

(b) Left cranial (with cranial and caudal parts) and caudal lobes; right cranial (with cranial and caudal parts), middle, caudal and accessory lobes.

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The blood-gas barrier in the lungs consists of:
(a) Cuboidal alveolar epithelial cells, their basement membrane and endothelial cells.
(b) Squamous alveolar epithelial cells, macrophages (‘dust cells’) and endothelial cells.
(c) Cuboidal alveolar epithelial cells, their basement membrane and red blood cells.
(d) Squamous alveolar epithelial cells, their basement membrane and endothelial cells.

(d) Squamous alveolar epithelial cells, their basement membrane and endothelial cells.

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Which of the following is CORRECT in relation to the cardiac cycle?
(a) During isovolumetric contraction all valves in the heart are closed.
(b) During the inflow phase the AV valves are closed and the SL valves are open.
(c) Blood flows when relaxation of the papillary muscles opens the SL valves.
(d) At no point in the cardiac cycle are all 4 valves of the heart closed.

(a) During isovolumetric contraction all valves in the heart are closed.

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Which of the following does NOT increase cardiac output?
(a) Increased heart rate.
(b) Increased preload.
(c) Increased afterload.
(d) Increased contractility.

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Which of the following BEST describes the Frank-starling Law?
(a) The amount of ventricular stretch immediately before contraction.
(b) Primary contributor of cardiac output.
(c) Stretching of the cardiac myocytes so that actin and myosin filaments are less
apposed.
(d) Beat to beat rapid adjustment of stroke volume.

unsure

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Which of the following IS used to assess cardiovascular function?
(a) Skin tent.
(b) Rectal temperature.
(c) Tear film.
(d) Mucous membrane colour.

(d) Mucous membrane colour.

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Which of the following diagnostic modalities is not used to assess for cardiac disease?
(a) CT scan.
(b) Electrocardiogram.
(c) Echocardiography.
(d) Doppler blood pressure.

(a) CT scan.

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Which of the following is an example of a secondary cardiovascular derangement?
(a) Dilated cardiomyopathy in a Doberman.
(b) Arrhythmia in a German Shepherd post splenectomy.
(c) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy in a Maine Coon cat.
(d) Mitral valve disease in a Maltese terrier.

(b) Arrhythmia in a German Shepherd post splenectomy.

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Which is CORRECT regarding cardiac muscle fibres?
(a) The action potential is significantly shorter than for skeletal muscle.
(b) Gap junctions allow rapid diffusion of ions.
(c) Potassium channels allow rapid repolarisation.
(d) They contain actin but not myosin filaments.

(b) Gap junctions allow rapid diffusion of ions.

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Third degree heart block is best described as: (a) Delayed conduction through the AV node. (b) Rapid conduction through the AV node. (c) No conduction through the AV node. (d) Intermittent conduction through the AV node.

A colleague advises you that they have interpreted your patient’s ECG and that the patient has a sinus tachycardia, what does this mean? (a) the heart rate is slow. (b) the heart rate is changing with respiration. (c) the rhythm is originating in the AV node. (d) the rhythm is originating in the SA node

(d) the rhythm is originating in the SA node

What main effect does hyperkalaemia have on the heart? (a) Tachycardia. (b) Bradycardia. (c) Decreased force of contraction. (d) Speeds up electrical conductance.

(b) Bradycardia.

Which of the following is CORRECT regarding ventricular fibrillation? (a) It is a perfusing rhythm. (b) A weak femoral pulse is usually present. (c) It is associated with a fast heartbeat. (d) It is a shockable rhythm.

(d) It is a shockable rhythm.

Which is INCORRECT regarding cardiac auscultation? (a) S1 and S2 are high frequency abnormal heart sounds. (b) The S1 heart sound is associated with AV valve closure. (c) The S2 heart sound is associated with SL valve closure. (d) The S3 heart sound is associated with rapid filling of the ventricle.

(a) S1 and S2 are high frequency abnormal heart sounds.

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of short-term rapid control of blood pressure? (a) Vasoconstriction. (b) Activation of the renin angiotensin aldosterone system. (c) Increased heart rate. (d) Increased contractility.

(b) Activation of the renin angiotensin aldosterone system.

