Medsoc mock Flashcards

(74 cards)

1
Q

what does the ulnar nerve do?

A

flexes the forearm

flexes metacarpophalangeal joints and extends interphalangeal joints

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2
Q

what does vitamin D do?

A

increase calcium and phosphate levels as it build bone matrix

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3
Q

what are the 3 stages of bone fracture repair?

A

reactive
reparative
remodelling

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4
Q

reactive stage

A

vessels break and clotting factors cause haematoma to form

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5
Q

reparative stage

A

fibrocartilage starts to form and joins parts of bone together - spongy callus
cortical bone replaces fibrocartilage to join the parts of the bones - blood vessels heal and bony callus forms

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6
Q

remodelling stage

A

osteoclasts and osteoblasts work to smooth out the bone

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7
Q

which dermatome is the medial part of the arm?

A

T1

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8
Q

what do Pili do?

A

allow cells to stick to surfaces

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9
Q

what does smooth ER do?

A

synthesises and stores fats

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10
Q

what does rough ER do?

A

synthesises and stores proteins

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11
Q

muscle cramp

A

involuntary tetanic muscle contraction

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12
Q

muscle spasm

A

sudden and involuntary transient muscle contraction

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13
Q

what happens when the action potential reaches the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

A

the action potential causes the L type calcium ion channel/ receptor to open and allow calcium ions in, which then bind to RYRs on sarcoplasmic reticulum, causing them to open and allow more calcium in

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14
Q

what do proteins contribute to?

A

oncotic pressure

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15
Q

what do electrolytes contribute to?

A

osmotic pressure

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16
Q

what is osmolarity

A

number of particles of solute in 1L of solution

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17
Q

osmolality

A

concentration of solute in 1Kg of solution

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18
Q

what does the alpha 1 adrenergic receptor do?

A

vasoconstriction of arterioles, dilation of pupils, inhibits saliva, inhibits peristalsis and inhibits bladder - prevents urine loss

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19
Q

where is the coronoid process found?

A

ulna

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20
Q

barton fracture

A

radius moves anterior or posterior with dislocation of radiocarpal joint
pain and swelling of wrist

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21
Q

chauffer fracture

A

fracture of radial styloid process - pain on wrist

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22
Q

what is the pathophysiology of myasthenia gravis?

A

autoimmune destruction of nAChR on post synaptic membrane

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23
Q

symptoms of myasthenia gravis

A
ptosis
muscle weakness - gowers sign 
dysarthria - slurred speech 
dyshphagia 
diplopia
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24
Q

what is the pathphysiology of organophosphate poisoning?

A

inhibits AChE

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25
symptoms of organophosphate poisoning
``` salivation lacrimation urination diarrhoea GI distress emesis ```
26
cranial region of parasympathetic NS
cranial nerves = 10,9,7,3
27
where do the cranial and sacral regions of parasympathetic NS meet?
transverse colon
28
what adrenoreceptors have a greater affinity for adrenaline than noradrenaline?
Beta 1 and 2
29
which adrenoreceptors have a greater affinity for noradrenaline?
alpha 1,2 and beta 3
30
what do astrocytes do?
BBB | involved in homeostasis and communication - biochemical
31
what does microglia do?
macrophage of NS and produces growth factors
32
cold receptors
myelinated large A delta fibres
33
warm receptors
unmyelinated C fibres
34
proprioceptors?
muscle spindles tendon organs joint receptors
35
nominal aphasia
left inferior parietal lobe - type of brocas dysphasia | able to understand - difficulty selective words with similar phonetic sounds
36
dysarthria
slurred speech cerebellar lesion - uncoordinated basal ganglia lesion - monotonous motor lesion - upper or lower or basal ganglia or cerebellum
37
dysphonia
vocal cords RLN Gullain-Barre weak/ hoarse voice
38
bovine cough
vagus nerve lesion | dysphonia
39
IC50
concentration of inhibitor needed to reduce response of drug by 50%
40
EC50
concentration of drug needed to reach half the maximal response
41
what nerve supplies taste to anterior 2/3rds of tongue?
facial
42
what causes eye to move down and out?
oculomotor nerve palsy, along with diplopia and ptosis
43
what causes diplopia when looking down, head tilt, eye moves up and in?
trochlear nerve palsy
44
what causes diplopia, eye converges - inwards and down?
abducens nerve palsy
45
what causes bilateral hemianopia?
optic chiasm lesion
46
what does optic chiasm lesion cause?
bilateral hemianopia
47
what controls sweating?
sympathetic NS
48
what receptor controls sweating?
M3
49
what does the thoracic duct start with?
cisterna chyli
50
cisterna chyli
lymph from 2 lumbar and intestinal trunks flow to get to thoracic duct
51
what is found on the surface of mast cells?
IgE antibodies
52
what type of hypersensitivty is graves disease?
2 - IgG
53
what is a hypersensitivity reaction?
allergies | autoimmunity
54
which cells contain a MHC 1 receptor
somatic cells | except cells that have no nucleus
55
what are antigen presenting cells?
DCs macrophages B cells
56
TH1
viral
57
TH2
bacterial
58
which part of the antibody attaches to epitope?
paratope
59
what is an epitope?
part of antigen that antibody attaches to
60
what is the constant region?
Fc region
61
which antibody exists as dimer?
IgA
62
how long does it take for adaptive immune system to respond?
4-7 days - 5
63
what do C3a and C5a do?
peptide mediators of inflammation | recruit phagocytes
64
what does C3b do?
binds to complement receptors on phagocytes | opsonises
65
what do C5b, C6,7,8 and 9 do?
membrane attack complex - lysis of pathogens and cells
66
what gives rise to the lungs?
endoderm
67
where is oestrogen produced?
ovaries or placenta
68
what hormone drops of before birth and after?
progesterone before and oestrogen after
69
what does progesterone do?
inhibits contractions | stimulates formation of cervical plug
70
cushings disease
tumour in pituitary causing increase in corticotropin an d so increased cortisol production
71
symptoms of cushings disease
``` muscle weakness easy bruising reduced vision - bilateral hemianopia central weight gain thin skin fat pads between shoulders red cheeks moon face ```
72
why must pregnant women not take NSAIDs?
inhibits PGE2 which keeps shunts - ducts open in fetal circulation
73
what is hashimoto's disease?
hypothyroidism - increased TSH and lower T3 and T4 autoimmune attack of thyroid type 4 hypersensitivty
74
graves disease
autoantibodies increase thyroid stimulation low TSH and high T3 and 4 type 2 hypersensitvity