Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

FOUNDATION MEDICINE > GI Y1 > Flashcards

GI Y1 Flashcards

1
Q

Supine

A

Laying on the back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Prone

A

Laying on the the front

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Sagittal plane

A

symmetric , Cut the body into left and right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Coronal plane

A

cut the body into anterior and anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Axial (transfers) plane

A

cut the body into superior and inferior (top and bottom)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Oppsite words
Superior (cranial or rostral)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Oppsite words
Superior (cranial or rostral)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Oppsite words
Superior (cranial or rostral)
Anterior
Medial
Proximal
Superficial

A

Inferior (caudal)
Posterior
Lateral
Distal
Deep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

embryo anatomy

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Flexion
Extension

A

decrease the angel between parts
Increase angle between parts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Flexion
Extension

A

decrease the angel between parts
Increase angle between parts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When Metoclopramide should be avoided?

A

Metoclopramide is a medication commonly used to treat gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) symptoms, nausea, and vomiting. However, it should be avoided in cases of bowel obstruction because it can exacerbate the obstruction and cause further complications.

Bowel obstruction is a condition where the passage of intestinal contents is blocked, either partially or completely.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Sigmoid Volvulus

A
  • Old patients
  • high fibre diet
  • chronic constipation
  • AXR - show coffee bean sign
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Intrahepatic causes of Juandiace

A

Gilberts syndrome
Alcoholic liver disease
Primary biliary cirrhosis
Autoimmune hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Post hepatic causes Juandiace

A

Choledocholithiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Achalasia (name of defected neurons )

A

The progressive degeneration of myenteric neurons
Preventing food from being effectively moved through Esophages
Daysphagia progressively (improves when moving the head back)
Trypanosoma cruzi -> chagas disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

PARALYTIC Leus

A

similar to sigmoid volvulus but no coffee beans sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Globus hysterics

A

Young women
Previous history of anxiety
Feeling lump in the throat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Acute Cholecystitis (which duct, sign )

A

complication of gallstone
Gallstones obstruct the cystic duct and stop the emptying of the gallbladder
RUQ pain
Positive Murphy’s sign (feeling the inflamed gallbladder )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Acut Pancreatic

A

acute epigastric pain
Radiate to the back due to the involvement of retroperitoneum
High level of Amylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Appendicitis

A

Rebound tenderness and guarding
Central pain radiates to the right iliac fossa
Tachycardia
Positive McBurney’s point
Rosving’s sign - pressing on LIF causes pain in RIF.
Rosving’s sign - pressing on LIF causes pain in RIF.

Treatment :
Appendectomy
analyiscs
antibiotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Ulcerative colitis
Get worst after quitting smoking

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

AMA

A

anti mitochondrial antibody is the most specific test for primary biliary cholangitis (PBS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

primary biliary cholangitis (PBS)