A patient is given a large volume of intravenous fluids, there is an increase in stretch of the aorta which inhibits sympathetic nervous system activation. This is an example of the? (a) Chemoreceptor reflex. (b) Low pressure receptor reflex. (c) Bainbridge reflex. (d) Baroreceptor reflex.

(d) Baroreceptor reflex.

Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding the microcirculation: (a) The interstitium has a similar composition as the intravascular compartment. (b) Albumin present within vessels help to maintain colloid oncotic pressure. (c) The brain capillaries have large pores which allow passage of fluids and proteins. (d) Lymphatics return excess fluid and protein to the circulation.

In “roarers”, degeneration of the left recurrent laryngeal nerve leads to horses making a roaring sound during exercise. Briefly describe how degeneration of this nerve leads to this sound being produced. Make sure you mention important muscles, cartilages and other structures that may be involved in the process.

Roarers is common horse issue; damage to left recurrent laryngeal nerve causes partial paralysis of larynx , laryngeal fold falls in airway and flaps around- causes the noise Particular problem for dorsal cricoarytenoid m. as this is only abductor, can’t abduct left vocal cord during exercise , causes noise or ‘roaring

Briefly describe the anatomy of the external intercostal muscles of the dog and explain how they assist with breathing.

**External intercostal muscles-from 1st pair of ribs & muscles in between -downwards & backwards / upward & forward fibers all contract up together in 1st vertebrae -homologous w/ external Abdominal oblique m. - contracts up & lateral during inspiration ,drawing ribs cranial/forwards,(dorsally),& laterally -increase chest wall/thoracic cavity,decrease (-ve) pressure internal pleural ,inc lung vol. * Internal intercostal muscles: -downwards & forwards- homologous to intdfnal Abdominal oblique m. Action in opposite direction -pulls ribs backwards,help reduce volume ,help collapse chest,pull ribs up so opposite action

Discuss the difference between hypoxia and hypoxaemia.

HYPOXIA -reduce availability of oxygen(O2) at tissues -results poor oxygenation of organs, tissues,& to individual cells. -inadequate oxygen supply,impairs normal metabolism -if severe,can be Fatal=Death HYPOXAEMIA -Low concentration of O2 in ARTERIAL BLOOD - animal is hypoxaemic,if have Low PaO2

Severe equine asthma is an obstructive lung disease, characterised by increased resistance to airflow. A ventilation-perfusion mismatch occurs when there’s an inequality between alveolar ventilation, and perfusion of blood in the alveoli. [2 marks] (i) Describe how an obstructive lung disorder affects the work of breathing (1 mark). (ii) Describe how a ventilation defect impacts oxygen saturation.

1) lungs increase the resistance of air flow so increasing the compliance of lungs, so needing more work to overcome resistance to breath 2)reduce ventilation, so breathing rate decreases the oxygen saturation decreases

Charged ions cannot cross the blood brain barrier. Describe the process by which hydrogen ions in the cerebrospinal fluid increase, increasing the discharge rate of the central chemoreceptors

Although H⁺ can’t cross the blood-brain barrier, CO₂ does, reacts with water and produces H⁺ (and bicarb via carbonic anhydride reaction) in the CSF , lowers pH, stimulates central chemoreceptors and increases their discharge rate.

List the major structures that you would pass if you were a red blood cell moving from the cranial vena cava to the pulmonary artery.

Blood flowing from cranial vena cava (CV) → Right Atrium From Right atrium & some in Auricle → R Arterial tricuspid valves open allow flow → R Ventricle where the papillary muscles,chordae tendineae and trabecula septomarginalis is located AV & semi lunar valves shut after filling ,during isovolumetric contradction RV contracts pushing blood through semi lunar valves up → pulmonary artery → lungs

List and briefly describe the major changes that occur in the foetal circulation at birth.

- Foramen ovale → Fossa ovalis (blood can no longer move from the right to left atrium) - Umbilical artery → round ligament of bladder - Umbilical vein → round and falciform ligament of liver - Ductus arteriousus → ligamentum arteriosum (no longer by passes the lung) - Ductus venosus → ligamentum venosum (no longer by passes the liver) - lungs inflate

Explain the relationship between plasma, interstitial fluid, and lymph.

