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LAS - RUSS > Final: Grevemeyer Article Questions > Flashcards

Final: Grevemeyer Article Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which statement regarding limb conformation in foals with angular limb deformities is correct:

a) With valgus deformities, there is usually a certain degree of outward rotation of the feet
b) With varus deformities, there is usually a certain degree of outward rotation of the feet
c) With valgus deformities, there is usually a certain degree of inward rotation of the feet.
d) Rotational deformities are uncommon in foals with angular limb deformities

A

a) With valgus deformities, there is usually a certain degree of outward rotation of the feet

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2
Q

Which of the following is not part of the multi-factorial complex implicated in development of angular limb deformities in foals:

a) abnormal fetal limb positioning
b) placentitis
c) hypoplasia of the proximal sesamoid bones
d) growth-plate trauma

A

c) hypoplasia of the proximal sesamoid bones

Implicated in ALD: Abnormal fetal limb positioning, Placentitis, Growth-plate trauma

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3
Q

Which statement regard diagnosis of angular limb deformities in foals is true:

a) regardless of the degree and location of the deformity, all foals should have their limbs radiographed at the initial exam
b) The limb can usually be manually straightened in foals with hypoplasia of the carpal bones
c) the limb can usually be manually straightened in foals with hypoplasia of the carpal bones
d) radiography is useful in determining the degree of rotational deformity

A

d) radiography is useful in determining the degree of rotational deformity

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4
Q

Which statement regarding the diagnostic workup in foals with tarsal angular limb deformities is correct:

a) a dorsoplantar radiographic view is especially useful in identifying tarsal bone hypoplasia
b) A lateromedial radiographic view is especially useful in identifying tarsal bone hypoplasia
c) Clinicians should rely heavily on a dorsoplantar radiographic view for exact identification of the location and degree of tarsal angular limb deformities
d) Concurrent rotational deformities are best identified using radiography

A

b) A lateromedial radiographic view is especially useful in identifying tarsal bone hypoplasia

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5
Q

Which of the following is the most likely cause of carpal angular deformities in newborn foals:

a) asymmetric growth at the distal radial growth plate
b) periarticular laxity
c) delayed ossification of the epiphysis
d) asymmetric growth of the distal radial growth plate and the epiphyseal growth cartilage

A

d) asymmetric growth of the distal radial growth plate and the epiphyseal growth cartilage

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6
Q

Which statement regarding congenital hypothyroidism is correct:

a) it has been implicated as a cause of uneven physeal growth
b) it has been implicated as a cause of delayed ossification of the carpal and tarsal cuboidal bones
c) it has been implicated as a cause of delayed epiphyseal ossification
d) it is often associated with abnormal fetal limb positioning

A

b) it has been implicated as a cause of delayed ossification of the carpal and tarsal cuboidal bones

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7
Q

Foals with tarsal bone hypoplasia tend to present with:

a) valgus deformity
b) varus deformity
c) valgus deformity and straight-hocked appearance
d) valgus deformity and sickle-hocked appearance

A

d) valgus deformity and sickle-hocked appearance

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8
Q

Which statement regarding physical examination of foals with angular limb deformities is true:

a) angular limb deformities are often associated with some degree of lameness in the affected limb(s)
b) Angular limb deformities are normally associated with heat, pain, and swelling at the site of the deformity
c) In most cases, foals with angular limb deformities are not lame
d) a and b

A

c) In most cases, foals with angular limb deformities are not lame

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9
Q

Which statement regarding foals with cuboidal bone hypoplasia is correct?

a) If left untreated, cuboidal bone hypoplsia results in a manually irreducible deformity within 2 weeks
b) If left untreated, cuboidal bone hypoplsia results in a manually irreducible deformity within 2 days
c) Manual reducibilitty of this condition is not time dependent
d) This condition is never manually reducibile

A

a) If left untreated, cuboidal bone hypoplsia results in a manually irreducible deformity within 2 weeks

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10
Q

Angular limb deformities most often originate within the carpal, tarsal, _____ joint regions

a) or distal interphalangeal
b) or proximal interphalangeal
c) or metacarpo- or metatarsophalangeal
d) distal interphalangeal, or metacarpo- or metatarsophalangeal

A

c) or metacarpo- or metatarsophalangeal

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11
Q

Which statement regarding management of congenital angular limb deformities is correct:

a) In most foals born with mild to moderate angular limb deformities, spontaneous resolution is unlikely.
b) In most foals born with mild to moderate angular limb deformities, spontaneous resolution occurs within 2-4 weeks of life.
c) In most foals born with angular limb deformities due to carpal or tarsal bone hypoplasia, spontaneous resolution occurs within 2-4 weeks of life.
d) In most foals born with angular limb deformities due to carpal or tarsal bone hypoplasia, spontaneous resolution occurs within 4-8 weeks of life

A

b) In most foals born with mild to moderate angular limb deformities, spontaneous resolution occurs within 2-4 weeks of life.

