final exam vetcloud q's Flashcards by Gabby Wolfe

If intrapleural pressure begins at −5 cm H2O, what would it be during a normal resting inhalation?

A.
Higher than −5 but still less than 0

B.
Positive (above 0)

C.
More negative (lower than −5)

D.
Intrapleural pressure does not change

C.
More negative (lower than −5)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When the muscles of inspiration contract:

A.
The thoracic cavity increases in size, the pleural pressure decreases, the alveolar pressure decreases, and air flows in

B.
The thoracic cavity increases in size, the pleural pressure increases, the alveolar pressure decreases, and air flows in

C.
The thoracic cavity decreases in size, the pleural pressure increases, the alveolar pressure increases, and air flows out

D.
The thoracic cavity decreases in size, the pleural pressure decreases, the alveolar pressure decreases, and air flows in

A.
The thoracic cavity increases in size, the pleural pressure decreases, the alveolar pressure decreases, and air flows in

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following statements best represents Tidal Volume (TV or VT)?

A.
Maximum amount of air that can be moved in or out of the lungs in a single respiratory cycle

B.
Amount of air inhaled and exhaled during a normal breath

C.
Volume of air remaining after a normal exhalation

D.
Amount of air that can be further inhaled after a normal inhalation

B.
Amount of air inhaled and exhaled during a normal breath

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following statements best represents Functional Residual Capacity (FRC)?

A.
Volume of air remaining after a normal exhalation

B.
Air left in the lungs after a forced exhalation

C.
Total volume of air in the lungs after a maximal inspiration

D.
Amount of air that can be exhaled after a normal exhalation

A.
Volume of air remaining after a normal exhalation

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is NOT an example of obstructive lung disease?

A.
Severe equine asthma

B.
Pulmonary oedema

C.
Foreign object

D.
Emphysema

B.
Pulmonary oedema

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following statements is TRUE for Poiseuille’s Law?

A.
Resistance is eight times the length of the tube

B.
Resistance is inversely proportional to the radius to the 4th power

C.
Resistance is inversely proportional to the viscosity

D.
Resistance is nine times the radius of the tube

B.
Resistance is inversely proportional to the radius to the 4th power

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following does NOT occur in emphysema?

A.
Pleural pressure equals zero

B.
Elastic recoil of the lungs is decreased

C.
Airway resistance is increased

D.
Dynamic obstruction of the airways takes place

A.
Pleural pressure equals zero

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the alveolar ventilation of a patient who is breathing 15 times per minute and has a dead space volume of 300 mL and a tidal volume of 500 mL?

A.
7500 mL/min

B.
3000 mL/min

C.
4500 mL/min

D.
200 mL/min

B.
3000 mL/min

(500-300) x15 =3000

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the minute ventilation of a patient who is breathing 8 times per minute and has a dead space volume of 200 mL and a tidal volume of 300 mL?

A.
800 mL/min

B.
2400 mL/min

C.
1600 mL/min

D.
300 mL/min

B.
2400 mL/min

300x8

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In which pathological or physiological condition would lung compliance be greater than normal?

A.
Emphysema

B.
Fibrosis

C.
Atelectasis

A.
Emphysema

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following pneumocyte types would still be immature in a premature foal, putting them at risk for respiratory distress?

A.
Type I

B.
Type II

C.
Type III

D.
Type IV

B.
Type II

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding the surfactant?

A.
It reduces surface tension

B.
It is produced by type II pneumocytes

C.
It is a mix of lipids and proteins

D.
It has polar and non-polar sides

E.
It has only non-polar sides

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following does NOT occur in restrictive lung disease?

A.
Increase in respiratory rate

B.
Use of accessory muscles during respiration

C.
Decrease in lung compliance

D.
Absent breath sounds on the affected side

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following statements is FALSE for the pulmonary circulation?

A. Blood in the pulmonary artery has a high concentration of oxygen
B. Blood in the pulmonary artery comes from the right ventricle
C. Blood in the pulmonary vein has a low concentration of carbon dioxide
D. It has low resistance

A. Blood in the pulmonary artery has a high concentration of oxygen

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism by which the lungs accommodate increased blood flow during exercise?

A. Pulmonary capillary recruitment
B. Distension of pulmonary capillaries
C. Increased pulmonary arterial pressure
D. Increased resistance in the pulmonary vasculature

D. Increased resistance in the pulmonary vasculature

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In zone 1, when is the alveolar pressure > pulmonary capillary pressure?

A. Throughout the entire cardiac cycle
B. During systole
C. At no point during the cardiac cycle

A. Throughout the entire cardiac cycle

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following represents normal values for PAO2, PaO2, and PvO2 in dogs, respectively?

A.
40 mmHg, 95 mmHg, and 100 mmHg

B.
95 mmHg, 55 mmHg, 200 mmHg

C.
100 mmHg, 95 mmHg, and 40 mmHg

D.
95 mmHg, 100 mmHg, and 40 mmHg

C.
100 mmHg, 95 mmHg, and 40 mmHg

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following represents normal values for PaCO2, PACO2, and PvCO2 in dogs, respectively?

A.
40 mmHg, 95 mmHg, 100 mmHg

B.
90 mmHg, 40 mmHg, 44 mmHg

C.
44 mmHg, 40 mmHg, 40 mmHg

D.
40 mmHg, 40 mmHg, 44 mmHg

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is the dissolved concentration of O2 in a normothermic patient, with a PaO2 of 90 mmHg?

A.
0.124 mL of O2 per dL of blood

B.
0.325 mL of O2 per dL of blood

C.
0.279 mL of O2 per dL of blood

D.
0.295 mL of O2 per dL of blood

C.
0.279 mL of O2 per dL of blood

multiply by 0.003

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

How many oxygen molecules can bind to one haemoglobin protein?

A.
1

B.
2

C.
3

D.
4

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Why does the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve have a sigmoidal shape?

A.
As each oxygen molecule unloads from haemoglobin, the affinity for the next oxygen molecule is increased

B.
As each oxygen molecule binds to haemoglobin, the affinity for the next oxygen molecule is increased

C.
As each oxygen molecule binds to haemoglobin, the dissolved oxygen content decreases

D.
As each oxygen molecule binds to haemoglobin, the affinity for the next oxygen molecule is decreased

B.
As each oxygen molecule binds to haemoglobin, the affinity for the next oxygen molecule is increased

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following variables changes when a patient with polycythaemia is at 100% saturation?

A.
The oxygen concentration

B.
The dissolved arterial oxygen content

C.
The partial pressure of carbon dioxide

D.
The partial pressure of oxygen

A.
The oxygen concentration

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following factors shifts the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve to the left?

A.
High temperature

B.
Increase in pH

C.
High concentration of CO2

D.
Decrease in pH

B.
Increase in pH

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following factors shifts the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve to the right?

A.
Decrease in pH

B.
Decrease in body temperature

C.
Decrease in 2,3 DPG

D.
Decrease in hydrogen ion concentration

Study These Flashcards

A.
Decrease in pH

Which of the following ions is bicarbonate exchanged for in a red blood cell? A. Potassium B. Calcium C. Chloride D. Hydrogen

C. Chloride

Which of the following statements is CORRECT when comparing the CO2-haemoglobin dissociation curve to the O2-haemoglobin dissociation curve? A. They are both sigmoidal in shape B. They both have higher partial pressures on the arterial side than the venous side C. Neither molecule affects the other molecule's curve D. The CO2-haemoglobin dissociation curve is more linear

D. The CO2-haemoglobin dissociation curve is more linear

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding carbon dioxide transport in the blood? A. There is more CO2 dissolved in the blood than O2 B. The solubility of oxygen is greater than that of carbon dioxide C. Less carbon dioxide is bound to haemoglobin as compared to oxygen D. The majority of the carbon dioxide in the body is in the form of bicarbonate ions

B. The solubility of oxygen is greater than that of carbon dioxide

Which of the following will have the highest partial pressure of oxygen, at sea level? A. Alveolar air B. Mixed venous blood C. Humidified tracheal air D. Blood in the capillaries E. Blood in the pulmonary vein

C. Humidified tracheal air

What is the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the arterial blood in the systemic circulation? A. 20 mmHg B. 10 mmHg C. 30 mmHg D. 40 mmHg E. 0 mmHg

D. 40 mmHg

Which of the following is the a-v O2 gradient very dependent on? A. Physiological shunting B. Metabolism C. Sodium concentration D. Potassium concentration E. Water vapour pressure

B. Metabolism

Which of the following is NOT a cause of hypoxia? A. Increased fraction of inspired oxygen B. Hypoxaemia C. Low tissue perfusion D. Low cardiac output E. Anaemia

A. Increased fraction of inspired oxygen

Which of the following is NOT a cause of hypoxaemia? A. Right to left shunt B. An A-a gradient of 7 mmHg C. A decreased partial pressure of inspired O2 D. V/Q inequality E. Diffusion impairment

B. An A-a gradient of 7 mmHg

Which of the following conditions increases diffusional capacity in the lung? A. Pulmonary fibrosis B. A lower partial pressure gradient C. Increased surface area D. Lower gas solubility

C. Increased surface area

How does a right-to-left shunt lead to hypoxaemia? A. Some arterial blood bypasses the bronchial circulation, causing a decrease in PaO2 B. It allows more blood to be channelled through under-ventilated areas of the lungs, causing a decrease in PaO2 C. Some venous blood bypasses the pulmonary circulation, which decreases PaO2 D. It allows more blood to travel through the pulmonary circulation, causing a dilution in PaO2

C. Some venous blood bypasses the pulmonary circulation, which decreases PaO2

The alveolar to arterial oxygen gradient should be less than which of the following to be considered a non-pathologic shunt? A. 15 mmHg B. 7 mmHg C. 12 mmHg D. 10 mmHg

A. 15 mmHg

Which of the following will increase the uptake of oxygen in the blood? A. An increase in blood flow through a right-to-left shunt B. A decrease in blood flow through the lungs C. An increase in cardiac output D. A decrease in PAO2 to 50 mmHg

C. An increase in cardiac output

Which of the following statements is CORRECT about V/Q matching? A. A high V/Q ratio is always better B. If blood flow is restricted to a single alveolus, the resulting blood will have a decreased oxygen saturation C. A low V/Q ratio is always better D. Any V/Q mismatch will result in a lower overall oxygen carrying capacity of blood

D. Any V/Q mismatch will result in a lower overall oxygen carrying capacity of blood

Which zone of the lung is best described by the following pressures: Pa > PA > Pv? A. Zone 1 B. Zone 2 C. Zone 3 D. Zone 4

C. Zone 3

Alveolar pressure will be lower than the arterial and venous pressures in which zone of the lung? A. Zone 1 B. Zone 2 C. Zone 3 D. Zone 4

C. Zone 3

The ventilation-perfusion ratio is normal in which zone of the lung? A. Zone 1 B. Zone 2 C. Zone 3 D. Zone 4

B. Zone 2

Which of the following PaCO2 levels corresponds with decreased alveolar ventilation? A. 50 mmHg B. 40 mmHg C. 30 mmHg D. 20 mmHg

A. 50 mmHg

Which type of sensory respiratory neural input is found outside of the lungs? A. Central chemoreceptors B. Lung stretch receptors C. Bronchial C-fibres D. Irritant receptors

A. Central chemoreceptors

Which of the following ions do the central chemoreceptors sense? A. Calcium B. Hydrogen C. Sodium D. Magnesium

B. Hydrogen

Where is the pneumotaxic centre located? A. In the pons B. In the cerebellum C. In the medulla D. In the cerebrum

A. In the pons

Which of the following structures sets the central rhythm and frequency of inspiration? A. The caudal portion of the ventral respiratory group neurons B. The dorsal respiratory group neurons C. The pneumotaxic centre D. The apneustic centre

B. The dorsal respiratory group neurons

Where are the hydrogen ions that stimulate the central chemoreceptors produced? A. In the astrocytes B. In the CSF C. In the neuronal intracellular fluid D. In the Schwann cells

B. In the CSF

Which of the following types of channels are present on type I glomus cells? A. Oxygen-dependent chloride channels B. Oxygen-dependent potassium channels C. Oxygen-dependent sodium channels D. Oxygen-dependent calcium channels

B. Oxygen-dependent potassium channels

Which of the following types of channels open after depolarisation of glomus cells at low partial pressures of O2? A. T-type calcium channels B. L-type potassium channels C. L-type sodium channels D. L-type calcium channels

D. L-type calcium channels

Which of the following changes will occur in the body in response to PO2 < 60 mmHg? A. Increase in ventilation B. Relaxation of diaphragm C. Decrease in carbon dioxide D. Decrease in ventilation

A. Increase in ventilation

What is the total pressure 30 m below the surface of the ocean? A. 1 atm B. 2 atm C. 3 atm D. 4 atm

D. 4 atm

Compared to the volume at the surface, how much volume would the same amount of gas take up 40 m below the surface of the ocean? A. 17% B. 20% C. 33% D. 50%

B. 20%

Which of the following is NOT a respiratory limitation under water? A. Limited O2 supply B. Increasing PCO2 and acidosis C. Increased blood volume (20% body volume) D. Extreme external pressure causing collapse of alveoli

C. Increased blood volume (20% body volume)

How much oxygen is extracted from water by the gills? A. 20% B. 50% C. 60% D. 80%

D. 80%

Which of the following is NOT a feature of counter-current flow? A. It decreases the concentration gradient B. It increases the efficiency of gas exchange C. It ensures the maximum possible gas exchange occurs D. It increases the concentration gradient

A. It decreases the concentration gradient

Which of the following is NOT a feature of the avian respiratory system? A. Flow through system B. 4 stages of air flow C. Mixing of air D. Counter-current blood and air flow

C. Mixing of air

Birds that fly at altitude have adapted to prevent hypoxia. Which of the following is NOT an adaptation consistent with this goal? A. Hollow bones with air sacs B. Increased haemoglobin affinity for oxygen C. Counter-current blood and air flow D. Thickened blood-gas barrier

D. Thickened blood-gas barrier

Which of the following is NOT a potential consequence of altitude hypoxia in susceptible cattle? A. Localised alveolar hypoxia, causing vasoconstriction in the lungs to correct the V/Q ratio B. Generalised pulmonary hypoxic vasoconstriction C. Increased respiratory rate D. Right sided heart failure

A. Localised alveolar hypoxia, causing vasoconstriction in the lungs to correct the V/Q ratio

In a healthy animal, what is the normal net pressure difference between the pulmonary capillary and the pulmonary interstitial space? A. −1 mmHg B. +1 mmHg C. −28 mmHg D. +29 mmHg

B. +1 mmHg

final exam vetcloud q's Flashcards

(59 cards)