Plasma: in blood vessles, seeps from capillary tissue to surrounding interstitial tissue Interstitial fluid : surrounds cells, includes microbes , particulate matter , & fluid Lymph: consist excess interstitial fluid which contains : - ions(similar consent. To plasma ) -proteins (lower concent to plasma) -,cells, -foreign matter , -lipids

Why are absorbed lipids transported by lacteals rather than entering the blood?

Lipids are too large to enter the circulatory system. Thus enter via lymphatic system . lacteals are in intestinal villi

A chylothorax is caused by a rupture of the…

..Rupture of Thoracic duct ,caused by trauma resulting in leakage of lymph into pleural space

What is the main purpose of the blood-thymus barrier?

-To prevent the transport of potential antigens from blood to parenchyma of thymus -Macrophage phagocytose any that escape -several cell layers : endothelial cells, pericytes , squamous thymic epithelial cells (TEC’s)

1. Which of the following statements best represents Residual Volume? (a) Volume of air remaining after a normal exhalation. (b) Volume of air left in the lungs after a forced exhalation. (c) Total volume of air in the lungs after a maximal inspiration. (d) Amount of air that can be exhaled after a normal exhalation

(b) Volume of air left in the lungs after a forced exhalation.

Blood flow through the lungs increases as cardiac output increases. Which of the following is NOT a mechanism supporting the accommodation of this extra blood flow? (a) Increasing number of open capillaries (b) Distending all pulmonary capillaries (c) Increasing pulmonary vasculature resistance (d) Increasing the pulmonary arterial pressure.

Explain the effects of exercise on pulmonary blood flow.

Extra flow is accommodated in 3 ways: * INCrEASE number of open capillaries * Distending all capillaries and INCREASE rate of flow through each capillary *INCREASE the pulmonary arterial pressure As pulmonary arterial pressure INCREASE , resistance in the pulmonary vasculature DECREASE

Which of the following factors will shift the oxygen haemoglobin curve to the right? (a) A decrease in pH. (b) A decrease in body temperature. (c) A decrease in 2,3 DPG (Diphosphoglycerate). (d) A decrease in PCO2.

(a) A decrease in pH.

What is the value of carbon dioxide concentration in the arterial blood in the systemic circulation? (a) 46 mmHg. (b) 0 mmHg. (c) 44 mmHg. (d) 40 mmHg.

(d) 40 mmHg.

Which of the following parameters can be measured in the field to assess the aerobic capacity of an individual? (a) VLa4 (Velocity at which blood lactate reaches 4 mmol/L). (b) MAOD (Maximum accumulated oxygen deficit). (c) V200 (Speed at which the heart rate reaches 200 bpm). (d) V̇ O2peak (Peak oxygen consumption).

(d) V̇ O2peak (Peak oxygen consumption).

7. Coronary artery circulation in the carnivore is characterized by: (a) The left coronary artery supplying the paraconal branch and the right coronary artery supplying the subsinuosal branch (b) The left coronary artery supplying the paraconal and subsinuosal branches, with the right coronary artery supplying the right circumflex branch. (c) The left coronary artery supplying the paraconal right circumflex branches and the right coronary artery supplying the subsinuosal branch. (d) The left coronary artery supplying the subsinuosal branch and the right coronary artery supplying the paraconal branch.

(b) The left coronary artery supplying the paraconal and subsinuosal branches, with the right coronary artery supplying the right circumflex branch.

8. Which of the following statements about arteriovenous anastomoses is INCORRECT? (a) They shunt blood directly from an arteriole to a venule. (b) They are present in tissues that vary with activity e.g. gastric mucosa. (c) They are present in tissues with a high metabolic activity e.g. liver. (d) They are important in thermoregulation in the tongue of the dog.

