Fire Inspection/ Code Enforcement 7th edition Flashcards
Memorize! (520 cards)
1
Q
4 groups that make up the IFSTA Validation Conference
A
- Key fire Dept executives & training officers
- Educators from colleges and universities
- Reps from gov’t agencies
- Delegates of FF associations and industrial organizations
2
Q
Why the Fire Inspection & Code Enforcement manual was written
A
To assist fire and emergency personnel in meeting the Fire Inspector job performance requirements
3
Q
Year firefighting in North America was established
A
1600’s
4
Q
Number killed in the Station Night Club fire
A
100
5
Q
NFPA 1031
A
Standard for professional qualifications for fire inspector and plan examiner
6
Q
Level of fire inspector that must be able to determine the occupant load for a multi use building
A
Level II
7
Q
Fire marshal typically holds the equivalent rank of …
A
assistant or deputy chief
8
Q
The building dept is generally responsible for the following activities: (4)
A
- Reviewing and approving all new construction and alterations to existing
- Conducting plans reviews
- Issuing permits
- Making field inspections
9
Q
Two common roles for private-sector inspectors
A
- An inspector whom a co. employs
2. An inspector an insurance or underwriting co. employs
10
Q
NFPA 1031 separates the duties of an inspector into three levels
A
Level I
Level II
Level III
11
Q
Categories of Inspections (7)
A
- Annual
- Issuance of a permit
- Response to a complaint
- Eminent hazard
- New construction
- Change in occupancy
- Owner occupant request
12
Q
Court order prohibiting a person or business from continuing a particular course of conduct
A
Cease-and-Desist order
13
Q
Procedures when performing an inspection (11)
A
- Be easily identifiable
- State the reason for the inspection
- Invite the building owner to accompany the inspector
- Other local authorities may participate in an inspection
- Follow a written inspection procedure
- Seek an administrative warrant if denied entry
- Issue a stop-work or cease-and-desist order for extremely hazardous conditions
- Have guidelines for issuing a stop-work order
- All licenses and permits allow periodic inspections throughout the duration of the license or permit
- Must be trained in applicable laws, codes, standards & ordinances
- Maintain a reliable record keeping system of inspections
14
Q
Codes military bases follow
A
Unified Facility Criteria (UFC), portions of the International Fire Code (IFC) & NFPA
15
Q
Local jurisdictions may adopt state/provincial laws by way of two methods
A
by Reference or by Enabling act
16
Q
Most important laws to the inspector is …
A
the Enabling legislation that establishes the municipal fire dept
17
Q
Inspectors may be authorized to … (5)
A
- Arrest or detain individuals
- Issue a summons
- Issue a citation
- File complaints for code violations
- Issue warrants
18
Q
Inspectors are not held liable for…
A
Discretionary Acts
19
Q
To indemnify the inspector means…
A
the AHJ assumes responsibility for any claims against the individual
20
Q
Inspectors who take on a special duty or obligation to a person …
A
can be held liable
21
Q
Property owners have the right under the ___ and the ___ Amendments to the US constitution to refuse admittance to an inspector unless proper legal instrument or warrant to enter the premises has been obtained
A
Fourth and Fourteenth Amendments
22
Q
Form that eliminates questions regarding the original authorization to enter and perform an inspection
A
Consent-to-enter form
23
Q
Codes regulate (4)
A
- Construction Materials
- Designs
- Occupant behavior
- Processes
24
Q
A set of principals, protocols or procedures that is developed by a committee through a consensus process
A
A Standard
25
A collection or compilation of rules and regulations enacted by a legislative body to become law in a particular jurisdiction
A Code
26
Building and fire codes or standards may be classified in two ways
- Prescriptive
| - Performance based
27
Addresses one broad topic
Code
28
Based on requirements described in standards
Code
29
May be amended
Code
30
Have the force of law when adopted
Code
31
Addresses one specific topic
Standard
32
Establishes design, behavior, and installation criteria
Standard
33
Become law only when adopted
Standard
34
Developed through a consensus process
Standard
35
Underwriters Laboratories Inc. founded in...
1894
36
Two model code orgs. and one in Canada
- Canadian Commission on Building and Fire Codes (CCBFC)
- International Code Council (ICC)
- National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
37
Typical lifecycle of a model code edition
3 to 5 years
38
Primary goal of all municipal agencies
Public Safety
39
Process for developing or amending local codes (5)
- Identify the problem
- Identify affected stakeholders
- Forming a code development task force
- Drafting the proposed code
- Submitting the code for legal review prior to adoption
40
First step in any code or amendment development process
Identifying the problem
41
Stakeholders in the model code adoption process (5)
- Insurance agency
- Elected officials
- Building industry
- Chamber of commerce
- Citizen groups
42
Most effective way to adopt a code change or amendment
Explain the benefits the new code will bring
43
Days until new codes become effective and are enforced
90 days, can be reduced to 30 day in an emergency
44
Code adoption and amendment process (7)
1. Set up the code adoption committee
2. Public comments
3. Committee deliberates on new code and public comments
4. Committee provides written document with recommendations
5. Code official develops official document
6. Council provides documents to and hear testimony from the public
7. Council adopts new rules with modifications
45
How many members on a Board of Appeals?
3 to 7 members
46
Time limit for submitting an appeal
7 to 30 days from the time of the inspection
47
Primary goal of all fire-prevention code activities
Compliance
48
Due process clauses are in what two US Constitution Amendments?
Fifth and Fourteenth Amendments
49
Actions that can be taken to ensure code compliance (in order (4))
1. Notification
2. Follow-up inspection
3. Sanction
4. Prosecution
50
Suggestions regarding courtroom procedure and behavior
- Provide evidence
- Review all files and notes
- Resist attempts to modify testimony
- Appear in proper uniform
- Confine testimony to the facts
- Remain impartial
- Limit information provided to only that which is necessary
- Make responses as brief as possible
- If unable to answer then say so
- Ensure that all physical evidence has been reviewed by the prosecutor
- Answer all questions factually and truthfully
- Anticipate personal attacks
- Never become argumentative
51
Two types of permits
Operational and Construction
52
Permits that relate to fire and life safety (5)
- Maintenance, storage, or use of hazardous products
- Hazardous operations
- Installation of equipment
- Open burning
- Large-area tents
53
Permit process (4)
1. Application
2. Review
3. Issuance
4. Expiration
54
Primary duty of a fire inspector
To ensure the life safety of both citizens and fire/emergency responders
55
A fuels potential energy is released in combustion and converted to ...
Kinetic energy
56
Fire tetrahedron (4)
- Fuel
- Heat
- Oxygen
- Self-sustained chemical reaction
57
Type of fuel tag does not contain carbon
Inorganic fuel
58
Type of fuel that does contain carbon
Organic fuel
59
Characteristics of liquid fuels that contribute to their ability to ignite and burn (6)
- Vaporization (atmospheric pressure = 14.7psi)
- Vapor pressure
- Flash point (non-sustained combustion)
- Flammable/Combustable liquid
- 100F = combustable
- Surface area
- Solubility
60
Materials can burn in oxygen levels as low as ...
14%
61
Energy exists in two states:
Potential and Kinetic
62
Temperature is a measurement of ...
