GI Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common type of steatosis?

A

Macrovesicular

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2
Q

How does the vagus nerve directly stimulate acid release in the stomach?

A

Vagal preganglionic cell ACh –> AChNR on post ganglionic –> releases ACh –> AChMR on Parietal cells –> HCl

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3
Q

What is the hallmark pathological feature of acute and chronic viral hepatitis?

A

Apoptosis

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4
Q

How is bilirubin trasnported in the blood?

A

Bound to albumin

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5
Q

Which bacteria uses Tir to gain entry to the host cell?

A

Enteropathogenic E. coli

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6
Q

What is the leading cause of liver transplant?

A

HCV

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7
Q

What is choledocholithiasis?

A

blockage of the bile duct

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8
Q

Which state of Australia has the highest rates of hepatitis A?

A

Norther Territory

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9
Q

Where do hepatic sinusoids drain?

A

Central vein

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10
Q

What do parietal cells of the stomach produce?

A

HCl and intrinsic factor

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11
Q

What % of people with long-standing GORD develop Barrett’s oesophagus?

A

5-8%

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12
Q

How is hepatitis E virus transmitted?

A

Faecal-oral

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13
Q

A new drug is on the market, it is called braprazole. What type of drug is it likely to be?

A

Proton pump inhibitor

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14
Q

Name two D2 antagonists used to treat nausea

A

Metoclopramide (maxolon)

Prochlorperazine (stemetil)

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15
Q

What is a councilman body?

A

Apoptotic hepatocyte

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16
Q

How is acute hepatitis defined in terms of blood tests?

A

Raised ALT < 6 months

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17
Q

What gives urine its yellow colour?

A

Urobilin

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18
Q

Which two toxins does enterotoxic E. coli use?

A

Heat labile toxin (LT) and head sensitive toxin (ST)

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19
Q

What will the sight, smell and taste of food trigger?

A

Salivation, gastric acid secretion, pepsin secretion and relaxation of gastric corpus and fundus

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20
Q

What drug is a systemic antacid?

A

Sodium bicarbonate

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21
Q

What catalyses biliverdin –> bilirubin?

A

Biliverdin reductase

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22
Q

Which genes are implicated in coeliac disease?

A

HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8

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23
Q

What is the degree of leptin synthesis proportional to?

A

Size of fat storage

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24
Q

What is the main form of cell death in chronic hepatitis?

A

Apoptosis

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25
Q

In regulation of eating, the arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus projects to which other hypothalamic areas?

A

Paraventricular nuc.

Lateral hypothalamus

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26
Q

Which zone of the acinar model is most vulnerbale to paracetemol toxicity?

A

Zone 3

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27
Q

How much does 1 standard rink raise BAC by?

A

0.015%

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28
Q

How is glucose absorbed by enterocytes?

A

SGLT1 Sodium-dependent glucose trasnporter 1

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29
Q

What is the lifespan of a hepatocyte?

A

150 days

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30
Q

What defines Marsh type 1 coeliac disease?

A

Increased lymphocyte:enterocyte ratio (>30/100)

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31
Q

Which part of polypeptides do trypsin, elastase and chymotrypsins act on?

A

Interior bonds of peptides

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32
Q

Whih hepatitis viruses are most easily transmitted through contaminated food?

A

A and E

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33
Q

Where is alcohol absorbed?

A

30% in stomach

70% in gut

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34
Q

What stimulates G cells to release gastrin?

A

Amino acids

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35
Q

Which cells make bile?

A

Hepatocytes

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36
Q

In the classic lobule model of the liver, what is at the centre?

A

Central vein

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37
Q

Which enzyme conjugates bilirubin?

A

Glucuronyl transferase

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38
Q

What hormone do enterochromaffin cells release?

A

Serotonin

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39
Q

What does low hemopexin indicate?

A

Haemolytic anaemia

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40
Q

What percentage of the liver’s blood supply is from the portal vein?

A

75%

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41
Q

Where does the last part of carbohydrate digestion occur?

A

Disaccharidases and isomaltases at the brush border of mucosal enterocytes

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42
Q

Where are Peyer’s patches found?

A

Ileum

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43
Q

What does the allantois give rise to?

A

BLadder and urogenital tract

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44
Q

What is the normal ratio of T cells to enterocytes in the duodenum?

A

1:4

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45
Q

How is fructose absorbed by enterocytes?

A

GLUT5

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46
Q

What would happen to a person without leptin receptors?

