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Human Disease > Gastroenterology and Renal Disorders > Flashcards

Gastroenterology and Renal Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

What type of medication eliminates formed acid?

A

Antacids

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2
Q

What are the 2 functions of medication for upper GI disease?

A

Eliminate formed acid
Reduce acid secretion

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3
Q

What medications reduce acid secretion?

A

H2 receptor blockers
Proton pump inhibitors

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4
Q

What are some examples of antacids?

A

Gaviscon
Rennie

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5
Q

How do H2 receptor antagonists work?

A

Reduce acid production by stopping histamine activation

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6
Q

What are the 2 most common H2 receptor antagonists?

A

Cimetidine
Ranitidine

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7
Q

What are some common proton pump inhibitors?

A

Omeprazole
Lansoprazole
Pantoprazole

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8
Q

How are GI diseases investigated?

A

Endoscopy
Capsule with camera

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9
Q

What is dysphagia?

A

External compression

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10
Q

What is GORD

A

“heartburn”

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11
Q

What 3 things cause GORD?

A

Defective lover oesophageal sphincter
Impaired lower clearing
Impaired gastric emptying

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12
Q

GORD sings and symptoms?

A

Worse lying down
Dysphagia
GI bleeding

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13
Q

What is hiatus hernia?

A

Upper part of the stomach bulges through an opening in the diaphragm

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14
Q

GORD management

A

Stop smoking
Lose weight
Medication - Antacids, H2 blockers and PPIs
Increase GI mobility and gastric emptying

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15
Q

What is peptic ulcer disease (PUD)

A

Any site affected by excess acid production

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16
Q

What does helicobacter pylori effect?

A

lower part of the stomach antrum

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17
Q

What shape if the bacterium causing helicobacter pylori?

A

Spiral

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18
Q

What can helicobacter pylori cause?

A

Ulcers and inflammation

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19
Q

How to manage helicobacter pylori?

A

Triple therapy

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20
Q

What is triple therapy?

A

2 antibiotics - 1 proton pump inhibitor

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21
Q

What antibiotics is used in triple therapy?

A

Amoxycillin
Metronidazole

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22
Q

What proton pump inhibitor is used in triple therapy?

A

Omeprazole

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23
Q

PUD signs and symptoms

A

Worse before and after food
Worse at night
Usually no physical signs

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24
Q

How is PUD investigated?

A

Endoscopy
Radiology
Faecal occult blood test

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25
Q

What is coeliac disease?

A

Sensitivity to a-gliaden component gluten

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26
Q

What causes coeliac disease?

A

Genetic susceptibility
Environmental trigger
Consumption of gluten

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27
Q

What effects does coeliac disease have?

A

Oral ulceration
Growth failure

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28
Q

What are some common symptoms of coeliac disease?

A

Weight loss
weakness
Oral aphthae
Tongue papillary loss

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29
Q

Coeliac disease investigations

A

Autoantibody test
Jejunal biopsy
Faecal fat
Haematinics

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30
Q

What does oral aphthous ulcers indicate in relation to coeliac disease?

A

malabsorption

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31
Q

What is pernicious anaemia?

A

Disease caused by vitamin B12 deficiency

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32
Q

How to treat a vitamin B12 deficiency?

A

Diet
Injections

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33
Q

What age groups are most commonly inflammatory bowel disease?

A

15-25
50-80

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34
Q

What causes IBD?

A

Food intolerance
Persisting infection
Smoking
Genetics

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35
Q

What are 2 common IBDs?

A

Ulcerative colitis
Crohns disease

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36
Q

What gender is more commonly affected by crohns?

A

Male

37
Q

What gender is most commonly affects by Ulc Col?

A

Female

38
Q

Disease continuous
Rectum always involved
Anal fissures 25%
Ileum involved 10%
Vascular

What IBD is this?

A

Ulcerative Colitis

39
Q

Discontinuous
Rectum involved 50%
Anal fissures 75%
Ileum involved 30%
Non vascular

What IBD is this?

A

Crohns disease

40
Q

Mucosal, vascular, mucosal abscesses are microscopic features of what IBD?

A

Ulcerative colitis

41
Q

Transmural, oedematous, granulomas are microscopic features of what IBD?

A

Crohns disease

42
Q

IBD treatment

A

Systemic steroids
Local steroids
Anti inflammatory drugs

43
Q

Orofacial granulomatosis is a symptom of what?