9. Which of the following is NOT a function of the respiratory system? (a) Oxygenation of blood. (b) Control of blood pH. (c) Phonation. (d) Delivery of oxygen to tissues of the body

(d) Delivery of oxygen to tissues of the body

What is the difference between the hyoid apparatus of the dog & horse is that: (a) the dog has a separate stylohyoid and epihyoid while they are fused together in horse (b) The horse has a lingual process on its keratohyoid and the dogs does not (c) The horse does not have stylohyoid but in the dog it does (d) The thyrohyoid in the horse connects to the epiglottis rather than the thyroid cartilage as it does in the dog

(a) the dog has a separate stylohyoid and epihyoid while they are fused together in horse

Which of the following statements about the trachea is NOT true ? (a) The tracheal mucosa has both goblet cells and cilia. (b) In domestic animals, the cartilages of the larynx extend almost completely around the trachea, but are incomplete dorsally. (c) The tracheal muscle extends completely around the trachea under the cartilage in carnivore and outside the cartilage in herbivores. (d) The diameter of the trachea can change.

(c) The tracheal muscle extends completely around the trachea under the cartilage in carnivore and outside the cartilage in herbivores.

Which of the following best describes the visceral pleura? (a) A mucous membrane that covers the lobes of the lungs and is connected with the pleura of the mediastinum at the hilum of the lungs. (b) A membrane that lines the thorax and covers the lungs. (c) A serous membrane that lines the thoracic cavity and forms the mediastinum. (d) A serous membrane that covers the lobes of the lungs and is continuous with the pleura of the mediastinum at the hilum of the lungs.

(d) A serous membrane that covers the lobes of the lungs and is continuous with the pleura of the mediastinum at the hilum of the lungs.

Which statement about bronchioles is NOT true? (a) The combined cross-sectional area of bronchioles is greater than any other part of the airway. (b) Air flow resistance is very high in bronchioles because they are very narrow. (c) Bronchioles are the last part of the conducting airway. (d) Bronchioles are supported by thin sections of cartilage.

(d) Bronchioles are supported by thin sections of cartilage.

Which best describes the layout of the lung lobes of the sheep? (a) Left cranial and caudal lobes (with cranial having cranial and caudal parts); right cranial, middle, caudal and accessory lobes (b) Left cranial (with cranial and caudal parts) and caudal lobes; right cranial (with cranial and caudal parts), middle, caudal and accessory lobes. (c) Right cranial and caudal lobes; left cranial, middle, caudal and accessory lobes. (d) Left cranial and caudal lobes (with cranial having cranial and caudal parts); right cranial, caudal and accessory lobes.

(b) Left cranial (with cranial and caudal parts) and caudal lobes; right cranial (with cranial and caudal parts), middle, caudal and accessory lobes.

The blood-gas barrier in the lungs consists of: (a) Cuboidal alveolar epithelial cells, their basement membrane and endothelial cells. (b) Squamous alveolar epithelial cells, macrophages (‘dust cells’) and endothelial cells. (c) Cuboidal alveolar epithelial cells, their basement membrane and red blood cells. (d) Squamous alveolar epithelial cells, their basement membrane and endothelial cells.

(d) Squamous alveolar epithelial cells, their basement membrane and endothelial cells.

Which of the following statements about the dorsal conchae of the dog is NOT correct? (a) The dorsal conchae are covered entirely by respiratory mucosa. (b) The dorsal conchae are a simple, single bony scroll or ridge. (c) The dorsal conchae continue rostrally as the straight fold of mucosa. (d) The dorsal conchae increase the surface area of mucosa in the nasal cavity.

(a) The dorsal conchae are covered entirely by respiratory mucosa. (?)

Which component of the vasculature provides the most resistance to flow? (a) Arteries. (b) Arterioles. (c) Capillaries. (d) Veins.

(b) Arterioles.

Which of the following is CORRECT in relation to the cardiac cycle? (a) During isovolumetric contraction all valves in the heart are closed. (b) During the inflow phase the AV valves are closed and the SL valves are open. (c) Blood flows when relaxation of the papillary muscles opens the SL valves. (d) At no point in the cardiac cycle are all 4 valves of the heart closed.

(a) During isovolumetric contraction all valves in the heart are closed.

19. Which of the following does NOT increase cardiac output? (a) Increased heart rate. (b) Increased preload. (c) Increased afterload. (d) Increased contractility.

20. Which of the following BEST describes the Frank-starling Law? (a) The amount of ventricular stretch immediately before contraction. (b) Primary contributor of cardiac output. (c) Stretching of the cardiac myocytes so that actin and myosin filaments are less apposed. (d) Beat to beat rapid adjustment of stroke volume.

(d) Beat to beat rapid adjustment of stroke volume.