Kinetic energy
63
Flammable range of CO
12% - 75%
64
Flammable range of Methane
5 -15%
65
Flammable range of Propane
2.1 - 9.5%
66
Flammable range of Gasoline
1.4-7.4%
67
Two forms of ignition
- Piloted
| - Autoignition
68
Temperature conversion formula C to F
F = (Cx1.8) + 32
69
Temperature conversion formula F to C
C = (F - 32)/1.8
70
Heat energy usually comes from...(5)
- Chemical
- Mechanical
- Electrical
- Nuclear
- Light
71
Most common sources of energy that result in the ignition of fuel (3)
- Chemical
- Electrical
- Mechanical
72
Most common source of heat in combustion reactions
Chemical heat reaction
73
When a material increases in temperature without the addition of external heat
Self-heating or spontaneous heating
74
For spontaneous ignition to occur the following conditions must be met (3)
- Heat cannot dissipate as fast as its being generated
- Heat production must be great enough to raise the temp of material to its ignition point
- Air supply around materials must be adequate to support combustion
75
Electrical heat can occur in several ways (4)
- Resistance heating
- Overcurrent or overload
- Arcing
- Sparking
76
Rate at which most materials chemical reactions occur doubles with each ___ F increase in temperature of the reacting materials
18F
77
As temperature of the heat source increases, the radiant energy increases by a factor to the ____ power. Doubling the temperature increases radiant heat by a factor of ____.
- Fourth power
| - Sixteen
78
Materials that absorb heat but do not participate actively in the combustion reaction.
Passive agent
79
Thermal conductivity (greatest to least) (4)
- Copper
- Steel
- Concrete
- Wood
80
Fourth method for heat transfer
Direct flame contact (combination of conduction and radiation)
81
Complete combustion of Methane results in (4)
- Heat
- Light
- Water vapor
- Carbon dioxide
82
Three of the more common products of combustion
- Carbon Monoxide (CO)
- Hydrogen Cyanide (HCN)
- Carbon Dioxide (CO2)
83
Classes of fires (5)
- A
- B
- C
- D
- K
84
Stages of fire development (4)
- Incipient
- Growth
- Fully developed
- Decay
85
Factors influencing development of a fuel-controlled fire (6)
- Mass and surface area
- Chemical content
- Fuel moisture
- Orientation
- Continuity
86
During the growth stage of a compartment fire the fire exhibits a variety of traits (4)
- Thermal layering
- Isolated flames
- Rollover
- Flashover
87
The interface of hot and cool-gas layers at the opening is commonly referred to as ...
Neutral plane
88
Flashover temperature range
Appx. 900 - 1200F
89
Two interrelated factors determine weather a fire in a compartment will progress to flashover
- Fuel must have sufficient heat energy
| - Fire must have sufficient oxygen
90
Fire is termed this when at the fully developed stage
Ventilation controlled
91
Factors influence fire development within a compartment (7)
- Fuel type
- Availability of fuels
- Compartment volume and ceiling height
- Ventilation
- Thermal properties of the compartment
- Ambient conditions
- Effects of changing conditions
92
Most fundamental fuel characters influencing fire development are ... (2)
- Mass
| - Surface area
93
6 factors influence the availability and location of additional fuels
- Building configuration
- Contents of the building
- Construction of the building
- Construction/interior finish materials
- Fuel proximity and continuity
- Fire location
94
Firefighters influence fire behavior by doing one or more of the following actions (5)
- Reducing temps
- Eliminating fuel
- Separating the fire from available fuel
- Changing the oxygen concentrations
- Interrupting the self sustained chemical reaction
95
Most effective method available for the extinguishment of a smoldering fire
The use of water
96
Water expands ...
1700 times
97
Composed of only noncombustible or limited combustible materials and provides the highest level of safety
Type I
98
Composed of building materials that will not contribute to fire development or spread
Type II
99
Exterior walls constructed of noncombustible materials and interior elements constructed of any material permitted by the code
Type III
100
Heavy timber construction
- Type IV
- Large dimension lumber greater then 4" for all structural elements
- Materials not made of wood must have a fire-resistance rating of at least 1 hour
101
Wood frame construction
Type V
102
National Building Code of Canada has three types of building construction
- Combustible construction
- Noncombustible construction
- Heavy timber construction
103
Occupancy classifications (12)
- Assembly
- Business
- Educational
- Day Care
- Factory/Industrial
- Institutional
- Mercantile
- Residential
- Residential Board and care
- Storage
- Utility/Misc
- Multiple
104
Assembly Class A
Occupant loads over 1000
105
Assembly Class B
Occupant loads of 301 to 1000
106
Assembly Class C
Occupant loads of 50 to 300
107
Educational Occupancies
- Used for purposes of educating 6 or more persons from preschool to 12th grade
- Meets for more than 4 hrs a day or more than 12 hrs in a week
- One person for every 20 sq/ft
108
NFPA classifies manufacturing and processing facilities as industrial occupancies with three subdivisions
- General purpose
- Special purpose
- High hazard
109
Evacuation capabilities of a residential board and care occupancy are properly classified as ... (3)
- Slow
- Prompt
- Impractical
110
Residential occupancies are subdivided into 5 categories
- One and two family dwelling
- Lodging or rooming house
- Hotel
- Dormitory
- Apartment
111
ICC subdivides Mixed Use (3)
- Accessory (limited to 10% of the area, <750sqft not included)
- Non-separate (w/ two or more uses)
- Separate
112
Three or more independently attached dwellings w/ cooking and bathroom
Apartment building
113
Sleeping accommodations are provided to 16 or more persons who are not related and w/o cooking facilities
Dormitory
114
Any building or group of building that provides sleeping rooms for transients
Hotel
115
24 hour accommodations for 16 or fewer individuals w/o cooking
Lodging
116
Compressive strength parallel to the wood grain
325 to 1,850 psi
117
Moisture content od structural lumber
19% or less
118
Wood products for construction use take the following specific foms
- Solid lumber
- Laminated members
- Panels
- Manufactured members
119
Nominal thickness of boards
2" or less
120
Nominal thickness of dimension lumber
- 2" - 4"
- 8' - 16' in 2' increments
- 24' rafters
121
Nominal thickness of timbers
5" or more
122
Depths and lengths of Glulam beams
- 3" - 75"
| - 100' length
123
Panel span rating of 32/16
Rafters 32" apart, joists 16" apart
124
Two main methods of fire retardant treatment of wood
- Pressure impregnation
| - Surface coating
125
Types of concrete (6)
- Ordinary stone
- Structural lightweight
- Insulating lightweight
- Gypsum
- High early strength
- Expansive
126
Superplasticizer
An admixture used with concrete to produce a mixture that flows more freely
127
Percent of carbon content in steel and cast iron (2)
- Steel = 0.3%
| - Cast iron = 3-4%
128
Steel column encased in 3' of concrete with a siliceous aggregate would have a fire resistance rating of ...
4 hours
129
Intumescent coatings that expand when exposed to heat have fire resistance rating up to ...
3 hours
130
Melting point of aluminum
1,220F
131
Types of glass (5)
- Ordinary, single strengthen annealed
- Heat strengthened (surface compression 3,500-10,000psi)
- Fully tempered (surface compression >10,000psi)
- Laminated
- Glass block
132
Types of glass that are suitable where fire resistance is required (2)
- Wired glass (.24" thick, max 1,296sq", 45min rating, doors w/ 90min rating require max size of 100sq"
- Fire rated glass (45 min and 90 min available)
133
Fire resistance ratings of gypsum board
1 - 4 hr
134
Types of gypsum board (7)
- Regular
- Water resistant
- Type X
- Type C
- Foil backed
- Gypsum backed
- Coreboard
135
Plastics with low flammability are subject to deterioration and may evolve toxic gases at temps above ...
500F
136
Common cast-in-place concrete systems (3)
- Flat slab
- Slab and beam
- Waffle construction
137
Beam and girder frames can be classified as ... (3)
- Rigid
- Semirigid
- Simple
138
Two commonly encountered applications of the basic steel truss
- Open web joist (depths up to 6', span up to 144')
| - Joist girder
139
Steel rigid frames usually are used for spans from __to __.
40' - 200'
140
Steel arches can be constructed to span distances in excess of ...
300'
141
Bridge cables have strengths as high as ...
300,000 psi
142
Most common column cross sections (3)
- Hollow cylinder
- Rectangular tube
- Wide flange
143
Non-rieinforced masonry walls limited to a maximum height of around ..
6 stories
144
Reinforced masonry buildings with load bearing walls built to a height of ...
20 stories with 10" thick walls
145
Walls constructed with fire rated concrete masonry units or bricks can have fire-resistance ratings of...
2 - 4hrs
146
Two basic types of wood framing
- Timber framing (Type IV)
| - Light wood (Type V)
147
Heavy timber minimum column and beam dimensions
- Column = 8"x8"
| - Beams = 6"x10"
148
Post and Beam construction typical post dimensions (2)
- 4"x4", 6"x6"
| - Posts spaced 4' - 12'
149
Two basic types of light wood framing
- Balloon
| - Platform (western framing)
150
Exterior walls of a wood frame building include the following (3)
- Sheathing
- Siding material
- Insulation
151
Types of walls (6)
- Fire walls
- Party walls
- Fire partitions
- Enclosure and shaft walls
- Curtain Walls
- Movable partitions
152
Resistance rating of a Fire wall
2 or more hours
| Highest rating is 4 hours
153
Fire wall with a 4 hr rating will have a fire door rated at ___ on each side of the wall
3 hrs
154
Resistance rating of of a Fire partition is typically rated at ...
1 Hr
155
Fire barriers can have a fire resistance rating of ___ to ___
1 to 4 hrs
156
1/2'' gypsum applied to each side of a 2''x4'' stud the partition would have a fire rating of ...
1 hr
157
Enclosure walls have a fire resistance aging of___ or___
1 or 2 hours
158
Movable partitions are usually not fire resistive although fire resistive movable partitions are available with rating of___or___
1 or 2 hrs
159
Primary function of a roof
Protection from weather
160
Building roofs can be broadly classified into three categories
Flat, pitched, curved
161
Truss span lengths run from___to over___feet
10 to 60 feet
162
Asphault shingles are fundamentally combustable, they tend to drip and run under fire conditions and produce...
A heavy black smoke
163
Three methods of steel structural support systems
- Open web joists (bar joists) or trusses
- Steel beams
- Light gauge steel joists
164
Minimum dimensions of floor decking and their supporting beams in Type IV
- 3'' thick plank with a 1'' finished flooring
| - 6''x10'' beam
165
Two classes of finished floors
- Class I (can withstand higher temps)
| - Class II
166
Minimum stairway rise and run dimensions
4'' to 7'' rise and 11'' run
167
Each successive step cannot differ in size more than ...
3/8''
168
Types of stairways typically considered when assessing stairways as a means of egress (5)
- Protected Stairs (1 or 2 hr rating)
- Exterior stairs
- Fire escape
- Smokeproof stair enclosure (active/passive smoke control)
- Unprotected stairs (connect only 2 adjacent floors, "access" or "convenience stairs")
169
Five types of doors
- Swinging
- Sliding (not allowed as a part of egress)
- Folding
- Vertical
- Revolving (swinging door within 10', collapse wings 130 lbs.)
170
Three methods of classifying fire doors
1. Hourly fire-protection rating (4, 3, 1 1/2, 1, 3/4, and 1/3 hour)
2. Alphabetical letter designation (no longer used) (A - E)
3. Combination of hour and letter
171
Primary test criterion for acceptability of fire doors
If the door remains in place
172
Smooth galvanized sheet metal is used on wood-core door is known as ...
Kalamein Door
173
Fire doors with rating of 3, 1 1/2, and 3 hours can have glass panels up to ...
100 sq inches
174
Fire doors with a rating of 3/4 hours can have a total area of glass consistent with its rating but no piece of glass can exceed ...
1,296 sq inches
175
Devices that operate fire doors are listed as ... (3)
- Fire door closers
- Electromagnetic door holders
- Door operating devices
176
Oldest and simplest detection device
Fusible link
177
Types of windows (8)
- Double hung (2 sashes, can move past each other)
- Single hung (lower sash)
- Casement (swing out)
- Horizontal sliding
- Awning (top hinged/outward-swinging)
- Jalousie (4'' wide glass louvers)
- Projecting (slides up/down in grooves)
- Pivoting (pivots horz/vert)
178
Doors, door/window frames, chair railings, wainscotings, paint thicker then 1/28''
defined as interior finishes
179
Hanging fabric materials, drapes, curtains, paint no thicker then 1/28''
Are not treated as interior finishes
180
Flame and smoke spread rating of Red Oak
100 during a 10 min test
181
Maximum flame spread rating allowed
200
182
Types of fire-retardant coatings (4)
- Intumescent
- Mastics
- Gas-forming paints
- Cementitous and mineral-fiber coatings
183
Elevator hoistways and doors are required to be fire-rated assemblies with ___or___ hour rating
1 or 2 hour
184
Common types of hoistways (3)
- Single
- Multiple (limited to no more then 4)
- Blind (doors are provided for rescue every 3 floors)
185
HVAC systems over a certain capacity, usually 2,000 sq3 feet/min be provided with ...
Internal dust smoke detectors
186
Most common cooling method for transformers (2)
- Air-cooled transformers
| - Oil-cooled or oil-filled transformers
187
Lead-acid batteries contain (2)
- Sulfuric acid
| - Metallic lead
188
Three basic elements of of an egress system
- Exit access
- Exit
- Exit discharge
189
A public way must have a minimum width and height of ...
10 ft
190
Horizontal exits may be substituted for other exits if they do not compose more then ___% of the total exit capacity of the building
50%
191
Two of the most important life safety functions of doors
1. Act as a barrier to the movement of smoke and fire
| 2. Serve as a component of a means of egress
192
Doors serving as a means of egress must be at least ___ in. wide and no more then ___ in. wide
36" and 48"
193
Force required to cause the latch to operate on panic hardware and fore required to set the door in motion (2)
- 15 lbs
| - 30 lbs
194
Required width of stairs in multistoried buildings
44''; 36'' if occupant load is less then 50
195
Landings must be provided so that no flights of stairs are greater then___ft.
12 ft
196
The stairway door must have a 1 hour rating when used in a ___ hr rater enclosure and a 1 1/2 hour rated door when used in a ___ hr rated enclosure.
- 1 hour
| - 2 hour
197
Ramps must be at least 44" wide with a max slope of ___ and a max distance between landings of ___ft
- 1 to 12
| - 30 ft
198
Fire escape slides must have a rated capacity of ___
60 persons
199
Emergency lighting must be ___ foot-candle for ___ min.
- 1 foot
| - 90 minutes
200
Letter on exit signs must be at least ____ in. high with individual letter strokes ____ in. wide
- 6 inches high
| - 3/4 inches wide
201
Responsible for calculating the occupancy load
Inspectors
202
Formula for determining Occupant Load
Occupant Load = Net Floor Area / Area per Person (factor)
203
To determine the required width for a means of egress ___ in. is multiplied per person for stairways and ___ in. is multiplied per person for ramps or level exits components
- 0.3 inches for stairways
| - 0.2 inches for ramps and level exit components
204
Minimum number of exits for:
- 500 or less
- More then 500
- At 1000
- 2 exits
- 3 exits
- 4 exits
205
When more then one exit is required for a building this rule is applied
One-half Diagonal Rule - requires that exits be located not less then one-half the length of the overall diagonal dimension of the room of building area
206
Define - Dead-end corridor
A corridor that has no outlet to egress and is more than 20' in length
207
5 steps in determining the means of egress requirements
1. Determine the occupant load
2. Determine clear width of each component
3. Determine egress capacity of each component
4. Determine most restrictive capacity of each route
5. Determine if egress capacity is sufficient
208
Four components of an effective public water supply
- Water supply source
- Treatment or processing facilities
- Means of moving the water
- Distribution system
209
Ocean water is ___ times saltier then freshwater
220 times saltier
210
Three methods of moving water
- Gravity
- Direct pumping
- Combination system
211
Water distribution system consists of three types of water mains loosely referred to as ...
- Primary feeders (16'' - 72''
- Secondary feeders (12'' - 14'')
- Distributors (6'' - 8'')
212
How often valves be exercised
Once a year
213
Valve spacing (2)
- 500' in high value districts
| - 800' in other areas
214
To open a dry barrel hydrant turn the stem in this direction
Counterclockwise
215
Hydrant specification require a ___ in. valve opening for standard three-way hydrant and a ___ in. connection to the water main.
- 5 inch valve
| - 6 inch connection
216
How often Hydrants should be inspected
At least twice a year
217
Crome yellow hydrant indicates
Municipal hydrant
218
Red hydrant
Private hydrant
219
Violet hydrant
Nonpotable water
220
Class and fire flow of a red hydrant
Class C, 500 or less
221
Class and fire flow of a orange hydrant
Class B, 500-999
222
Class and fire flow of a green hydrant
Class A, 1000-1499
223
Class and fire flow of a blue hydrant
Class AA, 1500 or greater
224
Private water supply distribution systems exist for three purposes
- Fire protection
- Sanitary and fire protection
- Fire protection and manufacturing
225
Typical suction tank capacity and range (2)
- 5,000 - 1,000,000 gal.
| - Typical is 100,000 - 300,000 gal.
226
Pressure tank capacity range
3,000 - 9,000 gal
227
Water tank 100' high will generate a pressure of ...
43 psi
228
Gravity tank capacity range
5,000 - 500,000 gal.
229
When flow tests should be conducted (3)
- After extensive water main improvements
- Following the construction of line extensions
- At least every 5 years
230
The clearance between the bottom of the butt (discharge outlet) of a hydrant and the grade should be at least ___ in
15 inches
231
Formula for finding GPM in a fire-flow hydrant test
GPM = (29.83) x Cd x d2 x √P
- Cd = Coefficient of discharge
- d = Actual diameter of the hydrant orifice
- P = Pressure in psi
232
Minimum required residual pressure
20psi
233
Flow hydrant is located ___ from the test hydrant
Downstream
234
Reduced water flow may be the result of one or more of the following (7)
- Encrustations
- Sedimentation deposits
- Malfunctioning valves
- Malfunctioning pipes
- malfunctioning pumps
- Foreign matter other then deposits
- Increased friction loss
235
Two ways to compute fire flow test results
- Graphical analysis
| - Mathematical computation
236
Hazen-Williams formula
Qr = (Qf x h2^.54) / hf^.54
- Qr = Flow available at desired residual pressure
- Qf = Flow during test
- hr = Pressure drop to residual pressure
- hf = Pressure drop during test
237
Fire protection systems are divided into two broad categories
- Systems that detect hazards
| - Systems that control hazards
238
Four basic types of automatic sprinklers
- We-pipe
- Dry-pipe
- Deluge
- Preaction
239
Six variations of the four basic types of sprinklers
- Antifreeze
- Circulating closed loop
- Combined dry-pipe and pre action
- Gridded (Parallel cross mains)
- Looped (Interconnected cross mains)
- Multicycle (turns on and off)
240
Four common types of indicating control valves
- Outside stem and yoke (OS&Y)
- Post indicator valve (PIV)
- Wall post indicator valve (WPIV)
- Post indicator valve assembly (PIVA) (butterfly valve)
241
The arrangement of pipes is based on one of two methods
- Pipe schedule tables
| - Hydraulic calculations
242
Sprinkler head designed to cover a 20' x 20' area
Extended coverage (EC)
243
Sprinkler head designed to direct 40% - 60% of its discharge in a downward direction
Old style or conventional
244
Sprinklers may be installed as follows (6)
- Concealed
- Flush
- Pendant
- Recessed
- Sidewall
- Upright
245
Detection and activation devices (5)
- Sprinkler activation (most common)
- Specific application sprinkler
- Electronic heat detector
- Water flow alarm
- Manually activated system
246
Systems designed in accordance with NFPA 13D must have a minimum of ___ minutes of water supply
10 minutes
247
NFPA 13R requires a minimum supply of ___ minutes
30 minutes
248
Minimum flow rate for a residential sprinkler
18 gpm
249
Spacing for sprinklers in a residential is a max of ___sq ft and spacing between sprinklers is a max of ___ft
- 144 sq ft
| - 12 ft
250
Minimum pipe size in a residential system
1/2"
251
Mist systems are designed to protect lives and property by extinguishing ...