A

Crohns disease

44
Q

What does orofacial granulomatosis do?

A

Causes lip and oral swelling from increased capillary leakage

45
Q

Second main type of cancer causing death in Scotland?

A

Bowel cancer

46
Q

Bowel cancer symptoms

A

Commonly none
Anaemia
Rectal blood loss

47
Q

How is bowel cancer staged?

A

Dukes classification

48
Q

What is dukes classification

A

A - Submucosal
B - Muscularies
C - Lymph nodes
D - Liver

49
Q

Bowel cancer treatment

A

Surgery
Hepatic metastases
Radiotherapy
Chemotherpy

50
Q

What is FIT test?

A

All adults in Scotland from age 50 send faecal ample by post

51
Q

What happens if FIT test comes back postive?

A

Endoscopy

52
Q

What are 3 most common urinary tract diseases?

A

Urinary tract infection
Urinary tract obstruction
Urinary tract malignancy

53
Q

Who is UTIs most common in?

A

Women

54
Q

What bacteria is most commonly found in UTIs?

A

E. coli

55
Q

What factors can lead to a UTI?

A

Poor bladder emptying
Low urinary flow rates

56
Q

UTI symptoms

A

Dysuria
Urinary frequency
Cloudy urine

57
Q

What can happen is urine is infected?

A

Cystitis
Renal infection
Prostate infection

58
Q

UTI treatment

A

Increase fluid intake
Antibiotics

59
Q

What antibiotics are given for a UTI?

A

Trimethoprim
Amoxycillin

60
Q

What is prostatits?

A

Inflammation of the prostate

61
Q

What is benign prostatic hypertrophy?

A

Hyperplasia of the prostate

62
Q

What is prostatic cancer?

A

Adenocarcinoma

63
Q

Benign prostatic hypertrophy is common
True or False?

A

True - 80% men over 80

64
Q

Symptoms of BPH?

A

Slow stream
Frequency
Urgency

65
Q

Treatment for BPH?

A

Drugs
Surgery

66
Q

What drugs are used for BPH?

A

a-blocking drugs
Anticholinergic
Diuretics

67
Q

What surgery is there for BPH?

A

TURP
RALP

68
Q

What age does prostate cancer become more common?

A

After 45

69
Q

Prostate cancer screening?

A

PSA blood tests
mpMRI

70
Q

Prostate cancer treatment?

A

Surgery
Radiotherapy
Hormone treatment

71
Q

What are the 2 types of renal stones?

A

Radiopaque - calcium and oxalate
Non radiopaque - uric acid

72
Q

How are renal stones treated?

A

Lithotripsy

73
Q

Dentistry and renal dislysis

A

Treat after haemodialysis sessions
Do not use the dialysis shunt
No heroic treatment plans

74
Q

Dentistry and renal transplant

A

Normal renal function at first but may reduce with time
Immune suppressants

75
Q

Drugs to be aware of in relation to renal transplant

A

Prednisolone
Azathioprine
Tacrolimus
Cyclosporin

76
Q

Due to renal transplant patients are at an increased cancer risk - what should you be aware of when examining?

A

Oral mucosal lesions

77
Q

What are the main problems with renal transplant?

A

Rejection
Immunosuppression
High cardiovascular mortality
Osteoporosis risk

78
Q

What is an inherited bleeding disorder?

A

An acquired defect which affects the coagulation of the blood

79
Q

What is an inherited bleeding disorder?

A

An acquired defect which affects the coagulation of the blood

80
Q

What 3 things can an inherited bleeding disorder?

A

Coagulation cascade
Platelets
A combined deficiency

81
Q

Where might you carry out dental treatment if it will cause bleeding?

A

Hospital

82
Q

What LA injections are considered safe in someone with bleeding disorder?

A

Buccal infiltration
Intraligamentary
Intra-papillary

83
Q

What LA injections are considered dangerous in someone with a bleeding disorder?

A

IDB
Lingual infiltration

84
Q

After a severe extraction how long should a patient with a bleeding disorder be monitered?

A

Overnight

85
Q

After a mild extraction how long should a patient with a bleeding disorder be monitored?

A

2-3 hours after

86
Q

If platelet count is below 100x10/L what treatment would you do?

A

Primary care treatment

87
Q

If platelet count is below 50x10/L wat treatment would you do?

A

Hospital treatment

88
Q

If platelet count is above 500x10/L what treatment would you do?

A

Either primary or hospital

Human Disease (16 decks)

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