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12
Q

To avoid development of a contracted foot in a foal, glue-on shoes should not be left on for longer than:

a) 2 months
b) 3 months
c) 2 weeks
d) none of the above

A

c) 2 weeks

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13
Q

To allow rapid growth in young foals, tube cast should be changed at ______ intervals:

a) 3-4 day
b) 10-14 days
c) 3-4 weeks
d) 4-6 weeks

A

b) 10-14 days

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14
Q

Corrective ostectomy or osteotomy is:

a) preferred in treating tarsal bone hypoplasia
b) preferred in treating severe carpal or tarsal bone hypoplasia
c) generally performed before cessation of physeal growth
d) generally performed after cessation of physeal growth

A

d) generally performed after cessation of physeal growth

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15
Q

According to a recent experimental study, HCPTE was:

a) more effective than stall confinement alone in correcting carpal angular limb deformity
b) less effective than stall confinement alone in correcting carpal angular limb deformity
c) as effective as stall confinement alone in correcting carpal angular limb deformity
d) as effective as unlimited pasture exercise in correcting carpal angular limb deformity

A

c) as effective as stall confinement alone in correcting carpal angular limb deformity

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16
Q

Which statement regarding treatment of foals with carpal bone hypoplasia is correct:

a) foals with carpal bone hypoplasia often require surgical treatment after an initial period of splint bandaging.
b) foals with valgus deformities caused by carpal bone hypoplasia should be treated with confinement and by applying a glue-on shoe with extension to the inside
c) foals with valgus deformities caused by carpal bone hypoplasia should be treated with confinement and by applying a glue-on shoe with extension to the outside
d) foals with carpal bone hypoplasia should be treated with splint bandaging or tube casting

A

b) foals with valgus deformities caused by carpal bone hypoplasia should be treated with confinement and by applying a glue-on shoe with extension to the inside

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17
Q

A 6 week old foal with a significant varus deformity caused by asymmetric growth at the distal metatarsal growth plate in the left hindlimb is best treated with:

a) splint bandaging and confinement
b) confinement
c) corrective trimming and, possibly, shoeing as well as confinement
d) surgery, corrective trimming, and possibility shoeing as well as confinement

A

c) corrective trimming and, possibly, shoeing as well as confinement

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18
Q

Which statement regarding HCPTE is true:

a) it temporarily retards longitudinal growth on the convex aspect of the deformity
b) it temporarily increases longitudinal growth on the concave aspect of the deformity
c) Foals that have undergone HCPTE require a second surgery to prevent overcorrection of the deformity
d) it exerts its effect for approximately 3 months

A

b) it temporarily increases longitudinal growth on the concave `aspect of the deformity

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19
Q

Which statement regarding TPB is correct?

a) TPB is primarily used in young foals with severe angular deformities, mini-foals, or foals with significant limb deformity after the rapid growth phase
b) TPB is primarily used in foals with diaphyseal deformities
c) contrary to HCPTE, overcorrection has not been reported after TPB
d) TPB is primarily used in young foals with severe angular deformities, mini-foals, or foals with diaphyseal deformities

A

a) TPB is primarily used in young foals with severe angular deformities, mini-foals, or foals with significant limb deformity after the rapid growth phase

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20
Q

Postoperative treatment of foals using HCPTE includes:

a) free pasture exercise because it tends to increase the rate of correction
b) confinement
c) splint bandaging
d) none of the above

A

b) confinement

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21
Q

When do the deciduous premolars normally erupt in horses:

a) at birth or shortly thereafter
b) at 2 years of age
c) at 3 years of age
d) at 4 years of age

A

a) at birth or shortly thereafter

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22
Q

The difference in width between the upper and lower jaws is called:

a) isognathia
b) brachygnathia
c) prognathia
d) anisognathia

A

d) anisognathia

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23
Q

Brachygnathia is also known as:

a) sow mouth
b) monkey mouth
c) parrot mouth
d) none of the above

A

c) parrot mouth

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24
Q

Retained deciduous incisors:

a) may be associated with discomfort
b) cause caudal displacement of the erupting permanent incisors
c) can be removed in a standing patient
d) all of the above