Which of the following IS used to assess cardiovascular function? (a) Skin tent. (b) Rectal temperature. (c) Tear film. (d) Mucous membrane colour.

(d) Mucous membrane colour.

Which of the following is an example of a secondary cardiovascular derangement? (a) Dilated cardiomyopathy in a Doberman. (b) Arrhythmia in a German Shepherd post splenectomy. (c) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy in a Maine Coon cat. (d) Mitral valve disease in a Maltese terrier

(b) Arrhythmia in a German Shepherd post splenectomy.

Which is CORRECT regarding cardiac muscle fibres? (a) The action potential is significantly shorter than for skeletal muscle. (b) Gap junctions allow rapid diffusion of ions. (c) Potassium channels allow rapid repolarisation. (d) They contain actin but not myosin filaments.

(b) Gap junctions allow rapid diffusion of ions.

(d) the rhythm is originating in the SA node.

What main effect does hyperkalaemia have on the heart? (a) Tachycardia. (b) Bradycardia. (c) Decreased force of contraction. (d) Speeds up electrical conductance.

(b) Bradycardia.

(d) It is a shockable rhythm.

A patient is given a large volume of intravenous fluids, there is an increase in stretch of the aorta which inhibits sympathetic nervous system activation. (a) Chemoreceptor reflex. (b) Low pressure receptor reflex. (c) Bainbridge reflex (d) Baroreceptor reflex

(d) Baroreceptor reflex

The four phases of the cardiac cycle

Phase 1 = inflow phases o AV opens and SL closes DIASTOLE o Left atrium fills up left ventricle (P WAVE) Phase 2 = isovolumetric contraction o Both valves closed and no blood flow SYSTOLE o Ventricular pressures rise rapidly and exceed aortic pressure, aortic valve opens Phase 3 = outflow phase o AV closed and SL open SYSTOLE o Aortic valve opens, ventricular pressure decreases while aortic pressure increases shuts AV closed Phase 4 = Isovolumetric relaxation o Both valves closed and no blood flow DIASTOLE o Pressure in left ventricle falls rapidly

The diaphragm: (a) Is a primary inspiratory muscle, which contracts and makes the thorax bigger. (b) Is a primary inspiratory muscle, which contracts and makes the thorax smaller. (c) Is a primary expiratory muscle, which contracts and makes the thorax bigger. (d) Is a primary expiratory muscle, which contracts and makes the thorax smaller.

(a) Is a primary inspiratory muscle, which contracts and makes the thorax bigger.

Which of the following describes the amount of gas that gets to the place where gas exchange occurs? (a) Minute ventilation. (b) Vital capacity. (c) Tidal volume. (d) Alveolar ventilation.

(d) Alveolar ventilation.

Which of the following changes take place during inspiration? (a) Plural pressure increases. (b) The alveolar pressure becomes zero. (c) Decreased volume in the lung. (d) Pleural pressure decreases.

(d) Pleural pressure decreases.

Which of the following statements is TRUE for the pulmonary circulation? (a) Blood in the pulmonary artery has a low concentration of oxygen. (b) Blood in the pulmonary artery comes from the left ventricle. (c) Blood in the pulmonary vein has a high concentration of carbon dioxide. (d) It has high resistance.

(a) Blood in the pulmonary artery has a low concentration of oxygen.

The aerobic capacity of a horse can be directly measured as: (a) VLa4; velocity at which blood lactate reaches 4 mmol/L. (b) V̇O2max; maximal oxygen consumption. (c) MAOD; maximum accumulated oxygen deficit. (d) EPOC; excess post exercise oxygen consumption.

(b) V̇O2max; maximal oxygen consumption.

The horse is an extraordinary athlete. However, at very high exercise intensities, racehorses experience arterial hypoxemia and hypercapnia, as well as marked lactataemia. The oxygen concentration of blood is predominantly determined by the concentration of haemoglobin and its degree of O2 saturation. Which of the following is NOT an adaptation of the horse? (a) It contracts its spleen at the onset of exercise, delivering up to 12 L of splenic blood – with a haematocrit of ~80% - into the circulation. (b) Expansion of vascular volume, with a corresponding decrease in haematocrit and haemoglobin concentration at rest. (c) Pulmonary vascular resistance increases roughly 2-fold with moderate exercise. (d) Large intramuscular stores of glycogen.