A

They would eat more and become obese

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47
Q

What is the average incubation period for HEV?

A

40 days

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48
Q

What percentage of the liver’s oxygen supply is from the portal vein?

A

50%

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49
Q

What is the main function of the muscularis mucosae layer of the GIT wall?

A

Mixing lumenal contents

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50
Q

What type of epithelium is present in the gall bladder?

A

Simple columnar

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51
Q

What liver pathology is seen in alcoholic hepatitis?

A

Mallory bodies and hepatocyte swelling

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52
Q

What do chief cells of the stomach produce?

A

Proteases eg pepsinogen

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53
Q

What happens to fatty acids and monoglycerides inside enterocytes?

A

They are formed into triglycerides in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum, then packaged into chylomicrons and secreted into lymphatics

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54
Q

Broad spectrum antibiotics can cause overgrowth of what in the gut?

A

Clostridium difficile

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55
Q

How does alpha amylase work?

A

Breaks alpha 1,4 linkages between glucose molecules

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56
Q

What does sessile mean?

A

A polyp that is not attached via a stalk

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57
Q

Where does fat digestion begin?

A

In the mouth with a lingual lipase

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58
Q

What is intrinsic factor essential for?

A

Absorption of VitB12

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59
Q

What does a rising IgG titre indicate in a viral hepatitis?

A

Acute infection

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60
Q

Where are monosaccharides absorbed?

A

Tips of villi in duodenum and jejunum

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61
Q

What % of gastric ulcers are due to Helicobacter pylori?

A

70%

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62
Q

What percentage of energy is expended on basal metabolism?

A

65-75%

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63
Q

What is fatty liver known as?

A

Steatosis

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64
Q

What are the side effects of magnesium hydroxide?

A

Diarrhoea

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65
Q

In dysentery caused by entamoeba histolytica, what will be noted in a stool sample sent for lab investigation?

A

Fewer bacteria, because ameoba eat bacteria

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66
Q

What type of epithelium is in the esophagus?

A

Stratified squamous, non-keratinizing

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67
Q

In which layer of the GIT are scattered immune cells found?

A

Lamina propria

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68
Q

What is growth hormone release inhibitor better known as?

A

Ghrelin

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69
Q

What is the main immediate treatment goal in diarrhoea and how is this achieved?

A

Replace fluids and electrolytes with oral rehydration

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70
Q

Define cirrhosis

A

Diffuse nodules of regenerating hepatocytes surrounded by bands of fibrosis

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71
Q

What pathology is seen in acute viral hepatitis?

A

Lobular dissaray and apoptosis

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72
Q

What is the average incubation period for HBV?

A

60-90 days

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73
Q

What divides the functional/physiological right from left lobes of the liver?

A

Middle hepatic vein

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74
Q

Which cells synthesise leptin?

A

Adipocytes

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75
Q

Where are colonic lymphatics?

A

In the submucosa

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76
Q

Does fat boy or skinny boy have a higher basal metabolic rate?

A

Fat boy

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77
Q

What is stage 4 chronic hepaptitis known as?

A

Cirrhosis

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78
Q

What are the 3 levels of anatomical structure that increase surface area in the small intestine?

A

Plica circulare, villi, microvilli

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79
Q

How is hepatitis C virus transmitted?

A

Percutaneous or permucosal

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80
Q

What is the problem in Crigler-Najjar syndrome?

A

Deficiency of UDP-glucuronyl transferase causes accumulation of toxic unconjugated bilirubin and kernicterus

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81
Q

What does low haptoglobin indicate?

A

Haemolytic anaemia

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82
Q

By what stage of the GIT is digestion pretty much complete?

A

Half way along jejunum

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83
Q

Which zone of the acinar model is most vulnerable to ischaemia?

A

Zone 3

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84
Q

What is the most significant pathway for alcohol conversion to acetaldehyde?

A

Alcohol dehydrogenase

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85
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosis of coeliac disease?

A

Small bowel biopsy during gluten exposure

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86
Q

In what part of the stomach is pepsinogen II secreted?

A

Cose to pylorus

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87
Q

When does colon cancer become invasive?

A

When it breaches muscularis mucosae

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88
Q

How much can the stomach increase in size when full of food?

A

300-400%

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89
Q

What does the submucosa contain?

A

Dense, irregular connective tissue with nerves, small ganglia and blood vessels

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90
Q

What does pepsinogen do?

A

Hydrolyses bonds between an aromatic amino acid (phenylalanine and tyrosine) and another amino acid

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91
Q

What percentage of diarrhoea is due to viruses in developed countries?