A

AMA
MRCP
it caused by autoimmune destruction of both intra and extra-hepatic bile duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Wilsons Disease
* Chronic hepatitis Neurogenic degeneration (aggressive behaviour) autosomal recessive treatment : Penicillamine or trientene (copper chelating agents )
24
Clostridium difficicle gastroenteritis
History of PO antibodies (e.g for chest infection) as antibodies can disrupt the normal gut flora leading to the overgrowth of C.difficicle
25
Alpha 1- antitrypsin can be caused by --- genetic
autosomal recessive
26
Coeliac disease
Autoimmune reaction to gluten + anti-tissue transglutaminase (anti TTG) + anti endomysial (antiEMA) Malabsorption Small bowel specifically jejunum Atrophy of intestinal villi (coeliac small intestinal mucosa + crypt hypertrophy) LINK TO TYPE 1 DIABETES Dermatitis herpetiformis
27
When patients have IgA deficiency and is suspected to have coeliac disease what can of test can be done
anti TTG and anti EMA for IgG version
28
what is Charcot's triad
Charcot's triad is a set of three symptoms that are typically associated with acute cholangitis 1. right upper quadrant pain 2. fever - rigor (shaking ) 3. painful jaundice (raised bilirubin)
29
Haemorrhoide
fresh blood on toliet paparer
30
Direct ingual hernia
cough will causes it to reappear after reduction point toward the groin
31
Indirect inguinal
will not reappear after the reduction point towards the groin
32
Femoral hernia
more common in females Point down the leg
33
How to treat the following: 1. low BP + Haemtemesis 2. actively bleeding peptic ulcer 3. Uncontrol oesophageal visceral
1. Iv fluid 2. Heater probe coagulation + adrenaline injection 3. TIPs
34
GORD
Heartburn water brush regurgitation of excessive saliva with acid Odynphagia MANAGEMENT Endoscopy stop smoking loss weight prop the head up of bed H2 antagonist PPI for 8 weeks Barrets oesophagus PPI optimisation
35
tumour maker of colorectal cancer
CEA
36
Crohons disease
palpable lesion on the shin ->IBS Slim there maybe have been wight lost
37
tumour marker Hepatocellular carcinoma
alpha fetoprotein
38
why is azathioprine given with caution
is bone marrow suppression thus a weak immune system. given for patients with ulcercolitis
39
what is Terlipression
is given in variceal bleeding for patients with cirrhosis its vasoconstriction of splanchnic circulation decreases portal pressure and reduces the risk of bleeding from varices
40
Peptic ulcer includes 7 days of tripe therapy what are these drugs
PPI+ Amoxicillin + clarithromycin OR if the patient allergic to penicillin PPI+ Amoxicillin + Metronidase
41
COlumnar
Squamous cells epithelium
42
Irritable bowel syndrome
females discomfort is only better when having a bowel movement
43
Paneth cells
The Paneth cells are found at the base of the crypts of Lieberkühn and have a role in defence and regulating bacterial flora
44
Hepatitis A
* Faecal-oral spread * Acute hepatitis, no chronic infection * Serology :Hepatitis A antibody (anti-HAV): This test detects antibodies to the HAV virus, which is spread through contaminated food or water. * Management: Vaccine
45
Hepatitis E
* Faecal-oral transmission in the tropics Tropical genotype associated with severe disease in pregnant women * Some immunocompromised humans can get chronic infection * No vaccine yet available
46
Hepatitis D
* Only found with Hepatitis B - exacerbates Hep B infection * Serology: Hepatitis D antibody (anti-HDV)
47
Hepatitis B
* Transmission (bodily fluids) Sex Mother to child Blood to blood (unscreened transfusions, tattoos) * Serology: Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) Antibodies to hepatitis B surface antigen (anti-HBs) Antibodies to hepatitis B core antigen (anti-HBc) Clinical features Chronic disease is more likely to result if first exposure is in childhood Spontaneous cure is not uncommon, even after years of infection * Management: Vaccinations
48
Antibodies to hepatitis B core antigen (anti-HBc) - ‘C’ for Caught -
this means the person has developed antibodies due to a previous infection
49
Hepatitis C
* Same as Hep B * Strongly associated with hepatocellular carcinoma * Once chronic infection is established, spontaneous cure is not seen * Management chronic hep B - suppressive antiviral drug (more widely used) OR peginterferon alone (sustained cure possible in minority of cases) Chronic hep C - choice of antiviral regime based on many factors; aim is >90% SVR Cirrhotic patients at those at risk of complications treated as priority
50
what bacteria causes Severe Vomiting
S.aureus - <24hrs onset
51
what causes Watery Diarrhoea
Clostridium difficile (C. diff)- use of antibiotics 💊 (think the 4 C’S!)
52
other casues of watery diarrhoea
* Bacillus cereus => fast onset - reheated rice 🍚 * Listeria - unpasteurised milk products 🐄 * Vibrio cholerae - Travel Abroad (SE asia) ✈️🌏 * E. coli - Traveller’s Diarrhoea * Giardiasis (*parasite*)🐛💦
53
Bloody Diarrhoea
E. coli 0157 🩸 Campylobacter jejuni - BBQ, Travellers diarrhoea 🍖/✈️🌏 Salmonella - eggs and poultry 🍳🐔 Amoebiasis (*parasite*)🐛🩸 * E. coli 0157 - from farmyard animals/ petting zoos. has shiga toxins (ENDOTOXIN!)causing bloody diarrhoea Can lead to haemolytic uraemic syndrome. Use of antibiotics causes toxins to be released from dying cells so DO NOT use antibiotics if you suspect HUS. ## Footnote E coli - short history bloody diarrhoea // travelling + diarrhoea // haemolytic uraemic syndrome + thrombocytopaenia = E COLI (subtype 0157)
54
Viral gastroenteritis
Onset: 24hrs Norovirus - winter vomiting bug (raw chicken/turkey)🎅
55
Parasites
Amoebiasis - bloody diarrhoea - tropical areas Giardiasis - Faecal-oral transmission - pets , farm animals or human
56
treatment for Ecoli 0157- C.diff -
* Supportive measures * Oral vancomycin and hygiene measures (remember to wash hands w/ soap! C.diff has spores which alcohol cant break!)
57
Gastric ulcer
* Dyspepsia * Epigastric pain worse after eating * Pain eased by antacids and lying flat * Rupture will present as haematemesis (vomiting blood)
58
Duodenal ulcer
* Dyspepsia * Epigastric pain relieved by eating * Pain worse when lying flat - may wake patient during the night * Rupture will present as rectal bleeding/melaena (blood in stool)
59
Croup is caused by…
B- parainfluenza
60
the first line antibiotic treatment for a C. difficile infection?
A- Oral Vancomycin
61
A patient presents with bloody diarrhoea and is confirmed via stool culture to be infected with E.coli 0157. What is the best management below?
fluid only
62
Bacillus cereus
Reheated rice
63
Barretts oesophagus is the metaplasia of epithelial cells of the lower oesophagus from
stratified squamous to simple columnar epithelium
64
Coeliac disease is strongly associated with genetic
is strongly associated with HLA-DQ2 (95% of patients) and HLA-DQ8 (80%).
65
Diverticulosis
condition in which diverticula are present in the intestine without signs of inflammation.
66
Upper midline abdominal incisions will involve the division of the
linea alba
67
How is Aspergillus fumigatus treated? lung infection
Amphotericin B
68
Hepatocellular carcinoma is associated
Hepatitis C
69
Oesophageal cancer
is associated with alcohol excess and smoking.
70
Inguinal hernia is above the inguinal ligament, Femoral hernia is below the inguinal ligament

FOUNDATION MEDICINE (23 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions