Gastroenterology and Renal Disorders Flashcards

(88 cards)

1
Q

What type of medication eliminates formed acid?

A

Antacids

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2
Q

What are the 2 functions of medication for upper GI disease?

A

Eliminate formed acid
Reduce acid secretion

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3
Q

What medications reduce acid secretion?

A

H2 receptor blockers
Proton pump inhibitors

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4
Q

What are some examples of antacids?

A

Gaviscon
Rennie

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5
Q

How do H2 receptor antagonists work?

A

Reduce acid production by stopping histamine activation

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6
Q

What are the 2 most common H2 receptor antagonists?

A

Cimetidine
Ranitidine

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7
Q

What are some common proton pump inhibitors?

A

Omeprazole
Lansoprazole
Pantoprazole

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8
Q

How are GI diseases investigated?

A

Endoscopy
Capsule with camera

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9
Q

What is dysphagia?

A

External compression

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10
Q

What is GORD

A

“heartburn”

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11
Q

What 3 things cause GORD?

A

Defective lover oesophageal sphincter
Impaired lower clearing
Impaired gastric emptying

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12
Q

GORD sings and symptoms?

A

Worse lying down
Dysphagia
GI bleeding

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13
Q

What is hiatus hernia?

A

Upper part of the stomach bulges through an opening in the diaphragm

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14
Q

GORD management

A

Stop smoking
Lose weight
Medication - Antacids, H2 blockers and PPIs
Increase GI mobility and gastric emptying

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15
Q

What is peptic ulcer disease (PUD)

A

Any site affected by excess acid production

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16
Q

What does helicobacter pylori effect?

A

lower part of the stomach antrum

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17
Q

What shape if the bacterium causing helicobacter pylori?

A

Spiral

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18
Q

What can helicobacter pylori cause?

A

Ulcers and inflammation

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19
Q

How to manage helicobacter pylori?

A

Triple therapy

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20
Q

What is triple therapy?

A

2 antibiotics - 1 proton pump inhibitor

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21
Q

What antibiotics is used in triple therapy?

A

Amoxycillin
Metronidazole

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22
Q

What proton pump inhibitor is used in triple therapy?

A

Omeprazole

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23
Q

PUD signs and symptoms

A

Worse before and after food
Worse at night
Usually no physical signs

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24
Q

How is PUD investigated?