A

40%

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92
Q

How many mls of water are excreted per day in the faeces?

A

100ml

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93
Q

What do I cells of the GIT release?

A

Cholecystokinin

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94
Q

What catalyses haem –> biliverdin?

A

Haem oxygenase

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95
Q

What does pedunculated mean?

A

A polyp attached by a stalk

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96
Q

What do enterochromaffin cell-like cells release?

A

Histamine

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97
Q

What defines Marsh type 2 coeliac disease?

A

Crypts enlarge

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98
Q

What are the pacemaker cells of rhythmic gut movement?

A

Interstitial cells of Cajal

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99
Q

What do we call a finger-like extension of the mucosa of the GIT?

A

Villus

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100
Q

What defines Marsh type 3 coeliac disease?

A

Villi are shortened and blunted: villous:crypt ratio is

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101
Q

What is kernicterus?

A

Bilirubin-induced brain dysfunction

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102
Q

What is/are the key histological feature/s of the duodenum?

A

Brunner’s glands, fewer goblet cells

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103
Q

What is an omphalocele?

A

Failure of hernaited gut to retract into coelom before it closes over

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104
Q

What effects does distension of the stomach have?

A

Activates stretch receptors –> vago-vagal reflexes –> acid and pepsin secretion Stretch –> hypothalamus –> decrease appetite

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105
Q

Which cells secrete HCl in the stomach?

A

Parietal cells

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106
Q

How does diarrhoea cause death in the delayed phase?

A

Malnutrition

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107
Q

How big is a hepatic sinusoid?

A

0.7 x 2 mm

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108
Q

What shape are enterocytes?

A

Columnar

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109
Q

Which receptors should be targetted for treatment of nausea associated with exposure to toxins?

A

D2 and 5-HT3

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110
Q

What is the most common familial colorectal cancer syndrome?

A

Lynch syndrome

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111
Q

How can antibiotics cause diarrhoea?

A

Broad spectrum antibiotics can alter gut microbiota and cause overgrowth of Clostridium difficile

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112
Q

What type of nausea would a D2 antagonist be used to treat?

A

Chemical/toxin/drug associated

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113
Q

Which bacteria typically causes travelle’s diarrhoea?

A

Enterotoxic E. coli (ETEC)

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114
Q

Infrequent or normal frequency, but much more watery with larger volumes would suggest what type of diarrhoea?

A

Diarrhoea of small intestine

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115
Q

At what time point does hepatitis become chronic?

A

> 6 months

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116
Q

What are the important receptors for motion sickness/dizziness/vertigo associated nausea?

A

Muscarinic and H1

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117
Q

Where do HBV and HCV replicate?

A

Hepatocytes

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118
Q

In what form does hyperbilirubinaemia in the newborn cause neurotoxicity?

A

Kernicterus

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119
Q

What type of drug is ranitidine?

A

H2 antagonist

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120
Q

In a hepatic sinusoid, what is the gap between endothelium and hepatocytes?

A

Space of Disse

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121
Q

What is the quality of diarrhoea of small intestine?

A

Infrequent or normal frequency, but much more watery with larger volumes

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122
Q

What’s a good antibiotic for anaerobic organisms?

A

Metronidazole

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123
Q

What colour is bilirubin?

A

Yellow

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124
Q

Which nerve mediates peristalsis along the esophagus?

A

Vagus

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125
Q

How is HAV excreted?

A

In faeces

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126
Q

Which parts of the GIT have serosa as their outer layer?

A

Parts of the gat not attached to anything –> secretes fluid to stop them sticking

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127
Q

Which hepatitis viruses have a vaccine?

A

A, B and D

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128
Q

How much water does the small intestine absorb per day?

A

8.5 L/day

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129
Q

In the portal lobule model of the liver, what is at the centre?

A

Portal triad

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130
Q

In haemolysis, what is the intermediate product betwen haem and bilirubin?

A

Biliverdin

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131
Q

What percentage of live births have a birth defect?

A

3%

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132
Q

How is a bile duct discriminated from a portal vein and hepatic artery on microscopy?

A

Bile duct has columnar epithelium

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133
Q

Which GIT cells secrete intrinsic factor?

A

Parietal cells

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134
Q

What happens to dietary fibre?

A

Metabolised by bacteria in proximal colon to produce short chain fatty acids, which are then absorbed in distal small bowel and proximal colon

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135
Q

Where is vitamin B12 absorbed?

