HEMATOPOIESIS Flashcards

(203 cards)

1
Q

is the continuous, regulated process of renewal, proliferation, differentiation and maturation of all blood cell lines.

A

Hematopoiesis

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2
Q

this process result in the formation and specialization of all functional blood cells which are released from the bone marrow into the circulation

A

Hematopoiesis

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3
Q

mature blood lives has a limited life span , the cell population must be capable of ________ that will sustain the system

A

self-renewal

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4
Q

what are the phases or sites of hematopoiesis?

A

Mesablastic, hepatic and myeloid

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5
Q

hematopoiesis is considered to begin around the ___________ of embryonic development after fertilization

A

nineteenth day

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6
Q

early in embryonic development, cells from the __________ migrate to the ________.

A

mesoderm, yolk sac

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7
Q

these primitive but _______________ are important in early _________ to produce _________.

A

transient yolk sac erythroblasts, embryogenesis, hemoglobin

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8
Q

____________ differs from hematopoiesis that occurs later in the fetus and adult in that it occurs ________ (or within developing blood vessels)

A

Yolk sac hematopoiesis, intravascularly

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9
Q

what are the three types of hemoglobin?

A

Gower-1, Gower-2 and portland

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10
Q

they are needed for delivery of oxygen to rapidly developing embryonic tissues?

A

Hemoglobin (Gower-1, gower -2 and portland)

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11
Q

what phase of hematopoiesis does the description fit into?
“it begins around the nineteenth day of embryonic development”

A

mesoblastic phase

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12
Q

what phase of hematopoiesis does the description fit into?
“ Early in embryonic development, cells from the mesoderm migrate to the yolk sac.”

A

Mesoblastic phase

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13
Q

it also known as within developing blood vessels

A

Intravascularly

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14
Q

what phase of hematopoiesis does the description fit into?
“begins at 5-7 gestational weeks and is characterized by recognizable clusters of developing erythroblasts, granulocytes and monocytes colonizing the fetal liver, thymus, spleen, placenta, and ultimately the bone marrow space in the final medullary phase.”

A

Hepatic phase

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15
Q

what phase of hematopoiesis does the description fit into?
“Hematopoiesis during this phase occurs extravascularly, with the liver remaining the major site of hematopoiesis during the second trimester of fetal life.”

A

Hepatic phase

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16
Q

the hepatic phase begins in _____________ (weeks )and is characterized by recognizable clusters of developing erythroblasts, granulocytes and monocytes colonizing the fetal liver, thymus, spleen, placenta, and ultimately the bone marrow space in the final medullary phase.”

A

5 -7 gestational weeks

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17
Q

in the hepatic phase, hematopoiesis occurs __________, with the liver remaining the major site of hematopoiesis during the __________ of fetal life.

A

extravascularly, second trimester

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18
Q

in the hepatic phase the _______, first fully developed organ in the fetus becomes the major site of T cell production whereas the _________ (organ) produce B cells.

A

Thymus, kidney and spleen

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19
Q

what phase of hematopoiesis does the description fit into?
“the thymus, the first fully developed organ in the fetus, becomes the major site of T cell production, whereas the kidney and spleen produce B cells.”

A

Hepatic phase

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20
Q

the ______________ signals the beginning of a definitive hematopoiesis with a decline in the primitive hematopoiesis in the yolk sac. In addition the ________ now begin to appear

A

developing erythroblasts, lymphoid cells

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21
Q

what organ produces T cells in the fetus stage?

A

Thymus

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22
Q

What organ produces B cells

A

kidney and spleen

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23
Q

what phase begins between the fourth and fifth month of fetal development?

A

Medullary phase or myeloid phase

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24
Q

in what phase does the description fit? “the hematopoietic activity of this stage is apparent of development and the myeloid-to-erythroid ratio gradually approaches 3:1 to 4:1 (normal adult levels)”

A

medullary phase (myeloid phase)

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25
"by the end of 24 weeks' gestation, the bone marrow becomes the primary site of hematopoiesis" what phase does the description fit?
Medullary (myeloid) phase
26
in what month does the medullary (myeloid) phase begin during fetal development?
fourth and fifth month
27
hematopoietic activity, especially ___________, is apparent during this stage of development and the ____________ ratio gradually approaches 3:1 to ________ (normal adult levels)
myeloid activity, myeloid-erythroid ratio, 4:1
28
myeloid-to-erythroid ratio of normal adult levels
4:1 ratio
29
in what week of gestation does the bone marrow become the primary site of hematopoiesis?
24 weeks' gestation
30
what happens during the 24 weeks' gestation period?
the bone marrow becomes the primary site of hematopoiesis
31
in adults, where does the hematopoietic tissue located?
bone marrow, lymph nodes, spleen, liver and thymus.
32
what does the bone marrow contain?
Developing erythroid, myeloid, megakaryocytic and lymphoid cells
33
where does the lymphoid development occur?
in the primary and secondary lymphoid tissue
34
the primary lymphoid tissue consists of the?
bone marrow, thymus and is where the t and b lymphocytes are derived
35
the secondary lymphoid tissue where lymphoid cells responds to foreign antigens consists of the?
spleen, lymph nodes and mucosa associated lymphoid tissues
36
a theory where it describes the origin of the hematopoietic progenitor cells
Stem cell theory
37
a theory where it suggests that all blood cells are derived from a single progenitor stem cell called pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell
monophyletic theory
38
the two theories of the stem cell theory?
Monophyletic theory polyphyletic theory
39
a theory where it suggests that each of the blood cell lineages is derived from its own unique stem cell. it is also noted as the most widely accepted theory among experimental hematologists.
polyphyletic theory
40
what does the monophyletic theory suggests?
a theory where it suggests that all blood cells are derived from a single progenitor stem cell called pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell
41
what does the polyphyletic theory suggests?
a theory where it suggests that each of the blood cell lineages is derived from its own unique stem cell. it is also noted as the most widely accepted theory among experimental hematologists.
42
in the monophyletic theory, what do you call the single progenitor stem cell that suggest the derivation of the all blood cells?
pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell
43
(of an immature or stem cell) capable of giving rise to several different cell types.
pluripotent
44
what are the two major types of morphologically unrecognizable progenitor cells?
uncommitted and committed hematopoietic stem cells
45
it occurs in the bone marrow and is a complex, regulated process for maintaining adequate number of erythrocytes in the peripheral blood.
Erythropoiesis
46
what are the two erythroid progenitors?
Burst forming unit - erythroid (BFU-E) Colony forming Unit - erythroid (CFU-E)
47
it is the earliest morphologically recognizable erythrocyte precursor in the bone marrow?
pronormoblast
48
meaning of CFU-GEMM?
Colony Forming Unit Granulocyte, Erythrocyte, Monocyte and Megakaryocyte
49
the CFU-GEMM gives raise to the earliest colony of RBCs called the _________.
Burst forming unity - Erythroid (BFU-E)
50
BFU-Es under the influence of interleukin GMCSF, PPO and Kitlygan will develop into?
Colony Forming Unit - Erythroid
51
serves as a differentiation factor for the CFU-Es and BFU-Es?
Erythropoiesis
52
they are named for their ability to form colonies on semi solid medium in culture experiments that enable the study of their characteristics and development.
Erythroid progenitors (BFU-E and CFU-E)
53
they are the earliest committed progenitor gives rise to the large colonies as they are capable multi subunits called burst
Burst forming unit - Erythroid (BFU-E)
54
what do you call the multi-subunits of a BFU-E?