Which of the following best describes the guttural pouches of a horse? (a) A single sac-like structure that sits dorsal to the larynx. (b) Pouches of mucosa that empty directly into the pharynx. (c) Two sac-like pouches that empty indirectly into the nasal cavity. (d) Two sac-like, ventral evaginations of the eustachian tubes.

(d) Two sac-like, ventral evaginations of the eustachian tubes.

By the time air gets to the alveoli, it should be: (a) Dry, warm and dust free. (b) Humidified, warm and dust free. (c) Dry, warm and free of volatile chemicals. (d) None of the above.

(b) Humidified, warm and dust free.

The blood-gas barrier in the lungs consists of: (a) Cuboidal alveolar epithelial cells, their basement membrane and endothelial cells. (b) Squamous alveolar epithelial cells, macrophages (‘dust cells’) and endothelial cells. (c) Cuboidal alveolar epithelial cells, their basement membrane and red blood cells. (d) Squamous alveolar epithelial cells, their basement membrane and endothelial cells.

(d) Squamous alveolar epithelial cells, their basement membrane and endothelial cells.

Which of the following best describes visceral pleura? (a) A thin serous membrane that covers the surfaces of the lobes of the lungs. (b) A thin mucous membrane that covers the surfaces of the lobes of the lungs. (c) A thin membrane that lines and seals the thoracic cavity. (d) A thin membrane that creates the mediastinum.

(a) A thin serous membrane that covers the surfaces of the lobes of the lungs.

Which domestic species has/have a tracheal bronchus? (a) Horse only (b) Pig only (c) Pig, sheep and ox (d) Pig and horse

Which of the following statements about the trachea in mammals is NOT true? (a) The tracheal mucosa has both goblet cells and cilia. (b) In domestic animals, the cartilages of the larynx extend almost completely around the trachea, but are incomplete dorsally. (c) The diameter of the trachea can change. (d) The tracheal muscle extends completely around the trachea under the cartilage in carnivore and outside the cartilage in herbivores.

(d) The tracheal muscle extends completely around the trachea under the cartilage in carnivore and outside the cartilage in herbivores.

Which best describes the layout of the lung lobes of the dog? (a) Left cranial and caudal lobes; right cranial (with cranial and caudal parts), middle, caudal and accessory lobes. (b) Left cranial and caudal lobes (with cranial having cranial and caudal parts); right cranial, middle, caudal and accessory lobes. (c) Right cranial and caudal lobes; left cranial, middle, caudal and accessory lobes. (d) Left cranial and caudal lobes with cranial having cranial and caudal parts; right cranial, caudal and accessory lobes.

(b) Left cranial and caudal lobes (with cranial having cranial and caudal parts); right cranial, middle, caudal and accessory lobes.

Coronary artery circulation in the horse is characterized by: (a) The left coronary artery supplying the paraconal branch and the right coronary artery supplying the subsinuosal branch. (b) The left coronary artery supplying the paraconal and subsinuosal branches, with the right coronary artery supplying the right circumflex branch. No, this is carnivores and ruminants (c) The left coronary artery forms the left circumflex branch and the right coronary artery was forms the right circumflex branch. (d) The left coronary artery supplying the subsinuosal branch and the right coronary artery supplying the paraconal branch.

(a) The left coronary artery supplying the paraconal branch and the right coronary artery supplying the subsinuosal branch.

Umbilical arteries constrict at birth and remain as the: (a) Round ligaments of the gut mesentery. (b) Round ligaments of the bladder. (c) Falciform and round ligaments of the liver. (d) Falciform ligaments of the liver.

(b) Round ligaments of the bladder.

Which of the following is NOT a lymphatic tissue in carnivores? (a) Lymph nodes. (b) Spleen. (c) Haemal nodes. (d) Thymus.

Which of the following statements about lymphoedema is NOT true? (a) It is caused by an accumulation of interstitial fluid, which may be due to trauma, inflammation, neoplasia or developmental abnormalities. (b) It causes painful swelling, particularly of the limbs. (c) It increases the likelihood of bacterial infections in the affected tissue. (d) It can be managed with massage and the application of pressure bandages.