A

Terminal ileum

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136
Q

What degree of amplification is achieved in the small intestine by the villi?

A

30x

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137
Q

What is the role of M cells in the GIT?

A

Located over lymphoid aggregates and let antigens and microbes into gut for access to adaptive immune system

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138
Q

What are the important receptors for the chemoreceptor trigger zone?

A

D2 and 5-HT3

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139
Q

How is hepatitis D virus transmitted?

A

Percutaneous or permucosal

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140
Q

Frequent stools of low volume would suggest what type of diarrhoea?

A

Diarrhoea of colon

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141
Q

Which hepatitis is most easily transmitted perinatally?

A

HBV

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142
Q

What % of gastric ulcers are due to NSAIDs?

A

25%

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143
Q

What is a rare but potential side effect of H2 antagonists?

A

Gynecomastia

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144
Q

What colour of soft drink/lolly will be be sweeter, even with the same amount of sugar?

A

Red

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145
Q

What is the definition of chronic gastritis?

A

Stomach inflammation sustained for > 3 months

146
Q

How is entamoeba histolytica transmitted?

A

Faecal-oral spread

147
Q

What do we call delayed gastric emptying?

A

Gastrophoresis

148
Q

What causes damage to hepatocytes in viral hepatitis?

A

The immune response

149
Q

What is achalasia?

A

Failure of smooth muscle of lower esophageal sphincter to relax causing dysphagia

150
Q

What percentage of oxygenation does blood in the hepatic sinusoids contain?

A

20%

151
Q

What is a prebiotic?

A

A dietary supplement that promotes beneficial bacteria

152
Q

What do G cells of the GIT release?

A

Gastrin

153
Q

Between which layers of the GIT wall are the myenteric ganglia?

A

Between circular layer and longitudinal layer of muscularis externa

154
Q

Where do hepatitis viruses A and E replicate?

A

In hepatocytes and in intestinal epithelia

155
Q

What do Brunner’s glands in the GIT do?

A

Secrete an alkaline mucous (mucous and bicarbonate) to neutralise acid from stomach

156
Q

What causes the secretion of pancreatic lipolytic enzymes?

A

Cholecystokinin

157
Q

In which parts of the GIT are stem cells present?

A

All parts

158
Q

??? –> ROH + H2O + NADP+

A

RH + NADPH + H+ + O2 –>

159
Q

What type of muscle is in the esophageal wall?

A

Skeletal muscle proximally and smooth muscle distally

160
Q

Which intestinal lumenal transporter is inactivated during diarrhoea?

A

Na/Cl co-transporter

161
Q

What is the prevalence of coeliac disease?

A

1%

162
Q

Which enzyme breaks down alpha 1,6 bonds in polysaccharides?

A

Isomaltase

163
Q

How is giardia intestinalis transmitted?

A

Faecal-oral

164
Q

Which cells in the GIT release somatostatin?

A

D cells

165
Q

Which glands in the GIT secrete an alkaline mucous (mucous and bicarbonate) to neutralise acid from stomach?

A

Brunner’s glands

166
Q

What must be produced to cause haemolytic-uremic syndrome?

A

Shiga toxin aka verotoxin

167
Q

Where does human papiloma virus like to infect?

A

Basal keratinocytes of transformational zone of cervix

168
Q

What forms does conjugated bilirubin take?

A

Bilirubin mono-glucuronide and

bilirubin di-glucuronide

169
Q

What percentage of diarrhoea is due to bacteria in developed countries?

A

18%

170
Q

Familial adenomatous polyposis is due to a mutation in which gene?

A

APC

171
Q

What does secretin trigger?

A

Secretion of bicarbonate rich solution from pancreas

172
Q

What is colitis?

A

Inflammation of the bowel

173
Q

What liver pathology does paracetemol toxicity cause?

A

Coagulative necrosis predominantly in zone 3

174
Q

Which GI cells release gastrin?

A

G cells

175
Q

Which cells proteases in the stomach?

A

Chief cells

176
Q

What are 2 commonly used H1 antagonists for motion sickness?

A

Promethazine

Pheniramine

177
Q

Which nerve mediates the cephalic phase of digestion?

A

Vagus

178
Q

What is the antonym of mesenchymal?

A

Epithelial

179
Q

What are the layers of the GIT?

A

1 Epithelium 2 Lamina propria 3 Muscularis mucosae 4 Submucosa 5 Muscularis externa - innter circular layer 6 Muscularis externa - longitudinal layer 7 Serosa/adventitia

180
Q

What does the mesobephric duct become?

