Hemostasis Flashcards

1
Q

Hemostasis involves a complex, rapid, localized, integrated interaction between what four processes

A

blood vessels
platelets
coagualtion cascade
fibrinolysis

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2
Q

What are the four components of hemostasis activated by endothelial disruption

A

rapid vasoconstriciton
immediate platelet adherence to collagen
coagulation (intrinsic/extrinsic)
fibrnolysis via tPA

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3
Q

Platelets are formed by —–, where?

A

megakaryocytes in bone marrow

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4
Q

What is the normal platelet amount in plasma

A

150,000-300,000/uL

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5
Q

What is the platelet half-life

A

9-10 days

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6
Q

What three types of storage granules are released when platelet secretion occurs

A

alpha granules

dense granules

lysosomal vesicles

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7
Q

What are the four distinct functions of platelets in response to vascular damage

A

places seal over endothelium (maintains integrity)

stops initial bleeding via formation of platelet plugs

stabilizes platelet plug

promotes vascular healing

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8
Q

List the events of platelet adhesion

A

damaged endothelium with exposed collagen»factor VIII:vWF complex binds exposed collagen to platelet surface receptor (GP Ib)

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9
Q

List the three main events of platelet aggregation

A

damaged endothelim initiates coagulation

activation of platelets via dense granule release of ADP»>promotes platelet aggregation

platelet shape change, decreased cAMP activity»exposed GPIIb and GPIIIa receptors for fibrinogen binding sites (calcium dependent)

increased phosphoplipase activity»thromboxane A2 formation

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10
Q

What are the two pathways of the coagulation pathway that leads to fibrin formation

A

contact activation pathway (intrinsic)

tissue factor pathway (extrinsic)

*both pathways activate the COMMON FINAL pathway of FACTOR Xa

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11
Q

What are coagulation factors

A

serine proteases which act by cleaving downstream proteins

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12
Q

What are the four clotting factors with calcium-binding properties that are vitamin K dependent

A

II, VII, IX, X

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13
Q

What is factor IV

A

calcium ion

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14
Q

What test is used to measure the extrinsic pathway

A

PT

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15
Q

What test is used to measure the intrinsic pathway

A

PTT

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16
Q

What serine protease does factor Xa activate

A

Thrombin

*prothrombin»>thrombin

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17
Q

What serine protease does thrombin activate

A

Fibrin

*fibrinogen»>fibrin

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18
Q

What four biological mechanisms are in place to control excess coagulation

A

increased blood flow (washout excess factors)

antithrombin III via heparin induced activity

prostacyclin via inhibiting thromboxane A2

protein C activation»fibinolysis

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19
Q

What serine proteases does ATIII inhibit

A

IX, X, XI, XII

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20
Q

Plasminogen activation results in

A

formation of plasmin (serine protease) which lyse fibrin clots

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21
Q

How are the endogenous plasminogen activators classified

A

intrinsic and extrinsic

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22
Q

Name the three intrinsic plasminogen activators

A

factor XIIa

kallikrein

protein C

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23
Q

Name the two extrinsic plasminogen activators

A

tPa

urokinase

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24
Q

Name the two Exogenous plasminogen activators

A

streptokinase

rt-PA

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25
How is thrombin involved in fibrinolysis
thrombin in the presence of thrombomodulin activates protein C
26
What is the main MOA of protein C
inactivates the inhibitor of plasminogen activator *allows plasminogen>>>plasmin conversion
27
Plasmin has what effect on clots and platelets
lysis of clots (fibrin)>>fibrin split products * cleaves GP receptors
28
Heparin is classified as an
anticoagulant
29
What is the MOA of heparin
binds to ATIII causing a conformational change>>>1000X more potent ATIII inhibits IX, X, XII, XII clotting proteases by forming stable complexes with them
30
Heparin dosaging depends upon
the desired effect
31
The desired effect of heparin can be classifed as
partial heparinziation complete heparinization
32
partial heparinization is used in what type of procedure
vascular (CEA, AAA resections) dose generally 100 units/kg
33
Complete heparinization is used in what type of procedure
CPB dose generally 300-400 unis/kg
34
1 unit of heparin is equal to ____mg
1
35
Heparin follows zero order kinetics, what does this mean for how it is eliminated
a constant AMOUNT of drug is eliminated per unit of time>>>linear rate of elimination and NON-linear decrease in plasma concentration
36
What enzyme metabolizes heparin and where is it located
heparinase, located in the liver
37
What tests determine the degree of heparinization
PTT>>for low doses (1.5-2 times pre-heparin value) ACT>>for high doses (400-500 seconds)
38
What are the three SE of heparin administration
Hemorrhage Allergic rxn (beef/pork preparations) Thrombocytopenia (encourages clot formation)
39
Thrombocytopenia induced heparin administration is categorized as
mild thrombocytopenia Heparin-induced Thrombocytopenia and Thrombosis (HITT) syndrome
40
Mild thrombocytopenia caused by heparin results when
platelets drop below 100,000 *resolves on own
41
HITT syndrome caused by heparin results when
platelets drop below 50,000
42
HITT occurs do to the formation of
antibodies that attack platelets *large doses of heparin causes upregulation of platelets>>>antibodies attack platelets>>>increased activation>>>thrombosis and thrombocytopenia
43
Are patient's who receive heparin candidates for regional anesthesia
NOOO!!!!
44
Fractionated (LMWH) heparins display what type of activity
Antifactor Xa/Antifactor IIa * more pronounced AF Xa activity
45
What is a prototype of fractionated heparin
enoxaparin | "parins"
46
Factor Xa inhibitors are classifed as
direct indirect
47
Name one direct factor Xa inhibitor
Rivaro-Xa-ban *propphylactic prevention of VTE
48
Name one indirect factor Xa inhibitor
Fondaparinu-X *DVT prophylaxis
49
Name one Vitamin K antagonist
Warfarin
50
What is the MOA of Warfarin
nucleus of warfarin is similar to vitamin K so it binds to VK binding site preventing formation of calcium binding sites on clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X
51
Warfarin is administered
Orally ONLY
52
What is used to monitor effects of warfarin
PT *effective anticoagulation when PT is twice precoumadin PT
53
Name a class of drugs that are direct thrombin IIa inhibitors
"aTRoban" Argatroban
54
What are the three MOA of thrombin inhibitors (IIa)
direct thrombin inhibition inhibition of protein C (fibrinolysis) promotes NO release>>vasodilation
55
Name three common drugs used as procoagulants
protamine sulfate vitamin K conjugated estrogen
56
Protamine is a specific antagonist to
heparin
57
Protamine in the absence of heparin acts as a
anticoagulant
58
Why must protamine be administered slowly
causes histamine release>>>venodilation>>>decreased SVR
59
Protamine should not be given when
those taking protamine containing insulins allergic to fish males with vasectomy or infertility
60
What are the four classification of AntiPlatelet drugs
Cox inhibitors GP IIb/IIIa inhibitors PDE inhibitors ADP antagonists *given to patient's with too many platelets
61
Name an antiplatelet COX inhibitor
Aspirin *inhibits prostaglandin synthesis by irreversibly inhibiting COX I
62
Name three anitplatelet GP IIb/IIIa inhibitor
Tirofiban Eptifibatide Abcixmab
63
Name one antiplatelet PDE inhibitor
Dipyridamole
64
Name three antiplatelet ADP antagonists
Ticlopidine Clopidogrel Prasugrel
65
Name a drug that promotes platelet aggregation
Desmopression (DDAVP) *increases the release of factor VIII:vWF from vascular endothelium
66
Name three antifibrinolytics
E-Aminocaproic Acid (amicar) Tranexamic Acid Aprotinin
67
Antifibrinolytics should not be given to patients with
DIC
68
Name the classes of drugs classified as thrombolytics
"KINASE" | "TEPLASE"