Genitourinary Flashcards Preview

0. pdf review ? > Genitourinary > Flashcards

Flashcards in Genitourinary Deck (35):

What behavioral modification can be used for BPH?

1. Decrease night time fluids

2. Decrease alcohol

3. Decrease caffeine


What is first line treatment for BPH?

Alpha blockers. If these are ineffective, the patient may try 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors.


At what age should orciopexy be done for cryptorchidism?

The testicles usually have descended by 3 months. If they haven’t by 6 months, surgery is indicated.


Is hydrocele worrisome when seen in infants?

No, this is quite common. Most will self resolve by two years of age. If they haven’t by two, then surgery can be done to correct.


16 year old patient comes in complaining of left testicular pain and heaviness. Palpation over the left testicle feels like a bag of worms. What is the most likely diagnosis?

This is classic for a varicocele. Most are left sided. If a right sided varicocele is noted, this should prompt a workup for vena cava obstruction.


What is first line treatment for stress incontinence?

Psuedoephedrine and/or imipramine.


Majority of stones will be composed of what?

Calcium oxylate make up about 80% of renal stones.


How are struvite renal stones formed?

These are formed after repeated urinary tract infections from urea splitting bacteria - Proteus.


What is the test of choice for the diagnosis of nephrolithiasis?

A non-contrast helical CT is the test of choice in adults. Children and pregnant women should have an ultrasound done first to avoid radiation.


What size stones will usually pass on their own?

Most stones


What are the two medical expulsive therapies shown to help with stone passage?

1. Alpha blockers
2. Nifedipine


Why do thiazide diuretics prevent recurrence of calcium oxylate stones?

Thiazide diuretics decrease urinary calcium excretion preventing stone formation. Loop diuretics will increase calcium excretion - don’t get confused!


A 14 year old patient is coming in with left sided testicular pain. Physical exam shows edema and erythema. An abscent cremasteric reflex is noted on the left testicle. What is the next step in management?

The next best step is surgery. This patient is presenting with classic signs of testicular torsion. Also, look for a negative prehn sign.


What is the most specific marker for UTI on dipstick?

Nitritres on dip stick are most specific for UTI.


A 22 week gestation female is complaining of dysuria, increased urinary frequency, and fever. Symptoms began 2 days ago. How should this patient be managed?

This patient should be hospitalized. A urinary tract infection with fever is pyelonephritis. Fever means systemic infection. All patients who are pregnant with pyelonephritis require hospitalization.


What is the most common etiology of epididymitis?

1. Patients >35 = E-coli
2. Patients


Most bladder cancers are what type of cancer?

Most are urothelial aka transitional cell carcinoma.


What is the workup required of a 45 year old patient with persistent painless hematuria?

Painless hematuria in a patient over 40 is bladder cancer until proven otherwise. These patients require cytoscopy, urine cytology, and a CT of the abdomen/pelvis.


When should you screen for prostate cancer?

Only when you and the patient have had a discussion of the risks and benefits and the patient agrees to testing. Prostate cancer should not be universally screened for!


The classic triad of palpable abdominal mass, hematuria, and flank pain indicates what disease?

This is classic for renal cell carcinoma.


What is the average age for testicular cancer?

Most will be diagnosed from 15-35 years of age.


What is the most common renal malignancy in children? How do they present?

This is a Wilms tumor. Patients are usually


What is the most common cause of acute kidney injury?

Dehydration is by far the most common cause. This will lead to prerenal azotemia (acute kidney injury). Simply hydrate these patients.


A BUN:Cr ratio of 2:1 indicates what type of AKI?

Classic for pre-renal failure.


A 50 year old patient was told to drink a lot of water before having an ultrasound to evaluate his enlarged prostate. The patient returned to the office 2 hours later stating he is unable to urinate; he states he is having worsening abdominal pain since ultrasound was done. What is the next step?

This patient is suffering from obstruction of the urinary tract secondary to an enlarged prostate. This patient should have a catheter placed before he starts to develop post-renal failure.


A patient is with chronic kidney disease is being started on lisinopril. What is the risk and how do we prevent this complication?

The major risk in these patients are worsening GFR and hyperkalemia. The treatment of choice for chronic kideny disease is an ACE inhibitor, but precautions should be taken. A baseline creatinine should be drawn. Three days after the medication is given, the patient should have a creatinine and potassium drawn. Hyperkalemia or an increase of creatinine of 30% is indication to remove the ACE inhibitor.


How soon after strep infection will a patient present with glomerulonephritis?

Patients usually present 1-3 weeks post infection.


Minimal change disease is associated with what malignancy?

Non-hodgkin lymphoma


What is the definition for nephoritic syndrome?

This will require a urinary protein excretion of 3.5 grams per day. This can be a result of any of the glomerulonephropathies.


What is the most common cause of death for patients with polycystic kidney disease?

These patients will most commonly die from a cardiac cause.


A 30 year old female is presenting to the cardiologist for resistant hypertension. On physical exam she is noted to have a soft non tender abdomen with an accompanying abdominal bruit. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Renal artery stenosis. These patients will also have a dramatic increase in their creatinine after an ACE or ARB is given. The etiology in female patients


What test can be used to differentiate nephrogenic vs central diabetes insipidus?

This can be done with the administration of DDAVP aka ADH

1. Nephrogenic DI - no change in symptoms. Have the hormone, but receptors are insensi- tive; problem with the kidney.
2. Central DI - patients will urinate less and their urine will be more concentrated. They were missing the hormone, and you replaced it artificially; problem with posterior pituitary.


What is the risk of correcting hyponatremia to rapidly?

Central pontine myelinolysis aka osmotic demyelization. The only indication to rapidly correct is if the patient is presenting with severe symptoms (not severely low labs) such as seizure or coma. Treat your patient not the labs.


How are patients with mild SIADH treated?

Simply fluid restrict these patients. Giving normal saline will make things worse.


What type of acid/base disorder will be caused from vomiting? How about diarrhea?

1. Vomiting - metabolic alkalosis

2. Diarrhea - non anion gap acidosis