(b) It causes painful swelling, particularly of the limbs.

Which of the following statements about lymph nodes is NOT true? (a) Medullary cords consist of plasma cells, B cells and macrophages. (b) Secondary follicles are located in the outer cortex where they are surrounded by interfollicular cortical tissue that contains tightly packed T cells, B cells and macrophages. (c) Lymph is filtered through the lymph node via the sinuses where macrophages phagocytose antigens for presentation to T cells. (d) T and B cells enter the paracortex via specialised venules called high endothelial venules

(b) Secondary follicles are located in the outer cortex where they are surrounded by interfollicular cortical tissue that contains tightly packed T cells, B cells and macrophages.

19. Which of the following statements about lymphocytes is NOT true? (a) Cytotoxic T cells enter peripheral tissues where they induce apoptosis of cells infected with bacteria and viruses. (b) Activated B cells give rise to plasma cells that chemically attack foreign and neoplastic cells by releasing lymphotoxins. (c) Suppressor (regulatory) T cells moderate the immune response by inhibiting the function of T and B cells. (d) Natural killer cells cause the lysis of foreign, neoplastic and virus-infected cells via the release of perforins.

(b) Activated B cells give rise to plasma cells that chemically attack foreign and neoplastic cells by releasing lymphotoxins.

Which of the following lymph nodes is typically NOT palpable in the dog? (a) Submandibular. (b) Superficial cervical. (c) Axillary. (d) Superficial inguinal.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the spleen in the adult horse? (a) Storage of iron from effete erythrocytes. (b) Removal of debris and microorganisms from the blood. (c) Storage of blood. (d) The production of all types of blood cells including lymphocytes and erythrocytes.

(d) The production of all types of blood cells including lymphocytes and erythrocytes. (only does that in fetus)

Which of the following statements about T cell maturation in the thymus is NOT true? (a) During negative selection, T cells that react strongly to self-antigens are induced to proliferate (b) During negative selection, T cells that do not react strongly to self-antigens undergo positive selection. © During positive selection, T cells that react strongly to self-MHC molecules are induced to proliferate. (d) During positive selection, T cells that do not (react strongly//bind ) to self-MHC molecules undergo apoptosis.

(b) During negative selection, T cells that do not react strongly to self-antigens undergo positive selection.

The main function of the papillary muscles and chordae tendinae is to: (a) Actively close the atrioventricular valves. (b) Strengthen the force of cardiac contraction. (c) Prevent conduction of electrical activity between the atria and ventricles. (d) Prevent the mitral and tricuspid valves from prolapsing back into the atria.

(d) Prevent the mitral and tricuspid valves from prolapsing back into the atria.

Which of the following is CORRECT with regards to the coronary circulation? (a) The coronary blood vessels are mostly perfused during diastole. (b) The coronary blood vessels are compressed during diastole. (c) The coronary circulation receives 50% of cardiac output. (d) The coronary circulation drains to the vena cava.

(a) The coronary blood vessels are mostly perfused during diastole.

The amount of ventricular wall stretch immediately prior to contraction describes which of the following terms? (a) Contractility. (b) Afterload. (c) Cardiac output. (d) Preload.

(d) Preload.

Which of the following is INCORRECT with regards to tachycardia? (a) Always causes an increase in cardiac output (b) Can result secondary to fever, exercise and excitement (c) If severe can lead to cardiomyopathy (d) Results from activation of the autonomic nervous system

(a) Always causes an increase in cardiac output

Concentric hypertrophy of the heart results from: (a) An increase in preload. (b) An increase in afterload. (c) An increase in contractility. (d) An increase in cardiac output.

(b) An increase in afterload.

Which of the following is used to assess cardiovascular function? (a) Skin tent. (b) Rectal temperature. (c) Mucous membrane moisture. (d) Pulse quality.

(d) Pulse quality.

Which of the following is an example of a secondary cardiovascular derangement? (a) Dilated cardiomyopathy in an Irish Wolfhound (b) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy in a Ragdoll cat (c) Mitral valve disease in a Maltese terrier (d) Arrhythmia in a German Shepherd with Gastric Dilation Volvulus.

(d) Arrhythmia in a German Shepherd with Gastric Dilation Volvulus.