Class A & B fires
252
Three basic pressure ranges for mist systems
- Low pressure (≤175psi)
- Intermediate (175 - 500psi)
- High pressure (≥500psi)
253
Foam-water systems produce a thin foam solution that is expanded __ to ___ times when discharged
6 to 8 times
254
Types of foam used in Foam-water systems (3)
- Protein
- Fluoroprotein
- AFFF
255
Class I standpipe
Firefighters; 2 1/2 outlets minimum flow rate 500gpm
256
Class II Standpipe
Trained building occupant; 1 1/2" hose, nozzle, rack; minimum flow of 100gpm
257
Class III standpipe
Combination; 2 1/2" & 1 1/2"; minimum flow rate 500gpm
258
5 types of standpipe systems
- Automatic-wet
- Automatic-dry
- Semiautomatic-dry
- Manual-dry
- Manual-wet
259
Most desirable type of standpipe
Automatic-wet with and automatic water supply
260
Minimum riser diameter for class I &III standpipes in buildings
4"
261
Minimum riser diameter for class I &III standpipes in buildings >100'
6"; top 100' of building can have 4" riser
262
Minimum riser diameter for class II standpipes in buildings
2"
263
Minimum riser diameter for class II standpipes in buildings >50'
2 1/2"; buildings over 275' must be divided into sections
264
Current practice is to locate standpipes so that any part of a floor is within ___ feet of the standpipe
130'
265
Required to have a 2 1/2" outlet on roof if any of the following three situations are present
- Combustable roof
- Combustable structure or equipment on roof
- Exposure that present a fire hazard
266
Pressure regulating devices (3)
- Pressure-restricting (not preferred)
- Pressure-control (preferred; most reliable)
- Pressure-reducing (preferred)
267
Height to which a fire engine can effectively supply water
450'
268
5 major types of centrifugal pimps
- Horizontal split-case (most common)
- Vertical split-case
- Vertical inline
- Vertical turbine
- End suction
269
A column of water 2.304' high will exert ___psi
1 psi
270
Three types of pump drivers
- Electric motor (most common)
- Diesel engine (tested weekly for 30 min)
- Steam turbine
271
The pressure at which the pressure switch is set to start the fire pump must be ___ than the pressure in the system
Higher
272
Four opportunities to review, inspect and witness tests to water based fire suppression systems
- Plans review
- Construction phase
- Acceptance test
- During the life of the system
273
During construction some codes require operational standpipes for structures that are ___ stories in height or greater
4 stories
274
In wet pipe systems all areas containing sprinkler piping must have temps greater than
40 degrees
275
The distortion of a material caused by the repeated heating of a fusible link to near it operating temp
Cold flow
276
A clearance of ___ to ___ should be maintained under sprinklers
18" to 36"
277
Water spray fixed system's response time
< 40 sec
278
Ultrahigh-speed water spray response time
< 100 milliseconds
279
Empty cylinders in water mist systems must be hydrostatically tested prior to recharging if its been more than ___ years since its last test
5 years
280
Full cylinders in water mist systems must be discharged and hydrostatically tested every ___ years
12 years
281
Dry-pipe standpipe systems are hydrostatically tested every ___ years
5 years
282
Private water supply systems should be flow tested at a minimum of every ___ years
5 years
283
Private hydrants tested
Annually
284
Types of special-agent fire extinguishing systems (5)
- Dry chemical
- Wet chemical
- Clean agent
- Foam
- Carbon dioxide
285
Two methods for application of Dry chemical
- Fixed system
| - Handheld hoseline
286
Types of Dry chemical agents (3)
- Sodium bicarbonate
- Potassium bicarbonate
- Monoammonium phosphate
287
Class D agents (3)
- NA-X (up to 1400 degrees)
- MET-L-X (salt)
- LITH_X
288
NFPA 17 recommended Dry chemical inspection frequency
Semiannually
289
Fusible links on dry chemical systems should be replaced ...
Annually
290
Dry chemical agent storage cylinders less then 150 lbs should be hydrostatically tested every __ years
12 years
291
Clean agent fire extinguishing systems effective in what classes of fire
A, B, & C
292
Clean agent storage containers myst be hydrostatically tested every...
5 years
293
Carbon dioxid total flooding systems are designed to deliver at least ___% concentration of CO2 into an enclosed area
34%; lethal concentrations to humans
294
Three means of actuation for CO2 systems
- Automatic operation
- Normal manual operation
- Emergency manual operation
295
2 types of CO2 systems
- High pressure; 850 psi
| - Low pressure; 300 psi
296
Foam extinguishes a fire by one or more of four methods
- Smothering
- Separating
- Cooling
- Suppressing
297
Five types of foam fire extinguishing systems
- Fixed
- Semifixed type A (not attached to permeant source of foam)
- Semifixed type B (Foam hydrant)
- High expansion
- Foam-water
298
Device that introduces the correct amount of foam concentrate and water into the water stream
Foam proportioner
299
Four elements are need to produce high quality fire fighting foam
- Foam
- Water
- Air
- Mechanical agitation
300
Two stages of foam formation
1. Proportioning stage
| 2. Aeration
301
Foams used at 1% to 6% are for ...
Hydrocarbons
302
Foams used at 3% or 6% are for ...
Polar solvents
303
Expansion rates for low, medium and high expansion foams
- Low = 7:1 to 20:1
- Med = 20:1 to 200:1
- High = 200:1 to about 1,000:1
304
Foam concentrate types (5)
- Fluoroprotein
- Film forming fluoroprotein (FFFP)
- Aqueous film forming foam (AFFF)
- Alcohol-resistant aqueous film forming foam (AR-AFFF)
- Med and High expansion foams
305
Types of foam proportioners (4)
- Balanced pressure proportioner (most reliable)
- Around the pump proportioner (most common)
- Pressure proportioning tank system
- Coupled water motor-pump proportioner
306
Class A extinguisher ratings ranges tests
- 1-A through 40-A
| - Tested on wood cribs, wood panels, excelsior
307
Class B extinguisher ratings range
1-B through 640-B
308
Common fire extinguishing agents and extinguishers (6)
- Water
- CO2
- Foam
- Dry chemical
- Wet chemical
- Clean agent
309
Types of fire extinguishers (3)
- Stored pressure
- Cartridge-operated
- Pump-operated
310
Obsolete extinguishers (5)
- Inverted-type
- Soldered or riveted shell soda-acid
- Chemical foam
- Cartridge-operated water
- Loaded stream
311
Maximum travel distance to extinguisher (except for Class K)
75 ft
312
Maximum travel distance to Class K extinguisher
30 ft
313
Top mounted height for extinguisher < 40 lbs
Not > 5ft and not < 4" from the floor
314
Top mounted height for extinguisher > 40 lbs
Not > 3 1/2 ft and not < 4" from the floor
315
NFPA 10 recommends extinguisher inspection be performed ...
Monthly
316
Two most significant factors in preventing large losses due to fire
- Early detection
| - Signaling of appropriate alarm
317
Secondary power systems must make the fire detection and alarm system fully functional within ___ seconds of main power failure
30 seconds
318
4 basic types of automatic alarm initiating devices
- Detect heat (fixed temp & rate of rise)
- Smoke
- Flame
- Fire gases
319
Oldest type of heat detection divide still in service, inexpensive, least prone to false activations, slowest to activate
Fixed temperature heat detector
320
Temperature rating for Uncolored heat detectors (2)
- Low = 100-134
| - Ordinary = 135-174
321
Temperature rating for White heat detector
Intermediate = 175-249
322
Temperature rating for Blue heat detector
High = 250-234
323
Temperature rating for Red heat detector
Extra High = 235-399
324
Temperature rating for Green heat detector
Very Extra High = 400-499
325
Temperature rating for Orange heat detector
Ultra High = 500-575
326
Two types of continuous-line heat detectors
- Tubing Type
| - Wire Type
327
All rate of rise heat detectors automatically reset. Styles of rate of rise detectors (4)
- Pneumatic rate of rise line heat detectors (max 1000')
- Pneumatic rate of rise spot heat detectors
- Rate comparison heat detectors
- Electronic spot type heat detector
328
Percent of fire deaths attributed to smoke inhalation
65%
329
Two types of smoke detectors
- Photoelectric
| - Ionization
330
Three types of flame detectors
- Detect ultraviolet
- Detect infrared
- Detect IR and UV
331
Pull stations should be no higher then ___ and no lower then ___ from the floor
- No higher then 4 1/2 feet
| - No lower then 3 1/2 feet
332
Travel distance to a pull station should not exceed ...