burst
55
it gives rise to smaller colonies?
Colony forming unit - Erythroid
56
How many estimated days does the BFU-E to mature to become CFU-E and the CFU-E to become a pronormoblast?
1 week
57
it is derived from the BFU-E and CFU-E from pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells.
Pronormoblast
58
is similar to the other proliferation of the other cell lines. It is the process of encompassing replication, for example division, that increases cell numbers and development from immature to mature cell stages.
Normal blast proliferation
59
the pronormoblast can be divided to _______ and then it will be divided to the next stage ______.
basophilic, polychromatic normal blasts
60
What are the criteria used in identification of Erythroid Precursors?
diameter of the cell decreases diameter of the nucleus decreases more rapidly than the diameter of the cell nuclear chromatin pattern becomes coarser, clumped and condensed developing a rasp berry appearance The nucleus becomes quite condense with no parachromatin evident at all The nucleus is also said to be pyknotic nucleoli disappears cytoplasm changes from gray-blue to salmon pink
61
major function of the red blood cell?
carry oxygen from the lungs to the tissues acid base buffer
62
Appearance and characteristic of the RBC
biconcava in shape and distensible
63
is the first microscopically recognizable precursor cell in erythropoiesis it is aka Proerythroblast
pronormobalst
64
after mitosis the pronormoblast forms ?
two basophilic normoblast
65
is present only in the bone marrow in healthy states
pronormoblast
66
in the pronormoblast the nucleus to cytoplasm ratio is ?
8:1
67
describe the nucleus of the pronormoblast?
the nucleus is round to oval, containing one or two nucleoli. Has a purple red chromatin which is open and contains few, if any, fine clumps
68
describe the nucleus of the basophilic normoblast
the chromatin begins to condense, revealing clumps along the periphery of the nuclear membrane and a few in the interior
68
describe the nucleus of the basophilic normoblast
the chromatin begins to condense, revealing clumps along the periphery of the nuclear membrane and a few in the interior
69
describe the appearance of the cytoplasm of the pronormoblast
basophilic
70
describe the appearance of a basophilic normoblast?
deeply basophilic. Cytoplasm is dark blue because of the concentration of ribosomes and RNA
71
Ratio of NC of the Basophilic Normoblast
Moderate 6:1
72
when the basophilic normoblast undergoes mitosis it gives rise to _____________.
two daughter cells
73
what is detectable in the basophilic normoblast?
hemoglobin synthesis
74
the basophilic normoblast is present only in the _________________ during healthy states
bone marrow
75
describe the nucleus of the polychromatic normoblast?
the condensation of chromatin reduces the diameter of the nucleus considerably
76
describe the appearance of the polychromatic normoblast's cytoplasm
first stage in which the pink color can be seen as it is associated with the stained hemoglobin
77
NC ratio of polychromatic normoblast
Moderate
78
the last stage of polychromatic normoblast contains and is capable of ?
contains nucleus and is capable of mitosis
79
what is the orthromatic normoblast known as?
Metarubicyte
80
describe the appearance of the nucleus' metarubicyte?
the nuclues is completely condensed or pyknotic
81
describe the cytoplasm of the orthrochromatic normoblast?
pink gray (more pinkish) associated with nearly complete hemoglobin
82
what is the NC ratio of the othrochromatic normoblast ?
Low
83
it no longer is capable of division?
Orthochromatic normblast
84
what is the polychromatic erythrocyte is known as?
Reticulocyte
85
what is the polychromatic erythrocyte first precursor appearance?
anucleated
86
this erythropoiesis phase is where RNA synthesis stops while heme synthesis continues
Polychromatic erythrocyte
87
what does the polychromatic erythrocyte loses?
it loses its RNA and mitochondria
88
describe the appearance of the nucleus of the polychromatic erythrocyte
none
89
describe the cytoplasm of the reticulocyte?
pink gray or salmon pink. This stage is where the cell is the same color with the mature cell
90
where does the polychromatic erythrocyte reside? and how many days and where does it move?
resides in the bone marrow for about 1-2 days and moves into peripheral blood for about 1 day
91