A

d) all of the above

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25
Q

Canine teeth:

a) are usually problematic in mares, and should be removed
b) may irritate the eruption site
c) are synonymous with wolf teeth
d) none of the above

A

b) may irritate the eruption site

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26
Q

In regard to the cheek teeth, sharp dental points and overgrowths…

a) may traumatize the cheeks or tongue
b) have been associated with biting problems
c) require floating
d) all of the above

A

d) all of the above

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27
Q

Deciduous premolar caps..

a) may cause discomfort
b) do not occur in fillies and mares
c) aka wolf teeth
d) none of the above

A

a) may cause discomfort

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28
Q

Eruption cysts…

a) are not detectable with radiography
b) are associated with eruption of permanent premolars
c) do not occur on the maxilla
d) all of the above

A

b) are associated with eruption of permanent premolars

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29
Q

Wolf teeth may..

a) cause pain due to bit contact
b) not be present in all of the dental arcades
c) not erupt
d) all of the above

A

d) all of the above

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30
Q

In regard to dental examination:

a) wetting the hands and instruments can reduce irritation to the horse’s mouth
b) wearing examination gloves helps minimize contamination of the clinicans skin
c) a bright light source facilitates most procedures
d) all of the above

A

d) all of the above

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31
Q

Definitive diagnosis of progressive ethmoid hematoma in horses is made by:

a) endoscopic examination
b) history and clinical examination
c) CT
d) histopathologic examination

A

d) histopathologic examination

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32
Q

What is the prognosis for long-term resolution of progressive ethmoid hematoma:

a) grave no matter what tx is performed
b) good if treated with intralesional formalin
c) guarded to poor no matter what tx is performed
d) good if treated with surgical excision and cryotherapy of the base

A

c) guarded to poor no matter what tx is performed

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33
Q

In what breed have there been no reports of progressive ethmoid hematoma

a) warmblood
b) arabian
c) tennessee walking horse
d) standardbred

A

d) standardbred

34
Q

What causes the color variations of the progressive ethmoid hematoma when viewed through a video endoscope:

a) age of the lesion
b) fibrosis of the mass
c) type and distribution of hemoglobin pigments
d) none of the above

A

c) type and distribution of hemoglobin pigments

35
Q

What is the most common clinical sign observed in horses with progressive ethmoid hematoma:

a) coughing
b) epistaxis
c) head pressing
d) resp dz

A

b) epistaxis

36
Q

Which survey radiographic view most consistently demonstrates the lesion associated with progressive ethmoid hematoma:

a) dorsoventral
b) oblique
c) lateral
d) none of the above

A

c) lateral

37
Q

Diagnostic differentials after visualization of the ethmoid hematoma mass lesion with the video endoscope should include all of the following except:

a) pulmonary neoplasia
b) nasal trauma
c) nasal neoplasia
d) mycotic rhinitis

A

a) pulmonary neoplasia

38
Q

What is the most substantial complication after surgical excision of a progressive ethmoid hematoma:

a) facial deformity
b) respiratory distress
c) wound dehiscence
d) hemorrhage

A

b) respiratory distress

hemorrhage is the most common intra-operatively

39
Q

Formalin tx for progressive ethmoid hematoma in the horse is administered via which route?

a) intralesional injection
b) IV injection
c) IM injection
d) a nasogastric tube placed in the stomach

A

a) intralesional injection

40
Q

To monitor for recurrence after treatment of a progressive ethmoid hematoma, repeat endoscopic examinations should be performed at ____ intervals for ____

a) 2-week; 2 years
b) 1 month; 1 year
c) 3-6 month; 5 years
d) 1 year; 10 years

A

c) 3-6 month; 5 years

41
Q

In a resting horse, which fraction of the total resistance to airflow is in the upper airway?

a) 1/3rd
b) 1/2
c) 2/3
d) 3/4

A

c) 2/3

42
Q

Videoendoscopy with the patient at rest allows diagnosis of all the following upper respiratory disturbances except:

a) artyenoid chondritis
b) axial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds
c) persistent dorsal displacement of the soft palate
d) persistent epiglottic entrapment

A

b) axial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds

43
Q

The intrinsic musculature of the pharynx includes all of the following except the:

a) tensor veli palatini
b) levator veli palatini
c) palatophayngeus
d) hyoepiglotticus