A

The vas deferens

181
Q

How much water can the colon absorb in a day?

A

4-5 L/day

182
Q

How is hepatitis A virus transmitted?

A

Faecal-oral route

183
Q

What % of pancreas is endocrine?

A

1-2%

184
Q

What do S cells of the GIT release?

A

Secretin

185
Q

What % of people infected with HCV will clear the virus?

A

30%

186
Q

What is/are the key histological feature/s of the ileum?

A

Peyer’s patches, more goblet cells, shorter villi

187
Q

How is chronic hepaptitis staged?

A

Degree of fibrosis

188
Q

What type of epithelium is present in the anal canal?

A

Stratified squamous, non-keratinised

189
Q

What are the most common viral causes of chronic hepatitis?

A

HBV and HBC

190
Q

How is chronic hepatitis graded?

A

Degree of interface inflammation

191
Q

Which cells of the GIT release defensins?

A

Paneth cells

192
Q

How does enteropathogenic E. coli infect enterocytes?

A

It inserts Tir (translocated intimin receptor) into host cell via type 3 secretion. Tir is then expressed on host cell membrane. EPEC is then able to bind to Tir via intimin.

193
Q

What will most labs do to investigate a faeces sample from a GI infection?

A

Microscopy and culture

194
Q

What is the most effective treatment for recurrent C. difficile pseudomembranous colitis?

A

Faecal transplant

195
Q

What do Harris-Benedict equations estimate?

A

Energy expenditure

196
Q

What is/are the key histological difference/s between small intestine and large intestine?

A

Small intestine has villi; large intestine does not. Large intestine has more goblet cells

197
Q

How does diarrhoea cause death in the acute phase?

A

Fluid and electrolyte imbalance

198
Q

Through what does bile flow in liver lobules?

A

Through canaliculi to bile ducts

199
Q

What percentage of regular IVDUs are HCV positive?

A

50-60%

200
Q

What are the most common classes of cause of unintentional weight loss?

A

Malignancy

GI disease

Endocrinological

Anorexia nervosa

Infection

201
Q

How is acute viral hepatitis differentiated from chronic hepatitis?

A

Acute infection shows elevated IgM

Chronic infection shows to IgG

202
Q

How are most infections from toxoplasma gondii acquired?

A

Undercooked meat

203
Q

Some people who are overfed will not put on weight…why not?

A

They increase NEAT non-exercise activity thermogenesis eg fidgeting

204
Q

What gives faeces its brown colour?

A

Stercobilin

205
Q

What do we call the macrophages on the inner walls of hepatic sinusoids?

A

Kupfer cells

206
Q

What inactivates pepsin?

A

Neutral pH

207
Q

Which receptors should be targetted for treatment of nausea associated with motion sickness?

A

Muscarinic and H1

208
Q

Name 2 proton pump inhibitors

A

Omeprazole and esomeprazole

209
Q

What is a probiotic?

A

A live organism that promotes health when ingested in sufficient quantities

210
Q

Oral rehydration mixtures typically contain what?

A

NaCl, KCl, NaHCO3, glucose

211
Q

Where is the vomit centre?

A

dorsolateral reticular formation in floor of 4th ventricle in medulla oblongata

212
Q

What colour is urobilinogen?

A

Clear

213
Q

What is the chief function of the muscularis externa in the GIT wall?

A

Movement of contents along gut

214
Q

What % of the world is HCV positive?

A

3%

215
Q

What is magnesium hydroxide used to treat?

A

Antacid treatment

216
Q

What is ERCP?

A

Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography

217
Q

How much alcohol is in a standard drink?

A

10g

218
Q

What effects does early-life exposure to hepatitis viruses have on clinical course?

A

Less severe acute infection and higher chance of chronic infection

219
Q

What is the difference between a gastric erosion and acute gastric ulcer?

A

Erosion is limited to mucosa, whereas an acute ulcer penetrates into the submucosa

220
Q

What are the 2 most common causes of steatosis?

A

Alcohol and obesity

221
Q

Which drugs were used to treat peptic ulcers before PPIs were invented?

A

H2 antagonists

222
Q

Which immunoglobulin is most common in the gut?

A

IgA

223
Q

What do D cells in the GIT release?

A

Somatostatin

224
Q

What do the names of proton pump imhibitors end with?

A

-prazole

225
Q

What degree of amplification is achieved in the small intestine by the folds of Kirkring?