200'
333
NFPA 72 requires that pull stations be located within ___ feet of every exit
5 feet
334
Five major types of alarm systems
- Protected premises
- Auxiliary fire alarm
- Proprietary
- Central station
- Remote receiving
335
Two less common types of alarm systems
- Emergency voice alarm communications system
| - Parallel telephone system
336
Three basic types of local alarm systems
- Noncoded local (simplest type)
- Zoned/annunciated
- Addressable (most effective)
337
Most important part of the fire detection system
Fire alarm control panel (FACP)
338
Automatic alarm initiating devices should be checked ...(3)
- After install
- After a fire
- On a reoccurring schedule
339
Detector test records must be maintained for ...
5 years
340
Nonrestorable detectors are not required to be tested for ...
15 years; 2% removed for testing at that time
341
Fusible link detectors should have the link replaced every ...
5 years
342
Fire hazards are categorized into three areas
- Unsafe behavior
- Unsafe conditions
- Hazardous processes
343
Uncontained fires should not be allowed within ___ feet of a structure
50 ft
344
Open burning that might not require a permit (2)
- Salamander- type portable heater
| - Burning of construction debris
345
5 most common causes of electrical hazard fires
- Worn electrical equipment
- Improper use of electrical equipment
- Defective or improper electrical install
- Power surges
- Static electricity
346
Primary hazard of a lumberyard
High fuel load
347
Max height of a stack in a lumberyard
20 feet
348
Driveways through lumberyards must be spaced so that a maximum grid system of not more than ___ by ___ is produced
50' by 150'
349
"High-piled storage" is defined as high hazard commodities are stored over ___ ft in height and combustable materials are stored over ___ ft in height
- 6 ft
| - 12 ft
350
3 primary storage methods
- Pallet storage
- Rack storage
- Solid piling
351
Most critical item for an inspector to check
Automatic sprinkler system
352
Weeds and vegetation must be cleared within ___ ft of any tire pile
50 ft
353
Two main hazards at recycling facilities
- Bulk storage of combustable materials
| - Hazardous processes
354
Materials stored in building must not be stacked closer then ___ feet from the ceiling in buildings without sprinklers or at least ___ inches below the sprinkler
- 2 feet
| - 18 inches
355
Three processes used to to clean, disinfect and sanitize hazardous waste
- Steaming
- Microwaving
- Ozone sanitizing
356
The largest concern with incinerators
Hazardous waste
357
Two primary hazards of an HVAC system
- The heating appliances
| - The spread of fire and products of combustion
358
Three types of fuel usually used to fuel a boiler
- Natural gas
- Coal
- Oil
359
Class A refrigerants are not considered toxic and Class B refrigerants are considered toxic when exposed to concentrations less than ___ ppm
400 ppm
360
Cooking equipment must have a clearance of at least ___ in from any combustible material
18 inches
361
If a fusible link device controls the activation of the fire extinguishing system then the link should be replaced at least___
Annually
362
Frequency at which dry chemical cylinders that weigh less than 150 lbs should be hydrostatically tested
Every 12 years
363
Vegetation must be cleared in and around the tent up to ___ ft around the tent
10 feet
364
Primary fire hazard associated with oxy-fuel gas equipment
The storage of oxygen and fuel gases in cylinders
365
Where combustable materials are on the floor an area with a radius of ___ feet must be cleared before welding or cutting
35 feet
366
Two basic processes for coating fabricated products
- Fluid coating
| - Powder coating
367
Major causes of fire within powder coating processes
Static accumulations
368
Two types of quenching and associated temps/flash points
- Heated - 200F-400F / Flash pont = 500F
| - Unheated - 100F-200F / Flash point = 300F
369
Classification and flash points of cleaning solvents (5)
- Class I = < 100F
- Class II = ≥ 100F and < 140F
- Class IIIA = ≥ 140F and < 200F
- Class IIIB = ≥ 200
- Class IV = Nonflammable
370
A dry cleaning room must be separated from the rest of the building by partition with a fire rating with a ___ hr fire resistance rating
2 hour
371
Combustable dusts are categorized in the following three groups
- Group E = Metal dusts
- Group F = Volatile dusts containing more than 8% carbonaceous materials
- Group G = Flour, wood, grain, plastic, chemical
372
Combustable dusts comprise Class II Locations and include two divisions defined as:
- Class II, Division 1
- Class II, Division 2
- Division 1 = normal operating conditions
| - Division 2 = abnormal operating conditions
373
Subterranean tunnels ≥ 50' must have ...