A

d) hyoepiglotticus. (Intrinsic musculature of Pharynx includes
Tensor veli palatini, Levator veli palatini, Palatinus, and
Palatopharyngeus)

44
Q

Which of the following extrinsic muscles of the pharynx is innervated by the pharyngeal branch of the vagus nerve:

a) genioglossus
b) sternohyoideus
c) thyrohyoideus
d) sternothyroideus

A

c) thyrohyoideus

45
Q

Rostral phayngeal collapse has been experimentally reproduced by transecting the tendon of the ____ muscle:

a) tensor veli palatini
b) palatophayngeus
c) stylophayngeus
d) palatinus

A

a) tensor veli palatini

46
Q

Staphylectomy, epiglottic augmentation, rostral palatoplasty, and sternohyoideus/sternothyroideus myectomy are all treatments for:

a) rostral pharyngeal collapse
b) nasopharyngeal cicatrix
c) dorsal pharyngeal collapse
d) DDSP

A

d) DDSP

47
Q

Dysfunction of the ___ muscle causes collapse of the pharyngeal roof during dorsal pharyngeal collapse:

a) palatopharyngeus
b) stylopharyngeus caudalis
c) palatinus
d) sternohyoideus

A

b) stylopharyngeus caudalis

48
Q

Which of the following is not an acceptable treatment for nasopharyngeal cicatrix:

a) anti-inflammatory medications
b) transendoscopic laser transaction
c) permanent tracheostomy
d) partial arytenoidectomy

A

d) partial arytenoidectomy

49
Q

Which upper respiratory disturbance may predispose a horse to DDSP as a result of inflam of the pharyngeal branch of the vagus nerve:

a) pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia
b) elongated soft palate
c) subepiglottic cyst
d) epiglottic hypoplasia

A

a) pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia

50
Q

What is the maximal length that should be removed from the soft palate during staphylectomy for correction of DDSP:

a) 2 mm
b) 5 mm
c) 7 mm
d) 10 mm

A

b) 5 mm

51
Q

Which intrinsic laryngeal muscle provides arytenoid abduction by drawing the dorsomedial margins of the arytenoid cartilages together:

a) the cricoarytenoideus lateralis
b) the arytenoideus transversus
c) the thyroarytenoideus
d) the cricoarytenoideus dorsalis

A

b) the arytenoideus transversus

52
Q

Which intrinsic laryngeal muscle is not innervated by the recurrent laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve:

a) the cricoarytenoideus dorsalis
b) the arytenoideus transversus
c) the cricothyroideus
d) the thyroarytenoideus

A

c) the cricothyroideus

53
Q

A remnant of the thyroglossal duct is thought to cause:

a) dorsal epiglottic abscessation
b) subepiglottic granulomas
c) epiglottitis
d) subepiglottic cysts

A

d) subepiglottic cysts

54
Q

Alone, which recommended treatment for RLN does not improve upper airway noise or return the upper respiratory airflow mechanics to base-line values:

a) laryngoplasty
b) bilateral ventriculocordectomy
c) unilateral laser vocal cordectomy
d) none of the above

A

c) unilateral laser vocal cordectomy

55
Q

Laryngoplasty failure can be corrected by:

a) partial arytenoidectomy
b) ventriculectomy
c) bilateral ventriculocordectomy
d) unilateral laser vocal cordectomy

A

a) partial arytenoidectomy

56
Q

What is the approximate success rate of partial arytenoidectomy in treating arytenoid chondritis in a racing thoroughbred?

a) 20-30%
b) 40-50%
c) 60-80%
d) 85-95%

A

c) 60-80%

57
Q

Which upper airway disturbance is thought to be caused by a developmental abnormality of the fourth brachial arch:

a) a subepiglottic cyst
b) axial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds
c) epiglottic retroversion
d) rostral displacement of the palatopharyngeal arch

A

d) rostral displacement of the palatopharyngeal arch

58
Q

Which nerve/muscle combo i used when performing a neuromuscular-pedicle graft to treat RLN?

a) hypoglossal nerve/hyoepiglotticus muscle
b) first cervical nerve / omohyoideus muscle
c) external branch of the cranial laryngeal nerve / cricothyroiedeus muscle
d) external branch of the cranial laryngeal nerve / thyrohyoideus muscle

A

b) first cervical nerve / omohyoideus muscle

59
Q

Which of the following is not a complication of surgical correction of epiglottic entrapment

a) reentrapment
b) dorsal displacement of the soft palate
c) laceration of the epiglottis
d) epiglottic retroversion

A

d) epiglottic retroversion

60
Q

Which of the following disorders results in distorsion of the corniculate process of the arytenoid cartilage, causing decreased arytenoid cartilage abduction, axial displacement of the arytenoid cartilage, and rostral displacement of the palatopharyngeal arch?

a) axial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds
b) rostral displacement of the palatophayngeal arch
c) arytenoid chondritis
d) dorsal epiglottic abscessation

A

c) arytenoid chondritis

61
Q

In horses, urinary calculi is:

a) more common in males
b) more common in females
c) equally common in males and females
d) does not occur

A

a) more common in males

62
Q

5-FU ointment is used in horses to treat:

a) habronemiasis
b) fungal infection
c) SCC
d) none of the above

A

c) SCC

63
Q

Which of the following methods is most useful in diagnosis urolithiasis in horses:

a) U/S
b) rads
c) endoscopy
d) thermography

A

c) endoscopy

64
Q

In male horses, the preferred surgical approach to the urethral lumen is:

a) ventral midline
b) dorsal midline
c) lateral longitudinal
d) ventral transverse

A

a) ventral midline

65
Q

In male horses, the preferred surgical approach for removal of proximal urethral calculi is:

a) subischial urethrotomy
b) laparocystotomy
c) perineal urethrotomy
d) none of the above

A

c) perineal urethrotomy

66
Q

Which of the following structures is not normally incised during a perineal urethrotomy:

a) CSP
b) skin and subq
c) bulbospongiosus muscle
d) corpus cavernosum penis

A

d) corpus cavernosum penis

67
Q

The preferred surgical treatment of VVR in mares is:

a) urethrotomy
b) urethrostomy
c) urethroplasty
d) vulvoplasty

A

c) urethroplasty

68
Q

Which of the following is not a urethroplasty technique:

a) caslick
b) brown
c) shires
d) mcKinnon

A

a) caslick

69
Q

Which of the following methods can be used to remove cystic calculi in mares:

a) laparocystotomy
b) manual removal through the urethra
c) sphincterotomy
d) all of the above

A

d) all of the above

70
Q

Which of the following is the preferred therapy for an excessively large cystic calculus in a mare?

a) laparocystotomy
b) manual removal through the urethra
c) sphincterotomy
d) none of the above

A

a) laparocystotomy

71
Q

Which of the following drugs reportedly causes priapism in horses:

a) phenylbutazone
b) flunixin meglumine
c) benztropine mesylate
d) acepromazine maleate

A

d) acepromazine maleate

72
Q

Which of the following procedures has been used to treat horses with penile paralysis:

a) phallopexy
b) phallectomy
c) segmental posthectomy
d) all of the above

A

d) all of the above

73
Q

Lavage of the CCP is indicated in patients with:

a) priapism
b) penile paralysis
c) penile hematoma
d) none of the above

A

a) priapism

74
Q

Which of the following drugs is reportedly succesful in treating horses with priapism:

a) atropine
b) phenylephrine
c) benztropine mesylate
d) acepromazine maleate

A

c) benztropine mesylate

75
Q

Which of the following techniques is effective in the treatment of horses with priapism:

a) segmental posthectomy
b) phallopexy
c) lavage of the CCP
d) all of the above

A

c) lavage of the CCP

76
Q

Which of the following can be used to treat superficial preputial carcinoma:

a) 5-FU ointment
b) cryotherapy
c) segmental posthectomy
d) all of the above

A

a) 5-FU ointment

77
Q

In horses, the most common preputial neoplasm is:

a) fibropapilloma
b) squamous cell carcinoma
c) sarcoid
d) hemangioma

A

b) squamous cell carcinoma

78
Q

Phallectomy technqiues used in horses include:

a) Vinsot
b) Scott

C) Williams

d) all of the above

A

d) all of the above

79
Q

Partial posthioplasty is indicated to treat patients with:

a) invasive SCC
b) local dermal SCC
c) cutaneous habronemiasis
d) b and c

A

d) b and c

80
Q

Radical resection of the penis and prepuce is indicated in patients with:

a) SCC of the terminal glans penis
b) invasive neoplasia of the glans and prepuce
c) proximal urethral cicatrix
d) none of the above

A

b) invasive neoplasia of the glans and prepuce

LAS - RUSS (32 decks)

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