A

3x

226
Q

Which hormone is released from the stomach in a fasted state and stimulates appetite?

A

Ghrelin

227
Q

Which germ layer does the wall of the gut come from?

A

Mesoderm

228
Q

What type of cells infiltrate in interface inflammation of chronic hepatitis?

A

Lymphocytes

229
Q

How much water is excreted in faeces per day?

A

About 100 ml/day

230
Q

What do we call the GI control systems that are activated prior to eating?

A

Cephalic phase of digestion

231
Q

What are the three classes of anti-diarrhoeal agents?

A

Anti-motility. Anti-secretory. Binding agents.

232
Q

What is the average incubation period for HAV?

A

30 days

233
Q

Which pathogen typically causes antibiotic-associated diarrhoea?

A

Clostridium dificille

234
Q

Name 6 examples of when you would treat diarrhoea with antibiotics.

A

Cholera. Systemic infection. Immunocompromised. Severe shigella infections. Protazoal infections. Pseudomembranous colitis.

235
Q

What percentage of absorption of products of digestion is done in the small intestine?

A

85%

236
Q

Which reflex mediates signals from the upper GIT that regulate upper GIT functions such as swallowing and acid secretions?

A

Vago-vagal reflex

237
Q

Which part of the villus is secretory in the small intestine?

A

Crypts

238
Q

RH + NADPH + H+ + O2 –>

A

ROH + H2O + NADP+

239
Q

Where is the final stage of peptide digestion?

A

At the brush border and in the enterocyte

240
Q

Are gut bacteria predominantly aerobic or anaerobic?

A

99.9% are anaerobic

241
Q

What do we know about clostridium species?

A

Gram positive

Rod

Anaerobe

Spore forming

242
Q

How long does an acute HAV infection typically last?

A

2-3 weeks

243
Q

Which organ is most commonly defective at birth?

A

Heart

244
Q

Which protein transports conjugated bilirubin into the bile canaliculus?

A

cMOAT (aka MRP-2)

245
Q

What is the problem in Dubin-Johnson disorder?

A

Genetic defect in cMOAT causes accumulation of non-toxic conjugated bilirubin

246
Q

What is the most common form of hiatus hernia?

A

Sliding

247
Q

What changes to liver architecture may there by after extensive repair?

A

More fibrous and different lobular structure

248
Q

What are the effects of gastrin?

A

Causes parietal cells to release acid

249
Q

Define dysentery

A

Blood, pus and mucous in faeces

250
Q

What effect will injection of neuropeptide Y have on eating?

A

Increase

251
Q

What is endangered with a fracture of the medial epicondyle of the elbow?

A

Ulna nerve

252
Q

Define mesenchymal cells

A

Cells that lost contact with each other

and move independently and alone

253
Q

Injecting cocaine and amphetamine regulated transcirpt (CART) will have what effect on eating?

A

Decrease

254
Q

What caues pancreatic release of alpha amylase?

A

Cholecystokinin

255
Q

What is the most common genetic mutation that can cause obesity?

A

MC4R

Melanocortin 4 receptor

256
Q

How do proton pump inhibitors work?

A

Irreversible inhibition of H+/K+ ATP ase

257
Q

How do prostaglandins protect the mucosa from injury?

A

Promote HCO3- secretion, inhibit acid secretion, maintain blood flow

258
Q

What is gastrophoresis?

A

Delayed gastric emptying

259
Q

Define coeliac disease

A

Immunologically mediated disease… in genetically susceptible individuals… driven by gluten… which results in chronic inflammation… of the small bowel mucosa

260
Q

What blood test is indicative of acute HBV infection?

A

Anti-HBc IgM

261
Q

What is a very common non-human host of giardia intestinalis in Australia?

A

Possum

262
Q

What % of duodenal ulcers are due to Helicobacter pylori?

A

92%

263
Q

What are the most common pathogenic agents in dysentery?

A

Enteroinvasive E. coli/Shigella Entamoeba histolytica

264
Q

Which hepatitis viruses tend to cause chronic disease?

A

HBV and HCV

265
Q

What effects does CCK cause as a hormone?

A

Contractions of gall bladder to force bile down into duodenum. Releases digestive enzymes from pancreas. Stimulates satiety centre in hypothalamus

266
Q

How can you distinguish an artery from its partner vein?

A

Usually smaller and more tortuous

267
Q

All derivatives of endoderm are _______

A

Epithelial tissues

268
Q

What catalyses acetaldehyde –> acetate

A

Aldehyde dehydrogenase

269
Q

What happens to goblet cell frequency along the course of the GIT?