Two means of egress as remote from one another as possible
374
Most common place for fires to occur in woodworking operations
Dust hogger
375
A portable fire extinguisher rated at ___ must be located within 25' of a tar kettle and if the kettle is being used for roofing an additional ___ extinguisher must be available
- 40-B:C
| - 3-A:40-B:C
376
A "clean room" is defined as one having less than ___ particles per cubic foot of air
100,000
377
Fire lanes must extend to within ___ feet of all portions of a building
150'
378
Minimum width and vertical clearance of a fire lane (2)
- 16'
| - 13.5'
379
Generally, and angle of __ degrees is necessary to allow an apparatus to drive onto the lane without striking the bumper or tailboard
8 degrees
380
"Dead-end" fire lanes and access roads are defined as
Those that extend > 150' from a public street or road
381
A dead-end fire lane or access road must conform to one of three types of turnarounds
- T or Hammerhead
- Cul-de-sac
- Alley dock
382
Two basic methods used to determine a flash point
- Open cup (10-15 degrees higher then closed cup)
| - Closed cup (considered more accurate)
383
Flash point below 100 degrees
Flammable liquid
384
Flash point above 100 degrees
Combustable liquid
385
Boiling point of cryogens
-130 degrees
386
Common cryogens (10)
- Nitrogen
- Oxygen
- Hydrogen
- Helium
- Argon
- Neon
- Krypton
- Xenon
- Liquified natural gas/Methane
- Carbon monoxide
387
Cryogen defined
A gas that is converted into a liquid by being cooled below -150 degrees
388
Ignition temp of a flammable solid
< 212 degrees
389
Two primary types of spontaneously combustable materials
- Pyrophoric (ignition after 5 min of contact with air)
| - Self-heating
390
Concentration of a given material that may be tolerated for an 8 hour exposure without ill effects
Threshold Limit Value (TLV)
391
Multiple routs of entry into the body (4)
- Ingestion
- Inhalation
- Injection
- Absorption (contact)
392
LD50
Ingested dose that was lethal to ≥ 50%
393
LC50
Concentration in air that was lethal to ≥ 50% when inhaled or absorbed
394
5 types of ionizing radiation
- Alpha (stopped by paper)
- Beta (stopped by thin aluminum)
- Gamma (Stopped by lead or concrete)
- X Ray (stopped by .08" of lead)
- Neutron (stopped by large mass of hydrogen rich materials)
395
7 things the SDS, formally known as Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS), will provide
- Hazardous ingredients
- Physical and chemical properties
- Physical and health properties
- Routes of exposure
- Precautions for safe handling
- Emergency response and first aid
- Control measures for the product
396
9 UN hazard classes
- Class 1 = Explosive
- Class 2 = Gases
- Class 3 = Flammable liquids
- Class 4 = Flammable solides
- Class 5 = Oxidizing
- Class 6 = Toxic and infectious
- Class 7 = Radioactive
- Class 8 = Corrosive
- Class 9 = Misc. dangerous
397
DOT label measures
3.9 inches square on point
398
Any material that is shipped in quantities ≥ ___ pounds must have a DOT placard
≥ 1001 lbs
399
Class 7 Radioactive I, II, III labels must always contain the following information (2)
- Isotope name
| - Radioactive activity
400
Orange DOT placard =
Explosive
401
Yellow DOT placard =
Oxidizer
402
Red DOT placard =
Flammable
403
White DOT placard =
Health hazard
404
Blue DOT placard =
Water reactive
405
Green DOT placard =
Nonflammable gas
406
Warning words indicating minor, moderate and high degrees of hazards (3)
- Caution = Minor health effects
- Warning = Moderate hazard
- Danger = Highest degree of hazard
407
Colored pages in ERG where 4 digit UN number is found
Yellow pages
408
Colored pages in ERG where name of material is found
Blue pages
409
Colored pages in ERG where initial action guide is found
Orange pages
410
Colored pages in ERG where initial isolation and protective actions are found
Green pages
411
Shape of caution symbols in Mexico
Triangle
412
Shape of caution symbols in Canada
Circle
413
Shape of caution symbols in USA
Rectangle
414
Spanish for Danger
Peligro
415
Spanish for cryogenic liquid
Liquido Criogenico
416
Three types of storage and transportation containers
- Fixed-site storage tanks
- Nonbulk packaging
- Bulk packaging
417
Pressures for aboveground Atmospheric, Low-pressure, and High-pressure storage tanks (3)
- Atmospheric tanks = 0 - .5 psi
- Low-pressure tank = .5 - 15 psi
- High-pressure vessel = greater than 15 psi
418
Minimum distance between tanks
3 ft
419
Minimum distances between tanks containing liquids classified as Class IA - IC, Class II, or Class IIIA
1/6 the sum of all tank diameters
420
Minimum distance between tanks containing unstable flammable or combustable liquids
1/2 the sum of all tank diameters
421
Minimum inside diameter of a vent
1 1/4"
422
Tanks must have at least one of the four following emergency relief valves
- Loose utility cover
- Rupture disk
- Weak seams between roof and shell
- Conventional emergency relief device
423
Commercial venting device should be stamped with (3)
- Operating pressure
- Pressure at which valve reached full-open position
- Flow capacity in ft3/hr
424
Three types of cryogenic containers
- Dewars
- Spherical
- Cylindrical
425
Underground tanks must vent a minimum ___feet above ground
12'
426
Nonbulk packaging is defined as a vessel used to store or transport liquids in quantities of ____ gal. or less
119 gal
427
Nonbulk packaging for storing flammable and combustable liquids (4)
- Glass
- Metal
- Polyethylene
- Safety can
428
Type A radioactive packaging (2)
- Low level commercial radioactivity
| - Cardboard boxes, wooden crates, metal drums, cylinders
429
Type B radioactive packaging (2)
- High grade raw materials, fissionable materials
| - Steel reinforced concrete, lead pipes, heavy gauge metal drums, combination of these materials
430
Types of packaging for radioactive materials (3)
- Strong, tight
- Excepted
- Industrial
431
Permanent magazine facility for the storage of explosive materials, sensitive to a no.8 blasting cap
Type 1 Magazine
432
Portable magazine facility used for outdoor or indoor storage of explosive storage of materials sensitive to a no.8 blasting cap
Type 2 Magazine
433
Magazine facility under the constant attendance of a qualified employee and secured with a five-tumbler pad lock
Type 3 Magazine
434
Magazine storage facility for explosives which are not bullet sensitive and will not mass detonate
Type 4 Magazine
435
Magazine storage facility for explosives classified as blasting agents
Type 5 Magazine
436
A magazine must be opened and inspected once every ___days
3 days
437
The ATF, PD and fire marshal must be notified within ___ hours when explosives are lost, stolen or removed without authorization
24 hours
438
Maximum net mass for bulk packaging
882 lbs
439
Minimum capacity of an International bulk container (IBC)
.45 cubic meters (15.9 ft3)
440
Maximum capacity of an International bulk container
3 cubic meters (106 ft3)
441
Tank cars are divided into three main categories
- Nonpressure
- Pressure
- Cryogenic liquid
442
Pressures for:
- Nonpressure liquid tank
- Low pressure chemical tank
- High pressure tank
- Cryogenic liquid tank
- Compressed gas/Tube trailer
- Dry bulk cargo tank
- Corrosive liquid tank
- Nonpressure liquid tank = 100 psi
| - Cryogenic liquid tank =
443
Tank container capacity
6340 gal
444
Powder kegs must be stored either (2)
- On end (bung down)
| - on the side (seam down)
445
How empty cylinders should be marked
With the word EMPTY or MT
446
If transporting over ___ pounds of flammable solids, required to have a DOT placard
1001 lbs
447
Vehicles transporting flammable solids must not be left unattended or driven within ___ feet of each other
300'
448
Consignee must remove explosives from airport terminal within ___ hours
48 hours
449
Plans review and permit process (6 steps)
1. Apply
2. Submit
3. Review
4. Change
5. Accept
6. Authorize
450
Two variations to the plans review process
- Fast-track
| - Phases
451
4 main views found on working drawings
- Plan
- Elevation
- Sectional
- Detailed
452
Large construction projects are usually divided into four basic areas
- Architectural
- Structural
- Mechanical
- Electrical
453
The process of listing the construction materials is referred to as ..