Which is CORRECT regarding cardiac muscle fibres? (a) The action potential is significantly longer than for skeletal muscle. (b) Gap junctions prevent rapid diffusion of ions. (c) Potassium channels allow rapid repolarisation.=== (d) They contain actin but not myosin filaments.

(a) The action potential is significantly longer than for skeletal muscle.

The ‘funny’ current of the SA node is the result of opening of which channels? (a) Fast sodium channels. (b) Slow calcium channels.. (c) Slow sodium channels. (d) Fast calcium channels.

A colleague advises you that they have interpreted your patient’s ECG and that the patient has a sinus rhythm, what does this mean? (a) The dog has an arrhythmia. (b) The heart rate is changing with respiration. (c) The rhythm is originating in the AV node. (d) The rhythm is originating in the SA node.

(d) The rhythm is originating in the SA node.

What main effect does hyperkalaemia have on the heart? (a) Bradycardia. (b) Tachycardia. (c) Decreased force of contraction. (d) Speeds up electrical conductance.

(a) Bradycardia.

With respect to heart murmurs, which is INCORRECT? (a) Murmurs are caused by turbulent flow. (b) Valvular regurgitation is a common cause. (c) Heart murmurs are always pathological. (d) The location and intensity can help with diagnosis.

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of short-term rapid control of blood pressure? (a) Vasoconstriction. (b) Secretion of antidiuretic hormone. (c) Increased heart rate (d) Increased contractility.

(b) Secretion of antidiuretic hormone.

In a patient with severe haemorrhage rapidly loses intravascular volume, there is a decrease in stretch of the aorta which activates the sympathetic nervous system resulting in vasoconstriction. This is an example of the? (a) Chemoreceptor reflex. (b) Low pressure receptor reflex. (c) Bainbridge reflex. (d) Baroreceptor reflex.

(d) Baroreceptor reflex.

The correct distribution of total body water is? (a) Two-thirds intracellular. One-third extracellular, of which three-quarters is interstitial and one-quarter is intravascular. (b) Two-thirds intracellular. One-third extra-cellular of which one-quarter is interstitial and three-quarters is intravascular. (c) One-third intracellular. Two-thirds extracellular of which three-quarters is interstitial and one-quarter is intravascular. (d) One-third intracellular. Two-thirds extracellular of which one-quarter is interstitial and three-quarters is intravascular.

(a) Two-thirds intracellular. One-third extracellular, of which three-quarters is interstitial and one-quarter is intravascular.

The major contributor to colloid oncotic pressure (COP) is: (a) Fibrinogen. (b) Albumin (c) Sodium. (d) Potassium

(b) Albumin

With the aid of a diagram, briefly describe the microanatomy of olfactory three epithelium.

The epithelium consists of three cell types: sensory olfactory cells, sustentacular (supporting) cells and basal cells. Sensory olfactory cells are bipolar neurons, full thickness, long non motile cilia Sustentacular supporting cells are slender, many microvili with no cilia Basal cells are roughly spherical

During a race, Thoroughbred racehorses experience arterial hypoxemia and hypercapnia. List (dot points) the 4 main mechanisms by which hypoxaemia can occur.

Hypoventilation or low PiO2 (pressure of inspired oxygen in the trachea) Diffusion impairment Right to left shunt VQ mismatch

Which two respiratory parameters can be controlled to alter ventilation?

Respiratory rate and tidal volume

Briefly describe the difference between collateral circulation and a functional end artery.

Collateral circulation gives off branches before they terminate in the tissue. These connect with others forming a collateral network. If one artery is damaged, collaterals can supply sufficient blood to support the tissue. Functional end arteries do have collateral circulation however it is insufficient to compensate for any arterial blockage (ANATOMICAL end arteries are the ones that have no collateral circulation)

As blood enters the foetal heart via the cranial and caudal vena cava, briefly describe the pathways it may take to exit the right chambers of the heart.

Blood from cranial vena cava and caudal vena cava enter the right atrium. Most of the blood moves through the foramen ovale and into the left atrium while the remaining moves towards the right ventricle. Blood then leaves the heart through the pulmonary artery and the aorta through the ductus arteriousus.

final exam past q Flashcards

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