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Gen Pathology- PCCF tri 2 > immune disorders - exam 3 > Flashcards

immune disorders - exam 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

What main cells are involved in the immune system?

A

Macrophages, basophils, lymphocytes, eosinophils, neutrophils, dendritic cells, natural killer cells

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2
Q

Macrophages in the sinusoids of the liver are called?

A

kupffer cells

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3
Q

Macrophages in the lung are called?

A

alveolar macrophages

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4
Q

Macrophages in the skin are called?

A

histiocytes

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5
Q

Macrophages in the brain are called?

A

microglial cells

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6
Q

Macrophages in bone are called?

A

osteoclasts

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7
Q

Which white blood cells are involved in allergic reactions?

A

Eosinophils + basophils

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8
Q

Which cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity?

A

t lymphocytes

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9
Q

Which cells are involved in humoral immunity?

A

B lymphocytes

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10
Q

Which cells produce immunoglobulins?

A

b lymphocytes

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11
Q

What is the function of dendritic cells?

A

Grab a hold of protein antigens and present them to the lymph nodes

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12
Q

Which immunoglobulin is elevated in people with allergies?

A

IgE

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13
Q

Which immunoglobulin is the most abundant in the circulation?

A

IgG

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14
Q

Which immunoglobulin plays an important role in neutralizing dietary antigens?

A

IgA

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15
Q

Which type of immunity involves a previous exposure to an antigen and involve lymphocytes?

A

Non-specific immunity

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16
Q

What are 4 types of hypersensitivity reactions?

A

type 1: allergies/anaphylaxis
type 2: cytotoxic
type 3: immune complex
type 4: delayed

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17
Q

Which immunoglobulin is produced in a Type I hypersensitivity reaction?

A

IgE

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18
Q

What is involved in a Type II hypersensitivity reaction?

A

IgG + IgM

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19
Q

Which Type II hypersensitivity reaction can result in Erythroblastosis fetalis?

A

Rh incompatibility

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20
Q

Which condition is confirmed by a positive Tensilon test?

A

myasthenia gravis

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21
Q

Which neurotransmitter activity is blocked in a 38-year-old female who presents with muscle fatigue and weakness and bilateral ptosis?

A

myasthenia gravis

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22
Q

Which immunoglobulin forms a complex with an antigen (the body itself) in a Type III hypersensitivity reaction?

A

IgG

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23
Q

Smoky urine and red blood cell casts are urinalysis findings in which Type III hypersensitivity reaction that commonly affects children?

A

Glomerulonephritis/nephritic syndrome

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24
Q

Which autoimmune disease, which features a malar rash in 50% of patients, is diagnosed on a laboratory test with Anti-ds DNA antibodies?

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus

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25
What is the most common cardiac manifestation in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus?
pericardial effusion
26
What is the pathogenesis of Scleroderma?
CD4+ stimulates the release of fibroblast growth factors with excessive collagen production
27
What is the pathogenesis of Sjogren’s syndrome?
CD4+ + B cells are involved in lymphatic infiltration of the lacrimal + salivary glands
28
What are examples of a Type IV hypersensitivity reaction?
Poison ivy reactions, Mantoux test for TB, transplant reactions, sarcoidosis, diabetes mellitus type 1, multiple sclerosis, Guillain-barre syndrome
29
Transplanted organs in a host usually elicit which type of cell reactions?
t + b cells
30
What are the 3 types of transplant rejection reactions?
Hyperacute, acute, chronic
31
What is the amount of time for the host to react to the graft tissue or organ in hyperacute rejection reactions?
minutes/hours
32
What is the amount of time for the host to react to the graft tissue or organ in acute rejection reactions?
days/weeks/months
33
What is the amount of time for the host to react to the graft tissue or organ in chronic rejection reactions?
months to years
34
What is the mechanism of how hyperacute reactions occur
IgG antibodies react against donor’s antigens due to blood type/HLA incompatibility
35
What is the mechanism of how acute reactions occur
mediated by antibodies or lymphocytes
36
What is the mechanism of how chronic reactions occur
chronic low immune response that is mediated by t-cells + antibodies
37
What are key features of each of hyperacute transplant rejections?
thrombosis + necrosis
38
What are key features of each of acute transplant rejections?
endothelial damage, lymphocytic infiltrate, vasculitis
39
What are key features of each of chronic transplant rejections?
fibrosis, narrowing of vessels, progressive organ failure
40
What type of hypersensitivity reaction are hyperacute transplant rejections?
type II
41
What type of hypersensitivity reaction are acute transplant rejections?
type IV
42
What type of hypersensitivity reaction are chronic transplant rejections?
type III + IV
43
Obliterative vasculitis is seen in which type of transplant rejections?
acute rejection
44
Which type of transplant is usually causing a graft vs host reaction?
bone marrow transplants
45
Which cells are most affected in a graft vs host reaction?
t lymphocytes
46
What are examples of congenital immune deficiency syndromes?
Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia, DiGeorge syndrome, severe combined immune deficiency
47
What is the pathogenesis of Bruton’s Agammaglobulinemia?
Recurrent bacterial infections
48
What is the pathological hallmark of Bruton’s Agammaglobulinemia?
Absent germinal centers in lymph nodes
49
Which congenital immune deficiency syndrome is characterized by a missing gene on chromosome 22?
DiGeorge syndrome
50
Which congenital immune deficiency syndrome is characterized by deficiencies in both T and B cells?
Severe combined immune deficiency
51
What is the most common acquired type of immune deficiency in adults?
Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
52
modes of transmission of the HIV virus
unprotected sex, contaminated needles, contaminated blood products, mother to fetus
53
What are major abnormalities in AIDS?
Lymphopenia, decreased t-cell function, altered monocyte/macrophage function, decreased immunoglobulin production
54
True or False. HIV is associated with lymphocytosis.
false
55
What are the 4 phases of AIDS
phase 1, phase 2, phase 3, phase 4
56
phase 1 of AIDS characteristics
2-4 weeks, flu-like symptoms
57
phase 2 of AIDS characteristics
latent phase, asymptomatic, CD4 count normal, patient feels fine
58
phase 3 of AIDS characteristics
late phase, falling CD4 count, persistent lymphadenopathy
59
phase 4 of AIDS characteristics
fully AIDS now, tumors, opportunistic infections, final crisis, CD4 less than 200 cells/mm3
60
Which phase of AIDS is characterized by a patient who is asymptomatic?
phase 2
61
Which phase in AIDS is characterized by a CD4 cell count below 200 cells/mm3
phase 4
62
Which tests confirm the diagnosis of AIDS?
western blot test
63
What type of tumors can develop as a complication of AIDS?
Kaposi sarcoma, lymphoma, invasive cervical carcinoma
64
Infections by pneumocystis jirovecii (fungus) + tuberculosis (bacteria) (opportunistic organisms) affect which organ systems in an AIDS patient?
lung
65
Infections by toxoplasma gondii (protozoa) + cryptococcus neoformans (fungus) (opportunistic organisms) affect which organ systems in an AIDS patient?
CNS/brain
66
Infections by cryptosporidium parvum (protozoa) + candida albicans (fungus) (opportunistic organisms) affect which organ systems in an AIDS patient?
GI
67
Infections by cytomegalovirus, varicella zoster, coccidioidomycosis (fungus) (opportunistic organisms) affect which organ systems in an AIDS patient?
widespread/disseminated

Gen Pathology- PCCF tri 2 (8 decks)

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