A

Increases

270
Q

What are the side effects of sodium bicarbonate?

A

Alkalosis

Kidney problems

Oedema

271
Q

What is the most commonly used H2 antagonist?

A

Ranitidine

272
Q

What will be seen in the stool of an invasive diarrhoea?

A

Blood and pus

273
Q

Blood, but not pus, in diarrhoea suggests which organism?

A

Enterohaemorrhagic E. coli

274
Q

_______ consists of an open chain of four pyrrole rings

A

Bilirubin

275
Q

What happens with withdrawal of antacids?

A

Rebound acidity

276
Q

Where is alanine transferase located?

A

Cytoplasm of hepatocytes

277
Q

What is the most common cause of liver cancer?

A

HBV

278
Q

What is the gold standard for measuring energy expenditure?

A

Double labeled water (Deuterium/oxygen 18)

279
Q

How do antacids work?

A

Neutralise stomach acid

280
Q

What activates cholesterol esterase?

A

Bile

281
Q

What catalyses trypsinogen –> trypsin?

A

Enterokinase and trypsin

282
Q

What is the role of smooth ER in hepatocytes?

A

Fat and steriod metabolism

283
Q

What effects does somatostain have in the GIT?

A

Inhibits histamine release from enterochromaffin cell-like cells Inhibits HCl release from parietal cells

284
Q

Bilirubin consists of an open chain of _______

A

four pyrrole rings

285
Q

What do we call a fertilized ovum?

A

Zygote

286
Q

What are the American (more stringent) criteria for Barrett’s esophagus?

A

Evidence of columnar epithelial lining in esophagus; AND

Evidence of goblet cells in esophagus

287
Q

What is the function of paneth cells?

A

Secrete anti-microbial peptides (defensins)

288
Q

What do paneth cells release?

A

Defensins

289
Q

What is the average incubation period for HCV?

A

6-7 weeks

290
Q

Which germ layer does the epithelium of the gut come from?

A

Endoderm

291
Q

How is hepatitis B virus transmitted?

A

Percutaneous or permucosal

292
Q

Elevated ALT levels in hepatitis indicate what?

A

Replicating virus

293
Q

What percentage of faeces is bacteria?

A

60-70%

294
Q

Inflammation around the portal tract is known as what?

A

Interface inflammation

295
Q

What would happen to energy intake if all microbiota were removed from a person?

A

Energy intake would need to increase

296
Q

Which enzyme activates IL-1?

A

IL-1 converting enzyme (ICE) aka caspase 1

297
Q

What effect does caesarian section have on microbiota?

A

Restricts microbiota diversity

298
Q

Which cells of the GIT release cholecystokinin?

A

I cells

299
Q

What is the pathological hallmark feature of steatohepatitis?

A

Hepatocellular ballooning degeneration

300
Q

Where does pinworm live?

A

Anus

301
Q

Pharmacologically, what are the two most important inputs to the vomit centre?

A

Chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ)

Vestibular input

302
Q

Which protease acts at the carboxy terminals of peptides?

A

Pancreatic carboxypeptidase

303
Q

What is koilocytosis?

A

A ring around nucleus

304
Q

What degree of amplification is achieved in the small intestine by the microvilli?

A

600

305
Q

What is the defining feature of enterohaemorrhagic E. coli?

A

It produces shigatoxin

306
Q

Barrett’s esophagus infers what relative risk for esophageal adenocarcinoma?

A

30-60

307
Q

Particularly offensive smelling diarrhoea stool suggest what type of organism?

A

Anaerobic

308
Q

What is a commonly used antimuscarinic drug for motion sickness?

A

Hyoscine hydrobromide

309
Q

What is the largest internal organ?

A

Liver

310
Q

Where do central veins drain to?

A

Hepatic vein

311
Q

Which enteroendocrine cells release serotonin?

A

Enterochromaffin cells

312
Q

What type(s) of collagen are found in the liver?

A

1 and 3

313
Q

What type of epithelium is present in the small intestine?

A

Cilliated simple columnar

314
Q

What is the pathogen in cholera?

A

Vibrio cholerae

315
Q

What is the last macronutrient to pass through the pylorus after a meal?

A

Fat

316
Q

How much alcohol can a person typically clear in 1 hour?

A

1 standard drink = 0.015% BAC = 10 g alcohol

317
Q

What stimulates D cells to release somatostatin?