what is the lifespan of the erythrocyte?
120 days
92
what is final phase of the erythropoiesis?
erythrocytes
93
it has no nucleus,mitochondira and endoplasmic reticulum
erythrocytes
94
describe the appearance of an erythrocyte
biconcave disc measuring in 7 - 8 "m in diameter with a thickness of 1.5 to 2.5 "m
95
describe the appearance of an erythrocyte when it is on a wright-stained blood film.
salmon pink stained cell with a central pale area that responds to the concavity of the cell. The central pallor is about one-third the diameter of the cell
96
what does the erythrocyte contain?
contains cytoplasmic enzymes capable of metabolizing glucose
97
it is the term describing the dynamics of the RBC production and destruction
erythrokinetics
98
it is the primary oxygen-sensing system of the body that is located in the peritubular fibroblasts.
kidney
99
it is the too little tissue oxygen which is detected by the peritubular fibroblasts.
hypoxia
100
it is the major stimulatory cytokine for RBC
erythropoietin
101
it directly stimulates erythropoiesis, which partially explains the higher hemoglobin concentration in men than in women.
testosterone
102
is a thermostable, nondialyzable, glycoprotein hormone with a molecular weight of 34 kD
Erythropoietin
103
is a true hormone, being produced at one location _________ and acting at a distant location __________.
kidney and bone marrow
104
initiates an intracellular message to the developing erythroid cells; this process is called __________
signal transduction
105
what are the three effects of the Erythropoietin?
early release of reticulocytes preventing apoptotic reducing the time
106
how many days in total if erythropoietin (reduction of time) is being activated in the blood ?
4 days in total
107
is the process of generating white blood cells from the pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells of the bone marrow.
Leukopoiesis
108
what are the two generate various types of leukocytes?
myelopoieisis and lymphopoiesis
109
it is where leukocytes in the blood are derived from MYLOID STEM CELLS
myelopoiesis
110
it is where lymphatic system (lymphocytes) are generated from lymphoid stem cells
lymphopoiesis
111
what are the factors that promote differentiation of the CFU-GEMM into neutrophils, monocytes, eosinophils and basophils?
GM-CSF (Granulocyte macrophage colony-stimulating factor), G-CSF , macrophage colony-stimulating factor (M-CSF), IL-3, IL-5 IL-11 and KIT ligand.
112
stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of the neutrophil and the macrophage colonies from the colony forming unit granulocyte and monocyte
GM-CSF
113
stimulates neutrophil differentiation and monocyte differentiation from the colony forming granulocyte or CFU-M
G-CSF and M-CSF (Macrohage colony-stimulating factory)
114
a multilineage stimulating factor, stimulates the growth of granulocytes, monocytes, megakaryocytes and reituring cells (?)
IL-3 (interleukin = IL)
115
what does the eosinophil require for differentiation?
GM-CSF, IL-3 and IL-5
116
the basophil differentiation requires?
IL-3 and KIT Ligand
117
growth factors that promote lymphoid differentiation requires?
IL -2, IL-7, IL -12, IL-15
118
occurs in the bone marrow where it shares a common progenitor with monocytes and distinct from eosinophils and basophils, known as the granulocytemonocyte progenitor
Neutrophil development
119
it is the major cytokine responsible for the stimulation of neutrophil production
granulocyte colony-stimulating factor
120
what are the three stem pools of developing neutrophils in the bone marrow
stem cell, proliferation, maturation
121
one of the three pools of the developing neutrophils in the bone marrow where it consists of HSCs that are capable of self-renewal and differentiation
stem cell pool
122
one of the three pools of the developing neutrophils in the bone marrow where it consists of cells that dividing and includes common myeloid progenitors (CMPs), CFUGEMMs, and granulocyte-monocyte progenitors
proliferation pool
123
one of the three pools of neutrophil development where consisting cells are undergoing nuclear maturation that form the marrow researve and are available for release: metamyelocytes, band neutrophils and segmented neutrophil.
maturation pool
124
it makes up to 0 to% to 3% of nucleated cells in the bone marrow and measure 14 to 20" m in diameter.
myeloblast
125
what makes up the percentage of the myeloblast of the nucleated cells in the bone marrow and what is its measurement in diameter?
0%- 3%, 14-20"m diameter
126
it is the first recognizable cell that begin the process of granulpoiesis or leukopoeisis
myeloblast
127
it is the earliest microscopically recognizable neutrophil precursor cell in the bone marrow
myeloblast
128
describe the myeloblast's nucleus?
large euchromatic spherical nucleus with three to five nucleoli
129
what is the volume of the myeloblast of nucleus to cytoplasmic?
Large
130
describe the staining characteristic of a myeloblast
the small amount of agranular cytoplasm stains intensely basophilic
131
the promyelocyte comprises _____________ of the nucleated cells in the bone marrow. it is relatively larger than the myeloblast cells and measure ______ in diameter. The nucleus is ______ and is often eccentric.
1-5% , 16-25"m in diameter. round to oval
132
what does the promyelocyte only produce?
azurophilic granules
133
what are the primary granules of the promyelocyte in the cytoplasm?
azurophilic granules
134
they are the first to exhibit specific granules
myelocytes
135
they are the last stage capable of mitosis in the leukopoiesis
myelocytes
136
the recognition of the myelocytes can be possible in the lines of? (3 types)
neutrophil, eosinophil and basophil
137
they are patches of grainy pale pink cytoplasm representing secondary granules begin to be evident in the area of the golgi apparatus.
neutrophil
138
what does the neutrophil been referred to as?
reffered to as the dawn of neutrophilia
139
is characterized by the presence of large pale, reddish orange secondary granules, along with azure granules in blue cytoplasm
eosinophil
140
the nucleas of the eosinophil is similar to the ________.
neutrophil myelocytes
141
it constitutes to 3% to 20% of nucleated marrow cells
metamyelocytes
142
this stage the cells are no longer capable of division and the major morphologic change is in shape of the nucleus
metamyelocyte
143
what is the shape of the nucleus of a meatmyelocyte and what is the appearance of its chromatin and nucleoli
indented (kidney bean shape) chromatin is clumped and nucleoli are absent
144
what synthesis may begin during the stage of the metamyelocyte?
synthesis of tertiary granules (aka gelatinase granules)
145
what is the size of the metamyelocyte?
14-16"m
146
what does the metamyelocyte's cytoplasm contain and what is the appearance of its basophilia?
very little residual of RNA and therefore little or no basophilia
147
it makes up 9% to 32% of nucleated marrow cells and 0% to 5% of the nucleated peripheral blood cells
band (stab) cells
148
all evidence of RNA (cytoplasmic basophilia) is absent and tertiary granules continue to be formed during this stage
band (stab) cell
149
in the band (stab) cell what may begin to form during this stage?
secretory granules
150
describe the appearance of the band (stab) cell's nucleus.
nucleus is highly clumped and nuclear indentation began in the metamyelocyte now exceeds one hald the diameter of the nucleus.
151
what percentage makes up the the band (stab) cell of the nucleated marrow cells?
9 - 32%
152
what percentage makes up the band (stab) cell of the nucleated peripheral blood cells
0-5%
153
what are the two mature granulocyte?
segmented neutrophils and mature eosinophils
154
in the mature granulocyte the segmented neutrophil makes up _________ of the nucleated cells in the bone marrow.
7-30%
155
what is the different between the segmented neutrophil and bands?
the presence of two and give nuclear lobes connected by a thread-like filaments
156
in the mature granulocyte, describe the appearance of its nucleus and cytoplasm.
segmented granulocyte has a presence of two to five nuclear lobes connected by a thread-like filament Mature eosinophils displayes a bilobed nucleos, its cytoplasm contains refractile, orange-red secondary granule
157
in the mature granulocyte, it usually displays a bilobed nucleus. Their cytoplasm contains characteristic refractile of orange-red secondary granules.
mature eosinophils
158
what are the functions of a neutrophil?
phagocytosis bactericidal activity move in a zigzag pattern in the presence of chemoattractant phagocytose a foreign particle bactericidal activity mediated by H2O2 superoxide anion, myeloperoxidase and free halogen important in the defense against infectious agents can cause tissue necrosis, tissue injury and inflamation
159
what are the functions of Eosinophils
modulate inflammatory response anthelmintic activity - generating oxidants and release cationic proteins granules contain major basic proteins
160
functions of the basophil
immediate hypersensitivity reactions
161
they appear to be larger than neutrophils (diameter of 15 to 20"m) because they tend to stick and spread out on glass or plastic
monocytes
162
what is the goal of the slightly immature monocytes?
their ultimate goal is to enter the tissues and mature into macrophages, osteoclasts or dendritic cells
163
describe the nucleus of the monocyte?
round, oval or kidney shaped or indented horsesshoe shaped
164
what is the chromatin pattern of a monocyte?
lace-like or stringy
165
describe the cytoplasm of the monocyte
ground glass appearance
166
how many days does the monocyte remain in circulation?
3 days
167
what is the other term of the mononuclear phagocyte system
reticuloendothelial system
168
what is the purpose of monocytes?
defense against microorganism, mycobacteria, fungi, protozoa and viruses
169
what do you call the monocyte when it migrates to the tissue?
histocytes or macrophages
170
what are the three divisions of lymphocytes?
t cellls, be cells and natural killer cells (NK)
171
they are the major players in adaptive immunity
T and B cells
172
makes up a small percentage of lymphocytes and are part of innate immunity
NK cells
173
what are the subdivisions of lymphocytes immunity?
humoral immunity and cellular immunity
174
is a subdivision of the lymphocyte where they are the producing antibodies
humoral immunity
175
is a subdivision of the lymphocyte where they respond by attacking foreign organisms or cells directly
cellular immunity
176
they are the antibody-producing lymphocytes and they develop in the bone marrow.
B- lymphocytes or B cells
177
cellular immunity is accomplished by two types of lymphocytes what are they?
T cells and NK cells
178
they are cells that are developed in the thymus?
t cells
179
they are developed in the bone marrow? it is a type of lymphocyte.
NK cells
180
where are the NK cells developed?
bone marrow and thymus
181
they are part of the innate immunity and are capable of killing certain tumor cells and virus infected cells without prior sensitization
NK lymphocytes
182
what is the function of the NK Lymphocytes?
capable of killing tumor cells and virus -infected cells without prior sensitization and it modulate the functions of other cells including macrophages and T cells
183
when stimulated the lymphocyte becomes?
they undergo mitosis and produce both memory and effector cells
184
lymphocytes _______ from the blood to the tissues and back to the blood
recirculate
185
they are capable of rearranging antigen receptor gene segments to produce a wide variety of antibodies and surface receptors.
B and T lymphocytes
186
where does the T and NK lymphocytes mature?
outside the bone marrow
187
what is the life span of the T-cells
months to years
188
what is the immunity of the T-cells possess?
cell mediated immunity
189
what is the immunity of the B-cells called?
humoral immunity
190
What cell does the B Cells produce?
plasma cells and produce antibodies
191
what is the population percentage of B-cells
10-20%
192
it is the process by which megakaryocytes and platelets develop?
megakaryopoiesis
193
it is the main site of production of TPO?
liver
194
it controls the production and release of platelets?
Hormonal factor TPO
195
in the megakarypoiesis, megakayocyte progenitors arise from the common myeloid progenitor under the influence of the transcription gene product called
GATA-1
196
in the megakaryopoiesis the GATA-1 is regulated by the____
FOG 1
197
megakaryocyte differentiation is suprressed by another transcription gene product ______
MYB
198
what is the order of differentiation of the megakaryopoiesis of the three megakaryocyte lineage-committed progenitor stages?
Least mature Burst-forming unit (BFU-Meg) intermediate Colonyforming unit (CFU-Meg) More mature progenitor, Light-density CFU (LD-CFU-Meg)
199
they are under the megakaryopoeisis where all three prgenior stages resemble lymphocytes. What are they?
Burst-forming unity Colony forming unit Light-density CFU
200
thrombocytopoiesis is also known as the?
platelet shedding
201
a single megakaryocyte may shed around how many platelets?
2000-4000 platelets
202
the platelet lifespan is over ?
8-9 days