"Calling up" the materials
454
According to the NFPA the proper operation of sprinkler systems resulted in the extinguishment of fire ___% of the time
96%
455
The general elements reviewed in a plans review (7)
- Size of building
- Occupancy classification
- Occupant load
- Means of egress
- Exit capacity
- Building compartmentation
- Additional concerns
456
Two reasons why the inspector should visit the site during construction
- Verify code requirements are being met
| - Ensure fire and life safety requirements are being met
457
Enforcement occurs when inspectors perform the following 5 duties
- Inspect new and existing buildings
- Compute occupant loads
- Investigate complaints
- Evaluate emergency preparedness plans
- Review construction/renovation plans
458
Interpersonal skills can be summarized into three skills
1. Listening
2. Conversing
3. Persuading
459
A person only remembers ___% of what they hear 24 hours after they hear it and only ___% after 48 hours
- 50%
| - 25%
460
Listening constitutes ___% of a persons average day
42%
461
Listening consists of five components
- Attending
- Understanding
- Remembering
- Evaluating
- Responding
462
Listener's greatest distraction
Internal voice
463
Listening barriers (4)
- Information overload
- Personal concerns
- Outside distractions
- Prejudice
464
Communication model
- Sender
- Message
- Medium or Channel
- Receiver
- Interference
- Feedback
465
Monroe's Motivated Sequence Pattern (5)
- Attention
- Need
- Satisfaction
- Visualization
- Action
466
Personal space in US culture:
- Intimate
- Personal
- Social
- Public
- Intimate = 1.5'
- Personal = 4'
- Social = 12'
- Public = 25'
467
The first consideration of an inspector when conducting an inspection
Ensure the inspection is conducted safely
468
Minimum clearance between freestanding stoves and walls and ceilings
36"
469
Three general types of drawings used to show structure, facility, or site information
- Plot/Site plan
- Floor plan
- Elevation view
470
Secondary goal of the inspection
To build long-term relationships with the owner/occupant
471
Three key elements to an evacuation plan
- Evacuation routes
- Monitor duties
- Employee/occupant duties
472
Minimum number of emergency evacuation drills per year
2
473
Evacuation drill at health care facilities are conducted ...
Quarterly on each shift
474
Health care evacuation phase activities:
- Phase 1
- Phase 2
- Phase 3
- Phase 4
- Phase 1 = Single room
- Phase 2 = Entire zone of a building
- Phase 3 = Entire floor and zones above incident floor
- Phase 4 = Entire building
475
R E A C T
```
R = Remove
E = Ensure door is closed
A = Activate alarm
C = Call FD/PD
T = Try to extinguish
```
476
R A C E
```
R = Remove
A = Alert
C = Confine
E = Extinguish
```
477
A memo should contain one of three main communicative elements
- Direction
- Advice
- Information
478
Formal business letter has four basic parts
- Heading
- Opening
- Body
- Closing
479
Standard letter format for:
- Heading
- Date line
- Inside address
- Subject line
- Salutation
- Body
- Closing
- Heading - letterhead/logo
- Date line - 2 lines below heading
- Inside address - 4 spaces below date line
- Subject line - 2 lines below inside address/salutation
- Salutation -
- Body
- Closing
480
It is recommended that records be maintained on a building for ... (2)
- Its lifetime
| - ICC - kept 5 years after building is demolished
481
Adams vs. State of Alaska
State breached its duty of care by failing to abate fire hazards uncovered in a fire inspection of a hotel
482
Hazmat Awareness level role (3)
- Identify
- Call for emergency responders
- Get themselves and other out of danger
483
Most energetic and hazardous form of radiation
Ionizing radiation
484
Asphyxiants can be divided into two classes
- Simple asphyxiants (displace oxy)
| - Chemical asphyxiants (prevent body from using oxy)
485
Compound containing hydrogen that reacts with water to produce hydrogen ions; liquid compound with a pH less than 2; corrosive
Acid
486
Corrosive water-soluble compound; an alkaline (caustic) substance
Base
487
Two broad categories of corrosives
- Acid
| - Base (caustic, alkalis)
488
Simplest type of microorganism; can only replicate in living cells
Viral agent
489
Microscopic single-celled organism
Bacterial agent
490
Live and multiply in the gastrointestinal tract
Rickettsias
491
Poisons produced by living organisms
Biological toxin
492
Two most common types of mechanical hazards
- Striking
| - Friction
493
An explosion can trigger four hazards (3 mechanical, 1 thermal)
- Blast pressure wave (primary reason for injuries/damage)
- Shrapnel fragmentation
- Seismic effect
- Incendiary thermal effect
494
7 clues to the presence of hazardous materials
1. Location and occupancy
2. Container shapes
3. Transportation placards, label, markings
4. Other markings/colors
5. Written resources
6. Senses
7. Monitoring and detection devices
495
Safest of the 5 senses to use in the detection of a hazardous material
Vision
496
Symptoms of exposure to chemical warfare agents
| S L U D G E M
```
S = Salivation
L = Lacrimation
U = Urination
D = Deification
G = Gastrointestinal
E = Emesis
M = Moisis (pinpoint pupils) or Muscler twitching
```
497
CDC divided potential biological agents into three categories
- A (highest priority)
- B
- C
498
Vehicle bomb evacuation distances
- Compact sedan
- Full sedan
- Passanger/Cargo van
- Sm box van
- Box van or Water/fuel truck
- Semitrailer
- Compact sedan = 1,500ft
- Full sedan = 1,750ft
- Passanger/Cargo van = 2,750ft
- Sm box van = 3,750ft
- Box van or Water/fuel truck = 6,500ft
- Semitrailer = 7,000ft
499
80% to 90% of all in clandestine drug labs are assembled to produce ...
Meth
500
Two of the most common recipes to produce meth
- Red phosphorous (Red P)
| - Anhydrous ammonia (Nazi, Birch)
501
For every pound of meth produced ___ pounds of waste is produced
6 lbs
502
Protection goals at the awareness level (4)
- Identifying materials and relaying that info to responders
- Securing and isolating the scene
- Using and wearing appropriate PPE
- Taking measures to protect responders and the public
503
4 types of PPE used by awareness level personnel
- SCBA (demand; pressure demand; positive pressure)
- Escape respirator (15 min)
- Structure firefighting protective clothing
- Chemical protective clothing (CPC)
504
Ensamble provides the highest level of protection against vapors, gases, mists, and particles
Level A suit
505
Ensamble requires a garnet that includes an SCBA and provides protection against splashes
Level B suit
506
Ensamble is composed of a splash protection garnet and an air purifying respirator
Level C suit
507
Ensamble considered to be a typical work uniform
Level D
508
The best protective action in a hazmat situation
Evacuation
509
Protective action distance
Downwind distance from a hazmat incident
510
Initial isolation zone
Circular area within which persons may be exposed to dangerous concentrations
511
Initial isolation distance
Distance within which all persons are considered for evacuation
512
Protecting/defending in place is considered a ___ role
Offensive
513
C B R N E
```
C = Chemical
B = Biological
R = Radiological
N = Nuclear
E = Explosive
```
514
Thickened concrete panel that extends a minimum of 4" in all directions from the top of a column to provide support for the concrete slab
Drop panel
515
Site (plot) plan is usually one of the first sheets of a set of construction drawings and usually includes the following (8)
- North direction symbol
- Lot dimension
- Utility lines
- Contour lines
- Grade levels
- Structures to be removed
- Sidewalks, parking lots, and driveways
- Areas to be landscaped
516
Type of alarm designed to transmit both advisable and audible alarm only within the immediate premises.
Protected premises
517
Alarm that is connected to a municipal fire alarm system and transmitted over this system to a public fire telecommunications center.
Auxiliary fire alarm system
518
The receiving point for alarms in this type of alarm system is located outside the protected premise and is monitored by a contracted service.
Central station
519
Type of alarm system that is considered to be supplementary to another type of alarm with the purpose of providing a reliable communications system for residents and firefighters.
Emergency/voice alarm communications
520
Alarm system that consists of a dedicated telephone line between each individual alarm box or protected property and the fire department telecommunications center
Parallel Telephone