A

Endoscopy
Radiology
Faecal occult blood test

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25
What is coeliac disease?
Sensitivity to a-gliaden component gluten
26
What causes coeliac disease?
Genetic susceptibility Environmental trigger Consumption of gluten
27
What effects does coeliac disease have?
Oral ulceration Growth failure
28
What are some common symptoms of coeliac disease?
Weight loss weakness Oral aphthae Tongue papillary loss
29
Coeliac disease investigations
Autoantibody test Jejunal biopsy Faecal fat Haematinics
30
What does oral aphthous ulcers indicate in relation to coeliac disease?
malabsorption
31
What is pernicious anaemia?
Disease caused by vitamin B12 deficiency
32
How to treat a vitamin B12 deficiency?
Diet Injections
33
What age groups are most commonly inflammatory bowel disease?
15-25 50-80
34
What causes IBD?
Food intolerance Persisting infection Smoking Genetics
35
What are 2 common IBDs?
Ulcerative colitis Crohns disease
36
What gender is more commonly affected by crohns?
Male
37
What gender is most commonly affects by Ulc Col?
Female
38
Disease continuous Rectum always involved Anal fissures 25% Ileum involved 10% Vascular What IBD is this?
Ulcerative Colitis
39
Discontinuous Rectum involved 50% Anal fissures 75% Ileum involved 30% Non vascular What IBD is this?
Crohns disease
40
Mucosal, vascular, mucosal abscesses are microscopic features of what IBD?
Ulcerative colitis
41
Transmural, oedematous, granulomas are microscopic features of what IBD?
Crohns disease
42
IBD treatment
Systemic steroids Local steroids Anti inflammatory drugs
43
Orofacial granulomatosis is a symptom of what?
Crohns disease
44
What does orofacial granulomatosis do?
Causes lip and oral swelling from increased capillary leakage
45
Second main type of cancer causing death in Scotland?
Bowel cancer
46
Bowel cancer symptoms
Commonly none Anaemia Rectal blood loss
47
How is bowel cancer staged?
Dukes classification
48
What is dukes classification
A - Submucosal B - Muscularies C - Lymph nodes D - Liver
49
Bowel cancer treatment
Surgery Hepatic metastases Radiotherapy Chemotherpy
50
What is FIT test?
All adults in Scotland from age 50 send faecal ample by post
51
What happens if FIT test comes back postive?
Endoscopy
52
What are 3 most common urinary tract diseases?
Urinary tract infection Urinary tract obstruction Urinary tract malignancy
53
Who is UTIs most common in?
Women
54
What bacteria is most commonly found in UTIs?
E. coli
55
What factors can lead to a UTI?
Poor bladder emptying Low urinary flow rates
56
UTI symptoms
Dysuria Urinary frequency Cloudy urine
57
What can happen is urine is infected?
Cystitis Renal infection Prostate infection
58
UTI treatment
Increase fluid intake Antibiotics
59
What antibiotics are given for a UTI?
Trimethoprim Amoxycillin
60
What is prostatits?
Inflammation of the prostate
61
What is benign prostatic hypertrophy?
Hyperplasia of the prostate
62
What is prostatic cancer?
Adenocarcinoma
63
Benign prostatic hypertrophy is common True or False?
True - 80% men over 80
64
Symptoms of BPH?
Slow stream Frequency Urgency
65
Treatment for BPH?
Drugs Surgery
66
What drugs are used for BPH?
a-blocking drugs Anticholinergic Diuretics
67
What surgery is there for BPH?
TURP RALP
68
What age does prostate cancer become more common?
After 45
69
Prostate cancer screening?
PSA blood tests mpMRI
70
Prostate cancer treatment?
Surgery Radiotherapy Hormone treatment
71
What are the 2 types of renal stones?
Radiopaque - calcium and oxalate Non radiopaque - uric acid
72
How are renal stones treated?
Lithotripsy
73
Dentistry and renal dislysis
Treat after haemodialysis sessions Do not use the dialysis shunt No heroic treatment plans
74
Dentistry and renal transplant
Normal renal function at first but may reduce with time Immune suppressants
75
Drugs to be aware of in relation to renal transplant
Prednisolone Azathioprine Tacrolimus Cyclosporin
76
Due to renal transplant patients are at an increased cancer risk - what should you be aware of when examining?
Oral mucosal lesions
77
What are the main problems with renal transplant?
Rejection Immunosuppression High cardiovascular mortality Osteoporosis risk
78
What is an inherited bleeding disorder?
An acquired defect which affects the coagulation of the blood
79
What is an inherited bleeding disorder?
An acquired defect which affects the coagulation of the blood
80
What 3 things can an inherited bleeding disorder?
Coagulation cascade Platelets A combined deficiency
81
Where might you carry out dental treatment if it will cause bleeding?
Hospital
82
What LA injections are considered safe in someone with bleeding disorder?
Buccal infiltration Intraligamentary Intra-papillary
83
What LA injections are considered dangerous in someone with a bleeding disorder?
IDB Lingual infiltration
84
After a severe extraction how long should a patient with a bleeding disorder be monitered?
Overnight
85
After a mild extraction how long should a patient with a bleeding disorder be monitored?
2-3 hours after
86
If platelet count is below 100x10/L what treatment would you do?
Primary care treatment
87
If platelet count is below 50x10/L wat treatment would you do?
Hospital treatment
88
If platelet count is above 500x10/L what treatment would you do?
Either primary or hospital