A

Luminal acid

318
Q

What effects do artificial sweeteners have on GI activity?

A

Bind to L cell receptors to increase glucose absorption

319
Q

What is the quality of diarrhoea of colon?

A

Frequent stools of low volume

320
Q

How much water does the colon absorb per day?

A

1.4 L/day

321
Q

What are the extra-intestinal complications of entamoeba histolytica?

A

Liver or brain abscesses

322
Q

How do goblet cells contribute to immunity?

A

Secrete mucins, lysozyme and lactoferrin

323
Q

With sustained alcohol intake, what is induced to high levels and provides an alternative pathway for EtOH metabolism?

A

CYP2E1 aka MEOS Microsomal Ethanol Oxidising System

324
Q

What colout is bile?

A

Dark green to yellowish brown

325
Q

How much bile can the human liver produce per day?

A

Close to 1 litre per day

326
Q

What is family of molecules, composed of a steroid structure with four rings, a five or eight carbon side-chain terminating in a carboxylic acid?

A

Bile salts

327
Q

What are the most important bile acids in humans?

A

Cholic acid, deoxycholic acid, and chenodeoxycholic acid

328
Q

What percentage of bile salts are reasorbed and were are they reasbosrbed?

A

95% are reabsorbe din the terminal ileum

329
Q

Which hormones regulate pancreatic juice secretion?

A

Secretin and cholecystokinin

330
Q

Which cells of the pancreas secrete bicarbonate?

A

Duct cells

331
Q

Which cells of the pancreas produce digestive enzymes?

A

Acinar cells

332
Q

What is the predominant component of bile?

A

Cholesterol

333
Q

Which 3 substances can trigger exocrine secretions from the pancreas?

A

ACh (from vagus), CCK and secretin

334
Q

What activates pancreatic lipase?

A

Co-lipase

335
Q

Define cirrhosis

A

Nodules of regenerating hepatocytes surrounded by bands of fibrosis tissue

336
Q

Which hepatitis viruses can cause cirrhosis?

A

B and C

337
Q

Which chronic liver diseases can lead to cirrhosis?

A

All of them

338
Q

Which cells are stimulated to cause fibrosis in cirrhosis?

A

Stellate cells

339
Q

What is a potential consequence of splenomegaly in cirrhosis?

A

Thrombocytopenia

340
Q

What is the most common cause of portal hypertension?

A

Cirrhosis

341
Q

How is portal hypertension defined?

A

Increase of >8mmHg in the portal vein

OR

Increase of >5mmHg in pressure gradient between portal vein and hepatic vein

342
Q

What are the 3 cardinal consequences of portal hypertension?

A

Splenic enlargment. Ascites. Varices at sites of porto-systemic anastamoses

343
Q

What are the 3 main points of anastomosis between the portal and systemic venous systems?

A

Esophagus. Rectum. Umbilicus

344
Q

Which liver enzymes are located in hepatocyte cytoplasm?

A

AST, ALT, LD

345
Q

Which liver enzymes are associated with the biliary membrane?

A

GGT and ALP

346
Q

Which enzyes are released with hepatocellular damage?

A

AST and ALT

347
Q

Is ALT or AST more specific to liver damage?

A

ALT

348
Q

Where is ALT present?

A

Cytosol of hepatocytes

349
Q

Where is AST present?

A

Cytosol and mitochondria of liver, muscle and blood cells

350
Q

What is suggested if AST > ALT?

A

Acute liver damage

351
Q

What is suggested if ALT > AST?

A

Chronic or resolving liver damage

352
Q

Which of AST and ALT has a longer half life?

A

ALT

353
Q

What does elevated GGT levels suggest?

A

Biliary disease

354
Q

What is the most common cause of raised liver enzymes?

A

Obesity

355
Q

Pain from an ulcer in the duodenum is made _______ with eating

A

Better

356
Q

Pain from an ulcer in the stomach is made _______ with eating

A

worse

357
Q

What is a normal ratio of villus height to crypt depth?

A

4:1

358
Q

Which cells of the GIT release secretin?

A

S cells

359
Q

What is the name of the vessel that brings blood from the GI organs (stomach, spleen, intestines) to the liver on its way back to the heart? How much of the blood supplied to the liver does this vessel make up?

What is the name of the other blood supply?

A

Hepatic Portal vein; 75-85% of blood supplied to the liver.

The other blood supply (15%) is fresh blood from the aorta –> hepatic artery.

360
Q
A