Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Anatomy > iCAST > Flashcards

iCAST Flashcards

1
Q

what differentiated group of cells forms at the 8 cell stage of development?

A

inner cell mass/ embryoblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

if at the 8 cell stage the embryo splits into 2 groups of cells to form monozygotic twins how many placentas will develop?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the name of the opening at the end of the penis?

A

external urethral meatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the congenital malformation when the external urethral meatus is found on the underside of the penis?

A

hypospadias of glans penis/ penile shaft/ scrotum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the name of the surgical incision for a removal of the appendix?

A

McBurney’s incision at McBurney’s point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the anatomical landwards to determine where McBurney’s incision should be made?

A

lateral 1/3 of a line from the anterior superior iliac spine and the umbilicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what does hCG do?

A

sustains the corpus luteum so it can produce progesterone to keep the endometrium intact . After the 7th week of pregnancy the placenta takes over the role of the production of progesterone and the corpus luteum degenerates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what hormones are produced and released from the pituitary gland?

A 
only from anterior pituitary
growth hormone
prolactin
TSH
LH
FSH
adrencorticotropin  hormone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how does blood from the umbilical vein bypass the liver in the fetus?

A

blood is shunted through the ductus venosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

where are leydig cells found?

A

within the intersitium between seminiferous tubules. They secrete testosterone .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The development of which ductal system is promoted by testosterone?

A

mesonephric/ wolffian ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the surface anatomical landmarks for the spleen?

A

lies in the superolateral part of the left upper quadrant/ hypochondrium deep to the 9th/10th/11th ribs. Its long axis is parallel to the 10th rib and tip is posterior to the midaxillary line .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what structure runs through the mediastinum that is not a nerve or blood vessel?

A

thoracic duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is a lymph duct

A

a great lymphatic vessel that empties lymph into one of the subclavian veins .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what regions of the body does the thoracic duct drain?

A

all parts of the body except right side of head, neck, thorax and right upper limb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

which structures need to be cut through to perform a C section?

A

transversalis fascia
extraperitoneal fat
parietal peritoneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are the names of the incisions made for C sections?

A

Pfannenstiel

Bikini line incision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the name of the opening anterior to the vagina?

A

female external urethral meatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

if a patient reports pain on micturition what diagnostic tests would be performed?

A

test for nitrites with a urinary dipstick in a midstream urine sample . This would indicate the presence of bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

which ion channels open to facilitate exocytosis of insulin-containing vesicles?

A

voltage-gated calcium ion channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what obstetric emergency causes erb’s palsy?

A

shoulder dystocia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

where is the synapse in the motor neuron pathway located?

A

anterior/ ventral horn of spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

which hormones cause dilation of the cervix?

A

prostaglandins - PGE2

oxytocin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the name of the space found between the uterus and rectum?

A

rectouterine pouch/ pouch of douglas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what is the clinical significance of the pouch of douglas?
lowest point of the abdominal cavity thus fluid/ pus/ blood accumulates here during pelvic infection or bleeding
26
how is the pouch of douglas clinically examined?
digital rectal exam or bimanual digital vaginal exam
27
which clinical conditions would you see a swelling in the inguinal lymph nodes?
infection in the foot, leg, groin or superficial genitalia
28
in which clinical procedure is the sacral hiatus used?
caudal epidural block
29
what is found externally across the centre of the pelvic floor?
central perineal tendon
30
what are the cell types found in the lungs?
type 1 and 2 alveolar cells/ pneumocytes
31
what do type 1 alveolar cells do?
gas exchange
32
what do type 2 alveolar cells do?
surfactant secretion
33
what happens in respiratory distress syndrome?
type 2 pneumocytes don't produce enough surfactant to reduce the surface tension of the alveoli enough to allow for survival until after 26-28 weeks of gestation . Without sufficient surfactant the alveoli collapse causing difficulty in breathing .
34
what is the physiological effect of obstruction of the bronchi by viscid secretions seen in patients with cystic fibrosis?
bronchiectasis - permanent dilation of the bronchioles
35
which groups of neurons are located in the lateral horn of the spinal cord?
autonomic preganglionic neurons
36
what muscles does the recurrent laryngeal nerve innervate?
all the muscles of the larynx except the cricothyroid which is innervated by the superior laryngeal nerve
37
which of the recurrent laryngeal nerves are most likely to be damaged?
left because it has a longer course, extending down into the chest and loops under the aortic arch up to the larynx
38
what does the corpus luteum do?
produces progesterone which is responsible for decidualisation/ development and maintenance of the endometrium
39
which lymph nodes drain the labia majora?
superficial inguinal lymph nodes
40
what vertebral level is the tail of the pancreas found?
L1
41
what causes beta cells to depolarise in response to increased glucose concentration?
ATP generated by cellular respiration blocks potassium channels and prevents efflux of potassium ions
42
what does the pudendal nerve supply?
levator ani
43
what structure acts as an anatomical landmark for the nerve block of the pudendal nerve?
ischial spine
44
what are the nerve roots of the pudendal nerve?
S2-4
45
pain fibres for the uterus and cervix
pain from the body and fundus enter CNS via sympathetic fibres to T11/12 - L2 so pain is felt in the back pain from cervix enters the CNS via parasympathetic fibres to S2-4 so pain is felt in the perineum
46
where is dense regular connective tissue found?
tendons, collagen fibres are stained pink
47
how can pacinian corpuscles be tested?
vibration - tuning fork
48
what is the most likely pathology that affects the pacinian corpuscle?
diabetes - peripheral neuropathy
49
what are the ducts in the breast?
lactiferous duct
50
where is prolactin produced?
anterior pituitary
51
how and where is prolactin release inhibited?
inhibition by dopaminergic neurons in the hypothalamus
52
which hormones are involved in regulation of blood pressure?
mineralocorticoids
53
where are mineralocorticoids released?
zona glomerulosa
54
what is the surface landmark of the right horizontal fissure?
rib 4
55
how to describe the location of a breast lump?
``` left or right upper or lower quadrant medial or lateral quadrant location on clock face how far from the areola ```
56
what structure might a deep cancer of the breast become fixed?
pectoralis major muscle
57
what are the 2 component parts of the placenta?
chorion frondosum and decidua basalis
58
chorion frondosum
fetal placenta
59
decidua basalis
maternal placenta
60
across which layer of the placenta does the transfer of nutrients from maternal to fetal blood occur?
syncytiotrophoblastic layer
61
what are the components of the triple assessment of a breast lump?
clinical examination imaging - mammogram or ultrasound tissue analysis - biopsy or fine needle aspiration
62
what is the anatomical landmark for the hyoid bone?
C3
63
what is the anatomical landmark for the upper border of the thyroid cartilage?
C4
64
what is the anatomical landmark for the cricoid cartilage?
C6
65
what is the anatomical landmark for the junction of pharynx and oesophagus?
C6
66
what innervates the sweat glands?
sympathetic fibres
67
what neurotransmitter and receptor mediate the control of the action of sweat glands?
acetylcholine and muscarinic 3 - M3 receptor
68
where are the ovaries located?
behind the uterus, held by the broad ligament
69
where does the ovarian vein drain into?
renal vein
70
A woman had irregular periods that lasted for a couple of years and stopped all together 6 months ago. Blood tests reveal an elevated FSH and LH and decreased levels of AMH and oestradiol. What is the most likely cause of her amenorrhea?
premature ovarian failure/ menopause classified as hypergonatrophic hypogonadism reduction in AMH and oestradiol indicates issues with ovaries
71
secondary amenorrhea
periods since puberty but have since stopped
72
at what vertebral level is the carina located?
T4/5 | sternal angle
73
what respiratory epithelial lining is found at the carina level?
pseudo-stratified ciliated columnar epithelial cells and goblet cells
74
which lymph nodes drain the axillary tail of the breast?
axillary lymph nodes
75
why can patients appear cyanosed when pulse oximetry tests indicate O2 saturation of 80%
pulse oximetry measures O2 sats in arterial blood . Cyanosis presents when deoxyhaemoglobin levels reach 5g/dL in capillary blood. 5g/dL deoxyHb is equivalent to 67% O2 saturation because the Hb-O2 curve is shifted to the right in capillary blood so equates to approx 80% O2 sats in arterial blood .
76
what is it called when there is a transient increase in blood flow to a tissue or organ following a TIA?
reactive hyperaemia

Anatomy (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions